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Networking Fundamentals

1. In Local area network (LAN) topologies, the primary media access methods are: (Choose two.)
a. Contention
b. Kerberos
c. Negotiation
d. Token Passing

2. Which Type of network covers the broadest area?


a. CAN
b. LAN
c. PAN
d. WAN

3. Which type of network is most vulnerable to intrusion?


a. Broadband
b. Dial-up
c. Leased line
d. Wireless

4. In a physical star topology, the central device is referred to as a :


a. Bridge
b. Hub
c. Segmenter
d. Server

5. Attenuation in a wireless network signal is a result of :


a. Distance from the access point
b. Encryption of the signal
c. Interference from cellular phones
d. Number of wireless nodes connected

6. VPNs are implemented to provide :


a. Additional encryption by using IPSec
b. Additional security for selected computers
c. A secure connection within a private network
d. A secure connection through public networks

7. If an 802.11g Internet connection has connectivity problems, what may be the cause :
a. Electro Magnetic Interface (EMI)
b. A cellular phone
c. A cordless phone
d. Incandescent lights

8. Which of the following uses a tunneling protocol?


a. Extranet
b. Internet
c. VLAN
d. VPN

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Networking Fundamentals

9. Two companies want to share data by using the Internet. Which type of network provides the
solution?
a. Ethernet
b. Extranet
c. Intranet
d. Perimeter

10. A media Access Control (MAC) address identifies a/an :


a. Local Area Network (LAN)
b. Local Broad domain
c. Network Interface Card (NIC)
d. UPnP device

11. Which of these factors has the biggest impact on data transmission speed in a wireless network?
a. The transmission standard of the equipment used
b. The transmission wattage rating used on the NIC
c. The use of strong encryption for transmissions
d. The access method used for the network

12. A network that separates an organization’s private network from a public network is a / an :
a. Extranet
b. Firewall
c. Internet
d. Perimeter

13. A router’s static route is set by the :


a. Adjacent network
b. Network Administrator
c. Next upstream router
d. Routing Protocol

14. A Layer 2 device that connects multiple computers within a network is a :


a. Router
b. Packet
c. Repeater
d. Switch

15. Connecting to a private network address from a public network requires :


a. Dynamic Domain Name System (DDNS)
b. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
c. Network Access Protection (NAP)
d. Network Address Translation (NAT)

16. A cable that meets the 1000BaseT standard has a maximum length of :
a. 100 m
b. 250 m
c. 500 m
d. 1000 m

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Networking Fundamentals

17. Which of the following represents a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
a. 05:35:AB: 6E:A1:25
b. 127.0.0.1
c. 255.255.255.0
d. GV:ZC:KK:DK:FZ:CA

18. One advantage of dynamic routing is that it :


a. Reduces broadcast traffic
b. Automatically enables DHCP
c. Automatically maintains routing tables
d. Limits traffic derived from routing protocols

19. A Network device that Associates a Media Access Control (MAC) address with a port is a :
a. DSL modem
b. Hub
c. Router
d. Switch

20. Which subnet mask is valid?


a. 255.255.255.240
b. 255.255.255.245
c. 255.255.255.164
d. 255.255.255.228

21. The ping tool is used to : (Choose two)


a. Determine whether a host is reachable
b. Self-test a host’s own network a host is reachable
c. Manage a host’s session when UDP is used
d. Determine the network portion of a host address

22. The default port used for telnet is :


a. 23
b. 25
c. 80
d. 8080

23. What type of DNS record maps host names to addresses?


a. Canonical (CNAME) DNS record
b. Host (A) DNS record
c. Mail Exchanger (MX) DNS record
d. Service (SRV) DNS record

24. Which setting is used to determine the Domain Name System (DNS) settings on a client
computer?
a. NETSTAT
b. NSLOOKUP
c. PATHPING
d. TELNET

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Networking Fundamentals

25. A computer that has an IP address 169.254.0.1 cannot access the network. Which of the
following services should you confirm is available :
a. DHCP
b. DNS
c. TFTP
d. WINS

26. The command-line tool used to list a host’s active incoming connections is :
a. PING
b. NETSTAT
c. NSLOOKUP
d. IPCONFIG

27. Teredo tunneling is a protocol that :


a. Provides VPN security
b. Translates Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) to Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6)
c. Allows IPv6 connectivity through IPv6 devices
d. Dynamically allocates IPv6 address

28. Which of the following are features of DHCP? (Choose two)


a. Networking file transfer
b. Address reservation
c. IP Address exclusion
d. Secure shell connections
e. IP address resolution to canonical names

29. A service that resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses is :


a. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
b. Domain Name Service (DNS)
c. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
d. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)

30. When a client’s DHCP-issued address expires, the client will?


a. Attempt to obtain a new address by broadcasting
b. Require manual configuration with a static IP address
c. Continue to use the address until it is notified to stop
d. Select a new address and request approval from the DHCP server

31. The default subnet mask for a Class B network is :


a. 0.0.0.255
b. 0.0.255.255
c. 255.0.0.0
d. 255.255.0.0

32. The default port used for SMTP is :


a. 23
b. 25
c. 80
d. 8080

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Networking Fundamentals

33. Which network does the IP address 220. 100.100. 100 belong to?
a. 220.100.100.0/24
b. 220.100.100.1/24
c. 255.255.255.0/24
d. 255.255.255.1/24

34. You ping a server by using fully qualified domain name (FQDN) and do not receive a response.
You ping the same server by using its IP address and receive a response. Why do you receive a
response on the second attempt but not on the first attempt?
a. NSLOOKUP is stopped
b. The DNS is not resolving
c. The DHCP server is offline
d. PING is improperly configured

35. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C Internet network?
a. 255.255.255.252
b. 255.255.255.240
c. 255.255.255.192
d. 255. 255. 255. 0

36. Which wireless authentication method provides the highest level of security?
a. IEEE 802.11n
b. IEEE 802.11a
c. Wired Equivalency Privacy (WEP)
d. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)

37. What happens when an 802. 11b node starts broadcasting within the range of an 802. 11g
access point?
a. A connection will be established
b. Both the node and the access point will be unable to transmit
c. The node will transmit, but the access point will be unable to receive
d. The access point will transmit, but the node will be unable to receive

38. Which two are published IEEE 802.11 wireless transmission standards? (Choose two )
a. 802.11f
b. 802.11g
c. 802.11k
d. 802.11m
e. 802.11n

39. Which technology can you use to extend an internal network across shared or public networks?
a. Microsoft ASP.NET
b. Microsoft.NET Framework
c. VLAN
d. VPN

40. A Media Access Control (MAC) address identified a / an :


a. Local Area Network (LAN)
b. Local broadcast domain
c. Network Interface Card (NIC)
d. UPnP device

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Networking Fundamentals

41. A VPN is / an :
a. Personal network for your use only
b. Communication tunnel between VLANS
c. Encrypted connection across the Internet
d. Virtual network within your local area network (LAN)

42. A Node within a local area network (LAN) must have a network interface device and a :
a. Network account
b. Host address
c. Resource to share
d. Table of all network nodes

43. The topology of a local area network (LAN) is define by the :


a. Distance between workstations
b. Number of devices to connect
c. Physical and logical characteristics
d. Type of cable being used

44. Which of the following is a Layer 2 WAN protocol?


a. Internet Protocol (IP)
b. Point-to-point Protocol (PPP)
c. Transmission Control Protocol (TPC)
d. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

45. The maximum Throughput of an 802.11g network is :


a. 2.3 GHz
b. 54 GHz
c. 2.4 Mbps
d. 54 Mbps

46. Which of the following determines the media access method that is used in a network?
a. Maximum speed of the media
b. Topology and Protocol
c. Number of domain servers on the segment
d. Number of hosts connected to the network

47. Which technology provides the highest bit rate?


a. DS3
b. E1
c. ISDN
d. T1

48. The top-level domain of www.adventureworks.com is :


a. adventureworks
b. adventureworks.com
c. com
d. www
Source: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd197427%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

49. The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) main.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:

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Networking Fundamentals

a. com
b. corp
c. exchange
d. main
e. nwtraders
Source: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd197427%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

50. A computer that has an IP address of 169.254.0.1 cannot access the network. Which of the
following services should you confirm is available?
a. DHCP
b. DNS
c. TFTP
d. WINS

51. Which of these is an application layer protocol?


a. FTP
b. IP
c. TCP
d. UDP

52. Which of these addresses is a multicast address?


a. 127.0.0.1
b. 169.254.0.1
c. 192.168.0.1
d. 244.0.0.1

53. To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1./25 refer?


a. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
b. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
c. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
d. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128
e. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256

54. At what layer in the OSI model are hardware addresses referenced?
a. Application
b. Data link
c. Network
d. Physical

55. The ipconfig command will :


a. Configure routers
b. Configure DHCP clients
c. Display a client’s address
d. Display a client’s broadcast mode

56. The protocol that maps IP addresses to a Media Access Control (MAC) address is :
a. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
b. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
c. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
d. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
e. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

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Networking Fundamentals

57. Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?


a. DNS Server
b. IDS
c. IPS
d. NAT Server

58. Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?
a. CHECK
b. IPCONFIG
c. PING
d. ROUTE

59. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C Internet network?
a. 255.255.255.252
b. 255.255.255.240
c. 255.255.255.192
d. 255.255.255.0

60. Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?
a. 127.0.0.1
b. 192.168.0.1
c. : : 1
d. FEC0:ABC0::AA01

61. Which setting is used to determine the Domain Name System (DNS) settings on a client
computer?
a. NETSTAT
b. NSLOOKUP
c. PATHPING
d. TELNET

62. A user reports that she cannot connect to network resources from a computer on the company
network. The user was able to connect to the network resource yesterday. You verify that the
user’s computer is properly physically connected to the network. You discover that the
computer’s IP address is 169.254.48.97. You need to restore access to network resources. What
should you do next?
a. Flush the cache on the DNS server
b. Verify that the DHCP service is available
c. Reset the user’s password on the server
d. Check your router’s current routing tables

63. You ping a server by using fully qualified domain name (FQDN) and do not receive a response.
You then ping the same server by using its IP address and receive a response. Why do you
receive a response on the second attempt but not on the first attempt?
a. NSLOOKUP is stopped
b. The DNS is not resolving
c. The DHCP server is offline
d. PING is improperly configured

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Networking Fundamentals

64. The function of a router is to :


a. Store tables for name resolution
b. Forward traffic to other networks
c. Provide IP subnet masks for hosts
d. Broadcast routing tables to client

65. If a router cannot determine the next hop for a packet, the router will :
a. Broadcast the packet
b. Store the packet in the memory buffer
c. Forward the packet to the default route
d. Send the packet

66. To directly connect the Ethernet network interface cards (NICs) of two computers, you should
use a :
a. Coaxial cables
b. Crossover cable
c. Rollover cable
d. Straight cable

67. One reason to replace an unmanaged switch with a managed switch is to :


a. Support multiple VLANS
b. Reduce collision domains
c. Route between networks
d. Manage the routing tables

68. One advantages of dynamic routing is that it :


a. Reduces broadcast traffic
b. Automatically enables DHCP
c. Automatically maintains routing tables
d. Limits traffic derived from routing protocols

69. In addition to switching, multilayer switches also :


a. Provide Layer 3 routing functions
b. Operate by using only Layer 1 and 2 protocols
c. Interface with CAT3, CAT5, CAT5e, and fiber optics
d. Support 10 MB, 100 MB, and 1 GB local area network (LAN) ports

70. The type of connector used on a 1000BaseT Ethernet cable is :


a. BNC
b. TNC
c. RJ-11
d. RJ-45

71. The query protocol use to locate resource s on the network is:
a. Tracert
b. Telnet
c. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
d. User Data Gram Protocol (UDP)

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Networking Fundamentals

72. How many bits are there in an Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) address?
a. 32
b. 64
c. 128
d. 256

73. The default address identifies the :


a. Device that will connect the computer to a remote network
b. Server that will provide name service for the computer
c. Server that will authenticate the user of the computer
d. Device that will connect the computer to the local network

74. Which the following service s makes internal IP Address from outside the network?
a. WINS
b. DNS
c. DHCP
d. NAT

75. Order The Layer Of OSI Model:

APPLICATION 7
PRESENTATION 6
SESSION 5
TRANSPORT 4
NETWORK 3
DATA LINK 2
PHYSICAL 1

76. Protocol that maps IP Address to a Media Access Control (MAC) address is:
a. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
b. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
c. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
d. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
e. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

77. Tracert is used to :


a. Report the router taken by packet across an IP Network
b. Manage session-oriented connections between nodes
c. Report the shortest route between difference networks
d. Manage routing tables dynamically

78. If a router installed so that separates a DHCP Server from its clients, the clients will
a. Immediately lose connectivity to all segments
b. Receive an immediate renewal of their lease
c. Be unable to obtain their leases from the server
d. Immediately lose connectivity to the local segment

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Networking Fundamentals

79. Which of the following is a public IP Address :


a. 10.156.89.1
b. 68.24.78.221
c. 172.16.152.48
d. 192.168.25.101

80. The service services that resolves Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) to IP Addess is :
a. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
b. Domain Name Service (DNS)
c. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
d. Windows Internet name service (WINS)

81. What type of record does DNS use to find a mail service :
a. Mail exchanger (MX) DNS Records
b. Canonical (CNAME) DNS Records
c. Service (SRV) DNS Records
d. HOST (A) DNS Records

82. Which protocol can be used encrypt packet on the Internet :


a. SNMP
b. HTTP
c. HTTPS
d. TFTP

83. The service that resolves NetBIOS name to IP Address is :


a. Domain Name Service (DNS)
b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
c. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
d. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)

84. In which OSI layer does routing occur?


a. Data link
b. Network
c. Physical
d. Transport

85. Which these address is a multicast address :


a. 127.0.0.1
b. 169.254.0.1
c. 192.168.0.1
d. 244.0.0.1

86. A Private network that allow members of an organization to exchange data is an:
a. Internet
b. Extranet
c. Ethernet
d. Intranet

87. To protect a network when it is connected to the Internet, you should use a :
a. Router
b. Firewall

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Networking Fundamentals

c. Bridge
d. Switch

88. Which two of the following are connectivity options for Wide Area Networks (WANs)? (Choose
two)
a. Dial-up
b. Token ring
c. Leased line
d. Ethernet

89. One purpose of a perimeter networks is to:


a. Link local area networks (LANs)
b. Make resources available to the internet
c. Make resource available to the intranet
d. Link campus area networks (CANs)

90. A characteristic of the mesh topology is that it:


a. Cannot used wired connection
b. Uses redundant paths
c. Cannot use wireless connections
d. Uses a central hub

91. In which physical network topology is each computer connected to a central point?
a. Bus
b. Mesh
c. Ring
d. Star

92. The maximum throughput of an 802.11 g network is:


a. 2.4 Ghz
b. 54 Ghz
c. 2.4 Mbps
d. 54 Mbps

93. VPNs are implemented to provide:


a. A secure connection through public networks
b. A secure connection within a private network
c. Additional encryption by using IPsec
d. Additional security for selected computer

94. Which of these factors has the biggest impact on data transmission speed in a wireless network?
a. The access method used for network
b. The transmission wattage rating used on the NIC
c. The transmission standard of the equipment used
d. The uses off strong encryption for transmissions

95. Security is a concern on wireless networks due to:


a. The potential for cross-talk
b. The radio broadcast access method
c. Spread spectrum issues
d. Frequency modulation issues

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Networking Fundamentals

96. A node within a local are network (LAN) must have a network interface device and a:
a. Table of all network nodes
b. Host address
c. Network account
d. Resource to share

97. Which wireless authentication method provides the highest level of security?
a. IEEE 802.11a
b. Wired equivalency privacy (WEP)
c. Wi-Fi protected Access (WPA)
d. IEEE 802.11n

98. Which type of port is used to support VLAN traffic between two switches?
a. Virtual port
b. Trunk port
c. WAN port
d. LAN port

99. One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:


a. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) address.
b. Reduce the number of broadcast domains
c. Increase the number of available IP Address
d. Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain

100. Connecting to a private network address from a public network requires:


a. Network Access Protection (NAP)
b. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
c. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS)
d. Network address translation (NAT)

101. You need to divide a network into three subnets, which device should you use?
a. Router
b. Hub
c. Bridge
d. Segmenter

102. A cable that meets the 1000BaseT standard has maximum length of:
a. 100 m
b. 250 m
c. 500 m
d. 1,000 m

103. What is the maximum cabling requirements for a 100BaseTx Network?


a. Category 3 UTP cable
b. Category 5 UTP cable
c. Category 6 UTP cable
d. Multimode fiber cable

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