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about the fact that the purpose was ‘if he said that, he would …’ In the (The expressions (ἐπ)ομóσαϛ ἔϕη
conceived in the past rather than the last two examples the subjunctive and γελáσαϛ ἔϕη are often cited as
present or future. mood is being used actually, so it is equivalent to and posing the same
more a case of coincidence with the problem as the two mentioned
10.2 As already noted, the Greeks do not form of the indicative.) above. But there is no difficulty in
seem always to have observed the understanding the participles to
distinctions they made. So, one 10.4 The tenses of the participle, like indicate anteriority (and can one
tense is used where we would expect the indicative, usually denote time laugh and speak at the same time?),
another. Sometimes it is not at all rather than aspect, though relative as the aorist participle nearly
clear why a particular tense has been (to the time of the main verb) always does.)
used. At other times it does not rather than absolute time.
seem to matter, when it seems that it However, it is not clear in some It is claimed that the tense of a
should matter, which tense is used. cases why the aorist tense has been participle usually denotes aspect
This can be a very frustrating used. It does not seem to indicate not time when the participle is
experience for someone new to unambiguously anteriority, and the used instead of the protasis of
aspect who accepts that it is aorist participle is not normally certain types of conditional
important and is struggling to used to indicate aspect rather than sentences. But in most such
understand it. One suspects that it is time. (In fact the participle instances the tense of the
impossible for us fully to generally, like the indicative in participle could equally well, if not
understand the workings of ancient present and future time, seems better, be seen as denoting time,
Greek when it comes to nuances of strangely indifferent to differences e.g. in the sentence ‘If he does that
aspect. (Who can claim fully to of aspect, so that, for example, the he will be punished’, the aorist
understand the workings of Greek present participle must be used (to participle ποιήσαϛ could be
particles, even with Denniston as a indicate simultaneity) in instances understood as ‘having done that’.
guide?) where the aspect would seem to
require the aorist, e.g. ‘while leaving Note (as indicated above) that the
10.3 Although the tenses of the the house …’, or ‘while glancing up tense of the participle in clauses of
indicative in general denote time …’. But this happens in clauses of indirect statement introduced by
(and in some tenses aspect too), the indirect statement too, of course, verbs of seeing, perceiving, etc.
tense used does not always indicate especially ones which employ the indicates time, not aspect.
the expected, usual time. So, the participle, infinitive and optative.)
present indicative does not always When I say (above) that it is not 10.5 The tenses of the imperative are
indicate present time, as is the case clear in some cases why the aorist time-neutral (though logically the
with the ‘historic present’ used of tense has been used, I am thinking of imperative has reference to the
past narrative. The aorist indicative expressions such as ἀποkρινáμενοϛ future, or at least the present) and
does not always indicate past time, ἔϕη and ἔϕη ὑπολαβών. In these denote aspect only. It is probably in
as is the case with the ‘gnomic expressions common sense the use of the imperative that one is
aorist’ (a real or imagined event in seems to demand that the most aware of an apparent lack of
the past serves as a precedent for a participles denote simultaneity consistency in the marking of
maxim), the ‘dramatic/silent aorist’, (unless the participles denote aspect, or at least puzzlement as to
and the use of the aorist ὤϕελον in something different from what ἔϕη why one tense has been used rather
wishes for the present. The denotes), so that they are not being than another. One is not always clear
imperfect indicative does not always used to indicate (past) time; but whether it is the inherent nature of
indicate past time, as is the case with equally it is not easy to see that the the activity or whether, whatever the
present unreal conditions or wishes tense denotes the kind of aspect nature of the activity, it is the
for the present, and imperfect that we associate with the aorist difference between single or
indicatives of impersonal verbs such tense. The Greek usage may be repeated instances / occasions
as (ἐ)χρÁ ν, ἔδει, ἐξÁ ν, which refer akin to our ‘he answered and said (perhaps similar to the difference
to present time when used with the …’ (i.e. in answer), ‘he replied in between the Latin use of ne with the
present infinitive. turn and said …’ (i.e. in reply), perfect and present subjunctive) that
rather than ‘having answered, he is being marked. How does Greek
(Note that in English too the tense said … ‘and ‘having replied in make clear what is meant by ‘Do not
used may refer to a time other than return, he said …’. On the other sleep in class’? If the aorist
that normally denoted by the tense. hand, they have the appearance of (subjunctive) is used, is the teacher
So, a present tense may refer to formulaic usage, and therein may really intending to make crystal clear
future time, e.g. ‘if he says that, he lie the explanation, which, of that his command should apply only
will …’ A past tense may refer to course, is no explanation at all to this one class? Or is he giving a
present time, e.g. ‘if he said/were unless one knows how they came command not to fall asleep, in this
saying this, he would be …’ A past to be formulae that constitute and any other class? What difference
tense may refer to future time, e.g. exceptions to the normal usage. would be indicated by the use of the
60
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2016 and thesubject
at 01:07:11, AncienttoGreek Verb Core terms of use, available at http:/www.cambridge.org/core/terms.
the Cambridge
http://dx.doi.org/10.1017/S205863101600026X
present (imperative)? Sometimes it tense of the optative used in indirect that it did matter, accept that it
really does not seem to matter to a statements and indirect questions did, and try to figure out why.
Greek writer what tense is used, indicates time, not aspect.2
which is disconcerting for a student
trying to get clear differences of 10.8 The tenses of the subjunctive Jerome Moran is a JACT Tutor and
tense and aspect. (It is ironic that indicate aspect only. a retired teacher of Classics and
students usually encounter aspect Philosophy in the secondary sector.
for the first time in the form of the Note that in the indefinite jeromemoran@hotmail.com
imperative and aorist subjunctive construction the difference of time
when learning about direct is indicated by the difference in
commands and prohibitions. It mood, not tense. The subjunctive is
might be better to introduce it with used of present and future time, the 1This is the conventional explanation of the
deliberative direct questions rather optative of past time. The difference in aspect of the aorist and the
than the imperative, where the same difference of tense indicates a present/imperfect. A different, or additional,
problems do not arise.) difference of aspect. explanation is given by E J Bakker, A
Companion to the Ancient Greek Language,
pp. 161-166 (and in various articles). (The
If the tense of the infinitive used in 11. Where the tense of the verb conventional explanation is given in pp.
clauses of indirect command is the indicates aspect only and not time 140-141.) Actually, Bakker does not give any
same as the tense that would have it is vital to grasp the implications examples in the book of an aorist/present
been used in the direct command/ of this. It means, for example, contrast, and the examples he does give are
prohibition (a reasonable that the present tense can be used confined to the indicative and concerned
assumption, surely), we might, by of past and future time (think of mainly with main clauses.
studying the former carefully in the constructions of which this is 2Itis not true, as some books state or imply,
Greek texts, have more evidence true), and the past tense (aorist) that indirect statement (and the use of the
from which to gain a better used of present and future time optative in indirect questions) is the only
understanding of the distinction of (again, think of the instance of an optative that denotes time
aspect in the latter. constructions). We are so used to rather than aspect. Note that -
the tense of a verb indicating
10.6 The tenses of the infinitive nearly time location only that the Greek (a) in clauses of effort or precaution after a
historic main verb (HMV) the future indicative
always indicate aspect only. But the usage is hard to get our head
may be replaced by the future optative,
tense of the infinitive used in around. It seems to us at first to denoting time and not aspect;
indirect statement, in wishes for the be a systematically perverse and (b) the optative after a HMV in a causal clause
present and past expressed by wilful misuse or abuse of the denotes time, not aspect;
ὤϕελον with the infinitive, in the tenses, for no obviously (c) the optative replacing the indicative in the
use of impersonal verbs such as justifiable reason, and not even protasis of a present and future open
(ἐ) χρÁ ν etc. (see earlier) with consistently but randomly condition in indirect speech after a HMV
denotes time, not aspect.
present or aorist infinitive, indicates applied. One can easily end up
time, not aspect. thinking that it does not really There may be others.
matter what tense of the verb is As can be seen above, it is also not true, as is
10.7 The tenses of the optative nearly used. But we should reflect that claimed, that the future optative is used only in
always indicate aspect only. But the the Greeks seem to have thought clauses of indirect speech.
Tense,
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on 17 NovAspect
2016 atand the Ancient
01:07:11, subjectGreek
to theVerb 61
Cambridge Core terms of use, available at http:/www.cambridge.org/core/terms.
http://dx.doi.org/10.1017/S205863101600026X