Southern Inspection Services

API 580 QB – 1

1. A physical condition or a release of a hazardous material that could result from

component failure and result in human injury or death, loss or damage, or
environ- mental degradation.
a. Hazard
b. Loss
c. Failure

2. Limitation of any negative consequence or reduction in probability of a

particular event.
a. Mitigation
b. Reduction
c. Residual
d. improvement

3. Methods that use engineering judgment and experience as the bases for the
analysis of probabilities and consequences of failure.
a. Qualitative risk assessment
b. Relative risk
c. Nominal risk

4. An analysis that identifies and delineates the combinations of events

estimates the frequency of occurrence for each combination and estimates the
consequences.
a. Quantitative risk analysis
b. Qualitative risk analysis
c. Process hazard analysis

5. ……………… uses logic models depicting combinations of events

a. Quantitative risk analysis
b. Qualitative risk analysis
c. Process hazard analysis

6. Quantitative risk analysis logic models generally consist of ………….. and

…………
a. Event trees and fault trees
b. Product trees and loss trees
c. Liklilhood trees and consequence trees

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7. ……………. delineate initiating events and combinations of system successes

and failures
a. Event trees
b. Fault trees
c. Logic trees

8. ……….. Depict ways in which the system failures rep- resented in the event
trees can occur.
a. Event trees
b. Fault trees
c. Logic trees

9. The comparative risk of a facility, process unit, system, equipment item or

component to other facilities
a. Relative risk
b. Absolute risk
c. No risk

10. Combination of the probability of an event and its consequence.

a. Risk
b. Failure
c. Loss
d. Reduction

11. Systematic use of information to identify sources and to estimate the risk.
a. Risk
b. Risk analysis
c. Hazard analysis

12. …………….. Pro- vides a basis for risk evaluation, risk mitigation and risk
acceptance.
a. Risk
b. Risk analysis
c. Hazard analysis

13. Process used to assign values to the probability and consequence of a risk.
a. Risk evaluation
b. Risk estimation
c. Risk identification

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14. Process used to compare the estimated risk against given risk criteria to
determine the significance of the risk.
a. Risk evaluation
b. Risk estimation
c. Risk identification

15. Process to find, list, and characterize elements of risk.

a. Risk estimation
b. Risk evaluation
c. Risk identification

16. Coordinated activities to direct and control an organization with regard to risk.
a. Risk management
b. Risk evaluation
c. Risk control

17. Thing or activity with a potential for con- sequence.

a. Source
b. Hazard
c. Toxic

18. ……………..in a safety context is a hazard.

a. Source
b. Toxicity
c. Probability
d. frequency

19. The risk prior to mitigation activities

a. Unmitigated risk
b. Known risk
c. Mitigated risk

20. ………… is the combination of the probability of some event occurring during a
time period of interest and the consequences, associated with the event
a. Risk
b. Loss
c. Mitigated risk

21. Act of mitigating a known risk to a lower level of risk

a. Risk reduction
b. Risk mitigation
c. Risk evaluation

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22. A process to assess risks, to determine if risk reduction is required and to

develop a plan to maintain risks at an acceptable level.
a. Risk management
b. Risk mitigation
c. Risk control

23. When some risk identified as acceptable then one of the following is not
required
a. Risk reduction
b. Risk evaluation
c. Risk mitigation
d. Risk control

24. In process plants, ………………… are established to detect and evaluate

deterioration due to in-ser- vice operation
a. Inspection and testing programs
b. Condition monitoring programs
c. Preventive maintenance programs
d. Inservice inspection programs

25. When an equipment has low deterioration rates as an inspector what you
decide in lieu of internal inspection
a. On-stream inspection
b. Out of service inspection
c. External inspection

26. ………… represents the next generation of inspection approaches and interval
setting, recognizing that the ultimate goal of inspection is the safety and
reliability of operating facilities.
a. Rbi
b. Pha
c. Hazop
d. Rcm

27. For a typical inspection program, if excessive inspection is applied then,

a. Level of risk may go up
b. Level of risk may go down
c. Level of risk remain the same

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28. ……… provides a consistent methodology for assessing the optimum

combination of methods and frequencies.
a. Rbi
b. Rcm
c. Pha
d. Hazop

29. Through ……………, inspection activities are focused on higher risk items and
away from lower risk items.
a. Rbi
b. Pha
c. Rcm
d. Hazop

30. Following are not the residual risk factors for loss of containment
a. Human error
b. Natural disasters
c. Fundamental limitations of inspection method
d. Toxic fluid containment

31. Rbi is focused on a systematic determination of

a. Relative risks
b. Absolute risks
c. Comparable risks
d. Total risks

32. Act of mitigating a known risk to a lower level of risk.

a. Risk reduction
b. Risk management
c. Risk mitigation

33. Some failures have potentially serious consequences, but if the probability of
the incident is low, then
a. The risk may not warrant immediate action
b. The risk may warrant immediate action
c. The risk may warrant appropriate mitigation action

34. If the probability and consequence combination (risk) is high enough to be

unacceptable, then
a. A mitigation action to predict or prevent the event is recommended.
b. A mitigation action to predict or prevent the event is not recommended
c. Warrant to analyse risks involved

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35. ……………..refers to a prescriptive methodology that has resulted from the

application of risk analysis techniques at many different types of facilities,
a. Quantitative risk assessment (qra)
b. Qualitative risk assessment
c. Semiquantitative risk assessment

36. A rbi analysis shares many of the techniques and data requirements with a
…….
a. Qra
b. Pha
c. Hazop
d. Event tree

37. If a qra has been prepared for a process unit, the …………analysis can borrow
extensively from this effort.
a. Rbi consequence
b. Rbi liklihood
c. Rbi probability

38. Hazard identification in a rbi analysis generally focuses on identifiable failure

mechanisms in the equipment (inspectable causes) but does not explicitly deal
with
a. Other potential failure scenarios resulting from events such as power failures or
human errors.
b. Other potential failure resulting from events such as flammable fire due to leak
from equipment
c. Environmental impact caused due to toxic release

39. ……………..deals with total risk than with risk involve only with the equipment
a. Qra
b. Rbi
c. Pha
d. Fta

40. Risk presented in quantitative risk analysis as a

a. Precise numeric value
b. Form of risk matrix
c. Form of event tree and fault tree

41. Risk presented in qualitative risk analysis as

a. Precise numeric value
b. Form of risk matrix
c. Form of event tree and fault tree

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42. Results from quantitative analysis logic models are validated by

a. Expert judgment.
b. Inspection engineer
c. Maintenance engineer
d. Operations personnel

43. The suitability and current condition of the equipment within the current
operating envelope will determine the ………….of the equipment from one or
more deterioration mechanisms.
a. Probability of failure (pof)
b. Consequence of failure
c. Total risk
d. Relative risk

44. The probability of failure, when coupled with the associated consequence of
failure (cof) (see section 11) will determine ………….associated with the
equipment item,
a. Operating risk
b. Ranking
c. Residual risk

45. …………. Is a risk management activity that may lead to risk reduction?
a. Inspection
b. Evaluation
c. Analysis

46. The primary product of a rbi effort should be

a. An inspection plan for each equipment item evaluated
b. Mitigation plan for each equipment item evaluated
c. Residual risk assessment plan for each equipment item evaluated

47. Following are some of the recognized risks which cannot be managed by
inspection alone except one
a. Equipment nearing retirement.
b. Failure mechanisms (such as brittle fracture, fatigue) where avoidance of failure
primarily depends on operating within a defined pressure/temperature envelope.
c. Consequence-dominated risks.
d. The suitability and current condition of the equipment within the current operating
envelope will determine the probability of failure (pof) of the equipment from one
or more deterioration mechanisms.

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48. Following are the non-inspection mitigation actions except one

a. Replacement or upgrade
b. Equipment redesign
c. Maintenance of strict controls on operating conditions
d. Risk management by monitoring the deterioration

49. In the event of a leak the potential failure of an isolation valve could
a. Incerease the inventory & affect POF side of the risk equation
b. Decrease the inventory
c. Will affect COF side of the risk equation
d. No harm to inventory

50. Potential hazards identified in a pha will often affect the

a. Probability of failure side of the risk equation.
b. Consequence of failure side of the equation
c. Will not at all affect the Risk Eqn Since PHA Does not depend on RBI

51. RBI may include methodologies to assess the effectiveness of the

management systems in maintaining
a. Mechanical integrity
b. Total asset integrity
c. Plant integrity
d. Integrity of the management

52. Equipment reliability is especially important if leaks can be caused by

a. Secondary failures, such as loss of utilities
b. Primary failures such as leak due to severe corrosion
c. Tertiary failures due to valve gland packing leak

53. Reliability efforts, such as reliability centered maintenance (rcm), can be linked
with rbi, resulting in an integrated program to
a. Reduce downtime in an operating unit.
b. Reduce operating time of an unit
c. To reduce risk by mitigation activities

54. In jurisdictions that permit the application of the api inspection codes and
standards
a. Rbi should be an acceptable method for setting inspection plans.
b. Rcm should be an acceptable method for setting the inspection plans
c. Pha should be an acceptable method for setting the inspection plans
d. HAZOP should be an acceptable method for setting the inspection plans

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55. ……………to be established to judge acceptability of risk could be an objective

of the rbi assessment if such criteria do not exist already within the user’s
company.
a. Risk criteria
b. Risk plan
c. Risk analysis

56. ………………….. Is usually not the primary objective of a rbi assessment, but it
is frequently a side effect of optimization.
a. Reducing inspection costs
b. Increasing inspection costs
c. Increasing frequency of inspection programs
d. Decreasing the POF

57. When the inspection program is optimized based on an understanding of risk,

one or more of the following cost reduction benefits may be realized. Except
one
a. Ineffective, unnecessary or inappropriate inspection activities may be eliminated.
b. Effective, necessary or appropriate inspection activities may be eliminated.
c. On-line or non-invasive inspection methods may be substituted for invasive
methods that require equipment shutdown.
d. More effective infrequent inspections may be substituted for less effective
frequent inspections.

58. The following are the risks identified by rbi assessment that may be man- aged
by actions other than inspection. Except one
a. Modification of the process to eliminate conditions driving the risk.
b. Modification of operating procedures to avoid situations driving the risk.
c. Chemical treatment of the process to reduce deterioration rates/susceptibilities.
d. Identifying and detecting deterioration and predicting future deterioration states
with advanced inspection technique(s).

59. For qualitative rbi analysis it is important to establish a set of rules to assure
consistency in
a. Categorization or classification
b. Segregation
c. Ranking

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60. Generally, a qualitative analysis using broad ranges requires a ………………

from the user than a quantitative approach.
a. Higher level of judgment, skill and understanding
b. Lower level of judgment, skill and understanding
c. Higher Level of Qualification
d. Higher level of knowledge

61. The models are evaluated ………………….. to provide both qualitative and
quantitative insights about the level of risk and to identify the design, site, or
operational characteristics that are the most important to risk.
a. Probabilistically
b. Statistically
c. Linearly
d. Logically

62. Change of Metallurgy is done

a) To reduce POF
b) To increase POF
c) To reduce COF
d) To increase COF

63. Potential source of errors in rbi analysis regarding data quality are the
following except
a. Assumptions in equipment history
b. Outdated drawings and documentation
c. Inspector error
d. Advanced inspection methods

64. The following assumption can be made that significantly impact the calculated
corrosion rate early in the equipment life
a. If the base line thickness were not performed the nominal thickness may be used
for the original thickness
b. If original thickness not available, averaged ut thickness readings may be used
c. If the original thickness not available, maximum ut thickness readings may be
used

65. ………………… may result in the calculated corrosion rate appearing artificially
high or low.
a. Clerical error
b. Measurement error
c. Inspector error
d. UT scanning

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66. The data validation step stresses the need for a knowledgeable individual
a. To comparing data from the inspections to the expected deterioration mechanism
and rates.
b. To com-pare the results with previous measurements on that system,
c. Similar systems at the site or within the company or published data.
d. All of the above

67. the amount and type of codes and standards used by a facility can have
a. Significant impact on rbi results
b. No impact on rbi results
c. Less significant impact on rbi results

68. Who should be consulted to define the equipment deterioration mechanisms,

susceptibility and potential failure modes
a. A metallurgist or corrosion specialist
b. A metallurgist and corrosion specialist
c. A metallurgist only
d. Corrosion specialist only

69. ------------------are the primary inputs into the probability of failure evaluation.
a. The deterioration mechanisms, rates and susceptibilities
b. Loss of containment f fluid
c. Fluid toxicity and its concentration
d. Damage mechanisms and its severity

70. --------------------------is key to per-forming deterioration mechanism identification.

a. Understanding equipment operation and the interaction with the chemical and
mechanical environment.
b. Understanding equipment operation and process upsets
c. Understanding equipment operation and its safety protective measures

71. Who can provide useful input (such as the spectrum of process conditions,
injection points etc.) To aid materials specialists in the identification of
deterioration mechanisms and rates.
a. Process specialists
b. Plant operation specialists
c. Asset integrity experts
d. Inspection engineers

72. Thinning causes the loss of material from

a. External surfaces only
b. Internal surfaces only
c. External or internal surfaces

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73. Ssc occurs when equipment is exposed to environments

a. Conducive to certain cracking mechanisms
b. Unfavourable to certain cracking mechanisms
c. Unbeneficial to certain cracking mechanisms

74. ----------------are often necessary to establish susceptibility of equipment to

stress corrosion cracking.
a. Literature, expert opinion and experience
b. Cracking mechanisms
c. Damage mechanisms
d. Fluid toxicity and its constituents

75. ………………curves are referred for htha deterioration mechanism for carbon
and low ally steel materials
a. Nelson curves
b. Ph concentration curves
c. Schmidtt curves for sulfide corrosion

76. Following are the critical variables for deterioration mechanism except
a. Material of construction
b. Process operating
c. Start up and shut down conditions
d. Insulation

77. Following are the common mechanical deterioration mechanisms except

a. Fatigue
b. Stress/creep rupture
c. Tensile overload
d. Intergranular corrosion

78. Depending on the methodology employed in qualitative analysis, the

categories may be described with words such as
a. High, medium or low or may have numerical descriptors.
b. High, medium or low only
c. Numerical descriptors only

79. When in accurate or insufficient failure data exists on the specific equipment
item for quantitative probability of failure analysis then
a. General industry, company or manufacturer failure data used
b. Process hazard analysis failure data may be used
c. Process and toxic concentration analysis may be used

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80. Deterioration rates can be expressed in terms of

a. Corrosion rates for thinning or susceptibility for mechanisms where deterioration
rate is unknown
b. Corrosion rates for thinning only
c. Immeasurable quantity
d. Discrete numbers
e. Susceptible rates only

81. Damage mechanisms where deterioration rates are immeasurable or unknown

are
a. Stress corrosion cracking
b. Hydrogen induce cracking
c. Thinning
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b

82. * The ability to state the rate of deterioration precisely is affected by the
following except
a. By equipment complexity
b. Type of deterioration mechanism, process and metallurgical variations,
c. Inaccessibility for inspection, limitations of inspection and test methods
d. Lack of coverage of an area subject to deterioration.
e. None of the above

83. The type of failure mode that likely to occur due to pitting
a. Small hole sized leaks
b. Small holes to ruptures
c. Cracks
d. Catastrophic rupture

84. The type of failure mode that likely to occur due to ssc
a. Small holes to rupture
b. Small holes
c. Cracks
d. Only rupture

85. The type of failure mode that likely to occur due to mechanical and
metallurgical deterioration
a. Small holes to ruptures
b. Cracks
c. Catastrophic ruptures
d. Leaks

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86. The type of failure mode that likely to occur due to thinning
a. Larger leaks or rupture
b. Only rupture
c. Metal loss
d. Cracks

87. If a very aggressive acid is carried over from a corrosion resistant part of a
system into a downstream vessel that is made of carbon steel, the result would
be
a. Rapid corrosion could result in failure in a few hours or days.
b. General corrosion over a period of time could result in metal loss
c. No deterioration will take place since carbon steel is resistant to aggressive acid

88. If multiple inspections have been performed, which inspection may best reflect
current operating conditions?
a. Most recent inspection
b. Base line inspection survey
c. Process conditions
d. Corrosion survey

89. * Probability side of the risk equation is normally managed by

a. Plant inspectors or inspection engineers
b. Maintenance planning engineers
c. Process safety personnel
d. Both a and b

90. * Other functional failures are usually covered within

a. Rbi
b. Rcm
c. Pha
d. Hazop

91. Following will cover the functional failures except

a. Heat exchanger tube failure
b. Pressure relief device failure
c. Rotating equipment failure
d. Static equipment failure due to process environment

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92. Qualitative consequence analysis of failure can be estimated separately for

each unit, system, equipment group or individual equipment item.
a. On the basis of expert knowledge and experience
b. On the basis of available data
c. On the basis of process and environmental conditions
d. No basis required since it is qualitative

93. Results of quantitative consequence analysis are usually expressed in

a. Numeric
b. Ranges from high to low
c. Frequency
d. Occasion

94. In most consequence evaluations, a key element in deter-mining the

magnitude of the consequence is
a. The volume of fluid released.
b. Amount of surface area exposed due to toxic release
c. Physical area impacted by release

95. Following is the unit of measure of consequence that are least developed
among those currently used for rbi assessment
a. Affected area
b. Cost
c. Environmental damage
d. Safety

96. Most of the damage from thermal effects tends to occur in

a. Close range
b. Wide range
c. Large distance
d. None of the above

97. * Toxic releases in RBI are only addressed when they affect
a. Personnel
b. Equipment
c. Process

98. The rbi program for environmental consequences, typically focuses

a. On acute and immediate environmental risks, rather than chronic risks from low-
level emissions
b. On acute and immediate chronic risks than immediate environmental risks
c. Non threat environmental risks

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99. The consequences of environmental damage are best understood by

a. Cost
b. Release
c. Volume of fluid
d. Toxic concentration

100. Maintenance impact will generally be measured in monetary terms and

typically includes:
a. Repairs and equipment replacement
b. Method of cleanup
c. Safety systems

101. …………………. is a powerful tool that is being used by many companies,

governments and regulatory authorities as one method in determining risk
acceptance.
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Risk analysis
c. Cost consequence analysis
d. Risk based cost analysis

102. Using risk assessment the inspections are priotised based on

a. Risk value
b. Risk matrix
c. Risk consequence
d. Risk failure

103. ………………….typically involves reviewing some or all input variables to

the risk calculation to determine the overall influence on the resultant risk
value.
a. Sensitivity analysis
b. Risk analysis
c. Process hazard analysis
d. Safety risk analysis

104. ……………is an important part of the data validation phase of risk

assessment.
a. Sensitivity analysis
b. Risk analysis
c. Probability analysis
d. Process hazard analysis

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105. The information gathering performed after the sensitivity analysis should
be focused on developing
a. More certainty for the key input variables.
b. Less certainty for the key input variables
c. No certainty for the key input variables
d. None of the above

106. Too conservative assumptions made for the available or unavailable data
lead to overestimating consequences or probability of failure values will
a. Inflate the calculated risk values
b. May mislead inspection planners, management and insurers
c. Can create a lack of credibility for the user and the rbi process
d. All of the above

107. Once the risk values are developed, one way of presenting results of the
risk values are by
a. Risk matrix or plot
b. Risk indicators
c. Risk ranking
d. Risk occurrence

108. When the consequence category is given a higher weightage than the
probability category then the risk matrix will be
a. Symmetrical
b. Asymmetrical
c. Logical
d. None of the above

109. Highest risk ranking in the risk matrix is toward the

a. Upper right corner of the matrix
b. Upper left corner of the matrix
c. Lower right corner of the matrix
d. Lower left corner of the matrix

110. Once the risk plots have been completed then the risk plot or matrix can be
used as …………… during the prioritization process
a. Screening tool
b. Guideline tool
c. Control line tool
d. Risk determination tool

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111. ………………policies influence the placement of risk thresholds

a. Corporate safety and financial policies
b. Maintenance inspection policies
c. Engineering design policies
d. None of the above

112. A pressure vessel which is critical for operations, whose design pressure
is 15 bar and its operating pressure under normal conditions vary from 6 bar to
10bar. The vessel is in sulphuric acid process environment. In due course of
time after the vessel put into service for 10years, it subject to thinning due to
sulphuric acid corrosion and found that localized corrosion upto 7mm(
nominal thickness-10mm, t-min-4mm). The vessel undergone rbi analysis and
categorized under higher risk ranking, following are the best suitable
mitigation action to be considered
a. Equipment to be decommissioned
b. Equipment redesign
c. Reduction of operating pressure acceptable to the process followed by cost
effective inspection program with repair as indicated by the inspection results
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

113. The quality of the inspection data and the analysis or interpretation will
greatly affect the
a. Level of risk mitigation
b. Level of failure
c. Level of prediction
d. None of the above

114. Following are the tools critical to achieve risk mitigation through
inspection
a. Proper inspection methods
b. Proper data analysis tools
c. Both a and b
d. All of the above

115. Which plays a major role in over all risk management strategy
a. Inspection
b. Mitigation
c. Consequence
d. Failure

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116. Which inspection technique for a piping circuit would be considered to

have little or no benefit if the deterioration mechanism results in unpredictable
localized corrosion
a. Spot thickness readings
b. Ultrasonic readings
c. Radiography
d. All of the above

117. In the case of localized corrosion, which inspection technique is more

effective
a. Ultrasonic for thickness monitoring
b. Radiography
c. Ultrasonic flaw detection
d. None of the above

118. Which are the best cases that may cause deterioration and increase the
risk of the equipment when managing the risk with inspection activities
a. Moisture ingress to equipment leading to scc or polythionic acid cracking.
b. Internal inspection of glass lined vessels.
c. Risk associated with shutting down and starting up
d. All of the above

119. ………………… be performed to determine what size flaws, if found in future

inspections, would require repair or equipment replacement.
a. Fit- ness-for-service
b. Rbi analysis
c. Process hazard analysis
d. All of the above

120. Which gives more COF

a. Small leak
b. Creep
c. SCC
d. Brittle fracture

121. The Urgency of the Inspection Depends on

a. Mitigated risk
b. Residual risk
c. Relative risk
d. unmitigated risk
e. all
f. None

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122. Ranking of the equipment depends on

a. Mitigated risk
b. Residual risk
c. Relative risk
d. unmitigated risk
e. all

123. Presence of dead Legs

a. Will mitigate POF
b. Will mitigate COF
c. Will Mitigate both
d. None

124. Which reduces the primary source of Consequence

a. Using a Low Flash point solvent
b. Using a batch process instead of continuous process
c. Using temp above Boiling Point so as to reduce the size of the cloud
d. All
e. None

125. The Change of Premises as per API 580 involves

a. Change in population density
b. Change in product value
c. Change in the Risk criteria
d. Change in material cost
e. All
f. None

126. Before starting the inspection of a pressure vessel, especially one is

severe service the inspector should determine;
a. The pressure and temperature conditions under which the vessel has been
operated since the first inspection
b. The pressure and temperature conditions under which the vessel has been
operated during the period since the last two inspections.
c. The pressure and temperature conditions under which the vessel has been
operated since the current inspection
d. The pressure and temperature conditions under which the vessel has been
operated since the last inspection

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127. While inspecting an operating vessel you observe that cracks are present
in the connecting welds for a gauge glass, you also notice vibrations are
occurring in the assembly. Before you recommend corrective actions you
should;
a. Re-evaluate the materials used in the fabrication of the gauge glass
b. Write a report of the location with a recommendation for the type of repairs
needed
c. Research the inspection records for previous failures of this type
d. Check with a pressure vessel engineer to see if the cracks are caused by fatigue
failure

128. The two types of graphitization are

a. Localized and random graphitization
b. Ferritic and martensite graphitization
c. Austenitic and martensitic graphitization
d. Circular or globular graphitization

129. The main reason(s) for inspecting heat exchanger bundles after removal
and prior to cleaning is/are;
a. Location of scale on tubes can reveal non-operational problems.
b. Deposits on the tubes can reveal acid contamination problems
c. Color of the tube ends can reveal de-zincification
d. Color of deposits and scale can scale can reveal corrosion problems

130. A vessel is in a service that subjects it to acidic fluids, what is a major

concern for this type of service?
a. Graphitic induced corrosion
b. Caustic blistering
c. Caustic embrittlement and cracking
d. Accelerated corrosion, Hydrogen blistering and Hydrogen induced cracking

131. Which of the following is subject to de-alloying when exposed to steam

containing sulfur compounds?
a. Cuppro brass
b. Naval brass
c. Admiralty brass
d. Monel

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132. Titanium alloys are subject to loss of ductility in certain environments what
is this condition called?
a. High temperature embrittlement
b. Low temperature embrittlement
c. Hi-alloy effect
d. Hydriding

133. After removing an exchanger bundle you find a Prussian blue coating on
the tubes, what do you suspect causes this coating?
a. Amino acid
b. Cyanide
c. Ferri-ferrocyanide
d. Phosphoric acid

134. If white salts are found at cracks in a vessel;

a. It is an indication that the vessel contains an alkaline based chemical
b. It is an indication that the vessel contains an acidic based chemical
c. It is an indication that the vessel contains a low pH chemical
d. It is an indication that the vessel had been operated above normal temperatures.

135. A poor choice of material for ammonia service would be;

a. Stainless steels
b. Copper based alloys
c. Carbon steels
d. Carbon Molybdenum steels

136. The inspection of a vessel to determine if a hydrogen blister is present is

often best performed by;
a. Researching the inspection records.
b. Determine the vessels material to see if hydrogen attack is likely.
c. Shining a flash light parallel to the vessel’s surface.
d. Recommending metallurgical tests for blisters in a laboratory.

137. What type of problem would you expect in piping containing Amine?
a. Dissolved oxygen cracking
b. Stress corrosion cracking
c. Galvanic corrosion
d. Crevice corrosion

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138. What area do you consider to be of most concern when inspecting a piping
system?
a. Underneath insulation on lines operating at temperatures above 200ºF
b. In a straight run pipe containing motor oil
c. At and/or downstream of a chemical injection point
d. Underneath insulation on line operating below 25ºF

139. The deformation of a vessel wall in the vicinity of a pipe attachment;

expansion joints that are not performing properly; a pipe dislodged from its
support etc are evidence of:
a. Misalignment
b. Leaks
c. Weld problems
d. Drips

140. An inspector finds concrete fireproofing around a structural steel column

with openings (cracks). The inspector suspects that water may be entering.
What should the inspector do?
a. The inspector should ask his supervisor what he should do.
b. All the fireproofing should be stripped from the column
c. Enough fireproofing should be removed to determine the extent of the problem
d. No action should be taken

141. If a steel column in a pipe support rack is corroded. What should the
inspector do?
a. Have the corrosion products cleaned off and have the column painted
b. No action is required
c. Thickness measurements should be taken to determine whether enough metal is
left to safely support the load.
d. Call a piping engineer.

142. How do you inspect non-destructively for loose or broken foundation

bolts?
a. Break out the concrete around the foundation bolt.
b. Hammer the bolts vertically with a hammer
c. Lightly tap the bolts sideways with a hammer while holding a finger against the
opposite side.
d. Radiograph the foundation

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143. If you find a slotted hole in a base-plate, what would this indicate to you?
a. It indicates that the craftsman making the hole was not sure of it exact location
b. It indication that the base-plate may have been designed to accommodate
expansion
c. It indicates that the base-plate was possibly made to be used in multiple
locations
d. It indicates that the base-plate had two holes side by side punched in it by
mistake

144. As an inspector, you find a 6” diameter pipe line that is vibrating and
swaying. What is one of the most important things you would check for and
where would you check?
a. Fireproofing on the supports should be checked for spalling and breaking
b. Welds should be inspected for cracks, particularly at points of restraint
c. Base-plates of the pipe supports should be checked to see if the bolts are tight
d. Valves in the system should be checked to insure they are not vibrating
open/closed

145. Estimated rate of Sulphidation corrosion for a crude handing equipment

due to sulpher content of 0.5% (by weight) at 6000F is 10 mpy. What will be the
corrosion rate if sulpher content is 1.0% by weight?
a. 10 mpy approximately
b. 12 mpy approximately
c. 15 mpy approximately
d. 20 mpy approximately

146. Suggest suitable construction materials for caustic service having 40%
Na0H concentration (by weight) operating at 2400F
a. Carbon steel with PWHT
b. Carbon Steel, but PWHT is not required
c. Carbon steels with quenched and tempering treatment
d. Consider Use of Nickel alloys.

147. To avoid HTHA, suggest suitable materials of construction for hydrogen

service with partial pressure of hydrogen = 1500psi, and temperature = 8000F
a. Carbon steel
b. 1.25 Cr – 0.5 Mo
c. 2.25 Cr – 1 Mo
d. 1 Cr – 0.5 Mo

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148. Common way to minimize temper embrittlement is to limit

a. ‘J’ factor for weld metal.
b. ‘X’ factor for base metal.
c. ‘J’ factor for base & ‘X’ factor for weld metal.
d. ‘X’ factor for base & ‘J’ factor for weld metal

149. Thermal fatigue cracks usually are

a. Branching, Transgranular and initiate from within the material.
b. Dagger shaped, intergranular and initiate form within the material.
c. Dagger shaped, oxide filled and initiate form the surface.
d. Dagger shaped, clean and intergranular.

150. “Clam shell” type crack failure having concentric rings called “beach
marks” showing “waves” of crack propagation is typically the description of
a. Fatigue cracks.
b. Creep cracks.
c. Stress corrosion cracks.
d. Hydrogen induced cracks.

151. Sigma phase embrittlement can be mitigated by

a. By Doing PWHT
b. By Adding Cromium to more than 17 %
c. By Cooling below 500 Deg F
d. all
e. none

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