Bape

Definition of business analysis?
1a
The set of tasks and techniques used to work as
a liaison among stakeholders in order to
understand the structure, policies and operations
of an organization, and to recommend end
solutions that enable the organization to achieve
its goals.
1b
What is the definition of a business analyst?
2a
A person who performs business analysis
activities no matter what their job title or
organizational role may be.
2b
A business analyst performs business analysis in
order to do what?
3a
Align the needs of the business units with the
capabilities delivered by information technology.
3b
What is the definition of a solution?
4a
A set of changes to the current state of an
organization that are made in order to enable
that organization to meet a business need, solve
a problem, or take advantage of an opportunity.
4b
What is the definition of a requirement?
5a
A condition or capability needed by a stakeholder to
solve a problem or achieve an objective
OR
::A condition or capability that must be met or
possessed by a solution or solution component to
satisfy a contract, standard, specification or other
formally imposed documents
::OR
::A documented representation of a condition or
capability
5b
According to the BABOK what type of analysis
generates BUSINESS requirements?
6a
Enterprise Analysis
6b
What is a BUSINESS requirement?
7a
A high level statement of the goals or objectives
or needs of the enterprise
7b
What is a STAKEHOLDER requirement
8a
A statement of the needs of a particular
stakeholder or class of stakeholders
8b
What type of analysis generates STAKEHOLDER
requirements?
9a
Requirements Analysis
9b
What is a SOLUTION requirement?
10a
A characteristic of the solution that meets the
business requirements and stakeholder
requirements.
10b
SOLUTION Requirements are comprised of what
two types of requirements?
11a
Functional and Non-functional requirements
11b
According to the BABOK when are SOLUTION
requirements gathered?
12a
Requirements Analysis
12b
What is a TRANSITION requirement
13a
A requirement that describes the capabilities the
solution must have to facilitate the transition
from current to future state of the enterprise,
but will not be needed after the transition
13b
When are TRANSITION requirements gathered?
14a
Solution Assessment and Validation
14b
What is the definition of a knowledge area?
15a
They define what a practitioner of business
analysis needs to understand and the tasks that
a practitioner must be able to perform
15b
How many Knowledge Areas are identified in the
BABOK and what are they?
16a
There are 7:
::Business Analysis Planning and Monitoring
::Elicitation
::Enterprise Analysis
::Solution Assessment and Validation
::Requirements Analysis
::Requirements Management and Communication
::Underlying Competencies
16b
What is the objective of the Business Analysis
Planning and Monitoring knowledge area?
17a
To show how the BA determines which activities
are necessary in order to complete a business
analysis effort
17b
What is the objective of the Elicitation
knowledge area?
18a
To show how the BA works with stakeholders to
identify and understand their needs and
concerns, and understand the environment in
which they work
18b
What is the purpose of elicitation?
19a
To ensure that the stakeholders' underlying
needs are understood, rather than their stated
or superficial desires
19b
What is the objective of the Requirements
Management and Communication knowledge
area?
20a
To define how a BA manages conflict, issues and
changes in order to ensure the stakeholders and
the project team remain in agreement on the
solution scope
20b
What is the objective of the Enterprise Analysis
knowledge area?
21a
To define how a BA identifies a business need,
refines and clarifies the need and defines the
solution scope that can be feasibly implemented
21b
What is the objective of the Requirements
Analysis knowledge area?
22a
To define how a BA prioritizes and progressively
elaborates stakeholder and solution
requirements in order to enable the project
team to implement a solution
22b
What is the objective of the Solution Assessment
and Validation knowledge area?
23a
To define how the BA assesses proposed
solutions to determine which solution fits best
the business need, indentifies gaps in solutions,
determines necessary workarounds or changes
to the solution
23b
What is the objective of the Underlying
Competencies knowledge area?
24a
To describe the behaviors, knowledge and other
characteristics that support the effective
performance of business analysis
24b
What are the characteristics of a task?
25a
::Accomplishes a result that creates value
::Is complete
::Is a necessary part of the purpose of the
knowledge area
25b
True or False
::The BA is a stakeholder in all business analysis
activities?
26a
TRUE
26b
What is the definition of a Domain Subject
Matter Expert (SME)
27a
Any individual with in-depth knowledge of a
topic relevant to the business need or solution
scope
27b
What is the definition of a customer?
28a
A stakeholder outside the boundary of a given
organization/unit who makes use of
products/services delivered by the organization
28b
What is the definition of an end user?
29a
A stakeholder who interacts directly with the
solution
29b
What is an Implementation Subject Matter
Expert (SME)
30a
Individuals responsible for designing and
implementing potential solutions and of
providing expertise in design and construction of
the solution
30b
What do Organizational Change Professionals
do
31a
They are responsible for facilitating acceptance
and adoption of new solutions and overcoming
resistance to change
31b
What's a usability professional do?
32a
A usability professional is responsible for
external interaction design of technological
solutions and for making the design as simple to
use as feasible
32b
An output is the necessary result of the work
described in a WHAT?
33a
Task
33b
What is a technique?
34a
It provides additional information on different
ways that a task may be performed or forms the
output of the task may take
34b
How many underlying competencies are there
and what are they?
35a
There are 6
::Analytical Thinking and Problem Solving
::Behavioral Characteristics
::Business Knowledge
::Communication Skills
::Interaction Skills
::Software Applications
35b
What are the tasks associated with the Business
Analysis Planning and Monitoring knowledge
area?
36a
There are 6
::Conduct Stakeholder Analysis
::Plan BA Approach
::Plan BA Activities
::Plan BA Communication
::Plan Requirements Mgmt Process
::Manage BA Performance
36b
What are the inputs to the Business Analysis
Planning and Monitoring knowledge area tasks?
37a
There are 5
::Analysis performance metrics
::Business Needs
::Enterprise Architecture
::Expert Judgment
::Organizational process assets
37b
What are the inputs to plan the Business Analysis
Approach?
38a
::Business Need
::Organizational Process Assets
::Expert Judgment
38b
The understanding of the business need in
planning the Business Analysis approach helps to
determine which approach to take. What are the
two types of approaches?
39a
::Plan-driven
::Change-driven
39b
What are the differences between plan and
change-driven analysis approaches?
40a
::Plan-driven focuses on minimizing up-front
uncertainty (risk reduction), fully defined
requirements, fully detailed documentation and
controlled change.
::Change-driven focuses rapid delivery of
functionality in iterations, higher risk, prioritized high-
level requirements that reside in a backlog, detailed
documentation only as necessary and later in the
process usually after implementation, enhanced
collaboration
40b
What are some factors that impact project
complexity?
41a
::Number of stakeholders
::Number of business areas affected
::Amount and type of risk
::Uniqueness of requirements
::Number of tech resources required
41b
What are the recommended techniques to assist
in planning the business analysis approach?
42a
There are 3
::Decision Analysis
::Process Modeling
::Structured Walk-thrus
42b
What is the definition of the business analysis
approach?
43a
A definition of the approach that will be taken
for business analysis in a given initiative.
43b
A business analysis approach specifies what?
44a
Roles, deliverables, analysis techniques,
timing/frequency of stakeholder interaction
44b
Stakeholder Analysis is part of what knowledge
area?
45a
Business Analysis Planning and Monitoring
45b
What does enterprise architecture do?
46a
Describes the organizational units that exist and
their interactions with other organizational units
46b
What are organizational process assets?
47a
Policies and procedures, suggested
methodologies, templates and guidelines
47b
Can change-driven analysis approaches
eliminate risk? Why?
48a
No, because late identification of stakeholders
or needs can alter the previous outcomes
48b
What are the elements of stakeholder analysis?
49a
There are 4
::Identification
::Complexity
::Attitude and Influence
::Authority Levels for BA Work
49b
What are the complexity factors regarding
stakeholder groups?
50a
::Number and variety of stakeholder groups
::Number of interfacing business processes and
automated systems
50b
What are the factors of stakeholder attitude
directed at?
51a
There are 5
::Business goals approach
::Business Analysis
::Collaboration
::Sponsor
::Team members
51b
What are the factors of influence by
stakeholders on a project?
52a
Influence on the project, organizational, project
health and other stakeholders
52b
Stakeholder authority over business analysis
takes what forms?
53a
::Approval of deliverables
::Inspection/Approval of requirements
::Approval of requirements process
::Traceability
::Veto of proposed requirements or solutions
53b
What is a RACI matrix?
54a
It describes the roles of individuals involved in
business analysis activities
54b
What do the initials RACI stand for?
55a
::Responsible
::Accountable
::Consulted
::Informed
55b
What is a stakeholder map?
56a
A visual diagram that depicts the relationships of
stakeholders to solutions
56b
What are the two forms of stakeholder maps?
57a
Matrix and Onion Diagram
57b
What does an onion diagram depict?
58a
The level of stakeholder involvement with the
solution
58b
What is the purpose of planning analysis
activities?
59a
::Determining activities to be performed
::Estimation
::Identify Management tools to measure
progress
59b
What are the inputs to planning the business
analysis activities?
60a
There are 4
::Business Analysis Approach
::Business Analysis Performance Assessment
::Stakeholder List
60b
What does a Business Analysis Performance
Assessment define?
61a
Prior analysis experience is used to determine
effort for analysis activities
61b
What are the elements of planning business
analysis activities?
62a
There are 3
::Geographic Distribution of Stakeholders
::Type of Project
::Analysis Deliverables
62b
What are the two types of geographic
distribution of stakeholders?
63a
::Collocated
::Dispersed
63b
Name 2 of the 7 project/initiative types
64a
::Feasibility studies
::Process improvement
::Organizational change:
::New software dev
::Outsourced new software dev
::Software Maintenance or enhancement
::Software package selection
64b
What are the methods for identifying analysis
deliverables?
65a
There are 3
::Interviews/facilitated session with stakeholders
::Review of project docs
::Review of organizational assets
65b
What 3 tasks consume the Define Business
Analysis Plan task?
66a
::Planning the BA Communication
::Planning Requirement Management Process
66b
What 5 knowledge areas consume the Business
Analysis Plan?
67a
::Elicitation
::Enterprise Analysis
::Requirement Management and Communication
::Requirement Analysis
67b
What is the definition of a milestone?
68a
A significant event that measures the progress of
a project and compares actual progress to
earlier estimates
68b
Decomposition of the project tasks often using a
WBS is the definition of what?
69a
Functional Decomposition
69b
What is the purpose of Planning Business
Analysis Communication?
70a
To describe the proposed structure and
schedule for Communications re: business
analysis activities
70b
Appropriate audience
71a
appropriate delivery method, approach and
physical location are all considerations of
what?,Planning the BA Communication
71b
The BA Communication Plan is consumed by
what 2 tasks?
72a
::Prepare Requirements Package
::Communicate Requirements
72b
What are the elements of planning the Business
Analysis Communication Plan?
73a
::Time
::Task Completion
::Contracts
::Formal/Informal Authority
73b
What are the factors that can increase or
decrease the need for formal Communications
on a project?
74a
::Project Size
::Domain Complexity
::Inclusion of new technologies
::Delivery to external vendors/suppliers
::Regulatory Concerns
::Stakeholder Request
74b
One of the most recommended on approaches
to requirements Communication is what?
75a
Structured Walk-thru
75b
What describes how
76a
when and why the business analyst will work with
stakeholders?,The Business Analysis
Communication Plan
76b
What is the purpose of planning the
Requirements Management Process?
77a
To describe the approach that will be used to
approve requirements for implementation and
manage changes to the solution scope
77b
The Requirements Management Process includes
what factors?
78a
::Approving stakeholders
::Requirements traceability
::Change process
::Requirement Attributes
78b
What are the inputs to planning the
Requirements Management Process?
79a
There are 3
::Business Analysis Approach
::Business Analysis Plan
79b
What tasks consume the Requirements
Management Plan?
80a
There are 5:
::Manage Requirements Traceability
::Conduct Elicitation
::Manage Solution Scope and Requirements
::Prioritize Requirements
80b
A method of storing requirements that are
approved
81a
under development, and under review describes
what term?,Repository
81b
What provides information about requirements?
82a
An attribute
82b
What focuses on what requirements should be
investigated first?
83a
Requirements Prioritization
83b
Requirements prioritization assesses priority
based on what?
84a
Risk
84b
What is the Final task in requirements
Communication?
85a
::A. answer questions from requirements final
review
::B. make a requirements final review
::C. present the requirements to senior
management
::D. obtain requirements signoff
85b
What is the benefit of feature list
decomposition?
86a
A feature is a service that the solution provides
to fulfill one or more stakeholder needs.
Features are high-level abstractions of the
solution that must later be expanded into fully
described functional and supplemental
requirements. They allow for early priority and
scope management and for validating the
stakeholders' view of the solution.
86b
Functional decomposition identifies what?
87a
Functional decomposition identifies the high-
level functions of an organization or proposed
solution and then breaks down those processes
into sub-processes and activities. This can be
done as part of a systems development or
business process analysis project. The goal is to
break functions down into smaller pieces to
allow for analysis of the detail processes and to
ensure coverage of all significant processes
87b
In the Business Architecture planning endeavor
the BA should determine what?
88a
Appropriate framework and approach
88b
Who are the primary consumers of
requirements?
89a
The project team, who will use them in the
design and development of the system
89b
Functional requirements can be expressed in
what forms?
90a
Use cases and text
90b
The business domain can be described with what
types of diagrams?
91a
Activity Diagrams, Data Flow Diagrams,
Flowcharts, Sequences Diagrams, State Machine
Diagrams
91b
The Component Business Model describes
what?
92a
Component Business Model identifies a basic
building block of the business, and includes the
people, processes and technology needed by
the component to deliver value to the customer.
92b
Enterprise architecture encompasses what 3
elements?
93a
People, processes, technology
93b
What do the letters of the CRUD Matrix stand
for?
94a
Create read, update delete rights to users and
groups. Good in software system development.
Not applicable to business process analysis.
94b
When a conflict arises between stakeholders on
one or more documented requirements
95a
the first thing that needs to take place is
what?,....to record the conflict in the
Requirements Issues Log.
95b
What are the Components of an ERD?
96a
An Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) is a visual
representation of a data structure.
::Because they describe things that are significant
to the enterprise (e.g., Customers, Products,
Employees, Invoices, etc.), ERDs are useful in
describing the structure of the business itself,
and many of the rules by which it is governed.
96b
What is described in the Enterprise Architecture
people processes?
97a
Each model identifies a basic building block of
the business, and includes the people, processes
and technology needed by the component to
deliver value to the customer.
97b
What are the measures on a balanced
scorecard?
98a
The balanced scorecard (Robert Kaplan and
David Norton 1996) provides an effective
technique to frame strategic goals. In this model,
goals are partitioned into four dimensions:
financial, customer, internal operations, and
learning and innovation.
98b
What does the abbreviation PLC stand for?
99a
Project Life Cycle
99b
What is the minimum structural set of
requirements of a presentation whether it is
formal or informal?
100a
Introduction of parties attending presentation
::Statement of presentation objectives
:: Project background
::Presentation/review of deliverable
::Agreement of actions/changes required
::Review of deliverable status (e.g., signed off, not
signed off, etc.)
100b
What is the ISO 9241-11 definition of usability?
101a
The extent to which a product can be used by
specified users to achieve specified goals with
effectiveness, efficiency and satisfaction in a
specified context of use.
101b
What does a logical model represent?
102a
Entities that are in the problem domain and the
relationships between them
102b
When are logical models used by BAs?
103a
To represent requirements of a business area
103b
What is the difference between a view and a
model decomposition?
104a
A view is not exclusive and its requirements may
be referenced in all views that are relevant
104b
What is a view with regard to modeling?
105a
The capture of requirements from a specific
perspective
105b
Modeling benefits are?
106a
::Simplification of reality to allow focus
::Comprehension of complexity
::Explanation from varying perspectives
::Ensures all aspects are considered
::Translate easily into solution design
106b
Modeling is often used when?
107a
::When the problem domain is well known
::When the solution is easy to construct
::When there is little collaboration needed
::When there is little need for ongoing
maintenance
::When the scope is unlikely to grow
107b
What is the definition of a model?
108a
A template for expressing requirements that may
combine textual elements, matrices, and
diagrams
108b
Authorization resources
109a
process identification, impact assessment and
correct wording are all aspects of what?,Change
Management
109b
What does a Change Control Board do?
110a
Considers requested changes and decides on
the merits of the request prior to approving or
declining it.
110b
What are the aspects to a change request that
are important?
111a
::Cost and time to implement
::Benefits and Risk
::Course of action and alternate solutions
::Coordinated prioritization
111b
What major methodology utilizes a
project/product backlog?
112a
Agile or Scrum
112b
Organizational culture
113a
Stakeholder preference, complexity,
organizational maturity and availability of
resources are all factors used to do
what?,Perform tailoring exercises
113b
What are the techniques used in planning
requirements management?
114a
There are 3
::Decision analysis
::Problem tracking
::Risk analysis
114b
What is the output of planning requirements
management activities?
115a
The Requirements Management Plan
115b
What does the Requirements Management Plan
describe?
116a
::Traceability approach
::Definition of requirement attributes
::Requirement prioritization process
::Requirement change process
116b
Metrics are used to do what?
117a
Measure business analysis performance
throughout the lifecycle.
117b
There are 4 inputs to the Manage BA
Performance activity. What are they?
118a
::Business Analysis Performance Metrics
::Business Analysis Plan
::Organizational Performance Standards
::Requirements Management Plan
118b
The Manage BA Performance activity is part of
what knowledge area?
119a
119b
What are the 6 activities that occur within the
knowledge area?
120a
::Plan Business Analysis Approach
::Plan Business Analysis Communication
::Plan Requirements Management Process
::Manage Business Analysis Performance
120b
What are the 4 activities that occur within the
Elicitation knowledge area?
121a
::Prepare for Elicitation
::Document Elicitation Results
::Confirm Elicitation Results
121b
What are the activities that occur within the
Requirements Management & Communication
knowledge area?
122a
There are 5
::Manage Solution Scope and Requirements
::Manage Requirements Traceability
::Maintain Requirements for Re-use
::Communication of Requirements
122b
What are the activities that are part of the
Enterprise Analysis knowledge area?
123a
There are 5
::Define the Business Need
::Assess Capability Gaps
::Determine Solution Approach
::Define Solution Scope
::Define Business Case
123b
What are the activities contained within the
Requirements Analysis knowledge area?
124a
There are 6
::Organize Requirements
::Specify and Model Requirements
::Define Assumptions and Constraints
::Verify Requirements
::Validate Requirements
124b
What are the activities that are part of the
Solutions Assessment and Validation knowledge
area?
125a
There are 6
::Assess Proposed Solution
::Allocate Requirements
::Assess Organizational Readiness
::Define Transition Requirements
::Validate Solution
::Evaluate Solution Performance
125b
What are the Underlying Competencies
described in the BABOK?
126a
There are 6
::Analytical Thinking and Problem Solving
::Behavioral Characteristics
::Business Knowledge
::Communication Skills
::Interaction Skills
::Software Applications
126b
How many different techniques does the BABOK
describe?
127a
34
127b
The BA Performance Assessment is used by
what downstream task as an input?
128a
Plan BA Activities
128b
The BA Process Assets are children of what?
129a
Organizational Process Assets
129b
What does the Plan BA Activities task consume
as an input?
130a
BA Performance Assessment
130b
There are several elements of the Manage BA
Performance activity. What are they?
131a
::Performance Measures
::Performance Reporting
::Preventive and Correction Action
131b
What are performance measures used for?
132a
To set expectations regarding what constitutes
effective business analysis work in the context of
an organization or project
132b
What are some performance measures?
133a
::Deliverable due date deliverables
::Frequency of change
::Number of review cycles
133b
The business analyst should assess the
performance measures to determine what?
134a
Where problems in execution of business
analysis activities are occurring or opportunities
for improvement exist
134b
There are several techniques defined for use in
the Manage Business Analysis Performance
activity. What are they?
135a
There are 7
::Interviews
::Lessons Learned
::Metrics and KPIs
::Problem Tracking
::Process Modeling
::Root Cause Analysis
::Survey/Questionnaire
135b
What is root cause analysis?
136a
An investigation into the underlying cause of a
failure or problem
136b
What is Variance Analysis?
137a
A technique used to analyze discrepancies
between planned and actual performance and
to determine the magnitude of the differences
137b
What knowledge are is Variance Analysis used in
and why?
138a
Business Analysis Planning and Monitoring. It is
used as part of the Manage Business Analysis
Performance activity to manage performance in
an ongoing project
138b
What is a KPI?
139a
Key Performance Indicator
::These are metrics used to help an organization
define and evaluate how successful it is, typically
in terms of making progress towards its long-
term organizational goals
139b
Define elicit.
140a
To draw forth, call forth or bring out
140b
What phases of the SDLC are requirements
elicited in?
141a
Throughout the SDLC
141b
What are the tasks described in the Elicitation
knowledge area?
142a
There are 4
::Conduct Elicitation Activity
::Document Elicitation Results
142b
What are the inputs to Elicitation?
143a
::Business Case
::Business Need
::Solution Scope
::Stakeholder List
143b
What are the outputs of Elicitation?
144a
There are 4
::Elicitation Results
::Scheduled Resources
::Stakeholder Concerns
::Supporting Materials
144b
What is the purpose of preparing for elicitation?
145a
To ensure that all resources are organized and
scheduled for conducting the elicitation exercise
145b
What are two things used to capture elicitation
knowledge?
146a
Data Dictionary & Glossary
146b
What does a glossary typically contain?
147a
Key Domain terminology and business definitions
147b
What is metadata?
148a
Data about data
148b
What are the three elements of elicitation
discussed in the BABOK?
149a
::Tracing requirements
::Capturing Requirements Attributes
::Metrics
149b
What is the input to the Document Elicitation
Results activity?
150a
The elicited requirements
150b
What tasks consume the documented elicited
requirements?
151a
There are 5
::Define the Business Need
151b
What else does elicitation produce?
152a
Stakeholder concerns
152b
What tasks consume stakeholder concerns?
153a
::Assess Org Readiness
153b
What are some examples of stakeholder
concerns?
154a
Risk, assumptions, constraints, etc.
154b
What is the purpose of confirming elicitation
results?
155a
To validate that the stated concerns that are
expressed by the stakeholder match the
stakeholders' understanding of the problem and
needs
155b
What are the inputs to the Confirm Elicitation
Results task?
156a
Requirements and Stakeholder Concerns, both
unconfirmed
156b
What are two techniques that are used to
confirm elicitation results?
157a
Interviews and Observation
157b
What are the outputs of the Confirm Elicitation
Results task?
158a
Requirements and Stakeholder Concerns, both
confirmed
158b
What tasks consume CONFIRMED requirements?
159a
There are 4
::Define Business Need
159b
What tasks consume CONFIRMED stakeholder
concerns?
160a
There are 3
160b
What does the Requirements Management and
Communication knowledge area describe?
161a
The activities and considerations for managing
and expressing requirements to a broad
audience
161b
Communication of requirements does what for
stakeholders?
162a
Brings them to a Communication on
understanding
162b
Performance of all Requirements Management
and Communication activities is governed by
what?
163a
Business Analysis plan
163b
What are the tasks/activities of the Requirements
area?
164a
There are 5
::Manage Solution Scope
::Manage Requirements traceability
::Manage Requirements for Re-Use
::Communication Requirements
164b
What are the inputs into the Requirements
area tasks/activities?
165a
There are 6
::BA Communication Plan
::Requirements
::Solution Scope
::Stakeholder List/Responsibilities
165b
What are the outputs from the tasks/activities in
the Requirements Management and
Communication knowledge area?
166a
There are 5
::Approved Requirements
::Traced Requirements
::Communicated Requirements
::Maintained and Reusable Requirements
::Requirements Package
166b
What is the purpose of the Manage Solution
Scope and Requirements task/activity?
167a
To obtain consensus among stakeholders on
overall solutions scope
167b
What occurs during the Manage Solution Scope
and Requirements task/activity?
168a
::Securing approval of requirements
::Management of issues from elicitation
168b
What is base lining?
169a
In essence, the approval of a set of requirements
(in this context) that allows no change to occur
to the set without a way to control change
169b
What should the requirements do in order to be
approved?
170a
Support the solution scope
170b
Why is the solution scope carried forward into
the Requirement Management and
171a
To ensure that the requirements conform to the
approved solution scope
171b
How is the solution scope used to manage
change in the Requirements Management and
172a
All requested changes to requirements are
assessed against the solution scope to ensure of
alignment
172b
The Requirements Management Plan is an input
to the Requirements Management and
Communication knowledge area. Why?
173a
It is used to define the process to be followed in
managing the solution scope and the
requirements
173b
What are the elements of the Manage Solution
Scope & Requirements task/activity?
174a
::Solution Scope Management
::Conflict and Issue Management
::Presenting Requirements for Review
::Approval
174b
What's the difference between a formal and
informal requirements presentation to
stakeholders?
175a
One is formal written specification with possible
walk-thru and the other is possibly verbal or
email Communication
175b
What are the techniques used to Manage
Solution Scope and requirements?
176a
Base lining and Signoff
176b
What is the purpose of managing requirements
traceability?
177a
To create and maintain relationships between
business objectives, requirements, other
deliverables
177b
What does requirements traceability define?
178a
Lineage of requirements, including backwards
and forwards traceability.
178b
What is derivation?
179a
Backwards traceability
179b
What is allocation?
180a
Forward traceability
180b
What is the value of traceability?
181a
It helps ensure conformation to the overall
solution for each individual requirements and
assists is scope and change Management
181b
What is used to potentially find missing
functionality or identify unrequested
functionality?
182a
Requirements traceability
182b
What is the overall goal of requirements
traceability?
183a
To requirements, solution components are linked
directly or indirectly back to the original
business objectives
183b
What are the inputs to the Manage Requirements
Traceability task/activity?
184a
Requirements and the Requirements
Management Plan
184b
What task/activity consumes traced
requirements?
185a
Manage Solution Scope and Requirements
185b
Why are relationships an element of Manage
Requirements Traceability?
186a
Knowing dependent relationships between
requirements can help determine the sequence
of when each will be addressed
186b
What are the 5 type of relationships between
requirements?
187a
::Necessity
::Effort
::Subset
::Cover
::Value
187b
What is the Cover type of requirement
relationship?
188a
When a requirement completely includes
another requirement. It is a subset in which the
top-level requirement is the sum of the sub-
requirements
188b
What is the Value type of requirement
relationship?
189a
When including a requirement affects the
desirability of a related requirement (increase or
decrease)
189b
Why is traceability useful in performing impact
analysis?
190a
Because when requirements change and they
are linked to other requirements, the related
items are identified as a result of the link, as well
as potential changes in the relationship
190b
What is a Configuration Management System
191a
A specialized tools that is generally used to
trace large volumes of requirements
191b
What is a coverage matrix?
192a
A table or spreadsheet used to manage tracing.
Also called a trace matrix. Used when there are
few requirements.
192b
What is the purpose of the Maintain
requirements for Re-Use task/activity?
193a
To manage the knowledge of requirements
following their implementation
193b
What occurs in the Maintain Requirements for
Re-Use task/activity?
194a
To identify requirements that are good
candidates for long-term usage
194b
What are the two inputs to Maintain
Requirements for Re-Use task/activity?
195a
Organizational process assets and Requirements
195b
Reusable requirements are consumable where?
196a
Enterprise Architecture and Future Initiatives
196b
How are reusable requirements used by
Enterprise Architecture and Future Initiatives
197a
Enterprise Architecture would typically include
term requirement types into a data dictionary.
Other requirement types can be used across
projects in future initiatives to replicate portions
of functionality that is Communication on to
multiple areas
197b
What are ongoing requirements?
198a
Those requirements that an organizational unit is
required to be able to meet on a continuous
basis
198b
What is an example of an ongoing requirement?
199a
::Contractual obligations (SLAs)
::Quality standards
::Business rules/standards
199b
What is the purpose of Prepare Requirements
Package?
200a
To select and structure a set of requirements in
an appropriate fashion to ensure that the
requirements are effectively communicated to,
understood by, and usable by a stakeholder
group or groups
200b
What is the proper level of detail to present for
requirements in a requirements package
201a
That which is needed for the team to understand
the content, and no more
201b
What are some reasons for creating a
requirements package?
202a
::early assessment of quality and planning
::evaluation of possible alternatives
::formal reviews and approvals
::inputs to solution design
::conformance to contractual and regulatory
obligations
::maintenance for re-use
202b
The Prepare Requirements Package task is part
of what knowledge area?
203a
Requirements Management & Communication
203b
Misunderstanding of requirements will adversely
affect what?
204a
Solution Implementation
204b
What are the forms of requirements packages?
205a
There are 3:
::Formal Documentation
::Presentation
::Models
205b
What are the inputs to the Prepare Requirements
Package task?
206a
There are 4:
::Business Analysis Communication Plan
::Org Process Assets
::Requirements
::Requirements Structure
206b
What is the value of the Business Analysis
Communication Plan as an input to Prepare
Requirements Package?
207a
It will describe the stakeholder groups, their
communication needs, and define whether a
single requirements package or multiple
requirements packages are required.
207b
What task consumes the requirements package?
208a
Communicate Requirements
208b
What are the elements of Prepare Requirements
Package?
209a
There are 2:
::Work Products and Deliverables
::Format
209b
What is the definition of a work product?
210a
A document or collection of notes or diagrams
used by the business analyst during the
requirements development process
210b
What are examples of work products?
211a
::Meeting agendas and minutes
::Interview questions and notes
::Facilitation session agendas and notes
::Issues log
::Work plan, status reports
::Presentation slides used during the project
::Traceability matrices
211b
What is the definition of a deliverable?
212a
A deliverable is a specific output of the business
analysis process that the business analyst has
agreed to produce
212b
What is the usage for a requirements
deliverable?
213a
As a basis for solution design and
implementation
213b
What must the analyst understand when deciding
whether to use a deliverable or requirements
deliverable?
214a
::Needs of the audience
::Level of detail that needs to be communicated
::Which deliverables to include in each
presentation package
214b
Format considerations in the requirements
package are for what purpose?
215a
Delivery of a cohesive, effective message to one
or more audiences who will participate in the
requirements review process
215b
What are the techniques of the Prepare
Requirements Package task?
216a
There are 2:
::Requirements Documentation
::Requirements for Vendor Selection
216b
What are some common forms of requirements
documentation?
217a
::BRD
::Product Roadmap
::SRS
::Supplementary Requirements Spec
::Vision Document
217b
What are the typical forms of documentation
when presenting requirements to vendors?
218a
There are 2:
::Request for Information (RFI)
::Request for Quote (RFQ) / Request for
Proposal (RFP).
218b
What is an RFI?
219a
Generally used when the issuing organization is
open to a number of alternative solutions and is
seeking information to evaluate possible options
219b
What is an RFQ/RFP?
220a
Used when the issuing organization understands
the nature of the solution options available to it
and is seeking vendors who can implement an
option. An RFQ generally follows a less formal
review and selection process than an RFP.
220b
Business analysts must develop what based on
the business requirements before looking at
available products?
221a
Evaluation Criteria
221b
What is the purpose of the Communicate
Requirements task?
222a
Communicating requirements is essential for
bringing stakeholders to a common
understanding of requirements.
222b
Does the analyst utilize soft technical or both
types of communication skills when
communicating requirements?
223a
Both
223b
What are the inputs to the Communicate
Requirements task?
224a
There are 3:
::BA Communication Plan
::Requirements
::Requirements Package
224b
The Requirements Package is the output of what
task?
225a
Prepare Requirements Package
225b
What is the output of the Communicate
Requirements task?
226a
Requirements - Communicated
226b
Which task or tasks consume communicated
requirements?
227a
Manage Solution Scope and Requirements
227b
With regards to communicating the requirements
what does the BA Communication Plan provide?
228a
::What requirements should be communicated
::Which stakeholders should receive the
communication
::When communication should occur
::What the form of the communication should be
228b
What are the elements of the Communicate
Requirements task?
229a
There are 2:
::General Communication
::Presentations
229b
What knowledge area does the Communicate
Requirements task reside in?
230a
Requirements Mgmt and Communication
230b
When does requirements communication
typically occur?
231a
It occurs throughout the project on an iterative
basis
231b
Must all project requirements communication be
formal?
232a
No, informal communication is also valuable and
may lead to the creation of additional
requirements
232b
What are so common areas that lead to the
creation of additional requirements as a result of
communication?
233a
::Enterprise analysis
::Elicitation
::Requirements Analysis
233b
The formality of presentations used to
communicate requirements is driven by what
factors?
234a
Stakeholder needs and objectives of the
communication
234b
What are the techniques of the Communicate
Requirements?
235a
There are 2:
::Requirements Workshops
:: Structured Walkthrough
235b
What is the difference between a structured walk
through and a requirements workshop?
236a
A requirements workshop is a structured meeting in
which a carefully selected group of stakeholders
collaborate to define and or refine requirements
under the guidance of a skilled neutral facilitator
A structured walkthrough is an organized peer

review of a deliverable with the objective of finding
errors and omissions. It is considered a form of
quality assurance
236b
Communicated Requirements mean what to
stakeholders?
237a
That they understand them and the current state
the requirements are in
237b
What does the Enterprise Analysis Knowledge
Area describe?
238a
The business analysis activities necessary to
identify a business need, problem, or
opportunity, define the nature of a solution that
meets that need, and justify the investment
necessary to deliver that solution
238b
Enterprise Analysis outputs provide context to
what?
239a
Requirements analysis and solution identification
239b
Is enterprise the starting point or a result of
creating a new project?
240a
The starting point
240b
What is the difference between a requirements
defined during enterprise analysis and
requirements analysis?
241a
The requirements that are outputs of enterprise
analysis are higher level requirements that must
be in place to achieve the business goals and
objectives.
241b
The Enterprise Analysis knowledge area
describes what types of activities for
organizations?
242a
::To analyze the business situation in order to fully understand
business problems and opportunities.
::To assess the capabilities of the enterprise in order to
understand the change needed to meet business needs and
achieve strategic goals.
::To determine the most feasible business solution approach.
::To define the solution scope and develop the business case
for a proposed solution.
::To define and document business requirements (including the
business need, required capabilities, solution scope, and
business case).
242b
There are 7 inputs to the Enterprise Analysis
Knowledge Area. What are they?
243a
::Assumptions and Constraints
::Business Goals and Objectives
::Org Process Assets
::Requirements [Stated]
::Solution Performance Assessment
243b
How many tasks are part of the Enterprise
244a
There are 5. They are:
::Define Business Need
244b
What are the outputs of the Enterprise Analysis
knowledge area?
245a
There are 5:
::Business Case
::Business Need
::Required Capabilities
::Solution Approach
::Solution Scope
245b
What is the purpose of the Define Business Need
task?
246a
Identify and define why a change to
organizational systems or capabilities is required
246b
Why is the definition of the business need so
critical?
247a
It defines the problem that the business analyst
is trying to find a solution for.
The way the business need is defined determines

which alternative solutions will be considered,
which stakeholders will be consulted, and which
solution approaches will be evaluated
247b
What are the inputs needed to define the
business need?
248a
::Business Goals and Objectives
248b
The business need is consumed by what task or
tasks?
249a
::Plan Business Analysis Approach
::Requirements Mgmt and Communication Knowledge Area
249b
What are the four ways to generate a business
need during Enterprise Analysis?
250a
::From Top Down
::From Bottom Up
::From Middle Mgmt
::From External Drivers
250b
Business goals and objectives describe what?
251a
The ends that the organization is seeking to
achieve. Goals and objectives can relate to
changes that the organization wants to
accomplish, or current conditions that it wants to
maintain
251b
Goals are defined as what?
252a
Longer-term, ongoing, and qualitative
statements of a state or condition that the
organization is seeking to establish and maintain
252b
High-level goals can be decomposed to break
down what?
253a
General strategy into distinct focus areas that
may lead to desired results, such as increased
customer satisfaction, operational excellence
and/or business growth
253b
A common test for assessing objectives is to
ensure that they are SMART. What do the letters
in this acronym stand for?
254a
::Specific - describing something that has an
observable outcome
::Measurable - tracking and measuring the outcome
::Achievable - testing the feasibility of the effort
::Relevant - in alignment with the organization's key
vision, mission, goals
::Time-bounded -the objective has a defined
timeframe that is consistent with the business need
254b
In order to define a business need what must
occur?
255a
An issue must be investigated to ensure that
there is in fact an opportunity for improvement if
the issue is resolved
255b
When investigating the business the analyst
should consider what?
256a
:: Adverse impacts the problem is causing
:: Expected benefits from any potential solution
:: How quickly the problem could potentially be
resolved
::The underlying source of the problem
256b
As a possible solution what should always be
considered?
257a
Doing nothing
257b
What is a desired outcome?
258a
It describes the business benefits that will result
from meeting the business need and the end
state desired by stakeholders.
Proposed solutions must be evaluated against

desired outcomes to ensure that they can
deliver those outcomes
258b
What are the techniques of the Define Business
Need task?
259a
::Benchmarking
:: Brainstorming
:: Business Rules Analysis
:: Focus Groups
:: Functional Decomposition
:: Root Cause Analysis
259b
What is Benchmarking?
260a
Understanding what competing organizations
and peers are doing allows the organization to
remain at a comparable level of service or
identify opportunities to increase efficiency
260b
What is the purpose of the Assess Capability
Gaps task?
261a
To identify new capabilities required by the
enterprise to meet the business need
261b
Why should capability gaps be identified?
262a
They that prevent it from meeting business needs
and achieving desired outcomes
262b
What are the inputs of the Assess Capability
Gaps task?
263a
::Business Needs
::Enterprise Assessment
::Solution Performance Assessment
263b
The Assess Capability Gaps task is part of what
knowledge area?
264a
Enterprise Analysis
264b
What is the output of the Assess Capability Gaps
task?
265a
Required Capabilities
265b
What are the tasks that consume Required
Capabilities?
266a
::Requirements Mgmt and Communication
knowledge area
266b
What does a Solution Performance Assessment
define?
267a
Shortcomings, problems or limitations of an
existing solution
267b
What are the elements of the Assess Capability
Gaps task?
268a
There are 3:
::Current Capability Analysis
::Assessment of New Capability Requirements
::Assumptions
268b
What is the goal of the Current Capability
analysis exercise?
269a
To understand the organization's business and
how the business and technology architecture
are supporting that business
269b
What must be done if current capability data is
not available?
270a
The analyst must model and other descriptive
information about the area of the enterprise that
is under review.
270b
What must the current capabilities be assessed
against in order to identify gaps?
271a
The desired objectives of the stakeholders
271b
If current capabilities are insufficient to meet the
business need the business analyst must identify
what?
272a
The capabilities that the organization must add
272b
A comparison of the current and desired future
states will identify what?
273a
Gaps in organizational capabilities that need to
be filled to support the business vision, strategy,
goals and objectives.
273b
Why is it important to identify assumptions during
the Assess Capability Gaps task?
274a
So that appropriate decisions can be made if the
assumption later proves invalid
274b
What are the techniques used in the Assess
Capability Gaps task?
275a
::Document Analysis
::SWOT Analysis
275b
What is SWOT Analysis?
276a
Identify how current capabilities and limitations
(Strengths and Weaknesses) match up against
the influencing factors (Opportunities and
Threats)
276b
What is the definition of Required Capabilities?
277a
An understanding of the current capabilities of
the organization and the new capabilities
(processes, staff, features in an application, etc.)
that may be required to meet the business need
277b
What is the purpose of the Determine Solution
Approach task in Enterprise Analysis?
278a
To determine the most viable solution approach
to meet the business need in enough detail to
allow for definition of solution scope and
prepare the business case
278b
The solution approach describes what?
279a
The general approach that will be taken to
create or acquire the new capabilities required
to meet the business need
279b
What must occur for the solution approach to
be defined?
280a
::identify possible approaches
::determine the means by which the solution may
be delivered (including the methodology and
lifecycle to be used)
::assess whether the organization is capable of
implementing and effectively using a solution of
that nature
280b
What are the inputs to the Define Solution
Approach task?
281a
There are 3
::Business
::Organization Process Assets
281b
The Solution Approach is consumed by what
task or tasks?
282a
Define Solution Scope
282b
What are the elements of the Define Solution
Approach task?
283a
There are 3
::Alternative Generation
::Ranking Selection of Approaches
283b
What is involved in the generation of
alternatives?
284a
Identify as many potential options as possible to
meet the business objectives and fill identified
gaps in capabilities
284b
In relation to a solution what is the impact of an
assumption or constraint?
285a
Either might impact whether the solution is a
viable option
285b
What are the techniques of the Define Solution
Approach task?
286a
There are 2
::General Techniques (includes benchmarking,
brainstorming, decision analysis, estimation,
SWOT analysis)
::Feasibility Analysis
286b
What is a feasibility study?
287a
A preliminary analysis of solution alternatives or
options to determine whether and how each
option can provide an expected business benefit
287b
What is the definition of a solution approach?
288a
A description of the approach that will be taken
to implement a new set of capabilities. Solution
approaches describe the types of solution
components that will be delivered (new
processes, a new software application, etc.) and
may also describe the methodology that will be
used to deliver those components
288b
What is the purpose of the Define Solution
Scope task?
289a
To define which new capabilities a project or
iteration will deliver in order to conceptualize
the recommended solution in enough detail to
enable stakeholders to understand which new
business capabilities an initiative will deliver
289b
What does the solution scope include?
290a
::The scope of analysis (the organizational unit or
process for which requirements are being
developed) which provides the context in which the
solution is implemented
:: capabilities supported by solution components
:: capabilities to be supported by individual releases
or iterations
:: enabling capabilities that are required in order for
the organization to develop the capabilities required
to meet the business need
290b
What are the inputs to the Define Solution Scope
task?
291a
There are 4
::Business Needs
::Solution Approach
291b
The Define Solution Scope task produces what
output?
292a
Solution Scope
292b
The Solution Scope is consumed by what task or
tasks?
293a
::Assess Org Readiness
knowledge area
293b
What are the elements of the Define Solution
Scope task?
294a
There are 3
::Solution Scope Definition
::Implementation Approach
::Dependencies
294b
What is included in the Solution Scope
Definition?
295a
::Major features and functions that are to be
included, and the interactions that the solution
will have with people and systems outside of its
scope
::. Differentiation of the in-scope and out-of-
scope components of the solution
295b
What does the Implementation Approach
define?
296a
How the chosen solution approach will deliver
the solution scope. The implementation
approach may break delivery down into specific
releases or provide a roadmap that indicates the
timeframe in which a capability can be expected
296b
What are the techniques for the Define Solution
Scope task?
297a
There are 2
::General Techniques (includes Functional
Decomposition, Interface Analysis, Scope
Modeling, User Stories)
::Problem or Vision Statement
297b
The Solution Approach is defined in what
knowledge area?
298a
Enterprise Analysis
298b
The Solution Scope defines what?
299a
What must be delivered in order to meet the
business need, and the effect of the proposed
change initiative on the business and technology
operations and infrastructure
299b
The business case describes what?
300a
The justification for the project in terms of the
value to be added to the business as a result of
the deployed solution, as compared to the cost
to develop and operate the solution
300b
What are the inputs to the Define Business Case
task?
301a
There are 4
::Business Needs
::Solution Scope
301b
The business case is consumed by what tasks?
302a
knowledge area
302b
With regard to the business typically what do the
assumptions refer to that are identified?
303a
Assumptions about the revenue generated or
retained by the solution or non-financial
improvements it will deliver
303b
What are the elements of the Define Business
Case task?
304a
There are 4
::Benefits
::Costs
304b
What are the two types of benefits collected in
the Define Business Case task?
305a
Qualitative and Quantitative
305b
Benefits collected in the Define Business Case
task should relate back to what?
306a
Strategic objectives and goals of the
organization
306b
In estimating the total net cost of a proposed
solution what is included in the calculation?
307a
::capital expenditures for the new investment
::costs of developing and implementing the
change
::opportunity costs of not investing in other
options, costs related to changing the work and
practices of the organization
::total cost of ownership to support the new
solution and consequential costs borne by
others
307b
The initial risk assessment focuses on what?
308a
Solution feasibility risks that the organization is
willing to or able to bear
308b
Initial risk assessment includes what factors?
309a
::technical risks (whether the chosen technology
and suppliers can deliver the required
functionality)
::financial risks (whether costs may exceed levels
that make the solution viable or potential
benefits may disappear)
::business change and organizational risks
(whether the organization will make the changes
necessary to benefit from the new solution).
309b
What types of results are articulated in the
business case?
310a
Cost and Benefits to be realized and how each
will be measured
310b
What are the techniques used in the Define
Business Case task?
311a
There are 6
::Decision Analysis
::Estimation
::Metrics and KPIs
::Risk Analysis
::SWOT Analysis
::Vendor Assessment
311b
Why is vendor assessment a technique in the
Define Business Case task?
312a
In the case in which a purchase or outsourcing to
a third party is in consideration, the organization
must know whether the vendor is capable of
delivering the solution
312b
Who is the primary stakeholder in the Define
Business Case task?
313a
The Sponsor
313b
The business case presents data in order to
support what?
314a
A go/no-go decision on whether to fund the
effort
314b
The Requirements Analysis knowledge area
describes what?
315a
The tasks and techniques used by a business
analyst to analyze stated requirements in order
to define the required capabilities of a potential
solution that will fulfill stakeholder needs.
315b
What are stakeholder requirements?
316a
They describe what a solution must be capable
of doing to meet the needs of one or more
stakeholder groups
316b
What are solution requirements?
317a
They describe the behavior of solution
components in enough detail to allow them to
be constructed
317b
The performance of all requirements analysis
activities is governed by what?
318a
Business Analysis Plan
318b
What are the inputs to the Requirements
319a
There are 8
::Business Case
::Business Need
::Requirements
::Requirements Mgmt Plan
::Stakeholder List
::Solution Scope
319b
What are the tasks of the Requirements Analysis
knowledge area?
320a
There are 6
320b
What are the outputs of the Requirements
321a
There are 6
::Requirements [prioritized]
::Requirements [validated]
:: Requirements [verified]
321b
What is the purpose of the Prioritize
Requirements task?
322a
Prioritization of requirements ensures that
analysis and implementation efforts focus on the
most critical requirements.
322b
What is Requirement prioritization?
323a
It is a decision process used to determine the
relative importance of requirements, based on
value, risk, difficulty of implementation, or on
other criteria
323b
Prioritization determines what?
324a
Which requirements should be targets for further
analysis and to determine which requirements
should be implemented first
324b
What are the inputs to the Prioritize
Requirements task?
325a
There are 5
::Business Case
::Business Need
::Requirements
::Requirements Mgmt Plan
::Stakeholder List
325b
Prioritized requirements are consumed by what
tasks?
326a
326b
What does the business case as an input, provide
to the prioritization of requirements process?
327a
It provides key goals and measures of success
for a project or organization, and priorities
should be aligned with those goals and
objectives.
327b
Why is a business need and business case
needed?
328a
It's not. The business need serves as an
alternative if the business case has not been
provided
328b
What are the elements for the Prioritize
Requirements task?
329a
There are 2
::Basis of Prioritization
::Challenges
329b
What are the factors considered as part as the
basis for prioritization?
330a
::Business Value
::Business or Technical Risk
::Implementation Difficulty
::Likelihood of Success
::Regulatory or Policy Compliance
::Relationship to Other Requirements
::Stakeholder Agreements
330b
How does business value impact prioritization of
requirements?
331a
It prioritizes requirements based on cost-benefit
analysis of their relative value to the
organization. The most valuable requirements
will be targeted for development first.
331b
Why is the relationship to other requirements a
factor for the basis of prioritization?
332a
A requirement may not be high value in and of
itself, but may support other high-priority
requirements and as such may be a candidate
for early implementation.
332b
What are two types of challenges with regard to
requirements prioritization?
333a
Non-negotiable demands from stakeholders and
Unrealistic tradeoffs
333b
What is considered an unrealistic tradeoff?
334a
The solution development team may
intentionally or unintentionally try to influence
the result of the prioritization process by
overestimating the difficulty or complexity of
implementing certain requirements
334b
What are the techniques used in the Prioritize
Requirements task?
335a
There are 4
::General techniques (Risk and Decision analysis)
::Moscow Analysis (Must, Should, Could, and
Won't)
::Timeboxing/Budgeting
::Voting
335b
What is Timeboxing/Budgeting?
336a
Prioritization of requirements for investigation
and implementation based on allocation of a
fixed resource.
336b
What must be determined in order to use
Timeboxing/Budgeting?
337a
The solution approach
337b
Timeboxing prioritizes requirements based on
what?
338a
The amount of work that the project team is
capable of delivering in a set period of time
338b
Budgeting is used when?
339a
When the project team has been allocated a
fixed amount of money.
339b
What are the three approaches to
Timeboxing/budgeting?
340a
::All In - Begin with all the eligible requirements with
assigned Duration or Cost. Remove the requirements in
order to meet the calendar dates or budget limit.
::All Out - Begin with adding the requirement(s) with
assigned duration or cost to the calendar or budget.
Stop when the calendar dates are met or budget limit is
reached.
::Selective - Begin by identifying high priority
requirements added to the calendar or budget. Add or
remove requirements in order to meet the calendar date
or budget limit.
340b
What is voting in relation to requirement
prioritization?
341a
Voting methods allocate a fixed amount of
resources (votes, play money, or other tokens)
to each participant for them to distribute among
proposed features or requirements. The
requirements that receive the most resources
are the ones that will be investigated or
developed first
341b
A prioritized requirement has an attribute that
describes what?
342a
Its relative importance to stakeholders and the
organization
342b
What is the purpose of the Organize
Requirements task?
343a
To create a set of views of the requirements for
the new business solution that are
comprehensive, complete, consistent, and
understood from all stakeholder perspectives
343b
What are the two key objectives when organizing
requirements?
344a
::Understand which models are appropriate for
the business domain and solution scope
:: Identify model interrelationships and
dependencies
344b
What are the inputs to the Organize
Requirements task?
345a
There are 3:
::Solution Scope
345b
Why is it important to understand model
interdependencies when organizing
requirements?
346a
Because it is the relationships and
interdependencies among requirements that
adds the element of complexity
346b
What task or tasks consume the Requirements
Structure?
347a
Prepare Requirements Package and Specify and
Model Requirements
347b
What are the elements of the Organize
Requirements task?
348a
There are two
::Levels of Abstraction
348b
What is the objective of creating a model of
requirements?
349a
To simplify reality in a way that is useful
349b
Must modeling be performed in a specific order
with a specific hierarchy?
350a
No. There is not hierarchy when using models
350b
What are the common concepts when using
models?
351a
::User Classes, profiles, Roles
::Concepts and Relationships
::Events
::Processes
::Rules
351b
User Classes Profiles, or Roles are
categorizations that are often found in what
models?
352a
::organization models
::process models
::use cases
352b
Organization models process models and use
cases are generally created in what task?
353a
Conduct Stakeholder Analysis
353b
What do concepts define?
354a
They define the objects, entities or facts that are
relevant to the business domain and what
relationships they have with other concepts
354b
The attributes of a concept are found in what
type of model?
355a
Data Model
355b
A request to a business system or organization
to do something such as a customer placing an
order, or a manager requesting a report, can be
described as what?
356a
An Event
356b
Events can serve as the basis for what type of
model?
357a
Scope Model
357b
Events serve as the basis for scope models but
can be described in what other types of
models?
358a
::Process Models
::State Diagrams
::Use Cases/Models
358b
A sequence of repeatable activities executed
within an organization is known as a what?
359a
Process
359b
Processes describe what?
360a
Who and what has to be involved in fully
responding to an event, or how people in the
enterprise collaborate to achieve a goal
360b
Process information can be found in what types
of models?
361a
::Process Models
::Org Models
::State Diagrams
::Use Cases/Models
361b
What are used by the enterprise to enforce
goals and guide decision-making?
362a
Rules
362b
What do rules determine?
363a
When information associated with an entity may
change, what values of information are valid,
how decisions are made in a process, and what
the organization's priorities are
363b
What types of models might contain rule
information?
364a
::Process Models
::State Diagrams
::Use Cases/Models
364b
What are the techniques used in the Organize
Requirements task?
365a
There are 9
::Business Rules Analysis
::Data Flow Diagrams
::Data Modeling
::Functional Decomposition
::Organizational Modeling
::Process Modeling
::Scenarios and Use Cases
::Scope Modeling
::User Stories
365b
Who are the primary stakeholders in the
Organize Requirements task?
366a
Domain SME, End User, Implementation SME, and
Sponsor: They Affected by analysis techniques
used to organize requirements since they need
to verify and validate the requirements.
366b
What is the purpose of the Specify and Model
Requirements task?
367a
To analyze expressed stakeholder desires
and/or the current state of the organization
using a combination of textual statements,
matrices, diagrams and formal models
367b
Specifications and models are created to do
what?
368a
Analyze the functioning of an organization and
provide insight into opportunities for
improvement
368b
Specifications and models also support what?
369a
Development and implementation of solutions,
facilitating communication among stakeholders,
supporting training activities and knowledge
management, and ensuring compliance with
contracts and regulations
369b
What are the inputs to the Specify and Model
Requirements task?
370a
There are 2
::Requirements [stated]
370b
What is the output of the Specify and Model
Requirements task?
371a
Stakeholder or Solution Requirements
371b
What tasks consume the Stakeholder or Solution
Requirements?
372a
There are 3
knowledge area
372b
What are the elements of the Specify and Model
Requirements task?
373a
::Text
::Matrix Documentation
::Models
::Capture Requirements Attributes
::Improvement Opportunities
373b
The Text element must describe what?
374a
Te capabilities of the solution, any conditions
that must exist for the requirement to operate,
and any constraints that may prevent the
solution from fulfilling the requirement
374b
A table or matrix is used to document
requirements when?
375a
When business analyst is looking to convey a set
of requirements that have a complex but uniform
structure which can be broken down into
elements that apply to every entry in the table
375b
What aspects of requirements are often
expressed in tabular form?
376a
::Attributes
::Data Dictionaries
::Traceability
::Prioritization data
376b
A WHAT is any simplified representation of a
complex reality that is useful for understanding
that reality and making decisions regarding it?
377a
A model
377b
What are two things that help determine which
type of model to use?
378a
The people that make up the receiving audience
and the type of information being communicated
378b
What is the difference between an informal
model and a formal model?
379a
An informal model does not have a formal
semantic definition and instead connects
elements in ways that are meaningful for the
analyst and the audience
A formal model follows semantics and

iconography that are defined in a standard to
indicate the meaning of each model element
379b
What are some potential improvement
opportunities that might be identified and
captured during the Specify and Model
Requirements task?
380a
:: Automate Or Simplify The Work People
Perform
:: Improve Access To Information
:: Reduce Complexity Of Interfaces
:: Increase Consistency Of Behavior
:: Eliminate Redundancy
380b
What are the techniques used in the Specify and
Model Requirements task?
381a
There are several techniques that are part of the general techniques category:
Acceptance and Evaluation Criteria Definition
Business Rules Analysis
Data Dictionary and Glossary
Data Flow Diagrams
Data Modeling
Functional Decomposition
Interface Analysis
Metrics and Key Performance Indicators
Non-functional Requirements Analysis
Organization Modeling
Process Modeling
Prototyping
Scenarios and Use Cases
Sequence Diagrams
State Diagrams
User Stories
381b
What is the purpose of the Define Assumptions
and Constraints task?
382a
Identify factors other than requirements that
may affect which solutions are viable.
382b
Assumptions are defined as what?
383a
Assumptions are factors that are believed to be
true, but have not been confirmed
383b
What is associated with assumptions that must be
validated by the analyst?
384a
Risk
384b
Constraints are defined as what?
385a
Constraints are defined as restrictions or
limitations on possible solutions.
385b
Solution constraints describe what?
386a
Aspects of the current state, or planned future
state that may not be changed
386b
What are the inputs to the Define Assumptions
387a
Stakeholder Concerns
387b
What are the elements used in the Define
Assumptions and Constraints task?
388a
There are 3
::Assumptions
::Business Constraints
::Technical Constraints
388b
Business Constraints can reflect what type of
information?
389a
::budgetary restrictions
::time restrictions
::limits on the number of resources available
::restrictions based on the skills of the project
team and the stakeholders
::a requirement that certain stakeholders not be
affected by the implementation of the solution
::or any other organizational restriction
389b
Technical constraints include what?
390a
Any architecture decisions that are made that
may impact the design of the solution
390b
Technical constraints may also describe
restrictions such as what?
391a
:: resource utilization
::message size
::timing
::software size
::maximum number of and size of files
::records and data elements
391b
What is the output of the Define Assumptions
392a
Assumptions and Constraints
392b
What tasks consume Assumptions and
Constraints?
393a
There are 4
knowledge area
393b
What is the purpose of the Verify Requirements
task?
394a
Requirements verification ensures that
requirements specifications and models meet
the necessary standard of quality to allow them
to be used effectively to guide further work
394b
Verifying requirements ensures what?
395a
The requirements have been defined correctly
and are of acceptable quality
395b
Requirements verification constitutes a final
check by the business analyst and key
stakeholders to determine that the requirements
are what?
396a
Ready for formal review and validation by the
customers and users and provide all the
information needed for further work based on
the requirements to be performed
396b
What are the inputs to the Verify Requirements
task?
397a
Requirements [Any Except Stated]
397b
The Verify Requirements task produces what
output?
398a
Requirements [Verified]
398b
What tasks consume verified requirements?
399a
knowledge area
399b
What are the elements used in the Verify
Requirements task?
400a
There are 2:
::Characteristics of Requirements Quality
::Verification Activities
400b
A high quality requirement exhibits what
characteristics?
401a
::Cohesive
::Complete
::Consistent
::Correct
::Feasible
::Modifiable
::Unambiguous
::Testable
401b
The feasibility of a requirement is concerned with
what?
402a
That the requirement must be implementable
within the existing infrastructure, with the existing
budget, timeline and resources available to the
team or the project must develop the capability
to implement the requirement
402b
Are verification activities of requirements
performed in a singular fashion or iteratively?
403a
Iteratively throughout the requirements analysis
process
403b
Verification activities include what?
404a
::Check for completeness within each requirements model
::Compare each prepared requirements model (textual or
graphical) against all other prepared requirements
models
:: Variations to the documented processes have been
identified and documented
:: All triggers and outcomes have been accounted for in
all variations
:: Terminology used in expressing the requirement is
understandable to stakeholders and consistent
:: Examples are added where appropriate for clarification
404b
What are the techniques used in the Verify
Requirements task?
405a
There are 2:
::General techniques (includes Acceptance and
Evaluation Criteria Definition, Problem Tracking,
Structured Walkthrough)
:: Checklists
405b
What is the purpose of a checklist?
406a
The purpose of a checklist is to ensure that
items that the organization or project team has
determined are important are included in the
final requirements deliverable(s)
406b
What is the purpose of the Validate
Requirements task?
407a
To ensure that all requir+B16ements support the
delivery of value to the business, fulfill its goals
and objectives, and meet a stakeholder need.
407b
Does Requirements Validation once or
throughout the life of the project?
408a
Throughout in an ongoing basis
408b
What are the inputs to the Validate Requirements
task?
409a
There are 2
::Business Case
::Stakeholder Solution or Transition Requirements
[verified]
409b
Validated requirements are consumed by what
tasks?
410a
::Validate Solution
knowledge area
410b
What are the elements of the Validate
Requirements task?
411a
There are 5
::identify Assumptions
::Define Measurable Criteria
::Determine Business Value
::Determine Dependencies for Benefit
Realization
::Evaluate Alignment with Business Case and
Opportunity Cost
411b
Assumptions must be identified to manage what?
412a
Risk
412b
Evaluation Criteria are used to do what during
Validate Requirements?
413a
They are create and used to measure the
solution following deployment against the
forecasted benefits from the start of the project
413b
A requirement that does not deliver direct or
indirect value to a stakeholder is a strong
candidate for what?
414a
Elimination
414b
True or False: All requirements contribute
directly to the end result desired by the
organization and described in the business case
415a
FALSE
415b
Can a requirement hold value for a stakeholder
yet not be part of a delivered solution.
416a
Yes, but if it is not aligned with the business case
should be defined and approved in a separate
business case, or considered for removal from
the solution scope
416b
Each requirement must be traceable to what?
417a
The objectives in the business case
417b
The opportunity cost of any decision is equal to
what?
418a
The value of the best alternative use of those
resources
418b
What are the techniques in the Validate
Requirements task?
419a
There are 5:
:: Acceptance and Evaluation Criteria Definition
:: Metrics and Key Performance Indicators
:: Prototyping
:: Risk Analysis
:: Structured Walkthrough
419b
The Solution Assessment and Validation
Knowledge Area describes what?
420a
The tasks that are performed in order to ensure
that solutions meet the business need and to
facilitate their successful implementation
420b
What is the responsibility of the business analyst
during Solution Assessment and Validation?
421a
Ensuring that stakeholders fully understand the
solution requirements and that implementation
decisions are aligned with the relevant
requirements
421b
What are the tasks in the Solution Assessment
and Validation knowledge area?
422a
There are 6
::Validate Solution
::Evaluate Solution Performance
422b
What is the purpose of the Assess Proposed
Solution task?
423a
To assess proposed solutions in order to
determine how closely they meet stakeholder
and solution requirements
423b
Is Solution Assessment performed on a single or
multiple solutions?
424a
Both. It may be used to compare multiple
solutions or to assess a single solution
424b
What are the inputs to the Assess Proposed
Solution task?
425a
There are 3
::Requirements [prioritized and approved]
::Solution Option(s)
425b
What is the output of the Assess Proposed
Solution task?
426a
Assessment of Proposed Solution
426b
What tasks consume the Assessment of
Proposed Solution?
427a
Solution Selection or Design
427b
What are the elements of the Assess Proposed
Solution task?
428a
::Ranking of Solution Options
::Identification of Additional Potential Capabilities
428b
What are the techniques of the Assess Proposed
Solution task?
429a
There are 3
:: Decision Analysis
:: Vendor Assessment
429b
Why is vendor assessment a technique as part of
the Assess Proposed Solution task?
430a
To ensure that all parties will be able to develop
and maintain a healthy working relationship
430b
What is a potential suggestion as part of the
Solution Assessment if no solution delivers
appropriate value?
431a
To terminate the initiative or do nothing.
431b
What is the purpose of the Allocate
Requirements task?
432a
Allocate stakeholder and solution requirements
among solution components and releases in
order to maximize the possible business value
given the options and alternatives generated by
the design team.
432b
Requirements allocation is defined as what?
433a
Te process of assigning stakeholder and solution
requirements to solution components and to
releases
433b
Allocation is performed after assessing what?
434a
Assessment tradeoffs between alternatives in
order to maximize benefits and minimize costs
434b
What are the inputs of the Allocate
Requirements task?
435a
There are 3:
::Requirements [prioritized and approved]
::Solution [designed]
::Solution Scope
435b
Allocated Requirements are consumed by what
tasks?
436a
::Requirements Mgt. and Communication
::Solution Selection or Design
436b
Requirements may be allocated between or
over what?
437a
::Organizational units
::between job functions
::between people and software
::software application components
::releases of a solution.
437b
What are the elements of the Allocate
Requirements task?
438a
There are 2
::Solution Components
::Release Planning
438b
What are some examples of solution
components?
439a
::Business policies and business rules
::Business processes to be performed and managed
::People who operate and maintain the solution,
including their job functions and responsibilities
::Software applications and application components
used in the solution.
::Structure of the organization, including interactions
between the organization, its customers, and its
suppliers
439b
The allocation of requirements to solution
components will be a primary driver of what?
440a
The cost to implement the solution and the
benefits delivered by it.
440b
Analyst assessment of whether the allocation
represents the most effective tradeoffs between
delivery options involves what considerations?
441a
::Available resources
::Constraints on the Solution
::Dependencies Between Requirements
441b
What types of factors are considerations of
release planning?
442a
::overall project budget
::the need to implement a solution or parts of
the solution by a certain date
::resource constraints
::training schedule
::ability for the business to absorb changes within
a defined timeframe.
442b
What are the techniques used in the Allocate
Requirements task?
443a
There are 6
:: Business Rules Analysis
:: Decision Analysis
:: Functional Decomposition
:: Process Modeling
:: Scenarios and Use Cases
443b
Why would process modeling be a part of
allocation of requirements?
444a
Activities in the process model may be allocated
to different roles, or outsourced to a supplier. A
solution can be developed that incrementally
supports some sub-processes or activities
444b
What is the involvement of the Implementation
SME during the Allocate Requirements task?
445a
The role is responsible for the design and
construction of some or all solution
components and the estimation of the work
required. It will also make recommendations
regarding the allocation of requirement
445b
Allocated requirements are associated with
what?
446a
A solution component that will implement them.
446b
What is the purpose of the Assess
Organizational Readiness task?
447a
Assess whether the organization is ready to
make effective use of a new solution.
447b
An organizational readiness assessment
describes what?
448a
The effect a new solution will have on an
organization and whether the organization is
prepared for the organizational change that the
solution implementation will cause
448b
What should the business analyst understand to
assess organizational readiness?
449a
::what changes will occur in the business area
::technical infrastructure or processes
::how these affect other business units or
operations
449b
What are the inputs to the Assess Organizational
Readiness task?
450a
There are 4
::Solution Scope
450b
What is the output of the Organizational
Readiness Assessment?
451a
Duh! The organizational readiness assessment
451b
What tasks consume the Organizational
Readiness Assessment?
452a
Define Transition Requirements
452b
Why is the Enterprise Architecture an important
input into the Assess Organizational Readiness
task?
453a
It describes the current state of the enterprise,
including the organizational structure, business
processes, systems, information, etc.
453b
What are the elements used in the Assess
454a
There are 3
::Cultural Assessment
::Operational or Technical Assessment
::Stakeholder Impact Analysis
454b
What occurs in a cultural assessment?
455a
A determination is made of the stakeholders'
attitudes, beliefs, willingness to change and
other factors that could pose potential
obstacles to solution implementation.
455b
What occurs in a Operational or Technical
Assessment?
456a
A determination of whether the organization is
able to take advantage of the capabilities
provided by the new solution is made. There is
also an evaluation of whether stakeholders are
prepared to make use of the new solution and
whether there must be training/policy/process
changes to accompany the new solution
456b
What are some of the considerations of
stakeholder impact analysis?
457a
:Stakeholder Group functions
::Geographic Location of Stakeholder Groups
::Tasks performed by specific stakeholders
::Concerns about the stakeholder group's
usability requirements, preferences, and their
proficiency level regarding interaction with
computer systems
457b
What are the techniques used in the Assess
458a
::General Techniques (including Acceptance and
Evaluation Criteria Definition, Data Flow
Diagrams, Process Models, Focus Groups,
Interviews, Survey/Questionnaire, Organization
Modeling, Problem Tracking, Risk Analysis, SWOT
Analysis)
:: Force Field Analysis
458b
What is Force Field Analysis?
459a
A graphical method for depicting the forces that
support and oppose a change by identifying the
forces that support and oppose a change,
depicting them on opposite sides of a line, and
then estimating the strength of each force in
order to assess which set of forces are stronger
459b
What does the Organizational Change
Management SME do during the Assess
460a
Assists organizations with communicating change
to their stakeholders and creating support
among those stakeholders for the change.
460b
What is the purpose of the Define Transition
Requirements task?
461a
To define requirements for capabilities needed
to transition from an existing solution to a new
solution
461b
Transition requirements cannot be defined until
what occurs?
462a
The solution has been designed
462b
Transition requirements remain relevant for how
long?
463a
Only during the transition period between the
existing and new solutions. They are then
discarded
463b
Are transition requirements developed using
other methods that normal requirements are
not?
464a
No Transition requirements are elicited,
analyzed, managed, and communicated by
performing the same tasks as for other
requirements.
464b
What are the inputs to the Define Transition
Requirements task?
465a
There are 4:
::Organizational Readiness Assessment
::Requirements [stated]
::Solution [deployed]
465b
Transition Requirements are consumed by what
tasks?
466a
knowledge area
466b
Why is the deployed solution an input to defining
transition requirements?
467a
The deployed (or existing) solution will be
investigated to understand what needs to be
transitioned to the new solution
467b
What are the elements used in the Define
Transition Requirements task?
468a
There are 3
::Data
::Ongoing Work
::Organizational Change
468b
Why must the data element be evaluated during
creation of transition requirements?
469a
There must be a determination of whether the
data must be migrated and/or converted for the
new solution to function
469b
Organizational change management generally
refers to what?
470a
To a process and set of tools for managing
change at an organizational level.
470b
Why is the analysis of organizational change
necessary when creating transition
requirements?
471a
Organizational units may be significantly
impacted by the new solution and will need to
have processes changed to be able to take
advantage of the new solution
471b
What are the techniques used in the Define
Transition Requirements task?
472a
There are 3
::Data Flow Diagrams, Process Modeling,
Organizational Modeling
::Data Modeling
472b
What stakeholder receives noticeable negative
impact if information is incorrectly transferred
from the old to new solution?
473a
The customer
473b
Transition requirements describe what?
474a
Capabilities that must be developed in order for
an organization to successfully transition
between solutions.
474b
What is the purpose of the Validate Solution
task?
475a
Validate that a solution meets the business need
and determine the most appropriate response to
identified defects
475b
Solution validation is required to do what?
476a
Ensure that a delivered solution meets the
business needs on an ongoing basis
476b
What are the outputs of the Validate Solution
task?
477a
There are 3
::Identified Defects
::Mitigating Actions
::Solution Validation Assessment
477b
Identified defects that are an output of the
Validate Solution task are consumed by what
task?
478a
Evaluate Solution Performance
478b
Mitigating Actions and Solution Performance
Assessments that are outputs of the Validate
Solution tasks are consumed by what task?
479a
Solution Implementation
479b
What are the elements of the Validate Solution
task?
480a
There are 2
::Investigate Defective Solution Outputs
::Assess Defects and Issues
480b
Defects are reviewed with what considerations in
mind?
481a
::determining the severity of the defect, the
probability of the occurrence of the defect
::the severity of the business impact
::the capacity of the business to absorb the
impact of the defects
481b
What are the techniques used in the Validate
Solution task?
482a
There are 3
:: Root Cause Analysis
:: Problem Tracking
482b
What is the definition of a mitigating action?
483a
Steps that can be taken, or processes that can
be followed, to reduce or eliminate the effect an
identified defect has on a stakeholder or
stakeholder group.
483b
What is the purpose of the Evaluate Solution
Performance task?
484a
Evaluate functioning solutions to understand the
value they deliver and identify opportunities for
improvement
484b
Solution evaluation involves what?
485a
Investigating how a solution is actually used after
it is deployed, and assessing the effect it has
had, both positive and negative
485b
What are the inputs to the Evaluate Solution
performance task?
486a
There are 4+B20Business Requirements
::Identified Defects
::Solution Performance Metrics
::Solution [deployed]
486b
What is the role that business requirements play
when evaluating solution performance?
487a
They form the baseline for functionality to
compare against what the system is actually
doing
487b
Solution Performance Metrics represent what?
488a
The criteria by which the performance of the
solution is to be assessed
488b
There are two types of solution performance
metrics. What are they?
489a
Qualitative and Quantitative
489b
What are examples of Qualitative solution
performance metrics?
490a
Measures of time, volume, revenue, errors found
490b
What are examples of Quantitative solution
performance metrics?
491a
User or customer satisfaction, recommendations
491b
The Evaluate Solution performance task cannot
be performed until what occurs?
492a
The solution has been deployed
492b
What are the elements of the Evaluate Solution
Performance task?
493a
There are 3:
::Understand Value Delivered by Solution
::Validate Solution Metrics
::Solution Replacement or Elimination
493b
What does the element Understand Value
Delivered by Solution consist of?
494a
The analyst must gather the actual metrics that
describe the performance of the solution in
order to determine whether the system is
performing optimally, under-performing or over-
performing
494b
Why is an additional validation of the metrics
that are used to validate the solution necessary?
495a
There are occasions in which the metrics are not
properly defined or aligned with the solution;
thus the reporting of the metric data becomes
skewed
495b
Why might the solution be a candidate for
elimination?
496a
This may occur because an IT system or other
technology component has reached the end of
its useful life, services are being insourced or
outsourced, the solution is not fulfilling the
business goals set for it
496b
What are issues that impact the decision about
replacing a solution?
497a
:: Ongoing Cost versus Initial Investment
:: Opportunity Cost
:: Necessity
:: Sunk Cost
497b
What is sunk cost?
498a
It describes the money and effort already
committed to an initiative
498b
Sunk Cost is irrelevant when considering future
action why?
499a
Because the cost cannot be recovered
499b
What is an example of Necessity with regard to
making a decision about solution replacement?
500a
Obsolescence. There are occasions where the
cost of maintaining a current solution is too high
or the capability to do so is impossible
500b
What is Opportunity Cost?
501a
It represents the potential value that could be
realized by pursuing alternative courses of
action
501b
What are the techniques used in the Evaluate
Solution Performance task?
502a
There are 4:
::Decision Analysis
::Focus Groups
::Observation
502b
How is the Operational Support stakeholder
utilized in the Evaluate Solution Performance
task?
503a
This person will be involved in monitoring the
performance and effectiveness of a solution or
its components.
503b
What is the purpose of the Underlying
Competencies knowledge area?
504a
It provides a description of the behaviors,
characteristics, knowledge and personal qualities
that support the practice of business analysis
504b
What are the types of Underlying
Competencies?
505a
There are 6:
:: Analytical Thinking and Problem Solving
:: Behavioral Characteristics
:: Business Knowledge
:: Communication Skills
:: Interaction Skills
:: Software Applications
505b
What are the various forms of the Analytical
Thinking and Problem Solving underlying
competency?
506a
There are 5:
::Creative Thinking
::Decision Making
::Learning
::Problem Solving
::Systems Thinking
506b
What is the purpose of creative thinking?
507a
To be effective in generating new ideas for
approaches to problem solving and in
generating alternative solutions
507b
What are the measures of effectiveness of
creative thinking?
508a
::Successful generation and productive
consideration of new ideas.
::Application of new ideas to resolve existing
problems.
::Willingness of stakeholders to accept new
approaches.
508b
What is the purpose of decision making?
509a
Business analysts must be effective in
understanding the criteria involved in making a
decision, in making decisions, and in assisting
others to make better decisions
509b
When is a decision necessary?
510a
Whenever it becomes necessary to select an
alternative or approach from two or more
options
510b
Decision Analysis includes what?
511a
::gathering information relevant to a decision
::breaking down the information relevant to a
decision
::making comparisons and tradeoffs between
similar and dissimilar options
::identifying the option that is most desirable.
511b
What is the purpose of learning?
512a
Business analysts must be effective at learning
about business domains and how they function,
and then translate that learning into an
understanding of how to benefit an organization.
512b
What are the effectiveness measures of
learning?
513a
::Agreement by stakeholders that analysis
models effectively and completely describe the
domain
::Identification of related problems or issues
from multiple areas in the domain
::Rapid absorption of new information or new
domains.
513b
What is the purpose of problem solving?
514a
Business analysts must be effective at defining
and solving problems in order to ensure that the
real, underlying problem is understood and that
solutions actually address that problem
514b
Defining a problem involves what?
515a
Ensuring that the nature of the problem is
clearly understood by all parties and that
underlying issues are visible
515b
How does an analyst ensure all parties
understand the nature of a problem that is to be
solved?
516a
::Articulate and address conflicts between goals
and objectives
::Identify and test underlying assumptions
516b
problem solving?
517a
::Confidence of the participants in the problem-
solving process that a selected solution is correct
::New solution options can be evaluated effectively
using the problem solving framework
::Selected solutions meet the defined objectives and
solve the underlying problem.
::The problem-solving process avoids making
decisions based on preconceived notions,
organizational politics, or other traps that may cause
a sub-optimal solution to be selected.
517b
What is the purpose of Systems Thinking?
518a
Business analysts must be effective at
understanding how the people, processes and
technology within an organization interact in
relationships and patterns to create a system as
a whole
518b
Systems theory and systems thinking suggest
what?
519a
That the system as a whole will have properties,
behaviors and characteristics that emerge from
the interaction of the components of the system,
and which are not predictable from an
understanding of the components alone
519b
The term system includes what factors?
520a
:: the people involved
::the interactions between them
::the external forces affecting their behavior
::all other relevant elements and factors
520b
system thinking?
521a
::Understanding of how a change to a
component affects the system as a whole
::Identification of reinforcing and compensating
feedback loops
::Understanding of how systems adapt to
external pressures and changes
521b
What are the types of the underlying
competency behavioral characteristics?
522a
There are 3:
::Ethics
::Personal organization
::Trustworthiness
522b
What is the purpose of ethics?
523a
A business analyst must be able to behave
ethically in order to earn the trust and respect
of stakeholders, and be able to recognize when
a proposed solution or requirement may present
ethical difficulties.
523b
Ethics requires an understanding of what?
524a
::moral and immoral behavior
::the standards that should govern one's behavior
::the willingness to act to ensure that one's
behavior is moral or meets those standards
524b
Why are ethics an important part of an analyst's
underlying competencies?
525a
Business analysts need to consider the impact
that a proposed solution will have on all
stakeholder groups and work to ensure that
those groups are treated fairly
525b
Fair treatment requires what?
526a
::that the affected stakeholders understand the
reasons for the decision
::that they are not deceived about the outcome
::that decisions which are made are made in the
best interest of the organization
526b
ethics?
527a
::Decisions are made with due consideration to
the interests of all stakeholders
::Reasons for a decision are clearly articulated
and understood
::Prompt and full disclosure of potential conflicts
of interest
::Honesty regarding one's abilities, the
performance of one's work, and accepting
responsibility for failures or errors.
527b
What is the purpose of personal organization?
528a
Personal organization skills assist the business
analyst in effectively managing tasks and
information.
528b
Personal organization involves what?
529a
::the ability to readily find files or information
::timeliness
::management of outstanding tasks
::appropriate handling of priorities
529b
Effective time management requires what
characteristics?
530a
::effective time management requires effective
prioritization
::elimination of procrastination
::clarity of goals and expectations
530b
What are some common approaches toward
good time management?
531a
::action plans
::to-do lists
::setting priorities
531b
What are the effectiveness measures of personal
organization?
532a
::Ability of the business analyst to find
information
::Regular on-time completion of tasks
::Efficiency in the completion of work
::The ability to easily identify all outstanding work
and the status of each work item.
532b
What is the purpose of trustworthiness?
533a
Earning the trust of key stakeholders is
necessary to ensure that the business analyst is
able to elicit requirements around sensitive
issues and to ensure that recommendations are
evaluated properly.
533b
trustworthiness?
534a
::Stakeholders involving the business analyst in
decision-making
::Stakeholder acceptance of the business
analyst's recommendations
::Willingness of stakeholders to discuss difficult
or controversial topics with the business analyst
::Willingness of stakeholders to support or
defend the business analyst when problems
occur.
534b
What are the forms of the Business Knowledge
underlying competency?
535a
There are 3:
::Business Principles and Practices
::Industry Knowledge
::Organization Knowledge
535b
What is the purpose of Business Principles and
Practices?
536a
Business analysts require an understanding of
fundamental business principles and best
practices, in order to ensure that they are
incorporated into and supported by solutions.
536b
Business principles are what?
537a
Business principles are those characteristics that
are common to all organizations with a similar
purpose and structure, whether or not they are
in the same industry. They typically apply to
many common areas in an organization.
537b
What are some of the common functional areas
in an organization?
538a
::Human Resources
::Finance
:Information Technology
::Supply Chain Mgmt
538b
What is the purpose of Industry Knowledge?
539a
Business analysts should have an understanding
of the industry that their organization is in so that
they may understand new challenges that may
be posed by competitive moves, and which
solutions have proven effective elsewhere.
539b
Industry Knowledge is defined as what?
540a
The understanding of the competitive forces that
shape an industry
540b
What must a business analyst understand to have
an effective industry knowledge base?
541a
::various customer segments that the industry
services
::demographic or other characteristics common
to that segment
::common industry trends
541b
What is the purpose of Organization
Knowledge?
542a
Business analysis is significantly assisted by an
understanding of the organization for which it is
being performed.
542b
Organization Knowledge is defined how?
543a
Organization knowledge is an understanding of
the business architecture of the organization that
is being analyzed
543b
Organization Knowledge includes what factors?
544a
::understanding of the business models that the
organization (that is, how the organization generates
profits or otherwise accomplishes its goals)
::the organizational structure that is in place,
::the relationships that exist between business units
::and the persons who occupy key stakeholder
positions
::informal lines of communication and authority
544b
What is the purpose of Solution Knowledge?
545a
Business analysts can use their understanding of
existing solutions in order to identify the most
effective means of implementing a change.
545b
Why is solution knowledge important for a
business analyst?
546a
A business analyst who is familiar with the
workings of a solution may be able to more
easily identify and recommend changes that can
be implemented easily while still providing
concrete benefits. Familiarity with the range of
commercially available solutions or suppliers
can assist with the identification of possible
alternatives
546b
What are the effectiveness measures of solution
knowledge?
547a
::Reduced time or cost to implement a required
change
::Shortened time on requirements analysis and/or
solution design
::Understanding when a larger change is justified
based on business benefit
::Understanding how additional capabilities
present, but not currently used, in a solution can
be deployed to provide business value.
547b
What are the various types of Communication
Skills?
548a
There are 3:
::Oral Communication
::Teaching
::Written Communication
548b
What is the purpose of Oral Communication?
549a
Oral communication skills enable business
analysts to effectively express ideas in ways that
are appropriate to the target audience.
549b
Oral communication skills are used to do what?
550a
Verbally express ideas, information, or other
matters
550b
Effective oral communication skills include what?
551a
The ability to make oneself understood and the
active listening skills that ensure that the
statements of others are accurately understood.
551b
What are the effectiveness measures of oral
communication?
552a
::Effectively paraphrasing statements to ensure
understanding
::Effectively facilitating sessions, ensuring success
through preparedness and coordination
::Developing and delivering powerful presentations
by positioning content and objectives appropriately
(i.e. positive verses negative tone)
::Can communicate the criticality or urgency of a
situation in a calm, rational manner with proposed
solutions.
552b
What is the purpose of teaching?
553a
Teaching skills are required to ensure that
business analysts can effectively communicate
issues and requirements and to ensure that the
information communicated is understood and
retained
553b
Teaching requires an understanding of what?
554a
How people learn and the ability to use this
understanding to effectively facilitate the
learning experience
554b
What are the three types of learning?
555a
::auditory
::visual
::kinesthetic
555b
teaching?
556a
::Verifying that learners have acquired
information that has been imparted to them
::Ability of learners to use new skills or
demonstrate new knowledge.
556b
What is the purpose of written communication?
557a
Written communication skills are necessary for
business analysts to document elicitation results,
requirements, and other information for which
medium-to-long term records are required.
557b
Written communication involves the use of what?
558a
Symbols to communicate information. It includes
the ability to write effectively for various
contexts and audiences
558b
Written communication is required when?
559a
When information will be used at a time or place
that is remote from the time and place it was
created
559b
What are the effectiveness measures of written
communication?
560a
::Ability to adjust the style of writing for the
needs of the audience
::Proper use of grammar and style
::Appropriate choice of words
::Ability of the reader to paraphrase and
describe the content of the written
communication.
560b
What are the various types of Interaction Skills?
561a
There are 3:
::Facilitation and Negotiation
::Leadership and Influencing
::Teamwork
561b
Leadership involves motivating people to do
what?
562a
Act in ways that enable them to work together
to achieve shared goals and objectives
562b
Effective leadership therefore requires that the
business analyst be able to do what?
563a
Develop a vision of a desired future state that
people can be motivated to work towards and
the interpersonal skills necessary to encourage
them to do so
563b
Leadership and Influencing?
564a
::Reduced resistance to necessary changes
::Team members and stakeholders demonstrating
a willingness to set aside personal objectives
when necessary
::Articulation of a clear and inspiring vision of a
desired future state.
564b
What is the purpose of teamwork?
565a
Business analysts must be able to work closely
with other team members to effectively support
their work so that solutions can be effectively
implemented
565b
Communications and trust can also be enhanced
through understanding and awareness of facets
such as?
566a
The process of setting of rules for the team,
team decision-making, formal and informal team
leadership and management roles.
566b
What are the two types of conflict?
567a
The basic types of conflict are emotional and
cognitive.
567b
Emotional conflict stems from what?
568a
Personal interactions, while cognitive conflicts
are based upon disagreements on matters of
substantive value or impact on the project or
organization
568b
Resolution of cognitive conflict requires the
team to focus on what?
569a
Examining the premises, assumptions,
observations and expectations of the team
members
569b
teamwork?
570a
::Fostering a collaborative working environment
::Effective resolution of conflict
::Developing trust among team members
::Support among the team for shared high
standards of achievement
::Team members have a shared sense of
ownership of the team goals.
570b
What are the types of Software Applications?
571a
There are 2:
::General Purpose
::Specialized
571b
What are general purpose applications?
572a
Business analysts use office productivity
applications to document and track
requirements.
572b
What are the three categories of general
purpose applications?
573a
These applications generally consist of three
components in a suite of tools: word processing,
spreadsheets, and presentation software.
573b
What is the purpose of collaboration and
knowledge management tools?
574a
Collaboration and knowledge management
tools are used to support the capturing of
knowledge distributed throughout an
organization and make it as widely available as
possible.
574b
What are some examples of collaboration
tools?
575a
::document repositories (which integrate with
office productivity software)
::wikis (which allow easy creation and linking of
web pages)
::discussion forums.
575b
What are the effectiveness measures of general
purpose applications?
576a
::Ability to apply an understanding of one tool to
other similar tools
::Able to identify major tools in the marketplace and
describe how they are used in any given situation.
::Understands and is able to use most of the major
features of the tool
::Able to use the tools to complete requirements-
related activities more rapidly than is possible
without them.
576b
Diagramming tools are designed to do what?
577a
Support the rapid drawing and documentation of
a model, typically by providing a set of
templates for a particular notation which are
used to develop diagrams based on it
577b
Modeling tools facilitate the conversion of the
model into a what?
578a
Executable form, either by use of a proprietary
engine for executing the model or by generating
application code which can be enhanced by a
developer.
578b
What is the primary function of requirements
management tools?
579a
Requirements management tools are used to
support change control, traceability, and
configuration management of requirements and
requirements artifacts.
579b
specialized software?
580a
::Ability to apply an understanding of one tool to other
similar tools
::Able to identify major tools in the marketplace and
describe how they are used in any given situation.
::Understands and is able to use most of the major
features of the tool
::Able to use the tools to complete requirements-related
activities more rapidly than is possible without them.
::Able to track changes to the requirements made through
the tools.
580b
What is the purpose of the Acceptance and
Evaluation Criteria technique?
581a
To define the requirements that must be met in
order for a solution to be considered
acceptable to key stakeholders.
581b
Acceptance Criteria is defined as what?
582a
Acceptance criteria describe the minimal set of
requirements that must be met in order for a
particular solution to be worth implementing
582b
Evaluation criteria are what?
583a
Evaluation criteria are the set of requirements
that will be used to choose between multiple
solutions.
583b
When are acceptance criteria used?
584a
Acceptance criteria are typically used when only
one possible solution is being evaluated and are
generally expressed as a pass or fail.
584b
When are evaluation criteria used?
585a
Evaluation criteria are used to compare multiple
solutions or solution components and allow for
a range of possible scores
585b
What are the elements of acceptance and
evaluation criteria?
586a
There are 2:
::Testability
::Determine Rank and Scoring
586b
What does testability mean?
587a
That the requirements are able to be tested and
are expressed in a testable form
587b
What is ranking?
588a
Ranking is the process of determining the order
of importance for all requirements
588b
What technique is commonly used for ranking?
589a
Moscow
589b
What is scoring?
590a
Scoring is the process of determining how well a
solution meets a requirement
590b
What are the advantages of acceptance and
591a
::Agile methodologies may require that all
requirements be expressed in the form of
testable acceptance criteria.
::Acceptance criteria are also necessary when
the requirements express contractual
obligations.
591b
What are the disadvantages of acceptance and
592a
Acceptance and evaluation criteria may express
contractual obligations and as such may be
difficult to change for legal or political reasons
592b
What is the purpose of benchmarking?
593a
Benchmark studies are performed to compare
the strengths and weaknesses of an organization
against its peers and competitors
593b
Benchmark studies compare what?
594a
Organizational practices against the best-in-class
practices that exist within competitor enterprises
in government or industry.
594b
The objective of benchmark studies is to
determine what?
595a
How companies achieve their superior
performance levels and use that information to
design projects to improve operations of the
enterprise
595b
Benchmarking is usually focused on what three
things?
596a
strategies, operations and processes
596b
What is an advantage of benchmarking?
597a
Benchmarking provides organizations with
information about new and different methods,
ideas, and tools to improve organizational
performance
597b
What are the disadvantages of benchmarking?
598a
:: time consuming
::must have experience performing
::cannot produce innovative ideas
598b
What is the purpose of the Brainstorming
technique?
599a
Brainstorming is an excellent way to foster
creative thinking about a problem. The aim of
brainstorming is to produce numerous new ideas,
and to derive from them themes for further
analysis.
599b
What are the elements of brainstorming?
600a
There are 3:
::Preparation
::Session
::Wrap-up
600b
What kind of preparation is needed for a
brainstorming session?
601a
::Develop a clear and concise definition of the area
of interest
::Determine a time limit for the group to generate
ideas; the larger the group, the more time required.
Identify facilitator and participants in session
::Aim for participants (ideally 6 to 8) who represent a
range of background and experience with the topic.
::Set expectations with participants and get their buy
in to the process
::Establish criteria for evaluating and rating the ideas
601b
What are the things that are important to the
session element for brainstorming?
602a
::Share new ideas without any discussion, criticism
or evaluation
::Visibly record all ideas
::Encourage participants to be creative, share
exaggerated ideas, and build on the ideas of
others.
::Don't limit the number of ideas as the goal is to
elicit as many as possible within the time period.
602b
What occurs in a brainstorming session wrap-up?
603a
::Once the time limit is reached, using the pre-
determined evaluation criteria, discuss and
evaluate the ideas
::Create a condensed list of ideas, combine ideas
where appropriate, and eliminate duplicates
::Rate the ideas. Distribute the final list of ideas
to appropriate parties.
603b
What are the disadvantages of a brainstorming
session?
604a
::Dependent on participants' creativity and
willingness to participate. Organizational and
interpersonal politics may also limit participation
::Group participants must agree to avoid
debating the ideas raised during brainstorming.
604b
What are the measures of effectiveness for
Business Principles and Practices?
605a
::Understanding of business environments,
operations, process and practices relating to
Common business management and decision
making concepts, principles activities and practices;
typical organization structures, job functions and
work activities; complex business functions and
operations
::Understanding of relevant regulatory, compliance,
and governance frameworks
::Understanding of auditing and security issues
605b
What are the effectiveness measures of industry
knowledge?
606a
::Understanding of industry related material and keeps abreast of
what is taking place in the industry
::The ability to identify key trends shaping the industry
::Knowledge of major competitors and partners for the
organization
::Knowledge of major customer segments
::Knowledge of common products and product types
::Knowledge of sources of information about the industry, including
relevant trade organizations or journals
::Understanding of industry-specific resource and process
documents
::Understanding of industry standard processes and methodologies
::Understanding of the industry regulatory environment.
606b
Name all 34 techniques in the BABOK
607a
::Acceptance and Evaluation Criteria Definition
::Benchmarking
::Brainstorming
::Data Dictionary and Glossary
::Data Flow Diagrams
::Data Modeling
::Decision Analysis
::Document Analysis
::Estimation
::Focus Groups
::Functional Decomposition
::Interface Analysis
::Interviews
::Lessons Learned Process
::Metrics and Key Performance Indicators
::Non-functional Requirements Analysis
::Observation
::Organization Modeling
::Problem Tracking
::Process Modeling
::Prototyping
::Requirements Workshops
::Risk Analysis
::Root Cause Analysis
::Scenarios and Use Cases
::Scope Modeling
::Sequence Diagrams
::State Diagrams
::Structured Walkthrough
::SWOT Analysis 607b
::User Stories
What are the advantages of a brainstorming
session?
608a
::Ability to elicit many ideas in a short time
period
::Non-judgmental environment enables creative
thinking
::Can be useful during a workshop to reduce
tension between participants
608b
What is the purpose of the Business Rules
Analysis technique?
609a
To define the rules that govern decisions in an
organization and that define, constrain, or enable
organizational operations
609b
What is a business policy?
610a
A business policy is a non-actionable directive
that supports a business goal
610b
What occurs in business rules analysis?
611a
Policies and rules direct and constrain the
organization and operation of an organization
611b
What is the definition of a business rule?
612a
A business rule is a specific, actionable, testable
directive that is under the control of an
organization and that supports a business policy
612b
A decision table or decision tree is used for
what?
613a
Expression and display of complex rules, rule
sets and their interdependencies
613b
What are characteristics of good business rules?
614a
::Stated in appropriate terminology to enable
domain SMEs to validate the rules.
::Documented independently of how they will be
enforced
::Stated at the atomic level and in declarative format
::Separated from processes that the rule supports or
constrains.
::Maintained in a manner that enables the
organization to monitor and adapt the rules as the
business policies change.
614b
What are the elements of Business Rules
Analysis?
615a
There are 2:
::Operative Rules
::Structural Rules
615b
What are Operative Rules?
616a
Operative rules are rules that the organization
chooses to enforce as a matter of policy
616b
Operative Rules oblige people to do what?
617a
To take certain actions, prevent people from
taking actions, or prescribe the conditions under
which an action may be taken
617b
Structural rules are intended to do what?
618a
Help determine when something is or is not true,
or when things fall into a specific category.
618b
Structural Rules also describe what?
619a
How information may be inferred or calculated
based on other data available to the business
619b
True or False: The impact of changes to business
rules can be assessed more easily when they are
documented as part of the processes they detail
or the means used to enforce the rules.
620a
FALSE
620b
The following is an example of an Operational or
Structural rule?
"An order must have one and only one
associated payment method"
621a
Structural
621b
The following is an example of an operative or
structural rule?
"An order must not be placed when the billing
address provided by the customer does not
match the address on file with the credit card
provider"
622a
Operative
622b
What is a weakness of large amounts of business
rules?
623a
Business rules can contradict one another or
produce unanticipated results when combined
623b
What is the purpose of the Data Dictionary and
Glossary technique?
624a
A data dictionary or glossary defines key terms
and data relevant to a business domain
624b
Data dictionaries or glossaries are used to
formally identify and define what?
625a
All terminology used by the organization or
organizational unit
625b
What are the elements of the technique?
626a
Data Dictionary and Glossary
626b
Why is a glossary created?
627a
To ensure that all stakeholders understood what
is meant when certain words are used
627b
What does a glossary consist of?
628a
A glossary consists of a term relevant to the
domain and a unique definition for each, as well
as cross-referencing aliases
628b
Data dictionaries include what?
629a
::standard definitions of data elements and their
meanings
::allowable values.
::definitions of each primitive data element and
indications of how those elements combine into
composite data elements
629b
What is a primitive data element?
630a
The basic unit of data that includes information
about an element:
::Name
::Alias
::Values/Meanings
::Description
630b
What is a composite data element?
631a
Composite data is assembled from primitive data
elements
631b
What are some examples of composite
structures?
632a
::Sequences
::Repetitions
::Optional Elements
632b
What do sequences do with regard to data?
633a
Show primitive data in a specific order
633b
What do repetitions do?
634a
Show primitive data elements that occur more
than once in a composite structure
634b
What are glossaries and data dictionaries useful
for?
635a
A data dictionary or glossary is useful for
ensuring that all stakeholders are in agreement
on the format and content of relevant
information
635b
What is the purpose of the Data Flow Diagrams
technique?
636a
To show how information is input, processed,
stored, and output from a system.
636b
The Data Flow Diagram (DFD) provides a visual
representation of what?
637a
How information is moved through a system
637b
What do data flow diagrams show?
638a
::External Entities that provide data to, or receive
data from, a system
::The Processes of the system that transform
data
::The Data Stores in which data is collected for
some period of time
::The Data Flows by which data moves between
External Entities, Processes and Data Stores
638b
What are the elements of data flow diagrams?
639a
There are 4:
::External Entities
::Data Store
::Data Process
::Data Flow
639b
What is an external entity?
640a
An external entity is a source or a destination of
data. It is represented as a labeled rectangle.
640b
What is a data store?
641a
A data store represents a location where data is
not moving or transforming, but is being stored
passively for future use
641b
What is a data process?
642a
A data process is a process that transforms the
data in some way, either combining the data,
reordering the data, converting the data, filtering
the data or other such activities.
642b
What is a data flow?
643a
A data flow identifies where data is being moved
between a data process and an external entity, a
data store or another data process
643b
What are the strengths of data flow diagrams?
644a
::May be used as a discovery technique for processes
and data, or as a technique for verification of a
Functional Decomposition or Data Model that have
already been completed.
::Most users find these diagrams quite easy to
understand
::Generally considered a useful analysis deliverable
to developers in a structured programming
environment.
644b
What are the weaknesses of data flow diagrams?
645a
They cannot easily show who is responsible for
performing the work. They cannot show
alternative paths through the same process.
645b
What is the purpose of the Data Modeling
technique?
646a
The purpose of a data model is to describe the
concepts relevant to a domain, the relationships
between those concepts, and information
associated with them.
646b
Data models visually present what information?
647a
::types of people
::places
::things
::concepts that are important to the business,
attributes associated with them
::significant business relationships among all of
the above
647b
What two techniques often support the Data
Model technique?
648a
::Data Dictionaries and Glossaries
648b
What are the two most common data models?
649a
Entity-relationship diagram (ERD) and the class
diagram
649b
When working with relational databases what is
the preferred data model type?
650a
Entity-relationship diagram (ERD)
650b
Class Diagrams are typically used when
performing what?
651a
Object-oriented design and development
651b
What are the elements of the Data Model
technique?
652a
There are 4:
::Concept
::Attributes
::Relationship
::Metadata
652b
What is the definition of a concept?
653a
Something of significance to the domain being
described, about which the organization needs
data. Concepts are referred to as entities in
ERDs and as classes in class diagrams
653b
What is an attribute?
654a
A particular piece of information associated with
a concept
654b
What are relationships with regard to data
modeling?
655a
Relationships are significant business associations
between concepts and define how information is
used in the operation of the business, and
indicate the important linkages that need to be
managed and maintained in the solution
655b
What is the definition of metadata?
656a
Data about data that describes the context, use,
and validity of business information and is
generally used to determine when and why
information stored in a system was changed
656b
What are the advantages of data modeling?
657a
::flexibility of different levels of description
:: consistent modeling approach that supports
the transition through planning, analysis, design
and implementation
::supported by rigorous rules for correctness
and completeness which encourages accuracy
657b
What are the disadvantages of data modeling?
658a
::can be complex
::deal with concepts that may be unfamiliar to
people without a background in data modeling
658b
What is the purpose of the Decision Analysis
technique?
659a
To support decision-making when dealing with
complex, difficult, or uncertain situations.
659b
Decision analysis examines and models what?
660a
The possible consequences of different
decisions in order to in make an optimal decision
under conditions of uncertainty
660b
For effective decision analysis the business
analyst must understand what?
661a
::The values, goals and objectives that are
relevant to the decision problem
::The nature of the decision that must be made
::The areas of uncertainty that affect the decision
and the consequences of each possible decision
661b
What are the elements of the Decision Analysis
technique?
662a
There are 3:
::Outcomes
::Uncertainty
::Trade-offs
662b
What are the two types of outcomes?
663a
::Financial
::Non-Financial
663b
What are the examples of financial outcomes of
Decision Analysis?
664a
::Discounted Cash Flow: future value on a specific data
::Net Present Value: future view of costs and benefits
converted to today's value
::Internal Rate of Return: the interest rate (or discount)
when the net present value is equal to zero
::Average Rate of Return: estimate of rate of return on an
investment
::Pay Back Period: the amount of time it takes for an
investment to pay for itself
::Cost-Benefit Analysis: quantification of costs and
benefits for a proposed new solution::
664b
When does uncertainty becomes relative to a
decision problem?
665a
When it is impossible to know which outcome
will occur.
665b
What is a common way to handle uncertainty?
666a
To calculate the expected value of the
outcomes. This involves estimating the
percentage chance of each outcome occurring
and them multiplying the numeric value
associated with that outcome by that
percentage
666b
What is a method to assess preferred outcome
when multiple sources of uncertainty exist?
667a
Decision tree
667b
When do trade-offs become relevant to a
problem decision?
668a
Whenever a decision problem involves multiple,
possibly conflicting, objectives
668b
What are two common methods of making
tradeoff decisions?
669a
::Elimination of dominated alternatives
:: Ranking objectives on a similar scale
669b
What are some of the common functional areas
in an organization?
670a
::Human Resources
::Finance
::Information Technology
::Supply Chain Mgmt
670b
Solution Assessment activities may be
performed to assess and validate what?
671a
::business processes
::organizational structures
::outsourcing agreements
::software applications
671b
If a defect cannot be resolved in a time frame
that is acceptable from a business and
stakeholders cannot accept the defect what
must the analyst do?
672a
The business analyst may investigate options for
mitigating the effects
672b
The business analyst must do what in benchmark
studies?
673a
::Identify the area to be studied
::Identify organizations that are leaders in the
sector
::Conduct a survey of selected organizations to
understand their practices
::Arrange for visits to best-in-class organizations
::Develop a project proposal to implement the
best practices
673b
What is a dominated alternative?
674a
A dominated alternative is any option that is
clearly inferior to some other option. If an
option is equal to or worse than some other
option when rated against the objectives, the
other option can be said to dominate it
674b
What method is commonly used to convert
rankings to a similar scale?
675a
Proportional scoring
675b
What is Proportional scoring?
676a
Options are assigned values between 1 and 100
and then weighted for relevance. Score are
assigned to options and a decision tree is used
676b
What are the advantages of the Decision
Analysis technique?
677a
:: provides an effective way to determine the
expected value of an alternative scenario
:: uses consistent financial justification techniques
with quantitative measures
:: may force stakeholders to honestly assess the
importance placed on options
677b
What are the disadvantages of the Decision
Analysis technique?
678a
::requires specialized knowledge and skills,
including mathematical knowledge, an
understanding of probability, and similar
concepts
::results may be treated as more certain than
they actually are
:: decision-makers may be reluctant to revisit
decisions
678b
What is the purpose of the Document Analysis
technique?
679a
Document analysis is a means to elicit
requirements by studying available
documentation on existing and comparable
solutions and identifying relevant information.
679b
Sources of documentation must be what to
enhance requirements coverage?
680a
up to date.
680b
Document analysis is used if the objective is to
gather details of what items that need to be
included in a new solution or need to be
updated for the current solution
681a
::existing solutions
::including business rules
::entities
::attributes
681b
What are the elements of the Document
Analysis technique?
682a
There are 3:
::Preparation
::Document Review
::Wrap-up
682b
What is involved with the wrap-up of the
Document Analysis technique?
683a
::Review and confirm the selected details with
subject matter experts
::Organize information into requirements format
::Obtain answers to follow-up questions.
683b
What are the advantages of the Document
Analysis technique?
684a
::Not starting from a blank page
::Leveraging existing materials to discover and/or
confirm requirements
::A means to cross-check requirements from
other elicitation techniques such as interviews,
job shadowing, surveys or focus groups
684b
What is the purpose of the Estimation technique?
685a
Estimating techniques forecast the cost and
effort involved in pursuing a course of action.
685b
Estimation techniques are used to develop a
better understanding of what?
686a
The possible range of costs and effort
associated with any initiative
686b
True or False: Estimation eliminates all
uncertainty
687a
False. The purpose of estimation is to get a
reasonable assessment of likely costs or effort
required.
687b
True or False: Estimate should be conducted at
the start of the project and the results should be
used throughout the project
688a
False. Estimates should be revisited as more
information becomes available. Many estimation
techniques rely on historic performance records
from the organization to calibrate them against
actual performance
688b
What are the elements of the Estimation
technique?
689a
There are 8:
::Analogous Estimation
::Parametric Estimation
::Bottom-up Estimation
::Rolling Wave Estimation
::Three-point Estimation
::Historic Analysis
::Expert Judgment
::Delphi Estimation
689b
What is Analogous Estimation and when is it
used?
690a
It is used when little is known. Analogous
estimating is often used to develop a rough
order of magnitude (ROM) estimate, and is also
known as "top-down" estimating
690b
What is Parametric Estimation and when is it
used?
691a
Parametric Estimation uses parameters,
multiplied by the number of hours. For
parametric estimating to be useable, enough
history has to be available to be used as a basis
of comparison
691b
What must the analyst do for parametric
estimation to be useful?
692a
Determine which parameters can be used and
how many there will be
692b
What are some common examples of parametric
estimation?
693a
::COCOMOII
::Function Points
::Use Case Points
::Story Points
693b
To use bottom-up estimation the business
analyst must have done what?
694a
Collected the deliverables, activities, tasks, and
estimates from all the involved stakeholders and
rolls them up to get a total for all the activities
and tasks
694b
How does rolling wave estimation work?
695a
Estimate the details for activities in the current
iteration or increment and provide an analogous
estimate for the entire scope of work. As the
end of the iteration approaches, estimates for
the next iteration can be made and the initial
estimate for all activities is refined
695b
Three-point estimation functions how?
696a
It uses three scenarios:
::The most optimistic estimate, or best-case
scenario
::The most pessimistic estimate, or worst-case
scenario
::The most likely estimate.
696b
Expert Judgment estimation relies on what?
697a
The expertise of those who have performed the
work in the past.
697b
Delphi Estimation combines what two methods?
698a
Expert judgment and history
698b
How does Delphi Estimation work?
699a
All variations of Delphi include individual
estimates, sharing the estimates with experts,
and having several rounds until consensus is
reached. An average of the three estimates is
used. Sometimes the estimates are weighted.
699b
What are the advantages of the estimation
technique?
700a
Can help stakeholders make better decisions
700b
What are the disadvantages of the estimation
technique?
701a
::Stakeholders frequently treat estimates as
commitments, and expect that once an
esti¬mate is given the solution team will meet
the time and cost estimate
:: Estimates are often consciously or
unconsciously altered to match the desires of
influential stakeholders
701b
What is the purpose of Focus Groups?
702a
A focus group is a means to elicit ideas and
attitudes about a specific product, service or
opportunity in an interactive group environment.
The participants share their impressions,
preferences and needs, guided by a moderator.
702b
A focus group is composed of what type of
participants?
703a
Pre-qualified individuals whose objective is to
discuss and comment on a topic
703b
Focus Groups are an elicitation technique
considered to be a form of what?
704a
Qualitative Research. Session results are
analyzed and reported as themes and
perspectives, rather than numerical findings
704b
What are the elements of the Focus Group
technique?
705a
::Preparation
::Run the Focus Group Session
::Produce Report
705b
Preparation for focus groups involves four basic
steps. What are they?
706a
::Recruit Participants
::Assign Moderator and Recorder
::Create Discussion Guide
::Reserve Site and Services
706b
There are two basic types of focus groups. What
are they?
707a
Homogenous and Heterogeneous
707b
What are the advantages of focus groups?
708a
::Ability to elicit data from a group of people in a
single session saves time and cost as compared to
conducting individual interviews with the same
number of people.
::Effective for learning people's attitudes, experiences
and desires
::Active discussion and the ability to ask others
questions creates an environment where participants
can consider their personal view in relation to other
perspectives.
708b
What are the disadvantages of focus groups?
709a
:: participants may be concerned about issues of trust
:: unwilling to discuss sensitive or personal topics
:: Data collected (what people say) may not be
consistent with how people actually behave
:: responses may not represent the complete set of
requirements
:: skilled moderator is needed
:: difficult to schedule
:: not an effective way to evaluate usability.
709b
What is the purpose of the Functional
Decomposition technique?
710a
To decompose processes, functional areas, or
deliverables into their component parts and
allow each part to be analyzed independently.
710b
Functional decomposition involves what?
711a
Breaking down a large problem into smaller
functions or deliverables.
711b
The primary goal of functional decomposition is
to ensure that the problem is what?
712a
Separated into sub-problems that are as
independent as possible, so that work can be
assigned to different groups
712b
What are the elements of the Functional
713a
The breakdown of high-level components into
clearly defined sub-components
713b
What are the advantages of the Functional
714a
::Creates a conceptual model of the work that
needs to be completed to deliver the new
business solution
::Provides all stakeholders with a consistent view
of the scope of the effort
::Assists estimating in that estimates can be made
for smaller, and therefore more readily
understandable, subsets of the whole.
714b
What are the disadvantages of the Functional
715a
::There is no way to be certain that all
components have been captured.
::Decomposing a problem without fully
understanding the relationship between pieces
of the problem may create an inappropriate
structure that impedes analysis.
715b
What is the purpose of the Interface Analysis
technique?
716a
To identify interfaces between solutions and/or
solution components and define requirements
that describe how they will interact.
716b
What are some common interface types?
717a
::User
::Those to and from external applications
:: Those to and from external hardware devices
717b
Interface analysis helps to clarify what?
718a
The boundaries of the interfacing applications. It
distinguishes which application provides specific
functionality along with the input and output
data needs
718b
A basis for successful interoperability is
established b y doing what?
719a
Clearly and carefully separating the
requirements for each application while defining
the shared interface requirements
719b
What are the elements used in the Interface
Analysis technique?
720a
There are 3:
::Prepare for Interface Identification
::Conduct Interface Identification
::Define Interfaces
720b
What type of diagram provides useful
information in determining potential interfaces to
and from external parties?
721a
Context Diagram
721b
An interface for each what?
722a
Each stakeholder or system that interacts with
the system in question
722b
What are the three things that should be
identified for each stakeholder or system
interaction?
723a
:: purpose of the interface
:: type of interface
:: high-level details about the interface
723b
Prototyping is typically used to model what type
of interface?
724a
User-to-system
724b
Requirements for an interface are primarily
focused on describing what?
725a
::inputs and outputs from that interface
::any validation rules that govern those inputs
and outputs
::events that might trigger interactions.
725b
What are the advantages of the Interface
Analysis technique?
726a
::Positive impact on delivery date....enables more
accurate project planning and potential savings
in time and cost
::Clarity on collaboration with other systems or
projects
:: prevention of difficulties in integrating multiple
components.
726b
What are the disadvantages of the Interface
Analysis technique?
727a
Does not provide insight into other aspects of
the solution since the analysis does not assess
the internal components
727b
What is the purpose of the Interview technique?
728a
An interview is a systematic approach designed
to elicit information from a person or group of
people in an informal or formal setting by talking
to an interviewee, asking relevant questions and
documenting the responses.
728b
The answers obtained in an interview are used
for what purpose?
729a
Creation of requirements
729b
What are the two types of interviews?
730a
::Structured (pre-defined set of questions )
:: Unstructured (discuss topics of interest in an
open-ended way)
730b
What are the elements used in the Interview
technique?
731a
There are 3:
::Prepare for the Interview/Design Interview
::Conduct Interview
::Post Interview Follow-up
731b
Why types of factors are considered when
preparing for an interview?
732a
::Who holds the most authentic and the most
current information on the subject of interest?
::What is their stake in the initiative
::What is the relative importance of information
held by one person relative to that held by
another person?
732b
What are closed-ended questions?
733a
Questions that are used to elicit a single
response such as: yes, no, or a specific number.
Example: How many hours does it take for the
claim process to be completed?
733b
What are open-ended questions?
734a
Questions that are used to elicit a dialog or
series of steps and cannot be answered in a yes
or no fashion but need explaining. Example:
What does a claim processor do on receipt of a
claim form?
734b
Designing an interview considers what types of
factors?
735a
Question type
::Location of Interviewee
::Question Organization
::Interview Time and Place
735b
What are the advantages of the Interview
technique?
736a
::Encourages participation and establishes rapport
::Simple, direct technique
::Allows the interviewer and participant to have full
discussions
::Enables observations of non-verbal behavior
::The interviewer can ask follow-up and probing
questions
::Maintains focus through the use of clear objectives
::Allows interviewees to express opinions in private
736b
What are the disadvantages of the Interview
technique?
737a
::Not an ideal means of reaching consensus
::Requires considerable commitment
::Training is required to conduct
::Depth of follow-on questions may be dependent
on the interviewer's knowledge of the business
domain.
::Transcription / analysis is complex and expensive
::Resulting documentation may be subject to
interpretation.
::Risk of unintentionally leading the interviewee.
737b
What is the purpose of the Lessons Learned
technique?
738a
The purpose of the lessons learned process is to
compile and document successes, opportunities
for improvement, failures, and recommendations
for improving the performance of future projects
or project phases.
738b
What types of items are reviewed in a lessons
learned session?
739a
::BA analysis and deliverables
::Process
::Final Deliverable
::issues/Concerns
::Performance
::Root Cause
::Variances
739b
What are the advantages of the Lessons Learned
technique?
740a
::Helps to build morale
::Identifies opportunities for improvement
740b
What are the disadvantages of the Lessons
Learned technique?
741a
::Must avoid blaming
::Possible reluctance to discussion
::Lack of follow-up leads to neglect
741b
What is the purpose of the Metrics and Key
Performance Indicators (KPI) technique?
742a
The purpose of metrics and key performance
indicators are to measure the performance of
solutions, solution components, and other
matters of interest to stakeholders.
742b
What is the definition of a metric?
743a
A metric is a quantifiable level of an indicator
that an organization uses to measure progress
743b
What specifically does a Key Performance
Indicator (KPI) do?
744a
A Key Performance Indicator is one that
measures progress towards a strategic goal or
objective.
744b
What is involved with reporting with regard to
metrics?
745a
Reporting is the process of informing
stakeholders of metrics of indicators in specified
formats at specified intervals
745b
Metrics and reporting are key components of
what?
746a
monitoring and evaluation
746b
What is the definition of monitoring in the
BABOK ?
747a
A continuous process of collecting data to
determine how well a solution has been
implemented compared to expected results
747b
What is the definition of evaluation in the BABOK
?
748a
The systematic and objective assessment of a
solution to determine its status and efficacy in
meeting objectives over time, and to identify
ways to improve the solution to better meet
objectives
748b
What are the elements of the Metrics and Key
749a
There are 4:
::Indicators
::Metrics
::Structure
::Reporting
749b
A good indicator has five characteristics. What
are they?
750a
::Clear: precise and unambiguous
::Relevant: appropriate to the factor
::Economical: available at reasonable cost
::Adequate: provides a sufficient basis to assess
performance
::Quantifiable: can be independently validated
750b
What are the factors to consider when creating
indicators?
751a
::source
::method of collection
::collector and cost
::frequency and difficulty of collection
751b
What must a target metric do?
752a
Reach an objective within a specific time period
752b
Establishing a monitoring and evaluation system
requires what?
753a
::data collection procedure
::data analysis procedure
::reporting procedure
::collection of baseline data
753b
The data collection procedure for metrics
describes what factors?
754a
::units of analysis
::sampling procedures
::data collection instruments to use
::collection frequency
::responsibility for collection.
754b
The analysis method of metrics specifies what?
755a
::procedures for conducting the analysis
::the data consumer
755b
The procedures for metrics reporting describe
what?
756a
::report templates
::recipients
::frequency
::means of communication
756b
What is baseline data?
757a
::data provided immediately before or at the
begin¬ning of a period to measure
::data that's used to learn about recent
performance and to measure progress from that
point forward
::data that needs to be collected for each
indicator, analyzed and reported.
757b
What are the three key factors in assessing the
quality of indicators and their metrics?
758a
::reliability
::validity
::timeliness
758b
The reliability factor of metrics is described as
what?
759a
The extent to which the data collection
approach is stable and consistent across time
and space
759b
The validity factor of metrics is described as
what?
760a
The extent to which data clearly and directly
measure the performance the organization
intends to mea¬sure
760b
The Timeliness factor of metrics is describes as
what?
761a
The fit of the frequency and latency of data to
management's need for it
761b
What does metric reporting do?
762a
Compares the baseline, current metrics and
target metrics to each other, with calculations of
the differences presented in both absolute and
relative terms
762b
What are the advantages of the Metrics and Key
763a
::allows stakeholders to understand the extent to
which a solution meets an objective
::defines how effective the inputs and activities of
developing the solution (output) were
763b
What are the disadvantages of the Metrics and
Key Performance Indicators (KPI) technique?
764a
::Gathering excessive amounts of data beyond
what is needed
::May fail due to collecting too much data and
not generating useful reports that will allow
timely responsive action
:: When metrics are used to assess performance,
the individuals being measured are likely to act
to increase their performance on those metrics
764b
What is the purpose of the Non-Functional
Requirements Analysis technique?
765a
The purpose of non-functional requirements is to
describe the required qualities of a system, such
as its usability and performance characteristics
765b
Non-functional requirements document the
qualities of a system that are important to who?
766a
:: the user community, such as usability,
learnability, reliability
:: the development community, such as
scalability, maintainability, reusability
766b
What are the elements used in the Non-
Functional Requirements Analysis technique?
767a
There are 3:
::Category
::Measurement
::Documentation
767b
What is the non-functional requirement schema
used in the BABOK 2.0?
768a
ISO 9126
768b
What are the categories in the ISO 9126
schema?
769a
::Reliability
::Performance Efficiency
::Operability
::Security
::Compatibility
::Maintainability
::Transferability
769b
What are the advantages of the Non-Functional
Requirements Analysis technique?
770a
Success in meeting non-functional requirements
will have a strong influence on whether or not a
system is accepted by its users
770b
What are the disadvantages of the Non-
Functional Requirements Analysis technique?
771a
::Non-functional requirements are often more
difficult to define than functional requirements.
::Overly stringent non-functional requirements
may significantly impact the cost of developing a
software application.
771b
What is the purpose of the Observation
technique?
772a
Observation is a means of eliciting requirements
by conducting an assessment of the
stakeholder's work environment
772b
What are the two approaches of observation?
773a
Passive/invisible and Active/visible
773b
What are the elements used in the Observation
technique?
774a
::Prepare for Observation
::Observe
::Post Observation Wrap-up
774b
During the actual observation what does the
observer do?
775a
,::Reassures the user that their work is not being
questioned
:: Informs the user that the observer is present only to
study their processes
:: Explains to the user that they may stop the observation
process at any time if they believe that it is interfering
with their work
:: Suggests to the user that they may "think aloud" while
they are working as a way to share their intentions,
challenges, and concerns
::takes detailed notes and asks questions
775b
What are the advantages of the Observation
technique?
776a
::Provides realistic and practical insight into the
business
::Elicits details of informal communication and
ways people actually work around the system
that
776b
What are the disadvantages of the Observation
technique?
777a
::Only possible for existing processes
:: time-consuming
:: May be disruptive
:: May not well work if the current process is not
easily observable.
777b
What is the purpose of the Organizational
Modeling technique?
778a
Organization Modeling is used to describe the
roles, responsibilities and reporting structures
that exist within an organization and to align
those structures with the organization's goals
778b
An organizational model defines what?
779a
How an organization or organizational unit is
structured
779b
What do organizational units do?
780a
Organizational units bring together a group of
people to fulfill a common purpose or goal
780b
What does the organizational model describe
about organizational structure?
781a
::the scope of the organizational unit
::the formal relationships between the people
who are members of that unit
::the roles those people fill
::the interfaces between that unit and other units
or stakeholders
781b
What are the elements of the Organizational
Modeling technique?
782a
There are 4:
::Organizational Purpose and Structure
::Roles
::Interfaces
::Org Charts
782b
What are the three facets of Organizational
Purpose and Structure?
783a
::Functions
::Market
::Matrix
783b
Functionally-oriented organizations group
together staff based on what?
784a
shared skills or areas of expertise.
784b
Functionally-oriented organizations facilitate
cost management and reduce duplication of
work
785a
but are prone to develop what?,communication
and cross-functional co-ordination problems
(known informally as "silos").
785b
A "market-oriented" organization may be
organized around
786a
::customer groups
::geographical areas
::projects
::processes
786b
Work packages and communication comprise
what between organizational units?
787a
Interfaces
787b
What are the three main things that org charts
display?
788a
::Org Units
::Relationships
::Roles and People
788b
What are the advantages of the Organizational
Modeling technique?
789a
Organizational models are one of the few types
of models any organization is almost certain to
have defined.
789b
What are the disadvantages of the
Organizational Modeling technique?
790a
::Organizational redesigns are likely to be highly
contentious and require significant executive
support in order to be successful.
::Informal lines of authority and communication
that are not reflected in the org chart are almost
certain to exist within the organization.
790b
What is the purpose of the Problem Solving
technique?
791a
Problem tracking provides an organized
approach to tracking, management, and
resolution of defects, issues, problems, and risks
throughout business analysis activities.
791b
Problem tracking should lead to what?
792a
::Resolution of problems in a timely manner that
eliminate or minimize negative impacts.
::Allocation of resources to resolve problems.
::Identification of root causes of problems.
792b
What are the elements used in the Problem
Tracking technique?
793a
There are 3:
::Problem Record
::Problem management
793b
What types of KPIs are valuable for problem
tracking?
794a
::Number of problems by status and priority
::Cycle time for each problem (number of days it
took from Date Identified to Resolution Date).
794b
What are the advantages of the Problem
Tracking technique?
795a
::provides an organized method for tracking and
resolving risks, issues and defects
::mechanism to communicate problems across the
team
::helps to maintain focus on open problems until they
are resolved.
795b
What are the disadvantages of the Problem
Tracking technique?
796a
::If regular prioritization and management of problems is
not done, the list becomes outdated and irrelevant.
::If key team members are not available on a regular basis
to discuss the lists of problems and to determine actions
to be taken, then progress to resolve them may become
very slow to non-existent.
::If there is a strict deadline to deliver the solution, then
problem management may become a lower priority.
Often, root cause analysis of the problems can take more
time and resources than are available.
796b
What is the purpose of the Process Modeling
technique?
797a
To understand how work that involves multiple
roles and departments is performed within an
organization
797b
A process describes what?
798a
How multiple people or groups collaborate over
a period of time to perform work
798b
How is a process initiated?
799a
A process is initiated by an event in the business
domain
799b
What is an event?
800a
Events may be actions taken by a person, rules
which cause action to be taken, or simply the
passage of a period of time
800b
Is a process model always a model of
automation?
801a
No. It may be a combination of manual and
automation or completely manual.
801b
When is a process considered complete?
802a
The process is complete when the objective or
the goal of the process is completed.
802b
What is a swimlane?
803a
Swimlanes are horizontal or vertical sections of
a process model that show which activities are
performed by a particular role
803b
What are the elements of the Process Modeling
technique?
804a
There are 2:
::Notation Elements
::Process Improvement
804b
What are three of the common notations used in
process modeling?
805a
::Flowcharts
::UML Activity Diagrams
::BPMN
805b
What are the key elements commonly found in
process models?
806a
::Activities
::Decisions
::Events
::Flow
::Roles
::Swimlanes and Pools
::Terminal Points
806b
What is an event in a process model?
807a
Events occur outside the scope of a process and
may be the result of actions taken, messages
received, or the passage of time. Events may
create, interrupt, or terminate processes.
807b
What is a pool in a process model?
808a
A pool represents an organizational boundary. It
may include a number of swimlanes. Commonly,
a process will include one pool for the customer
and a second pool for the organization, although
it is possible for a process to include any
number of pools.
808b
Six Sigma and Lean are examples of what?
809a
Process Improvement methodologies
809b
What are some common changes made to
process in order to improve them?
810a
::Analysis of a process to identify and remove
activities that do not add value
:: Reduction of the time required to complete a
process
:: Improving interfaces or handoffs between
roles and organizational units
:: Reduction or elimination of bottlenecks and
backlogs
810b
What are the advantages of the Process
Modeling technique?
811a
:: stakeholders are comfortable with the basic
elements
:: effective at showing how to handle a large
number of scenarios
::models will be used by business stakeholders
for training and co-ordination of activities.
811b
What are the disadvantages of the Process
Modeling technique?
812a
::can become extremely complex and unwieldy if
not structured carefully
:: problems in a process cannot always be
identified by looking at the model
812b
What is the purpose of the Prototyping
technique?
813a
Prototyping details user interface requirements
and integrates them with other requirements
such as use cases, scenarios, data and business
rules.
813b
Stakeholders use prototyping to do what?
814a
Stakeholders often find prototyping to be a
concrete means of identifying, describing and
validating their interface needs
814b
What are the two types of prototyping
categories?
815a
::Functional Scope
::Usage throughout SDLC
815b
What is the difference between a horizontal and
vertical functional prototype?
816a
A horizontal prototype models a shallow, and
possibly wide view of the system's functionality.
It typically does not have any business logic
running behind the visualization. A vertical
prototype models a deep, and usually narrow
slice of the entire system's functionality
816b
What are the elements of the prototyping
technique?
817a
There are 3:
::Prepare for Prototyping
::Prototyping
::Evaluation of Prototyping
817b
True or False: A prototype is built in a singular
fashion and then reviewed
818a
False. Prototyping is an iterative process
818b
What are the other names for Storyboarding?
819a
Dialog Map, Dialog Hierarchy, Navigation Flow
819b
What is the difference between a screen
prototype and a screen layout?
820a
Screen prototypes provide data attributes,
selection criteria and supporting business rules,
while a screen layout or mockup provides a
graphical representation of the elements. At this
detailed level, one would apply any
organizational standards or style guides.
820b
What are the advantages of the Prototyping
technique?
821a
:: Supports users who are more comfortable and effective
at articulating their needs by using pictures
:: allows for early user interaction and feedback.
:: can be an inexpensive means to quickly uncover and
confirm a variety of requirements
:: vertical prototype can demonstrate what is feasible with
existing technology, and where there may be technology
gaps
:: evolutionary / functional prototype provides a vehicle
for designers and developers to learn about the users'
interface needs and to evolve system requirements
821b
What are the disadvantages of the Prototyping
technique?
822a
::can take considerable time if the process gets
bogged down by the "how's" rather than "what's"
:: Assumptions about the underlying technology may
need to be made
:: may lead users to develop unrealistic expectations
regarding the delivered system's performance,
completion date, reliability and usability
characteristics
:: Users may focus on the design specifications of the
solution rather than the requirements
822b
What is the purpose of the Requirements
Workshop technique?
823a
A requirements workshop is a structured way to
capture scope, discover, define, prioritize and
reach closure on requirements for the target
system.
823b
Why is the requirements workshop considered to
be a very effective technique?
824a
::promotes trust, mutual understanding, and
strong communications among the project
stakeholders and project team
::produces deliverables that structure and guide
future analysis
824b
Why is the role of the business analyst a topic of
concern in the requirements workshop?
825a
The BA may serve as the facilitator, scribe or
SME and the stakeholders may have concerns
that the BA is biased as to the outcome
825b
What are the elements of the Requirements
Workshop technique?
826a
There are 3:
::Prepare for Workshop
::Conduct Workshop
::Post Workshop Wrap-up
826b
What is the role of the facilitator in the
requirements workshop?
827a
::Establish a professional and objective tone for the meeting
::Introduce the goals and agenda for the meeting
::Enforce discipline, structure and ground rules for the meeting
::Manage the meeting and keep the team on track.
:: Facilitate a process for decision-making and build consensus,
but avoid participating in the content of the discussion.
::Ensure that all stakeholders participate and have their input
heard
::Ask the right questions. This includes analyzing the
information being provided, and following up with probing
questions, if necessary.
827b
What is the role of the scribe in the requirements
workshop?
828a
To document the requirements in the format
determined prior to the workshop and keep
track of any items or issues that are deferred
during the session itself.
828b
What are the advantages of the Requirements
Workshop technique?
829a
:: can be a means to elicit detailed requirements
in a relatively short period of time
:: provides a means for stakeholders to
collaborate, make decisions and gain a mutual
understanding of requirements
:: costs are often lower
:: enables the participants to work together to
reach consensus.
:: feedback is immediate
829b
What are the disadvantages of the Requirements
Workshop technique?
830a
::Stakeholder availability may make it difficult to
schedule
:: success of the requirements workshop is highly
dependent on the expertise of the facilitator and
knowledge of the participants
:: too many participants can slow down the
workshop process.
830b
What is the purpose of the Risk Analysis
technique?
831a
To identify and manage areas of uncertainty that
can impact an initiative, solution, or organization
831b
A risk describes what?
832a
An uncertain event or occurrence that may have
an effect on the ability of the business analyst,
project team, or organization to achieve an
objective.
832b
What are the elements of the Risk Analysis
technique?
833a
There are 3:
::Risk Tolerance
::Assessment
::Response
833b
What is risk tolerance?
834a
How much risk an organization can effectively
deal with
834b
What are the three categories of risk tolerance?
835a
::Risk Aversion
::Neutrality
::Risk Seeking
835b
Risk aversion seeks to do what?
836a
Reduce or avoid risk in trade-off for reduction in
potential benefits in return for a more certain
outcome
836b
A neutral approach to risk means that the
probable benefits gained from the risk response
must be what?
837a
Must equal to or outweigh the costs in order to
justify action
837b
A risk-seeking organization or individual is one
that do what with regard to risk?
838a
Accept relatively high risks in order to maximize
the potential benefit. Risk-seekers may accept
low chances of success
838b
Assessment of risk involves what?
839a
Determining the probability that the risk will
occur and the impact if it does occur
839b
Risk response strategies determine what?
840a
How the organization will deal with a risk
840b
What are the strategies to respond to negative
risk?
841a
::Acceptance
::Transfer
::Avoidance
::Mitigation
841b
What are the strategies to respond to positive
risk?
842a
::Acceptance
::Share
::Enhance
::Exploit
842b
What are the advantages of the Risk Analysis
technique?
843a
Enables an organization to prepare for the
likelihood that at least some things will not go as
planned
843b
What are the disadvantages of the Risk Analysis
technique?
844a
It may only be possible to manage a subset of
potential risks.
844b
What is the purpose of the Root Cause Analysis
technique?
845a
The purpose of root cause analysis is to
determine the underlying source of a problem
845b
What is root cause analysis?
846a
Root cause analysis is a structured examination
of the aspects of a situation to establish the root
causes and resulting effects of the problem
846b
What is the critical element of effective root
cause analysis?
847a
A challenge to current organizational thinking
and processes
847b
What are the elements of Root Cause Analysis?
848a
::Fishbone Diagram
::Five Whys
848b
The fishbone diagram is also known as what two
other names?
849a
Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram
849b
A fishbone diagram is used to do what?
850a
Identify and organize the possible causes of a
problem
850b
What is the five whys?
851a
A question-asking process to explore the nature
and cause of a problem by repeatedly asking
questions in an attempt to get to the root cause
of the problem
851b
What are the advantages of the Root Cause
Analysis technique?
852a
Root cause analysis provides a structured
method to identify the root causes of identified
problems, thus ensuring a complete
understanding of the problem under review
852b
What are the disadvantages of the Root Cause
Analysis technique?
853a
Root cause analysis works best when someone
who has formal training or extensive experience
facilitates a team of experts. The primary
concern revolves around the ability of the
facilitator to remain objective, a critical element
to effective root cause analysis.
853b
What is the purpose of the Scenarios and Use
Case technique?
854a
Scenarios and use cases are written to describe
how an actor interacts with a solution to
accomplish one or more of that actor's goals, or
to respond to an event
854b
What is the difference between a scenario and a
use case?
855a
A scenario is generally understood to describe
just one way that an actor can accomplish a
particular goal, while a use case describes all
the possible outcomes
855b
Scenarios are written as what?
856a
A series of steps performed by actors or by the
solution that enable an actor to achieve a goal
856b
A use case describes what?
857a
Several scenarios in the form of primary and
alternate flows
857b
What are the elements of the Scenarios and Use
Case technique?
858a
There are 6:
::Name
::Actor
::Preconditions
::Flow of Events
::Post-conditions
::Relationships
858b
The name of the actor represents what?
859a
The role tha actor plays interfacing with the
system
859b
What is the definition of a precondition?
860a
A precondition is any fact that the solution can
assume to be true when the use case begins
860b
What is the definition of a post-condition?
861a
Any fact that must be true when the use case is
complete. The post conditions must be true for
all possible flows through the use case
861b
Relationships between actors and use cases are
called what?
862a
Associations. An association line only indicates
that an actor has access (of some kind) to the
functionality represented by the use case
862b
Relationships between use cases are known as
what?
863a
Stereotypes.
863b
What are the two common types of
stereotypes?
864a
Includes and extends
864b
This type of relationship is known as what?
....allows for the base use case to make use of
functionality present in another use case
865a
Includes
865b
This type of relationship is known as what?
....allows for the insertion of additional behavior
into a use case
866a
Extends
866b
The use case that is being extended must be
what?
867a
completely functional in its own right
867b
The extending use case does not need to be
what?
868a
complete without reference to the base use
case
868b
The Includes relationship is most often used
when?
869a
When some shared functionality is required by
several use cases
869b
What are the advantages of the Scenarios and
Use Case technique?
870a
Good at clarifying scope and providing a high-
level understanding of user behavioral goals,
normal situations, alternatives or exception paths
through an activity or business process
870b
What are the disadvantages of the Scenarios and
Use Case technique?
871a
:: business analysts are frequently tempted to
describe most or all system behavior using use
cases
:: there is frequently a temptation to use them to
capture all requirements
871b
What is the purpose of the Scope Modeling
technique?
872a
Scope models are used to describe the scope
of analysis or the scope of a solution
872b
Scope models serve as what?
873a
A basis for defining and delimiting the scope of
business analysis and project work
873b
What are the elements of the Scope Modeling
technique?
874a
There are 5:
::Context Diagram
::Events
::Features
::Use Case Diagram
::Business Process
874b
What does a context diagram do?
875a
It uses a single data process to describe the
scope and shows the external entities and data
stores that provide data to and receive data
from the system
875b
What is the difference between and external
event and a temporal event?
876a
::External events happen in an External Entity. They
are external to the boundaries of the system being
studied (a customer makes a request, a partner sends
a message).
::Temporal events are driven by time (e.g. monthly or
annual reports). The time is deter¬mined by time-
related business rules (e.g. produce this report at the
end of every day, or prepare a tax return at the end
of each tax period).
876b
What is the definition of a feature?
877a
A feature is a service that the solution provides
to fulfill one or more stakeholder needs.
877b
What are the advantages of the Scope Modeling
technique?
878a
A scope model will make it easier to determine
what should be in and out of scope for a
solution, even when new requirements are
identified or requirements change.
878b
What are the disadvantages of the Scope
Modeling technique?
879a
A scope model will usually leave much of the
detailed scope still needing to be investigated
and detailed
879b
What is the purpose of the Sequence Diagram
technique?
880a
Sequence diagrams are used to model the logic
of usage scenarios, by showing the information
passed between objects in the system through
the execution of the scenario.
880b
A sequence diagram shows what?
881a
::how classes and objects interact during a
scenario.
::how objects used in the scenario interact but
not how they are related to one another
::how user interface components or software
components interact
:: the stimuli flowing between objects
881b
What is a stimulus?
882a
A message and the arrival of the stimulus at the
object is called an event
882b
How are messages depicted in a sequence
diagram?
883a
A message is shown as an arrow pointing from
the lifeline of the object sending the message to
the lifeline of the object receiving it
883b
What is message flow?
884a
It describes the types of messages sent between
objects
884b
What are the two types of message flow?
885a
Procedural and Asynchronous
885b
What is the difference between Procedural and
Asynchronous message flow?
886a
::Procedural Flow transfers to the receiving
object. The sender cannot act until a return
message is received
::Asynchronous Flow (also known as a signal)
allows the object to continue with its own
processing after sending the signal. The object
may send many signals simultaneously, but may
only accept one signal at a time.
886b
Sequence diagrams are used to validate what
other type of diagrams?
887a
Class Diagrams against Use Case Diagrams
887b
What are the disadvantages of the Sequence
Diagram technique?
888a
::must be defined for each possible scenario
:: requires a fully defined class model
888b
What is the purpose of the State Diagram
technique?
889a
A state diagram shows how the behavior of a
concept, entity or object changes in response to
events
889b
A state diagram specifies what?
890a
A sequence of states that an object goes
through during its lifetime, and defines which
events cause a transition between those states
890b
Current state of an object controls what?
891a
The object's allowable behavior
891b
What are the other names of a State Diagram?
892a
State Machine Diagram, State Transition Diagram,
and Entity Life Cycle Diagram
892b
What are the elements of the State Diagram
technique?
893a
States and Transitions
893b
A state represents what?
894a
A unique condition that an object can be in or
status that it may have
894b
What defines the meaning of the state?
895a
The meaning of state is definable within the
context of the business area being analyzed
895b
A transition represents what?
896a
Dynamic behavior that moves an item from one
state to another.
896b
Transitions are triggered by what?
897a
::activities completed
::events
::other stimuli
897b
An event may only cause a transition when?
898a
If the object is affected by the event in its
current state.
898b
What are the advantages of the State Diagram
technique?
899a
Helping Domain SMEs list and describe the
states and then draw the allowable transitions
between states often uncovers missing data,
control and behavioral requirements and may be
helpful to clarify confusing or even conflicting
requirements
899b
What are the disadvantages of the State Diagram
technique?
900a
There may be actual states an object goes
through as part of its life cycle that do not have
relevance to the domain and these should not
be modeled
900b
What is the purpose of the Structured
Walkthrough technique?
901a
Structured walkthroughs are performed to
communicate, verify and validate requirements.
901b
What is a structured walkthrough?
902a
A structured walkthrough is a working session
where invited participants review and discuss a
set of requirements
902b
A walkthrough may result in what?
903a
Revised requirements as well as issues that
require investigation
903b
What is the difference between a structured
walkthrough and an inspection?
904a
The inspection is more formal and uses
checklists and other tools
904b
What are the elements of the Structured
Walkthrough technique?
905a
There are 3:
::Prerequisites
::Process
::Rules to Followed During the Review
905b
There are five prerequisites to the structured
walkthrough. What are they?
906a
::A complete requirements package
::A List of appropriate reviewers
::A meeting vehicle
::Compile Notes and results of Review
::Re-Review
906b
There are three facets of the Process element
of a structured walkthrough. What are they?
907a
::Review Scope
::Organize and Schedule review
::Conduct the Review
907b
What is the deliverable of the structured
walkthrough session?
908a
The deliverable of a structured walkthrough is a
list of questions, comments, concerns, and
suggestions that are compiled during the
working session
908b
What are the advantages of the structured
walkthrough technique?
909a
::Promotes discussion of the requirements among
stakeholders
::Effective at identifying possible ambiguities and
areas of misunderstanding.
909b
What are the disadvantages of the structured
walkthrough technique?
910a
Review sessions can lead to repeated revisions if
changes are not carefully managed. The length
of the revision and review cycle can result in a
lengthy approval process.
910b
What is the purpose of the Survey/Questionnaire
technique?
911a
A survey is a means of eliciting information from
many people, sometimes anonymously, in a
relatively short period of time
911b
A survey can collect information about what?
912a
customers, products, work practices and
attitudes
912b
There are two types of surveys. What are they?
913a
Open-ended and closed
913b
In a closed survey
914a
what happens?,The respondent is asked to select
from available responses
914b
When are closed surveys used?
915a
When the range of user's responses is fairly well
understood, but the strength of each response
category needs to be determined.
915b
Why are responses to closed questions are
easier to analyze than those gained from open-
ended questions?
916a
Because they can be tied to numerical
coefficients.
916b
What happens in open-ended surveys?
917a
The respondent is free to answer the questions
as they wish
917b
When are open-ended surveys used?
918a
When the issues are known but the range of user
responses to them is not
918b
What are the elements of the
Survey/Questionnaire technique?
919a
There are 3:
::Prepare
::Distribute
::Document Results
919b
A survey requires detailed preparation to ensure
what?
920a
The needed information is obtained while
minimizing the respondent's time to complete it.
920b
There are several components to survey
preparation. What are they?
921a
::Define the purpose and the target survey group
::Choose appropriate survey type
::Select sample group
::Select distribution and collection methods
::Project desired level of response
::Determine if survey should be supported with
interviews
::Write survey questions
:: Test Survey
921b
Initial steps of a survey are the same as for an
interview keeping in mind that semi-structured
interviews are similar to what other technique?
922a
open-ended surveys.
922b
Initial steps of a survey are the same as for an
interview (9.14)
923a
keeping in mind that structured interviews are
similar to what other technique?,closed-ended
surveys
923b
Distribution of a survey should take in account
what?
924a
::Organizational policies
::Urgency of obtaining the results
::Level of security required
::Geographic distribution of the respondents
924b
What are the advantages of the
925a
::When using closed-ended questions, surveys can be effective
for obtaining quantitative data for use in statistical analysis.
::When using open-ended questions, survey results may yield
insights and opinions not easily obtainable through other
elicitation techniques
::Does not typically require significant time from the responders.
:: Effective and efficient when stakeholders are not located in
one location
::May result in large number of responses
::Quick and relatively inexpensive to administer
925b
What are the disadvantages of the
926a
::Use of open-ended questions requires more analysis
::To achieve unbiased results, specialized skills in statistical
sampling methods are needed when the decision has been
made to survey a subset of potential respondents.
::Some questions may be left unanswered or answered
incorrectly due to their ambiguous nature
::May require follow up questions or more survey iterations
depending on the answers provided
::Not well suited for collecting information on actual behaviors
::The response rates for surveys are often too low for statistical
significance. The use of incentives or enforcement means may
be used to alleviate this.
926b
What is the purpose of the SWOT Analysis
technique?
927a
A SWOT analysis is a valuable tool to quickly
analyze various aspects of the current state of
the business process undergoing change
927b
SWOT is an acronym for what?
928a
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and
Threats
928b
SWOT analysis is a framework for what?
929a
::strategic planning
::opportunity analysis
::competitive analysis
::business and product development.
929b
In SWOT Analysis a strength is what?
930a
Anything that the assessed group does well
930b
In SWOT Analysis a weakness is what?
931a
Those things that the assessed group does
poorly or not at all. Weaknesses are also
internal.
931b
In SWOT Analysis an opportunity is what?
932a
External factors that the assessed group may be
able to take advantage of.
932b
In SWOT Analysis a threat is what?
933a
External factors that can negatively affect the
assessed group
933b
What are the advantages of the SWOT Analysis
technique?
934a
Helps to quickly analyze various aspects of the
current state of the organization and its
environment prior to identifying potential
solution options
934b
What are the disadvantages of the SWOT
Analysis technique?
935a
Very high-level view; more detailed analysis is
almost always needed
935b
What is the purpose of User Stories technique?
936a
User Stories are a brief description of
functionality that users need from a solution to
meet a business objective.
936b
A user story is a what?
937a
A textual description of things that the solution
needs to allow users to do
937b
User stories are typically a sentence or two that
describes what?
938a
::who uses the story
::the goal they are trying to accomplish
::any additional information that may be critical
to understanding the scope of the story
938b
A user story includes what three things?
939a
::Actor
::Description
::Benefit
939b
A user story should have defined what?
940a
Acceptance and Evaluation criteria
940b
What are the advantages of the User Stories
technique?
941a
:: create an environment of customer ownership
of features and prioritizations in an incremental,
iterative development environment
::may eliminate the need to provide functional
requirements in some environments
::require that the value delivered by the story be
clearly articulated
941b
What are the disadvantages of the User Stories
technique?
942a
::may not be the best technique for some
environments with regulatory restrictions or
when an organization mandates documentation
::may not be effective when participants are not
co-located
::does not explicitly address how to document
non-functional requirements.
942b
What is the purpose of the Vendor Assessment
technique?
943a
To assess the ability of a potential vendor to
meet commitments regarding a product or
service.
943b
Service levels expected of a third party can be
defined in this technique using what?
944a
Non-functional requirements
944b
What are the elements of the Vendor
Assessment technique?
945a
There are 6:
::Knowledge and Expertise
::Licensing and Pricing Models
::Product Reputation and Market Position
::Terms and Conditions
::Vendor Experience and Reputation
::Vendor Stability
945b
What is a common reason for using third-party
vendors?
946a
They can provide knowledge and expertise not
available within the organization
946b
Why should the analyst review the terms and
condition of the vendor third party?
947a
To evaluate whether the vendor's licensing terms
and technology infrastructure are likely to
present challenges
947b
What are the advantages of the Vendor
Assessment technique?
948a
::reduces the risk of the organization developing
a relationship with an unsuitable vendor
::likely to improve long-term satisfaction with the
decision.
948b

Bape

Încărcat de

Informații document

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Bape

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Definition of business analysis?

A structured walkthrough is an organized peer

The way the business need is defined determines

Proposed solutions must be evaluated against

A formal model follows semantics and

S-ar putea să vă placă și