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for
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER - 2
PART-I : PHYSICS
1
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
1. Three glass cylinders of equal height H = 30 cm and same refractive index n = 1.5 are placed on a
horizontal surface as shown in figure. Cylinder I has a flat top, cylinder II has a convex top and cylinder
III has a concave top. The radii of curvature of the two curved tops are same (R = 3 m). If H1, H2, and
H3 are the apparent depths of a point X on the bottom of the three cylinders, respectively, the correct
statement(s) is/are:
I II III
H H H
X X X
(A) 0.8 cm < (H2 – H1) < 0.9 cm (B) H2 > H3
(C) H3 > H1 (D) H2 > H1
Answer (B, D)
H1
H 30 2
Sol. Case I H1 20 cm (below)
3
H O
O 1 3 1 1.5
Case II
V 2H R
O
1 1 1 1 1 1
V 20 2 300 V 600 20
1 29 600
H2 20.68 cm (below)
V 600 29
O
1 3 1 1 1 1
Case III
V 2H 2 300 V 600 20
1 31 600
H3 19.35 cm
V 600 31
H2 – H1 20.68 – 20 0.68
H2 > H1 and H2 > H3
But H1 > H3
2
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
2. A thin and uniform rod of mass M and length L is held vertical on a floor with large friction. The rod
is released from rest so that it falls by rotating about its contact-point with the floor without slipping.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct, when the rod makes an angle 60° with vertical ?
[g is the acceleration due to gravity]
2g
(A) The angular acceleration of the rod will be
L
3g
(B) The radial acceleration of the rod’s center of mass will be
4
3g
(C) The angular speed of the rod will be
2L
Mg
(D) The normal reaction force from the floor on the rod will be
16
Answer (B, C, D)
Sol. By applying conservation of energy (As the friction is acting at the point of no slipping)
Mgl
1 cos60 1 I0 2 m, l
2 2
3g Ml2 60°
I0
2l 3
l O
Also 0 Mg sin60 I0
2 3g
3g 3
8
= 4
2
3 3g l l =
60° aR
= 2
aT
= 2
4l
For CM of the rod Also
O Mg – N = May
ay aT sin60 aR cos60 N = Mg
16
l 2l
sin60 cos60
2 2
3 3 3g 3g l 1
4 4 2l 2 2
9 3 15g
g
16 8 16
3. A free hydrogen atom after absorbing a photon of wavelength a gets excited from the state n = 1 to
the state n = 4. Immediately after that the electron jumps to n = m state by emitting a photon of
wavelength e. Let the change in momentum of atom due to the absorption and the emission are pa
1
and pe, respectively. If a / e , which of the option(s) is/are correct?
5
[Use hc = 1242 eV nm; 1 nm = 10–9 m, h and c are Planck’s constant and speed of light, respectively]
(A) e = 418 nm
1
(B) pa / pe
2
1
(C) The ratio of kinetic energy of the electron in the state n = m to the state n = 1 is
4
(D) m = 2
Answer (C, D)
3
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
hc hc
Sol. E 4 E1 and E 4 Em
a e
(E 4 E1) (E Em )
pa and pe 4
c c
1 1
a (E 4 Em ) 1 m2 16
e E 4 E1 5 15
16
15 1 1 1 1
m2
16 5 m 2 16 2 4
m
pa E 4 E1 15 16
5
pe E 4 Em 16 3
hc 3 1242 16
13.6 eV nm = e 487 nm
e 16 3 13.6
4. A block of mass 2M is attached to a massless spring with spring-constant k. This block is connected
to two other blocks of masses M and 2M using two massless pulleys and strings. The accelerations of
the blocks are a1, a2 and a3 as shown in the figure. The system is released from rest with the spring
in its unstretched state. The maximum extension of the spring is x0. Which of the following option(s)
is/are correct?
[g is the acceleration due to gravity. Neglect friction]
2M
a1
a2
a3
M
2M
x0
(A) At an extension of of the spring, the magnitude of acceleration of the block connected to the
4
3g
spring is
10
4 Mg
(B) x0
k
(C) a2 a1 a1 a3
x0
(D) When spring achieves an extension of for the first time, the speed of the block connected to
2
M
the spring is 3g
5k
Answer (C)
Sol. Using constraint relation
a1
2M
a2
M
a3
2M
4
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
2a1 = a2 + a3
a1 – a3 = a2 – a1
Also
2mg – T = 2ma3 ...(1)
mg – T = ma2 ...(2)
and 2T – kx = 2ma1 ...(3)
x0 4mg
For x
4 3k
4g 2g 2g
a1 –
7 7 7
for the oscillation of mass '2m' (at mean position)
8mg
a1 = 0 x (Amplitude)
3k
16mg 3k
x0 2A also
3k 14m
Also v x0 A
at x (mean)
2
x0 3k 8mg 3k
2 14m 3k 14m
p0
5. An electric dipole with dipole moment i j is held fixed at the origin O in the presence of an
2
uniform electric field of magnitude E0. If the potential is constant on a circle of radius R centered at
the origin as shown in figure, then the correct statement(s) is/are:
(0 is permittivity of free space. R >> dipole size)
y
B A
45° 45°
O x
R
(A) Total electric field at point B is EB 0
(B) Total electric field at point A is EA 2E0 i j
1/3
p0
(C) R
4 E
0 0
(D) The magnitude of total electric field on any two points of the circle will be same.
Answer (A, C)
5
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
E0
B A
Sol.
E eq
p
B
A
p
E0 external field in the direction of p 0 i j for an equipotential circle of radius r point B is the
2
point (equitorial) of the dipole.
kp0
So E0
R3
1/3 1/3
kp p0 2kp
R 0 & EA 3 E0 3E0
E0 4 E
0 0 R
Also EB = 0
6. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the slit separation d is 0.3 mm and the screen distance D is 1 m.
A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident on the slits at angle as shown in figure.
On the screen, the point O is equidistant from the slits and distance PO is 11.0 mm. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
screen
y
P
d x
O
D
0.36
(A) For degree, there will be destructive interference at point P.
(B) Fringe spacing depends on .
(C) For = 0, there will be constructive interference at point P.
0.36
(D) For degree, there will be destructive interference at point O.
Answer (A)
Sol. Total geometric path difference for point P is
P
yd
x dsin
D S1
For option (A)
d
O
0.36
degree, then x = 3900 nm
S2
D=1m
or (2n 1) x (for destructive interference) d = 0.3 mm and OP = 11 mm
2 –7
= 600 nm = 6 × 10 m
n=7
6
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
0.36
If degree
Then x0 = d = 600 nm
or x0 = n (for n = 1)
(Constructive interference)
For option (C)
yd
x0 = 0 and 3300 nm
D
as ( = 0) (destructive interference at P)
Fringe width in all the above case remain unchanged.
7. A small particle of mass m moving inside a heavy, hollow and straight tube along the tube axis
undergoes elastic collision at two ends. The tube has no friction and it is closed at one end by a flat
surface while the other end is fitted with a heavy movable flat piston as shown in figure. When the
distance of the piston from closed end is L = L0 the particle speed is v = v0. The piston is moved inward
dL
at a very low speed V such that V v0 , where dL is the infinitesimal displacement of the piston.
L
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
v
L
dL
(A) If the piston moves inward by dL, the particle speed increases by 2v
L
(B) The particle’s kinetic energy increases by a factor of 4 when the piston is moved inward from L0
1
to L0
2
(C) After each collision with the piston, the particle speed increases by 2V
v
(D) The rate at which the particle strikes the piston
L
Answer (B, C)
Sol. Initial velocity of particle is v = v0
And distance of piston x = L0
dx is (–ve)
x V
dx
Vdt = –dx(distance moved by piston)
dx
dt
V
2x
Collision time for 'm' dt
V
7
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
V V dx
No. of collision for sec n Total number of collision is dt is N
2n 2x V
Change in speed per collision is 2V
vdx
Total change in speed for 'dx' shifting is dv · 2V
2xV
Vdx v dL
| dV | At x L, | dV | 0
x L
dV V
Now, = –dx ln = ln2 V = 2V0
V V0
KE increases by 4 times.
8. A mixture of ideal gas containing 5 moles of monatomic gas and 1 mole of rigid diatomic gas is initially
at pressure P0, volume V0, and temperature T0. If the gas mixture is adiabatically compressed to a
volume V0/4, then the correct statement(s) is/are, (Given 21.2 = 2.3; 23.2 = 9.2; R is gas constant)
(A) The work |W| done during the process is 13RT0
(B) The final pressure of the gas mixture after compression is in between 9P0 and 10P0
(C) Adiabatic constant of the gas mixture is 1.6
(D) The average kinetic energy of the gas mixture after compression is in between 18RT0 and 19RT0
Answer (A, B, C)
5R 7R
5
2 2 8 1.6
Sol. mixture
3R 5R 5
5 1
2 2
V0
P0 V0 9.2 P0
W 4 13P0 V0
1 6
PV
T T0 2.3 T0
P0 V0
n1CV1 n2 CV2 5R
Also, (CV )mixture
n1 n2 3
5R
6 2.3T0
3
= 23RT0
8
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
1. Suppose a 226
88 Ra nucleus at rest and in ground state undergoes -decay to a 222
86 Rn nucleus in its
excited state. The kinetic energy of the emitted particle is found to be 4.44 MeV. 222
86 Rn nucleus then
goes to its ground state by -decay. The energy of the emitted photon is _______ keV.
[Given: atomic mass of 226
88 Ra = 226.005 u, atomic mass of 222
86 Rn = 222.000 u, atomic mass of particle
= 4.000 u, 1 u = 931 MeV/c2, c is speed of the light]
Answer (135.00)
S o l . m = [226.005 – 222 – 4]
= 0.005 amu
Q =mc2
4.44 4
KRn = 0.08 MeV
222
Air
75°
n
n0 3
Answer (1.50)
S o l . For TIR at other face.
n
sin c
3
9
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
1
sin(75 c )
2
c 45
1 n
2 3
3
n
2
3
n2 1.5
2
3. An optical bench has 1.5 m long scale having four equal divisions in each cm. While measuring the
focal length of a convex lens, the lens is kept at 75 cm mark of the scale and the object pin is kept at
45 cm mark. The image of the object pin on the other side of the lens overlaps with image pin that is
kept at 135 cm mark. In this experiment, the percentage error in the measurement of the focal length
of the lens is _______.
Answer (1.38/1.39)
Sol.
45 60
O I
75
|u| = x2 – x1 = 30 cm
|v| = 60 cm
v = 0.05 cm
1 1 1
v u f
f = 20 cm
dv du df
v2 u2 f 2
1 1 1
400 df
2 3600 900
% error = 1.38 or 1.39
10
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
4. A 10 cm long perfectly conducting wire PQ is moving with a velocity 1 cm/s on a pair of horizontal rails
of zero resistance. One side of the rails is connected to an inductor L = 1 mH and a resistance
R = 1 as shown in figure. The horizontal rails, L and R lie in the same plane with a uniform magnetic
field B = 1 T perpendicular to the plane. If the key S is closed at certain instant, the current in the
circuit after 1 millisecond is x × 10–3 A, where the value of x is ______.
[Assume the velocity of wire PQ remains constant (1 cm/s) after key S is closed. Given: e–1 = 0.37,
where e is base of the natural logarithm]
B P
1 cm/s
S Q
Answer (0.63)
P
Sol.
L
1 cm/s
S Q
1 1
vB 1 1 103 volt
100 10
L 1 103
103 sec
R 1
i = l0(1 – e–t/)
103
i (1 e 1)
1
Answer (4.00)
R
Sol. V
T
11
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
2 2 1 1
R u0 (sin cos ) 1 2 4 ...
g
2u0 1 1
T sin 1 2 ...
g
1
u0 cos
1
1 2
0.8 V1
1
u0
1
1
= 4.00
6. A perfectly reflecting mirror of mass M mounted on a spring constitutes a spring-mass system of
4 M
angular frequency such that = 1024 m–2 with h as Planck’s constant, N photons of wavelength
h
= 8 × 10 –6 m strike the mirror simultaneously at normal incidence such that the mirror gets
displaced by 1 m. If the value of N is x × 1012, then the value of x is _______.
[Consider the spring as massless]
Light
Mirror
Answer (1.00)
Sol.
Light
Mirror
2 Nh
p
h 1024
Given
4 m
2 Nh
V0
M
V0 = A (A = 1 m)
12
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
1. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
A musical instrument is made using four different metal strings. 1, 2, 3 and 4 with mass per unit length
, 2, 3 and 4 respectively. The instrument is played by vibrating the strings by varying the free length
in between the range L0 and 2L0. It is found that in string-1 () at free length L0 and tension T0 the
fundamental mode frequency is f0.
List-I gives the above four strings while List-II lists the magnitude of some quantity.
List-I List-II
(I) String-1 () (P) 1
(II) String-2 (2) (Q) 1/2
(III) String-3 (3) (R) 1/ 2
(IV) String-4 (4) (S) 1/ 3
(T) 3/16
(U) 1/16
If the tension in each string is T0, the correct match for the highest fundamental frequency in f0 units
will be,
(A) I P, II R, III S, IV Q
(B) I Q, II P, III R, IV T
(C) I Q, II S, III R, IV P
(D) I P, II Q, III T, IV S
Answer (A)
1 T0
Sol. (1) f0
2L0
1 T0
(2) f1
2L0 2
13
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
1 T0
(3) f2
2L0 3
1 T0
(4) f3
2L0 4
(T) 3/16
(U) 1/16
3L0 5L0 7L
The length of the strings 1, 2, 3 and 4 are kept fixed at L0 , , and 0 respectively. Strings 1, 2,
2 4 4
3 and 4 are vibrated at their 1st, 3rd, 5th, and 14th harmonics, respectively such that all the strings have
same frequency. The correct match for the tension in the four strings in the units of T0 will be,
(A) I P, II Q, III R, IV T
(B) I P, II Q, III T, IV U
(C) I P, II R, III T, IV U
(D) I T, II Q, III R, IV U
Answer (B)
1 T 1 T0
Sol. (1) f0 1
2L0 2L
32 T2 T
(2) f0 T2 0
2 3L0 2 2
5 2 T3 3T
(3) f0 T3 0
5L0 3 16
14 4 T4 T
(4) f0 T4 0
2 7L0 4 16
I P, II Q, III T, IV U
14
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
3. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
In a thermodynamic process on an ideal monatomic gas, the infinitesimal heat absorbed by the gas is given by
TX, where T is temperature of the system and X is the infinitesimal change in a thermodynamic quantity
3 T V
X of the system. For a mole of monatomic ideal gas X R ln T R ln V . Here, R is gas constant,
2 A A
V is volume of gas, TA and VA are constants.
The List-l below gives some quantities involved in a process and List-II gives some possible values of
these quantities.
List-l List-II
1
(l) Work done by the system in process 1 2 3 (P) RT0 ln2
3
1
(II) Change in internal energy in process 1 2 3 (Q) RT0
3
(III) Heat absorbed by the system in process 1 2 3 (R) RT0
4
(IV) Heat absorbed by the system in process 1 2 RT0 (S)
3
1
(T) RT0 (3 ln2)
3
5
(U) RT0
6
If the process carried out on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is as shown in figure in the PV-diagram
1
with P0V0 RT0 , the correct match is,
3
P
3P0 3
2
1
P0 2
V
V0 2V 0
(A) I Q, II R, III S, IV U (B) I Q, II S, III R, IV U
(C) I S, II R, III Q, IV T (D) I Q, II R, III P, IV U
Answer (A)
1
Sol. (I) W12 3 P0 V0 RT0
3
3 3P0
(II) U 2V0 P0 V0 RT0
2 2
(III) Q = U + W
4
RT0
3
1 3
(IV) Q RT0 2P0 V0 P0 V0
3 2
5
RT0
6
15
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
4. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
In a thermodynamic process on an ideal monatomic gas, the infinitesimal heat absorbed by the gas is given
by TX, where T is temperature of the system and X is the infinitesimal change in a thermodynamic quantity
3 T V
X of the system. For a mole of monatomic ideal gas X R ln R ln V . Here, R is gas constant, V
2 TA A
is volume of gas, TA and VA are constants.
The List-l below gives some quantities involved in a process and List-II gives some possible values of
these quantities.
List-l List-II
1
(l) Work done by the system in process 1 2 3 (P) RT0 ln2
3
1
(II) Change in internal energy in process 1 2 3 RT0
(Q)
3
(III) Heat absorbed by the system in process 1 2 3 (R) RT0
4
(IV) Heat absorbed by the system in process 1 2 (S) RT0
3
1
(T) RT0 (3 ln2)
3
5
(U) RT0
6
1
If the process on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is as shown in the TV-diagram with P0V0 RT0 , the
3
correct match is,
T
T0 3
T0 1 2
3
V
V0 2V 0
(A) I P, II T, III Q, IV T
(B) I P, II R, III T, IV P
(C) I S, II T, III Q, IV U
(D) I P, II R, III T, IV S
Answer (B)
RT0 V2 RT0
Sol. (I) W12 3 ln 0 ln2
3 V1 3
3 T
(II) U R T 0 RT0
2 0 3
RT0
(III) Q ln2 RT0
3
RT0
(IV) Q ln(2)
3
I P, II R, III T, IV P
16
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
PART-II : CHEMISTRY
1. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. Consider an electronic state of He+ whose
energy, azimuthal quantum number and magnetic quantum number are
–3.4 eV, 2 and 0, respectively. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true for the state ?
(A) It is a 4d state
(B) The nuclear charge experienced by the electron in this state is less than 2e, where e is the
magnitude of the electronic charge
(C) It has 2 angular nodes
(D) It has 3 radial nodes
Answer (A, C)
Z2
S o l . En = –13.6 × eV
n2
22
3.4 eV = –13.6 ×
n2
17
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
n=4
n = 4, l = 2, m = 0 belongs to 4d orbital
no. of angular nodes in an orbital = value of l
no. of radial node in 4d = 1
Since it is a unielectronic species, there will be no shielding and the nuclear charge felt will be 2e.
2. Consider the following reactions (unbalanced)
Zn + conc. NaOH T + Q
Answer (A, B, C)
Zn + NaOH Na2[ZnO2] + H2
conc. (T) (Q)
Answer (A, C, D)
S o l . Extraction of gold is done by leaching with dil. solution of NaCN in the presence of air (O2).
Au(CN)2 + OH–
–
Au + NaCN + O2
(Q) (R)
R is [Au(CN)2]–.
Q is O2.
Z is [Zn(CN)4]2–.
18
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Answer (B, D)
Sol.
O
C C – CH 2 – CHO C – CH 2 – CH2 – CHO
HgSO4, H2SO4 (dil.)
O O
–
CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH C – CH 2 – CH2 – C – O
Zn-Hg
(Q)
HCl
OMe OMe
SOCl2 , Py
O
CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C – Cl
AlCl3 O Zn-Hg
(S)
HCl
Answer (A, B)
19
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Answer (A, B, C)
i) alc. KOH
Br H3 C
(A) NaOEt (B) Br ii) NaNH2
iii) red hot iron tube, 873 K
Br
Answer (B, D)
Br
EtO
S o l . (A) (Anti Aromatic)
H
Me
(i) Alc. KOH
(B) Br Br (ii) NaNH2 Me — C CH
Red hot Fe tube, 873 K
Cl
Cl Cl
UV
+ 3Cl2
(C) 500 K Cl Cl
Cl
H
(D) MeO
+ MeOH
20
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Answer (B, C)
Me
S o l . (A) Zn
CH3—CH == CH 2
Br Br
NaOH–CaO
(B) COOH
(C) Zn
Cl +
H
1. Total number of cis N–Mn–Cl bond angles (that is, Mn–N and Mn–Cl bonds in cis positions) present
in a molecule of cis-[Mn(en)2Cl2] complex is _________
(en = NH2CH2CH2NH2)
Answer (6)
S o l . cis-[Mn(en)2Cl2]
Cl
H2N
CH2
Cl
CH2
NH2 Mn
NH 2
H 2N CH2
CH2
No. of N-Mn-Cl bonds (in which N-Mn bond is cis to Mn-Cl bonds) = 6
(Two N-Mn-Cl bonds have N-Mn bond trans to Mn-Cl bonds)
2. The amount of water produced (in g) in the oxidation of 1 mole of rhombic sulphur by conc. HNO3 to
a compound with the highest oxidation state of sulphur is ___
(Given data : Molar mass of water = 18 g mol–1)
Answer (288)
S o l . Conc. HNO3 oxidises rhombic sulphur (S8) to H2SO4 and itself gets reduced to NO2.
0 5 6 4
S8 48HNO3 8H2 SO 4 48NO2 16H2 O
1 mole of S8 gives 16 moles of H2O.
Mass of H2O = 16 × 18 = 288 gm
21
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
3. Total number of isomers, considering both structural and stereoisomers, of cyclic ethers with the
molecular formula C4H8O is ____
Answer (10)
S o l . Cyclic ethers, including stereoisomers of formula C4H8O are
O O O O
( ) ( )
O O O
( )
Answer (6)
Sol.
HO
(ii) dil. KMnO4 (excess)
OH
273 K
HO OH
OH
OH
2N2O5(g) 2N2O4(g) + O2(g) is started in a closed cylinder under isothermal isochoric condition
at an initial pressure of 1 atm. After Y × 103 s, the pressure inside the cylinder is found to be
1.45 atm. If the rate constant of the reaction is 5 × 10–4 s–1, assuming ideal gas behavior, the value
of Y is __________
Answer (2.3)
22
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Sol. 2N2 O 4 O2 ; K 5 10 4 sec 1
2N2 O5
a0
2Kt ln
a0 x
∵ a0 1 and a0 – x 0.1
1 1
t 4
ln 2.3 103 sec
2 5 10 0.1
6. The mole fraction of urea in an aqueous urea solution containing 900 g of water is 0.05. If the density
of the solution is 1.2 g cm–3, the molarity of urea solution is ________
(Given data: Molar masses of urea and water are 60 g mol–1 and 18 g mol–1, respectively)
Answer (2.98)
nurea
Sol. urea = 0.05 =
nwater nurea
nurea
0.05 = 900
nurea
18
nurea = 2.63 mol
Mass of urea = 2.63 × 60 g/mol Molar Mass (urea) = 60 g/mol
= 157.8 g
Mass of Solution = 157.8 + 900 = 1057.8 g
1057.8
Volume of Solution = = 881.5 ml
1.2
2.63
Molarity of Solution = 1000 = 2.98 M
881.5
List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U).
Four options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of
these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
23
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
1. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
Consider the Bohr’s model of a one-electron atom where the electron moves around the nucleus. In
the following, List-I contains some quantities for the nth orbit of the atom and List-II contains options
showing how they depend on n.
List-l List-II
(II) Angular momentum of the electron in the nth orbit (Q) n–1
(T) n2
(U) n1/2
Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Answer (A)
1
S o l . Kinetic energy
n2
1
Potential energy
n2
Correct match : (III), P ; (IV), P
2. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
Consider the Bohr’s model of a one-electron atom where the electron moves around the nucleus. In
the following, List-I contains some quantities for the nth orbit of the atom and List-II contains options
showing how they depend on n.
List-l List-II
(I) Radius of the nth orbit (P) n–2
(II) Angular momentum of the electron in the nth orbit (Q) n–1
(T) n2
(U) n1/2
24
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
(A) (II), (R)
(B) (I), (P)
(C) (II), (Q)
(D) (I), (T)
Answer (D)
S o l . In Bohr’s model
Radius n2
Angular momentum n
1
Kinetic energy
n2
1
Potential energy
n2
List-I includes starting materials and reagents of selected chemical reactions. List-II gives structures
of compounds that may be formed as intermediate products and/ or final products from the reactions
of List-I.
List-I List-II
(i) DIBAL-H
CN (ii) dil. HCl CHO
(I) (P)
O (iii) NaBH4
CO2H
(iv) conc. H2SO4
O
(i) O3
OH
(ii) Zn, H2O
(II) (Q)
CO2H
(iii) NaBH4 OH
(iv) conc. H2SO4
(i) KCN
Cl +
(ii) H3O ,
(III) (R)
CO2CH3
(iii) LiAlH4 O
(iv) conc. H2SO4
CO2Me OH
(i) LiAlH4
(IV) (S)
CO2Me (ii) conc. H2SO4 CO2H
CO2H
(T)
CO2H
(U)
O
O
25
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Which of the following options has correct combination considering List-I & List-II?
(A) (IV), (Q), (R)
(B) (III), (T), (U)
(C) (IV), (Q), (U)
(D) (III), (S), (R)
Answer (A)
Sol.
Cl KCN CN COOH
(III)
CO2CH3 CO2CH3 CO2H
Conc.
CH2OH CH2 OH
:
+ –H
+ O
CH2OH CH2 OH2
(Q) (R)
CH2OH
CO2Me CH2OH Conc.
LiA H4 H2SO4
(IV) +
CH2Me CH2OH CH2—OH2
(Q)
+ –H
+
O—H O
(R)
4. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
List-I includes starting materials and reagents of selected chemical reactions. List-II gives structures
of compounds that may be formed as intermediate products and/or final products from the reactions
of List-I.
List-I List-II
(i) DIBAL-H
CN (ii) dil. HCl CHO
(I) (P)
O (iii) NaBH4
CO 2H
(iv) conc. H 2 SO4
O
(i) O3 OH
(ii) Zn, H 2 O
(II) (Q)
(iii) NaBH4 OH
CO 2H
(iv) conc. H 2 SO4
26
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
(i) KCN
Cl +
(ii) H 3O ,
(III) (R)
(iii) LiAlH4 O
CO 2CH3
(iv) conc. H 2 SO4
CO 2Me OH
(i) LiAlH4
(IV) (S)
CO 2Me (ii) conc. H2SO 4 CO 2H
CO 2H
(T)
CO 2H
(U)
O
Which of the following options has correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Answer (B)
+
Conc. CH2 OH2 –H
+
H2 SO4 + O O
CH2 OH 2 H
(R)
OH Conc.
(II) (i) O3 CHO NaBH4 H2SO4
(ii) Zn/H2O O
COOH COOH COOH
O
(P) (S) (U)
27
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
PART-III : MATHEMATICS
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct
answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
For example : in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e., the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –1 mark.
f(h) – f(0)
PROPERTY 2 if hlim exists and is finite.
0 h2
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
Answer (A, B)
28
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
f(h) – f(0)
So, lim does not exist.
h0 h
(D) f(x) = sinx
sinh – 0 1 sinh
lim 2
= lim = does not exist.
h 0 h h 0 h h
x
2. Let f : » » be given by f(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2) (x – 5). Define F(x) f(t) dt, x 0.
0
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) F has a local maximum at x = 2
(B) F has a local minimum at x = 1
(C) F(x) 0 for all x (0, 5)
(D) F has two local maxima and one local minimum in (0, )
Answer (A, B, C)
x
S o l . F(x) f(t) dt
0
F(x) = f(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 5)
– + – +
1 2 5
F(x) has maxima at x = 2 and minima at x = 1 and x = 5
2 x 4 8x3 17x2 2
F(2) [x3 – 8x2 17x – 10]dx – – 10x 0
0 4 3 2
64
=4– + 34 – 20
3
124 10
= 38 – =–
3 3
If maximum value of f(x) is negative then f(x) 0 for any x (0, 5)
1 2 5
y = F(x)
29
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
2 x x
(A) det R det 0 4 0 8 , for all x »
x x 5
0
(B) For x = 1, there exists a unit vector i j k for which R 0
ˆ ˆ ˆ
0
1 1
(C) For x = 0, if R a 6 a , then a + b = 5
b b
(D) There exists a real number x such that PQ = QP
Answer (A, C)
1 1 1 2 x x
S o l . P 0 2 2 and Q 0 4 0
0 0 3 x x 6
6 –3 0
So 6P–1 0 3 –2
0 0 2
(A) ∵ R = PQP–1
det(R) = det(P) det(Q) det(P–1)
2 x x
0 4 0
det(R) = det(Q)= det
x x 6
2 x x 2 x 0
det(R) det 0 4 0 det 0 4 0
x x 5 x x 1
2 x x
det(R) det 0 4 0 8
x x 5
0
(B) R 0 must have non trivial solutions of (, , )
0
So det(R) = 0
4(12 – x2) = 0
x 2 3
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JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
1 6
(C) PQP a = 6a
–1
b 6b
1 1 1 2 0 0 6 –3 0 1 6
1
0 2 2 0 4 0 0 3 –2 a 6a
6
0 0 3 0 0 6 0 0 2 b 6b
12 6 4 1 36
0 24 8 a 36a
0 0 36 b 36b
1 1 1 2 x x 2 x x 1 1 1
0 2 2 0 4 0 = 0 4 0 0 2 2
0 0 3 x x 6 x x 6 0 0 3
On both sides a12 elements are not equal for any value of x. So there exists no value of x for which
PQ = QP.
sin x
4. Let f(x) , x > 0.
x2
Let x1 < x2 < x3 < ... < xn < ... be all the points of local maximum of f and y1 < y2 < y3 < ... < yn < ... be all
the points of local minimum of f.
Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) x1 < y1 (B) xn + 1 – xn > 2 for every n
1
(C) |xn – yn| > 1 for every n (D) xn 2n, 2n for every n
2
Answer (B, C, D)
x
2x cos x – tan x
2
S o l . f (x)
x4
for maxima/minima f(x) = 0
cosx = 0 or tanx = x
2
∵ cosx 0 tanx = x
2
y y = tan x x
y=
2
x
0 1 P1 3 2
P2 5 3 7 4 9
1 2 2 2 2 5
2
31
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
3
f (P1– ) < 0, f (P1+ )> 0 x P1 1, is point of local minima
2
5
f (P2– ) > 0, f (P2+ ) < 0 x P2 2, is point of local maxima.
2
5 9 13 17
From the graph, it is clear – x1 > – x 2 > – x3 > – x 4 ....
2 2 2 2
xn + 1 – xn > 2 n
3 5 7 9
– y1 > – x1 > – y2 > – x2 >...
2 2 2 2
|xn – yn| > 1 n
5 9 13
∵ x1 2, , x2 4, , x3 6, ...
2 2 2
1
xn 2n, 2n n
2
x
1/3
dx
= 1
0
54
dy
x a
0
2
1
x 4/3
3
4
0
1
54
1
a 0
x
3 1 1
4 54 a 1 a
1 1
a a 1 72
a2 + a –72 = (a + 9)(a – 8) = 0
a = 8 or –9
32
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
k1
n
k 0
sin
n 2
2
Assuming cos x takes values in [0, ], which of the following options is/are correct?
–1
1 3
(A) lim f n (B) f 4
n 2 2
(C) sin(7 cos–1 f(5)) = 0 (D) If = tan (cos–1f(6)), then 2 + 2 – 1 = 0
Answer (B, C, D)
n
k1 k2
n
2k 3
sin n 2 sin n 2 cos n 2 cos
n 2
S o l . f n k 0
k 0
n
k1 n
2k 2
sin2
n2
1 cos
n 2
k 0 k 0
n1
sin
n 2 n3
n 1 cos cos
n 2 sin n2
n2
f n
n 1
sin
n 2
n 1 cos
sin
n2
n 1 cos cos n 2
f n n 2 cos
n2
n 1 1
(A) lim f n limcos 1
n n
n2
3
(B) f 4 cos
6 2
(C) f 5 cos
7
So, sin 7 cos 1 cos sin 0
7
(D) ∵ f 6 cos ; then tan 2 1
8 8
Clearly + 2 = 1
2
7. Three lines
L1 : r ˆi, ,
L2 : r kˆ ˆj, and
ˆ
L3 : r ˆi ˆj k,
are given. For which point(s) Q on L2 can we find a point P on L1 and a point R on L3 so that P, Q and
R are collinear?
1 1
(A) kˆ ˆj (B) k̂ (C) kˆ ˆj (D) kˆ ˆj
2 2
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JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Answer (C, D)
S o l . Let P (, 0, 0), Q(0, , 1), R(1, 1, )
For collinearity PQ k PR
0 0 01
1 01 0
1
,
1
,
1
0 , 1
Q kˆ , Q kˆ ˆj
1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
1 0 , P2 0 0 1 , P3 1 0 0 , P4 0 0 1 , P5 1 0 0 , P6 0 1 0 and
8. Let P 1 I 0
0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0
6
2 1 3
X Pk 1 0 2 PkT
k 1
3 2 1
where PkT denotes the transpose of the matrix Pk. Then which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) The sum of diagonal entries of X is 18
1 1
(B) If X 1 1 , then = 30
1 1
(C) X is a symmetric matrix
(D) X – 30I is an invertible matrix
Answer (A, B, C)
Sol. ∵ P1T P1, P2T P2 , P3T P3 , P4T P5 , P5T P4 and P6T P6
6
2 1 3 2 1 3
X Pk 1 0 2 PkT ; let 1 0 2 Q; here Q T Q
k 1
3 2 1 3 2 1
6
= Tr QP
i 1
i
T
Pi (∵ Pis are orthogonal matrices)
6
= Tr QI
i 1
= Tr Q
i1
= 6 Tr(Q)
=6×3
= 18
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JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
1 6 6 6
6
(B) Let R 1 , then XR = PQPi R PQR
i
T
i Pi 3
i 1 i 1 i 1
1 6
2 2 2 6 30 1
= 2 2 2 3 30 30 1
2 2 2 6 30 1
(C) X = P1QP1 + P2QP2 + P3QP3 + P4QP5 + P5QP4 + P6QP6
This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more
than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. Let |X| denote the number of elements in a set X. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} be a sample space, where
each element is equally likely to occur. If A and B are independent events associated with S, then the
number of ordered pairs (A, B) such that 1 |B| |A|, equals ____
Answer (1523)
S o l . Let there are i elements in set B and j elements in set A.
Clearly 1 i j 6
Total number of ways of choosing sets A and B
6
= Ci 6 C j
1i j 6
2
6 6 6
6 Cr
2
= r 1
Cr
r 1
2
26 12 12 C6 1
=
2
= 1523
35
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
/2
3 cos
d
cos + sin
5
0
equals ____
Answer (0.5)
/2
3 cos
Sol. I ...(i)
sin cos
5
0
/2
3 sin
I
cos sin
5 ...(ii) [Using property-III f(x) = f(a + b – x)]
0
/2 4
2I 1
3
0
d
sin cos
/2
2I sec2
d
tan
4
3 0 1
Let tan = U2
0 U0
sec2 d 2UdU
U
2
2I 2UdU
Now,
3 0 1 U 4
2 (U 1 1)
3 0
I 2. dU
1 U 4
I 1 1
dU
3 0 (U 1) (U 1)4
3
I 1 1
3
3 2(U 1)2
3(U 1) 0
I 1
3 6
1
I=
2
I 0.5
n n
k nCk k2 n n
3. Suppose det
k 0 k 0 0 holds for some positive integer n. Then Ck equals___
n n k 0 k 1
nCk k nCk 3k
k 0 k 0
Answer (6.20)
36
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
n n
Sol.
k nCk k2 n(n 1)
n(n 1)2n2
k 0 k 0
2 0
n n
n 1 n
n
Ck k nCk 3k n.2 4
k 0 k 0
n(n 1) . 2n
2 n2 (n 1).22n 3 n 4
2
4
Ck 1 1 5
2 1 31
4 4
Now,
k 0
k1 5
k 0
5
Ck 1
5 5
= 6.20
4. The value of
1 10 7 k 7 (k 1) 3
sec 1 sec sec in the interval – ,
4 4
4 12 2 12 2 equals ___
k 0
Answer (0)
7 (k 1) 7 k
sin –
1 2 12 2
10 10
12
Sol. 7 k 7 (k 1)
= 7 k 1
k 0
cos 7 k
.cos k 0
cos .cos
12 2 12 2 12 2 12 2
10
7 7 k
=
k 0
tan 12 (k 1) 2 – tan 12 2
7 11 7
= tan – tan
12 2 12
= tan co t
12 12
1 2
= 4
sin .cos sin
12 12 6
1 10 7 k 7 (k 1)
So, sec 1 sec sec sec (1)
–1
4 k 0 12 2 12 2
=0
5. Let a 2i ˆj kˆ and b ˆi 2 ˆj kˆ be two vectors. Consider a vector c a b, , . If the projection
of c on the vector a b is 3 2, then the minimum value of c (a b) . c equals _____
Answer (18)
S o l . Given
a b
·c 3 2 ∵
a b 3iˆ 3ˆj
|ab |
So a b · a b 18 | a b | 9 9 18 3 2
6 + 6 + 3 + 3 = 18 | a | 6, | b | 6
2 a·b 3
37
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Now minimum value of c a b · c 2 – 2
a b a b a b
= 2(6) + (3) – 0 + (3) + 2(6) – 0
= 6(2 + 2 + )
6
2
(1, 3)
= 6[4 – (2 – )]
= 6(4 – 2 + 2)
Minimum value of 6(4 –2 + 2) = 6(4 – 2 + 1) = 18
6. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are seated in a circular arrangement. If each of them is given a hat of
one of the three colours red, blue and green, then the number of ways of distributing the hats such
that the persons seated in adjacent seats get different coloured hats is _____
Answer (30)
S o l . Given that no two persons sitting adjacent, have hats of same colour. So hats of all colours must be
used. Also hats of different colours cannot be used in 1 + 1 + 3 combination because any three hats
cannot be of same colour.
Therefore only combination left is 2 + 2 + 1.
There are a total of 3 cases of selecting hats which are
2R + 2B + 1G or 2B + 2G + 1R or 2G + 2R + 1B
To distribute these hats first we select a person in 5C1 ways and distribute that hat which is one of
it's colour. Then for remaining four persons there are two ways of distributing hats of alternate
colours. So total ways will be equal to 3 × 5C1 × 2 = 30
1. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
Let f(x) = sin(cosx) and g(x) = cos(2sinx) be two functions defined for x > 0. Define the following sets
whose elements are written in the increasing order :
38
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
List-I contains the sets X, Y, Z and W. List-II contains some information regarding these sets.
List-I List-II
3
(I) X (P) , , 4 , 7
2 2
(II) Y (Q) an arithmetic progression
(III) Z (R) NOT an arithmetic
progression
7 13
(IV) W (S) , ,
6 6 6
2
(T) , ,
3 3
3
(U) ,
6 4
Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?
(A) (II), (R), (S) (B) (I), (Q), (U)
(C) (II), (Q), (T) (D) (I), (P), (R)
Answer (C)
2. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
Let f(x) = sin(cosx) and g(x) = cos(2sinx) be two functions defined for x > 0. Define the following sets
whose elements are written in the increasing order:
X = {x : f(x) = 0}, Y = {x : f(x) = 0},
Z = {x : g(x) = 0}, W = {x : g(x) = 0}.
List-I contains the sets X, Y, Z and W. List-II contains some information regarding these sets.
List-I List-II
3
(I) X (P) , , 4 , 7
2 2
(II) Y (Q) an arithmetic progression
(III) Z (R) NOT an arithmetic progression
7 13
(IV) W (S) , ,
6 6 6
2
(T) , ,
3 3
3
(U) ,
6 4
Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?
(A) (IV), (P), (R), (S) (B) (IV), (Q), (T)
(C) (III), (R), (U) (D) (III), (P), (Q), (U)
Answer (A)
39
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Y = {x : f(x) = 0}
so –sinx cos (cosx) = 0
sinx = 0 or cos x 2n 1 , n Z
2
1
x = n, nZ cos x 2n 1 , n Z
2
1
cos x
2
2
x 2n or x 2n
3 3
(II) Q, T
Z = {x: g(x) = 0}
so cos(2sinx) = 0
2 sinx 2n 1 , n Z
2
2n 1 so sin x
1 3 1 3
, , ,
sin x
4 4 4 4 4
(III) R
W = {x : g(x) = 0}
– 2cosx sin(2sinx) = 0
cosx = 0
x 2n 1 , n Z
2
or sin(2sinx) = 0
2sinx = n, nZ
n 1 1
sinx so sinx 0, , 1, , 1
2 2 2
n
x n, x n 1 , x 2n 1
6 2
(IV) P, R, S
40
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
3. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph
Let the circles C1 : x2 + y2 = 9 and C2 : (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 16, intersect at the points X and Y. Suppose
that another circle C3 : (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2 satisfies the following conditions :
(i) centre of C3 is collinear with the centres of C1 and C2,
(ii) C1 and C2 both lie inside C3, and
(iii) C3 touches C1 at M and C2 at N.
Let the line through X and Y intersect C3 at Z and W, and let a common tangent of C1 and C3 be a
tangent to the parabola x2 = 8y.
There are some expressions given in the List-I whose values are given in List-II below :
List-I List-II
(I) 2h + k (P) 6
Length of ZW
(II) (Q) 6
Length of XY
Area of triangle MZN 5
(III) (R)
Area of triangle ZMW 4
21
(IV) (S)
5
(T) 2 6
10
(U)
3
Which of the following is the only CORRECT combination?
(A) (I), (S) (B) (II), (Q)
(C) (II), (T) (D) (I), (U)
Answer (B)
4. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph.
Let the circles C1 : x2 + y2 = 9 and C2 : (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 16, intersect at the points X and Y. Suppose
that another circle C3 : (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2 satisfies the following conditions:
(i) centre of C3 is collinear with the centres of C1 and C2,
(ii) C1 and C2 both lie inside C3, and
(iii) C3 touches C1 at M and C2 at N.
Let the line through X and Y intersect C3 at Z and W, and let a common tangent of C1 and C3 be a
tangent to the parabola x2 = 8y.
There are some expressions given in the List-I whose values are given in List-II below :
List-I List-II
(I) 2h + k (P) 6
Length of ZW
(II) Length of XY (Q) 6
41
JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
21
(IV) (S)
5
(T) 2 6
10
(U)
3
Answer (C)
0 0 1
3 4 10 N
h k 1 W
(3, 4) 4
Y
3k 4h ...(i) P C2 C
C3 2
C1 X
& MN is diameter of C3 (0, 0)
Z
So, MN 3 (3 0) (4 0) 2 4 M C1 C3
= 12
So r 6 ...(ii)
Given C3 touches C1 at M C1(0, 0)
So, |C1C3| = |r – 3| C3(h, k)
h2 + k2 =9 ...(iii)
From equation (i) + (iii)
9 12
h & k
5 5
9 12
So centre of C3 is ,
5 5
Now equation of XY is
C1 – C2 = 0
6x + 8y = 18
3x 4y 9 ...(iv)
9
Now C 1P (distance from origin to equation of XY)
5
81 144
Now PY2 = C1Y2 – C1P2 = 9
25 25
12 24
XY = 2PY = 2
5 5
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JEE (ADVANCED)-2019 (PAPER-2)
Similarly equation of ZW is 3x + 4y = 9
9 12
3 4 9
So length of perpendicular from C3 to ZW 5 5
5
6
5
2
6 24 6
Now ZW 2 (6) 2
5 5
9 12 30
(I) 2h k 2 6 (I) P
5 5 5
Length of ZW
(II) 6 (II) Q
Length of XY
1 1 1
MN PZ (2)(6) (ZW)
Area of MZN 2 2 2
(III)
Area of ZMW 1 ZW MP 1 (ZW) (MC C P)
1 1
2 2
6 65 5
3 9 24 4 (III) R
5
(IV)Tangent at M, is also tangent to parabola x2 = 8 y
1 3
So slope of tangent at M
4 4
3
So equation of tangent at M to C1 is
3
y mx a 1 m 2 where a = 3, m
4
3 9
y x 3 1 ( y-intercept is –ve)
4 16
4y 3x 15 0
10
(IV) U
3
43