ALLEN PAPER CODE : 3002CM300418003

TM

CAREER INSTITUTE FORM NUMBER

Path to Success KOTA (RAJASTHAN)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(ACADEMIC SESSION 2018-2019)

PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE

PHASE – III & IV
TEST # 05 DATE : 19 - 08 - 2018
Test Type : Minor Test Pattern : NEET UG
INSTRUCTIONS
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.
If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and
shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

TOPICS

PHYSICS : MOTION IN 2D, (RELATIVE & PROJECTILE MOTION), NLM (WITHOUT PSEUDO FORCE & FRICTION)

CHEMISTRY : MOLE CONCEPT, ATOMIC STRUCTURE, PERIODIC TABLE

BIOLOGY : PLANT ANATOMY, ROOT & STEM AND LEAF IN MORPHOLOGY

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Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

 CBSE & GSEB
MINOR TEST # 06 Topics DATE : 02 - 09 - 2018
NURTURE COURSE : III & IV
PHYSICS : Newton's Law of Motion, Friction, Circular Motion

CHEMISTRY : Periodic Table and Chemical Bonding

BIOLOGY : Complete Morphology, Carbohydrate, Lipids & Proteins in

Biomolecules

NEET-UG PATTERN
 Nurture Course/Phase-III & IV/19-08-2018
HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. A bird is flying towards north with a velocity 6. The point from where a ball is projected is taken
40 kmh–1 and a train is moving with velociyt as the origin of the coordinate axes. The x and y
40 kmh–1 towards east. What is the velocity of
components of is displacement are given by x =
the bird noted by a man in the train?
6t and y = 8t – 5t 2 . What is the velocity of
(1) 40 2 kmh–1 N-E (2) 40 2 kmh–1 S-E projection?
(3) 40 2 kmh–1 N-W (4) 40 2 kmh–1 S-W (1) 6 ms–1 (2) 8 ms–1
2. A swimmer wishes to cross a 500 m river (3) 10 ms–1 (4) 14 ms–1
flowing at 5 kmh–1. His speed with respect to
water is 3 kmh–1. The shortest possible time to 7. In the above problem, what is the angle of
cross the river is projection with horizontal?
(1) 10 min (2) 20 min (1) tan–1 (1/4) (2) tan–1 (4/3)
(3) 6 min (4) 7.5 min (3) tan–1 (3/4) (4) tan–1 (1/2)
3. A train of 150 m length is going toward north 8. A particle is fired with velocity u making angle
direction at a speed of 10 ms–1. A parrot flies at q with the horizontal. What is the change in
a speed of 5 ms–1 towards south direction parallel
to the railway track. The time taken by the parrot velocity when it is at the highest point?
to cross the train is equal to (1) u cos q (2) u
(1) 12 s (2) 8 s (3) 15 s (4) 10 s (3) u sin q (4) (u cos q – u)
4. A man can swim in still water with a speed of 9. A projectile will cover same horizontal distance
2 ms–1 . If he wants to cross a river of water
when the initial angles of projection are:
current speed 3 ms–1 along shortest possible
(1) 20°, 60° (2) 20°, 50°
path, then in which directyion should he swim?
(1) At an angle 120° to the water current (3) 20°, 40° (4) 20°, 70°

(2) At an angle 150° to the water current 10. The maximum height reached by projectile is
4m. The horizontal range is 12 m. The velocity
(3) At an angle 90° to the water current of projection in ms–1 is (g is acceleration due
(4) none of these to gravity)
5. A plank is moving on ground with a velocity
(1) 5 g / 2 (2) 3 g / 2
v, and a block is moving on the plank with
respect to it with a veloicyt u w.r.t. plank as 1 1
(3) g/2 (4) g/2
shown in fig. What is the velocity of block with 3 5
respect to ground?
11. For angles of projection of a projectile at angles
u Block (45 + a) and (45 – a), the horizontal ranges
described by the projectile are in the ratio is
Plank
v (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
(1) v – u towards right 12. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the
acceleration is
(2) v – u towards left
(1) Maximum (2) Minimum
(3) u towards right
(3) Zero (4) g
(4) None of these

ADI/3002CM300418003 1/17
 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/19-08-2018
13. At the uppermost point of a projectile, its 20. The equation of motion of a projectile is
velocity and acceleration are at an angle of
3
y = 12x - x 2
(1) 0° (2) 45° (3) 90° (4) 180° 4
14. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v0 The horizontal component of velocity is
at an angle of projection q. From the same point 3 ms–1 . What is the range of the projectile?
and at the same instant, a person starts running
with a constant speed v0/2 to catch the ball. Will (1) 18 m (2) 16 m (3) 12 m (4) 21.6 m
the person be able to catch the ball? If yes, what
should be the angle of projection? 21. A projectile is projected with initial velocity

(1) Yes, 60° (2) Yes, 30° (6iˆ + 8j)

ˆ ms–1. If g = 10 ms–2, then horizontal range
is
(3) No (4) Yes, 45°
(1) 4.8 m (2) 9.6 m
15. An airplane moving horizontally with a speed
of 180 kmh–1 drops a food packet while flying (3) 19.2 m (4) 14.0 m
at a height of 490 m. The horizontal range of
the food packet is g = 9.8 ms –2 . 22. When a body is stationary
(1) 180 m (2) 980 m (3) 500 m (4) 670 m (1) there is no force acting on it
16. A body is projected at an angle of 30° with the
horizontal and with a speed of 30 ms–1. What is (2) the forces acting on it are not in contact
the angle with the horizontal after 1.5 s? with it

(g = 10 ms–2 ) (3) the combination of forces acting on it

(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 60° (4) 90° balances each other

17. A hiker stands on the edge of a cliff 490 m (4) the body is in vacuum
above the ground and throws a stone
horizontally with a speed of 15 ms–1. The time 23. Passengers standing in a bus are thrown
taken by the stone to reach the ground is (g = outwards when the bus takes a sudden turn.
9.8 ms–2 )
This happens because of
(1) 10 s (2) 5 s (3) 12 s (4) 15 s
(1) outwards pull on them
18. In the first part of Q. 17, the vertical component
of the velocity on hitting the ground is (2) inertia

(1) 79 ms–1 (2) 89 ms–1 (3) change in momentum

(3) 98 ms –1 (4) 108 ms –1 (4) change in acceleration

19. A ball is thrown at different angles with the 24. A satellite in force-free space sweeps stationary
same speed u and from the same point and it
interplanetary dust at a rate (dM/dt) = av. The
has the same range in both the cases. If y1 and
y2 are the heights attained in the two cases, then acceleration of satellite is:
y1 + y2 is equal to
(1) –2 av 2/M (2) – av2/M
2 2 2 2
u 2u u u
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) – av2/M (4) – av 2
g g 2g 4g
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25. A massless string passes over a frictionless
pulley and carries two masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2)
at its ends. If g is the acceleration due to gravity,
then the thrust on the pulley is: (m1 > m2)
Nurture Course/Phase-III & IV/19-08-2018
28. Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg are
connected to each other with light strings and
are then placed on a smooth frictionless surface.
The system is pulled with a force F from the
side of the lighter mass so that it moves with
an acceleration of 1 ms–2. T1 and T2 denote the
tensions in the other strings. The value of F is:

æ 2m1m2 ö æ 2m1m 2 ö (1) 2 N (2) 3 N (3) 5 N (4) 10 N

(1) ç m - m ÷ g (2) ç m + m ÷ g
è 1 2 ø è 1 2 ø
29. In the Q. 28, the value of T1 is
æ 4m1m 2 ö
(3) ç m + m ÷ g (4) zero
è 1 2 ø (1) 1 N (2) 5 N (3) 8 N (4) 10 N
26. In the adjoining figure, the tension in the string
30. In the Q. 28, the value of T2 is
connecting A and B is:
(1) 1 N (2) 5 N (3) 8 N (4) 10 N

31. Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends

of a string which passes over a pulley attached to
the top of a double inclined plane of angles of
inclination a and b. If M2 and M1, the acceleration
a of the system is given by (a > b):

a
g 8g 10g
(1) g (2) (3) (4)
9 9 9
27. In the system shown in the adjoining figure, the
tension T2 is:
M 2 (sin b)g
(1) M1 + M 2

M1 (sin a)g
(2) M1 + M 2

æ M 2 sin b - M1 sin a ö
(3) ç ÷g
è M1 + M 2 ø
(M1 sin a - M 2 sin b)
(4) (g)
(1) g (2) 2g (3) 5g (4) 6g M1 + M 2

ADI/3002CM300418003 3/17

32. Three blocks of masses m1 , m2 and m3 kg are
placed in contact with each other on a
frictionless table. A force F is applied on the
heaviest mass m1 ; the acceleration of m3 will
Target : Pre-Medical 2020/19-08-2018
36. Two masses M 1 and M 2 are accelerated
uniformly on a frictonless surface as shown in
figure. The ratio of the tensions T1 /T2 is:

M1 M2
(1) M (2) M
2 1

F F (M1 + M 2 ) M1
(1) m (2) (m + m ) (3) M2 (4) (M + M )
1 2
1 1 2

F F 37. A machine gun fires n bullets per second and

(3) (m + m ) (4) (m + m + m ) the mass of each bullet is m. If v is the speed
2 3 1 2 3
of each bullet, then the force exerted on the
33. In the Q. 32, the contact force experienced by
mass m2 due to m 1 is machine gun is:

F1 (1) mng (2) mnv

(1) F (2) (m + m )
2 3
(3) mnvg (4) (mnv)/g
F(m 2 + m1 ) F(m 2 + m3 )
(3) (m + m + m ) (4) (m + m + m ) 38. A ball of mass 3 kg, moving with a speed of
1 2 3 1 2 3
100 m/s, strikes a wall at an angle 30° (as shown
34. A rod of length L and mass M is acted on by in fig). The ball rebounds at the same speed and
two unequal forces F1 and F 2 (< F1 ) as shown remains in contact with the wall for 0.2 sec; the
in the following figure.
force exerted by the ball on the wall is:

Ball

30°
The tension in the rod at a distance y from the
30°
end A is given by:

æ yö æ yö æ yö æ yö
(1) F1 ç1 - ÷ + F2 ç ÷ (2) F2 ç1 - ÷ + F1 ç ÷
è Lø è Lø è Lø è Lø Wall
y (1) 1500 3N (2) 1500 N
(3) (F 1 – F2 ) (4) none of these
L
(3) 300 3N (4) 300 N
35. Three blocks of masses m 1 , m 2 and m 3 are
connected by massless string as shown on sa 39. A thief is running away on a straight road in
frictionless table. They are pulled with a force T3 a jeep moving with a speed of 9 ms –1 . A
= 40N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3 = 4 kg, policeman chases him on a motor cycle moving
then tension T2 will be: at a speed of 10 ms –1. If the instantaneous
separation of the jeep from the motor cycle is
100 m, how long will it take for the policeman
to catch the thief?

(1) 20 N (2) 40 N (3) 10 N (4) 32 N (1) 1 s (2) 19 s (3) 90 s (4) 100 s

4/17 ADI/3002CM300418003

40. A body of mass 2 kg has an initial velocity
of 3 m/s along OE and it is subjected to a force
of 4 N in a direction perpendicular to OE. The
distance of body from O after 4 s will be:
Nurture Course/Phase-III & IV/19-08-2018
43. A boat takes 2 hours to go 8 km and come
back in still water lake. The time taken for going
8 km upstream and coming back with water
velocity of 4km/h is :

(1) 140 min

(2) 150 min

(3) 160 min

(4) 170 min

44. A river flows from east to west with a speed of

(1) 12 m
5m/min. A man on south bank of river, capable
(2) 20 m of swimming at the rate of 10 m/min in still water,
(3) 8 m wants to swim across the river in shortest time;

(4) 48 m he should swim :

41. Three particles A, B and C are projectied from (1) due north
the same point with the same initial speeds making
angles 30°, 45° and 60° respectively with the (2) due north-east
horizontal. Which of the following statements are
correct ? (3) due north-east with double the speed of river
(4) none of the above
(1) A, B and C have unequal ranges

(2) Ranges of A and C are equal and less than
that of B
(3) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater
than that of B
(4) A, B and C have equal ranges
45. A cricket ball of mass 150 g is moving with a
velocity of 12 m/s and is hit by a bat so that
the ball gets turned back with a velocity of 20 m/
s. If the duration of contact between the ball
and bat is 0.01 s, find the average force exerted

42. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at on the ball by the bat.
an angle of 45° to the horizontal. Its kinetic
energy at the highest point of its flight will be:– (1) 480

E (2) 48
(1) E (2)
2
(3) 4.8
E
(3) (4) zero
2
(4) 4800

ADI/3002CM300418003 5/17
 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/19-08-2018
46. 8g of CaCO3 on heating gave 3.25g CO2 gas. 54. To dissolve 3.3g of certain metal 110mL of
The mass of residue left is – NH2 SO4 . Find the equivalent mass of metal.
(1) 4g (2) 4.48g (3) 12g (4) 16g (1) 15g (2) 30g (3) 10g (4) 100g
47. H combines with O to form two compounds
55. What is weight volu me percentage of a
water (H2 O) and hydrogen peroxide (H2O2 ).
solution in which 7.5g of KCl is dissolved in
If 2g of H reacts with O completely to form
100 mL of the solution –
18g of water and 34g of H2 O, then what is
ratio of mass of O combining with H. (1) 7.5% (2) 92.5% (3) 50% (4) none
(1) 3 : 9 (2) 4 : 16 56. 10g HCl dissolved in 250mL of its aqueous
(3) 1 : 2 (4) None of these solution. If density of the solution is 1.2 g/mL.
48. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2, then 11.2g then molality of the solution will be
of this gas at N.T.P. will occupy a volume -
(1) 1 (2) 0.34 (3) 0.945 (4) 3.4
(1) 1.12 litres (2) 0.112 litres
57. What difference will appear in the mass
(3) 112 litres (4) 11.2 litres
number if the number of neutrons is halved
49. Calculate the number of molecules of
number of electrons is doubled in 8O16 ?
dinitrogen oxide in 0.044 kg of the gas ?
(1) 25 % decrease (2) 50% increase
(1) 6.02 × 1023 (2) 3.01 × 1023
(3) 12 × 1023 (4) None of these (3) 150% increase (4) No difference

50. Which of the following contains the highest 58. Which of the following pairs consists of
number of molecules ? molecules having same mass number ?
(1) 17.75 g of Cl2 (2) 8g of CO (1) H2O and D2 O (2) H2O and HTO
(3) 4g of He (4) 28g of Fe
(3) D2O and HTO (4) D2 O and HCl
51. 10 moles SO2 and 15 moles O2 were allowed
59. The mass number of three isotopes of an
to react over a suitable catalyst. 8 moles of SO3
were formed. The remaining moles of SO2 and element are 11, 12 and 13 units. Their

O2 respectively are – percentage abundance is 80, 15 and 5

respectively. What should be the atomic weight
(1) 2 moles, 11 moles (2) 2 moles, 8 moles
of the element ?
(3) 4 moles, 5 moles (4) 8 moles, 2 moles
52. If 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole (1) 11.25 (2) 20 (3) 16 (4) 10
of Na3PO4 the maximum amount of Ba3(PO4)2 60. The pair NH3 + BH3 is isoelectronic with
that can be formed is –
(1) B2H6 (2) C2H6 (3) C2H4 (4) CO2
(1) 0.70 mol (2) 0.50 mol
61. A diapositive ion has 16 protons. What should
(3) 0.20 mol (4) 0.10 mol
be the number of electrons in its tetrapositive
53. 0.56g KOH is present in 100 mL of the solution
ion.
what is the normality ?
(1) 1N (2) 0.1N (3) 2N (4) 0.2N (1) 16 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 10

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 Nurture Course/Phase-III & IV/19-08-2018
62. If the velocities of first, second, third and 68. What should be the ratio of enetgies of the
fourth orbits of hydrogen atom are v1 , v2, v3 electrons of the first orbits of Na+10 and H ?
and v 4 respectively, then which of the
(1) 11 : 1 (2) 121 : 1 (3) 1 : 121 (4) 1 : 11
following should be their increasing order
69. The energy required in the process He +2 ®
(1) v1 < v2 < v3 < v4 (2) v4 < v3 < v2 < v1
He+3 will be
(3) v1 > v2 < v3 > v4 (4) Equal for all
(1) 0 eV (2) + 13.6 eV
63. The ratio of velocities of electrons present in
Na+10 and H should be (3) + 3.4 eV (4) + 1.5 eV

(1) 11 : 1 (2) 11 : 3 (3) 1 : 11 (4) 4 : 11 70. Which of the following is the principal
quantum number for the last electron of 11Na?
64. The ratio of radius of the fifth orbits of He+ and
Li+2 will be (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 5 : 3 71. What should be the maximum number of
65. Which of the following orbits of hydrogen electron in the possible sub-shells, for
atom should have the values of their radii in n+l=4?
the ratio of 1 : 4 ? (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 16
(1) K and L
72. Pauli exclusion principle applies to
(2) L and N
(1) H (2) H+
(3) M and N
(3) H– (4) None of the above
(4) 1 and 2 both are correct
73. Which of the following is the period number
h
66. If a = , then the correct expression for of the element whose atomic number is 98
4p me 2
2

(1) 4 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 6

calculation of the circumference of the first
74. Which of the following is the artificial element
orbit of hydrogen atom should be in the periodic table
(1) 4h 2 pa (1) Tc (2) Te (3) Ru (4) Os
(2) 2pa 75. Whose electron affinity will be less than zero ?
(3) 2pha (1) O2– (2) S2–
(4) 1 and 3 both are correct (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) O+
67. What should be the order E1, E2, E3 and E4, if
76. Which of the following should be the correct
these are the respective energies of the first,
order of the second ionisation potential of Li,
second, third and fourth orbits of hydrogen
Be B and C
atom ?
(1) Li < Be > B < C
(1) E1 = E2 = E3 = E4
(2) Be < B < C < Li
(2) E4 < E3 < E2 < E1
(3) E1 < E2 < E3 < E4 (3) Be < C < B < Li

(4) E2 > E3 < E4 < E1 (4) Li < C < B < Be

ADI/3002CM300418003 7/17
 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/19-08-2018
77. Which of the following should have less than 84. Increasing order of basic character of NO2K2O
11.0 eV difference between the values of first and ZnO is
and socond ionisation potentials (1) NO2 < ZnO < K2 O
(1) Mg (2) K2 O < ZnO < NO2
(2) Na (3) ZnO < K2O < NO2

(3) K (4) ZnO < NO2 < K2 O

(4) All of the above three 85. The element Z = 107 and Z = 109 have been
made recently, element Z = 108 has not yet
78. Which of the following should be correct for
been made. Indicate the group in which you
Z1 and Z2 in the following two processes
will palce the above element
M+ + Z1 ® M+2 + e–
(1) 7th (2) 8th (3) 9th (4) 6th
M+2 + Z2 ® M+3 + e– 86. Ionization potential of Na would be
numerically the same as
1
(1) Z = Z2 (2) Z1 = Z2 (1) Electron affinity of Na+
2 1
(2) Electronegativity of Na+
1
(3) Z1 = Z (4) Z1 < Z2 (3) Electron affinity of He
2 2
(4) Ionization potential of Mg
79. Decreasing order of electronegativeities of F,
Cl, Br and I is 87. The ionization potential of X – ion is
numerically equal to :
(1) F < Cl < Br < I (2) I < Br < Cl < F
(1) The electron affinity of X atom
(3) Br < I > Cl > F (4) I < Br > Cl < F
(2) The electronegativity of X atom
80. Electronegativity of which of the following is
(3) The ionization potential of X
high ?
(4) None of these
(1) –CH3(sp3 )
88. Element A,B,C,D belong to the same group.
(2) H2C = CH2 (sp 2 ) The basic character of their oxides will be in
(3) CHºCH (sp) which order if the atomic numbers of A,B,C,D

(4) Equal in all are (Z-x), (Z + 2x + 2), Z, (Z + x) respectively

(1) A < B > C < D (2) A > B > C > D
81. Which of the following is the most polar bond
(3) B > D > C > A (4) B > C > D > A
(1) N–H (2) Cl–H (3) O–H (4) Br–H
89. First, second third and fourth I.P. values in eV
82. Which of the following formula is incorrectly
of M are 5.1, 17.9, 23.9, 120 respectively. The
written
ion which would be formed is
(1) OF 2 (2) Cl 2 O (1) M+3 (2) M+2
(3) BrCl (4) None of these (3) M+4 (4) M+1 and M+2
83. Which of the following is most acidic ? 90. Which of the following oxides is most acidic ?
(1) H2 Te (2) H2 O (3) H2 S (4) H2 Se (1) Al2O3 (2) SiO2 (3) P2O5 (4) MgO

8/17 ADI/3002CM300418003
 Nurture Course/Phase-III & IV/19-08-2018
91. A leaf may bear two lateral small leaf like 96. According to the given diagrame's find out the
structures called : correct match ?
(1) Pappus (2) Bract
(3) Involucre (4) Stipule (A) (i) Whorl
92. The petiole expands, becomes green and
synthesis food in :
(1) Onion
(2) Venus - fly trap
(3) Cacti
(4) Australian acacia
(B) (ii) Alternate
93. Monocot plants usually have parallel venation
but reticulate venation is seen leaves of .......
(1) Bamboo (2) Banana
(3) Smilax (4) Grasses
94. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Tap root system present in dicot plants.
II. Fibrous root system present in monocot
plants. (C) (iii) Palmate compound
III. Adventitious roots present in only dicot
plants.
(1) Only I is correct.
(2) II and III are correct.
(3) I and II are correct.
(4) I, II and III are correct.
95. Match the following and choose correct
(D) (iv) Opposite
option ?
Group - A Group - B
A. Pulvinus i. Australian a cacia
B. Tepal ii. Opuntia
C. Phyllode iii. Mimosa pudica
D. Phylloclade iv. Onion
A B C D
A B C D
(1) iii iv ii i
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iii i ii iv
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) iii iv i ii
(3) ii iv iii i
(4) iv iii ii i (4) i ii iii iv
ADI/3002CM300418003 9/17
 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/19-08-2018
97. Plants which is growing in swampy area, hows 102. Histogen theory states that epidermis is derived
getting essential oxygen for respiration ? from the
(1) By foliar root (1) Periblem (2) Cambium
(2) By roots
(3) Cortex (4) Dermatogen
(3) By assimilatory roots
(4) By pneumatophores 103. Xylem vessels and phloem companion cells are

98. Which of the following pair is correct :- generally absent in which vascular plants ?

(1) Stilt root - Maize (1) Ferns and angiosperms

(2) Fibrous root - Melilotus (2) Ferns and gymnosperms
(3) Respiratory root - Bryophyllum (3) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
(4) Parasitic root - Money plant
(4) Pteridophytes and thallophytes (Algae)
104. Plerome gives rise to
(1) Cortex
99.
(2) Epidermis
(3) Epiblema
Which type of venation is shown in diagram:-
(4) Vascular tissue system and pith
(1) Parallel palmata
(2) Parallel pinnate (convergent) 105. Root cap is absent in
(3) Parallel palmate (Divergent) (1) Succulent xerophytes
(4) Multicostate palmate (2) Hydrophytes
100. Select correct statements from the following :-
(3) Xerophytes
(a) In majority of the dicotyledonous plants, the
(4) Mesophytes
direct elongation of the radicle leads to the
formation of primary root. 106. Which of the following is a fully differentiated
(b) In monocotyledonous plants, the primary tissue ?
root is short lived and is replaced by a large (1) Procambium
number of roots. These roots originate from
(2) Protoderm
the lower most part of the stem and
constitute the fibrous root system (3) Collenchyma
(c) Adventitious roots are found in Monstera (4) Intrafascicular cambium
and banyan tree 107. How many parts of dicot stem in the list given
(d) Fibrous root system is found in wheat below are parenchymatous :
(1) a, b, c, d all (2) a, b and c only
Epidermis, Hypodermis, General cortex,
(3) a, c and d only (4) a and b only
Endodermis, Xylem, Phloem, Pith
101. Which is not true about leaves ?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
(1) Rachis is not present in palmately compound
leaf 108. Lateral meristem is responsible for :-
(2) Pinnately compound leaf is present is neem (1) Growth in length
(3) Rachis is not present in pinnately compound (2) Growth in parenchyma
leaf.
(3) Growth in girth
(4) Palmately compound leaf is present in silk
cotton (4) Growth in cortex

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109. How many in the list given below are the part 115. Some plants like Colchicum, zaminkand etc.
of epidermal tissue system ? produce corm, the corm is :-
Epidermis, Xylem, Phloem, Root hair, stomata, (1) A swollen root
Cortex, Pericycle, Pith
(2) A swollen vertical underground stem
(1) Three (2) Four (3) One (4) Two
(3) A swollen horizontal underground stem
110. If there are more than two leaves at each node
and form a whorl, then phyllotaxy is called :- (4) A swollen leaf base
(1) Opposite (2) Radicle 116. Rhizome is found in :-
(3) Whorled (4) Alternate (1) Colocasia & Ginger
111. In banana, true stem is underground. The stem (2) Ginger & Turmeric
like structure (Pseudostem) outside soil is (3) Colocasia & Turmeric
formed by :-
(4) Colocasia & Lotus
(1) Peduncle (2) Petiole of leaves
117. Which of the following is a modification of leaf
(3) Leaf bases (4) Inflorescence
petiole ?
112. These roots are of which plants respectively
and they are modified for :- (1) Cladode (2) Phylloclade
(3) Phyllode (4) Corm
118. Study the following statements carefully :-
(a) Lateral meristems perfoms secondary
growth only
(b) Stem of grass continues to grow even when
apical portion is removed
(c) Fascicular vascular cambium is an example
of lateral meristem
(d) Both apical and intercalary meristems are
(1) Turnip, carrot and sweet potato for food storage primary meristam

(2) Turnip, carrot and sweet potato for mechanical How many from the above statements are
support correct ?
(3) Turnip, carrot and sweet potato for respiration (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
(4) Turnip, orchid and potato for food storage 119. Study the following statements/characters
113. In Rhizophora negatively geotropic roots are carefully and match them with parenchyma,
found, which come above the ground for :- collenchyma and sclerenchyma:-
(1) Mechanical support (a) Cells much thickened at corner due to
(2) Gaseous exchange deposition of cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose
(3) Photosynthesis (b) Usually dead and without protoplast
(4) Floating (c) Form major component within plant organ
114. Bulbs of garlic and onion have:- (d) Performs functions like photosynthesis,
(1) No leaves storage, secretion and have thin cellulosic
(2) No stem wall.
(3) Greatly reduced stem (e) Lignified cell wall having few or numerous
(4) No roots pits
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(f) Occurs in layers below the epidermis in 121. These are the figures representing the
young dicot stem modification of :-
(g) Commonly found in fruit wall of nuts, pulp
of pear, seed coat of legumes and tea leaves.
Provide mechanical support.
The correct matching is :-
(1) Parenchyma - (a), (c). Collenchyma - (b), (f),
(g). Sclerenchyma - (b), (g)
(2) Parenchyma - (c), (d). Collenchyma - (a), (d),
(1) Roots for food storage
(g). Sclerenchyma - (b), (e), (f)
(2) Stem for food storage
(3) Parenchyma - (d), (f). Collenchyma - (b), (e),
(g). Sclerenchyma - (a), (g) (3) Leaf for food storage
(4) Inflorescence of plants
(4) Parenchyma - (c), (d). Collenchyma - (a),
(f). Sclerenchyma - (b), (e), (g) 122. Find the incorrect match figure with examples:-

120. Consider the following diagrams :- Xylem

Phloem
(1) – Sunflower root
c
b
d Phloem
Cambium
e (2) – Sunflower stem
Xylem

Phloem
a
Find the correct match :- (3) – Gram stem
Xylem
(1) (a) - Tracheid for mineral and water
transport
(d) - Sieve tube for food transport
Phloem
(2) (a) - Tracheid for mineral and water Cambium
Xylem
transport (4) Cambium – Cucurbita stem
(b) - Sieve tube for food transport Phloem

(3) (b) - Sieve tube for food transport
(e) - Companion cell found in
gymnosperms
(4) (c) - Companion cell helps in maintaining
pressure gradient in sieve tubes
123. How many of the followings are living
unicellular structures ?
Sieve tube, Vessel, Vessel elements,
Companion cell, Bast fibre, Albuminous cell,
Sieve cell, Tracheids, Cuticle, Root hair.

(d) - Stores substances like resin, latex (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five

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124. Which statement is not true for Gossypium
fibres ?
(1) They are not true fibres
(2) They are made of cellulose
(3) These fibres are out growth of testa
(4) They are lignified fibres
125. The living differentiated cell, which has lost the
capacity to divide, can regain capacity of
division under certain condition. This
phenomenon is called
(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Differentiation
(3) Redifferentiation
(4) None of these
126. In monocot stem the tissue present below the
epidermis is :-
(1) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(2) Parenchymatous cortex
(3) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
(4) Parenchymatous exodermis
127. Select correctly matched pair(s):-
(1) Xylem fibres – Obliterated central lumen
(2) Tracheids – Lignified, tapering end wall
(3) Vessels – Perforated end walls
(4) All of the above
128. Some structures are given below. How many
of them are modifications of stem ?
Rhizome of turmeric, Bulb of onion,
insectivorous pitcher of Nepenthes,
Potato tubers, tubers of sweet potato, Tendrils
of Pisum sativum.
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Five (4) Six
129. Which tissue mainly composed of immature cells ?
(1) Apical meristem
(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Permanent tissue
(4) Both (1) & (2)
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Nurture Course/Phase-III & IV/19-08-2018
130. During the formation of primary plant body,
dermal tissue, ground tissues, vascular tissues
are produced by specific regions of the :-
(1) Apical meristem
(2) Marginal meristem
(3) Lateral meristem
(4) Secondary meristem
131. Both apical meristem and intercalary meristem
are primary meristem :-
(1) Because they are responsible for formation
of secondary plant body
(2) Because they are responsible for formation
of secondary meristem
(3) Because they appears early in life of plant
and contribute to the formation of primary
plant body
(4) There are result of dedifferentiation
132. Read following four (A-D) statements :-
(A) Xylem parenchyma is a living cell
(B) Xylem fibre have obliterated lumen
(C) End wall of vessels is imperforated
(D) End wall of tracheids is imperforated but
pitted
How many statement is/are wrong ?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
133. Cortex is produced by :-
(1) Ground-meristem (2) Pro-cambium
(3) Plerome (4) Dermatogen
134. Read the following four statements (A-D) and
answer as asked next to them :-
(A) Fascicular vascular cambium is an example
of lateral meristem
(B) Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem
(C) The vessels are devoid of protoplasm
(D) Radial conduction of water take place by
metaxylem
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) One (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Three
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135. The quiescent centre in root meristem serves
as a :-
(1) Site for storage of food which is utilized
during maturation
(2) Reserve of growth hormone
(3) Reserve for replacement of damaged cells
of meristem
(4) Region for absorption of water
136. Cork cambium is an example of :-
(1) Apical meristem
Target : Pre-Medical 2020/19-08-2018
143. Identify in order the plant showing alternate
opposite and whorled phyllotaxy :-
(1) Chinarose, calotropis and nerium
(2) Chinarose, nerium and calotropis
(3) Nerium, calotropis and chinarose
(4) Calotropis nerium and chinarose
144. Whorled phyllotaxy mainly found in:-
(1) Calotropis (2) Alstonia
(3) Mustard (4) Guava

(2) Intercalary meristem 145. Winged petiole is example of :-

(3) Primary meristem (1) Citrus (2) Alstonia

(4) Lateral meristem (3) Opuntia (4) Both (1) and (2)
137. Growth rings are formed due to activity of :- 146. The part of leaf which is attached to stem is
(1) Intrastelar cambium known as
(2) Intercalary cambium (1) Hypopodium (2) Mesopodium
(3) Extrastelar cambium (3) Epipodium (4) Pedicel
(4) Primary cambium 147. Choose the correct statement :
138. Lenticel and its complementory cell are (1) Stem bears nodes and internodes.
developed through the activity of :- (2) Stem shows positive geotropic growth.
(1) Phellogen (3) Leaves arranged in basipetal manner.
(2) Stelar cambium (4) In turmeric stem shows vertical growth.
(3) Dermatogen 148. Select the incorrect statement :
(4) Intercalary meristem
(1) In potato vegetative propagation performed
139. In Onion, under ground swollen edible portion by Axillary buds.
is:-
(2) Leaves not shows secondary growth.
(1) Root (2) Bulb
(3) Cucurbita have open vascular bundle.
(3) Stem (4) Rhizome
(4) Monocot plants have parallel venation with
140. Which is not a modification of stem ?
open vascular bundles.
(1) Corm of colocasia
149. Select the correct match :
(2) Rhizome of ginger
(1) Tuber – Ginger
(3) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(2) Turmeric – Bulb
(4) Tuber of potato
(3) Assimilatory roots – Trapa
141. Stilt root are found is :-
(4) Pneumatophores – Rhizophora
(1) Rice (2) Sugarcane
150. Select the incorrect match :
(3) Groundnut (4) Gram
142. When stem modified into a fleshy, flat and (1) viviparity – Rhizophora
green leaf like structure is called :- (2) Pneumatophores – Negatively Geotropism
(1) Phylloclade (2) Plyllode (3) Root hair – Elongation zone
(3) Cladode (4) Pulvinus (4) Winged petiole – Citrus

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151. Vegetative propagation in Banana performed 159. Which is not a stem ?
by – (1) Phyllode (2) Phylloclade
(1) Suckers (2) Tuber (3) Cladode (4) Rhizome
(3) Offset (4) Axillary buds 160. Which is not organ of parennation ?
152. Select the correct statement : (1) Turnip (2) Ginger
(1) Mustared have tap root. (3) Potato (4) Phylloclade
(2) Potato & Tomato are tubers. 161. Which plants shows modification for storage
of food ?
(3) Phylloclade is a modified root for food
storage. (1) Mirabilis, Turnip, Potato
(4) Guava have alternate phyllotaxy. (2) Nepenthese, Opuntia

153. Which have Rhizome stem ? (3) Pea, Australian Acasia

(1) Opuntia (2) Onion (4) Maize, Money plant

162. Leaf tendrils found in
(3) Banana (4) Potato
(1) Pumpkin (2) Bougainvillia
154. Lateral roots in dicot are
(3) Pea (4) Money plant
(1) Exogenous is origin
163. Which have highly reduced stem with fibrous
(2) Endogenous in origin
roots ?
(3) Developed from cortial cells
(1) Onion (2) Turmeric
(4) Developed from cambium (3) Banana (4) Sunflower
155. Which is not modified root ? 164. Select the incorrect :
(1) Carrot, Radish (2) Pneumatophores (1) Bamboo have culm stem.
(3) Ginger (4) Sweet potato (2) Cucumber have stem tendrils.
156. Select the incorrect : (3) Bougainvillia have rhizome.
(1) Adventitious roots develops from other (4) Banana shows unicostate parallel venation.
parts than radicle. 165. Which plants have reticulate multicostate
(2) Turnip is a tap root. venation ?
(3) Insectivorus plants grows in deficiency of (1) Banana, Wheat
nitrogen. (2) Bamboo, Fan palm
(4) Seeds of viviparous plants can store for long (3) Fan palm, silk cotton
time. (4) Papaya, Pumpkin
157. Adventitious roots present in ........ 166. Study of internal structure of plants called
(1) Potato, Tomato & Ginger (1) Plant Morphology
(2) Banyan, Sugarcane, Maize (2) Plant Anatomy
(3) Neem, Banyan, Carrot (3) Plant Physiology
(4) Rhizophora, Money plant (4) Plant Diversity
158. Select the incorrect : 167. Tissue is the group of cells which have :
(1) Spines helps in protection (1) Common origin
(2) Tendrills helps in climbing. (2) Common function
(3) Suckers helps in vegetative propagation. (3) Common structure
(4) Root hairs prevent from water lose. (4) Structure & function different

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168. Meristems are not – 173. What is correct about primary meristem ?
(1) Dividing cells 1. It appears early in the life of plant.

(2) Undifferentiated cells 2. Primary meristem contribute to the

formation of the primary plant body.
(3) Immature cells
(1) Only 1st
(4) Permanent cells
(2) Only 2nd
169. Intrafascicular cambium is :
(3) Both correct
(1) Secondary meristem
(4) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
(2) Primary meristem 174. What is correct about intercalary meristem ?
(3) Tertiary meristem 1. It is an example of secondary meristem.
(4) Permanent cells 2. Intercalary meristem occurs between
170. Which of the following is not lateral meristem ? mature tissues.

(1) Fascicular vascular cambium (1) Only 1st

(2) Only 2nd
(2) Inter fascicular cambium
(3) Both correct
(3) Intercalery meristem
(4) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
(4) Cork cambium
175. Select correct statement :
171. Select the incorrect statement :
1. Epidermis is outermost protective layer of
(1) Meristem cells are undifferentiated. cells.
(2) Cork cambium is a lateral meristem. 2. Epidermis plays a significant role in
(3) Intercalary & axillary buds are primary in protection.
origin. 3. Epidermis is mostly double layered and
(4) Trichomes are included in ground tissue lack of chloroplast.
system. (1) Only 1st (2) Only 1 and 2

172. Write down the correct sequence : (3) All (4) 1 and 3
176. It is present just below the epidermis. It is
(1) Promeristem ® Primarymeristem ®
multilayared thick it is composed of
Primary Permanent Tissue ® Secondary
collenchyma and cells may contain chloroplast.
meristem ® Secondary Permanent tissue
These are correct property of :
(2) Promeristem ® Primary Permanent Tissue (1) Hypodermis (2) Endodermis
® Primarymeristem ® Secondary (3) Pericycle (4) Epidermis
meristem ® Secondary Permanent tissue
177. Choose the correct statement about endodermis :
(3) Promeristem ® Primarymeristem ® 1. It is single layered.
Primary Permanent Tissue ® Secondary 2. Endodermis rich in starch grain.
Permanent tissue ® Secondary meristem (1) Only 1
(4) Primarymeristem ® Promeristem ® (2) Only 2
Primary Permanent Tissue ® Secondary (3) Both are correct
meristem ® Secondary Permanent tissue (4) Both are incorrect

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178. Internal structure of a typical dicote stem shows
which property ?
1. Vascular bundle is conjoint collateral and
open.
2. Xylem is endarch.
3. Pith is less developed.
Choose correct statements :
(1) 1 and 2 only (2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 1 (4) All
179. Which monocotyledons show secondary
growth abnormally ?
(1) Bamboo (2) Cucurbita
(3) Dracaena (4) Mango
180. Secondary growth is present in :
(1) Dicotyledons root and stem
(2) Dicot and monocot stem only
(3) Dicot and leaf only
(4) Dicot & Gymnosperm stem and leaves

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