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ADC March 2016

Damir Mukhamadiev
Tanya Bollweg
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PAPER 1

SBQ 1

13 year old boy. Hasn't been to a dentist since 5 yrs. Conscious about discoloration of teeth.
Photo shows enamel hypoplasia in central incisors, lateral incisors, canines, both maxillary and
mandibular.

Q1. What is the condition?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia
B. Enamel hyperplasia
C. Enamel hypomineralisation
D. Enamel hypermineralisation
E. Amelogenesis imperfecta

Q2. What is the cause?

A. Systemic factors
B. Local factors
C. Genetic factors
D. Maternal infection during pregnancy

Q3. At which age did the defect occur?

A. At birth
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years
E. 6 years

Q4. Treatment plan for this condition?

A. Porcelain veneers
B. Composite veneers
C. Bleaching (was this option given)
D. Microabrasion with remineralisation.
E. GIC veneers

Q5. The photo shows over retained submerged lower second molars. What is the reason for this?
A. Agenesis of 2nd premolars.
B. Ectopic eruption of 2nd premolars
C. Ankylosis
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SBQ 2 (58) Young woman aged 24 weighs 54 kg and she is 163cm tall. On dental examination
erosion of teeth on the most lingual surfaces is clearly showing. What is most probable would be her
case?
A. Alcohol consumption
B. Smoking
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Diabetis mellitus type I

SBQ 3 James 17 years old, who is a cyclist and drinks a lot of sports drink presents for routine
check-up. X-ray was given. There was caries on 47 (occlusal). It extending into dentin just 1-2mm
away from pulp. Intraoral picture was given, which had a stained pit 1mm on occlusal surface of 47.
The patient did not have any symptoms now.

Q1. What is the management?

A. CPP-APP
B. Diagnose as dental caries and do an exploratory cavity preparation
C. Deep fissure sealing with fluoride releasing material

Q2. The patient missed your appointment and reports a few weeks later with pain on eating hot or
cold food which disappears after removal of stimulus. You make a provisional diagnosis of reversible
pulpitis. What is your management now?
A. Place an intermittent dressing now and a definite restoration later.
B. Refer to a endodontist
C. Pulp extirpation

Q3. The patient missed appointment again and presents a few weeks later with spontaneous pain
from the tooth. You make a provisional diagnosis of irreversible pulpits. What will you do now?

A. Refer to specialist endodontist

B.
C. Extraction
D. OPG to find the erupting 3rd molar (question also says before giving definitive treatment. So we
should make sure it’s the pain not from 3rd molar???

Q4. The patient drinks sports juices often and takes dry fruits to keep him energetic so that he can
perform well. The patient is at risk for caries, generalised sensitivity. What will you advice the patient?

A. To carry water with the sport drink and alternate both and substitute dry fruits with banana and
muesli bar/snack
B. Stop sports drinks
C. Drink plenty of fluids during training
D. Advise to use a fluoride mouthwash before and after the race/training
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SBQ 4

Patient with Alzheimer’s disease has class V multiple lesions

You came to elderly people station for 4 month check-up, you investigate about 70 year old patient
with Alzheimer’s disease. His wife cares about his teeth and would like his teeth would be restored.

Q. Keeping in mind his condition and his inability to sit for a long time what is the treatment
A. Clean with high rotary instrument and place resin
B. Clean with high rotary instrument and place GIC
C. Remove soft caries with hand instrument and place GIC
D. Clean with pumice and water and place GIC

Dental formula was given with missing posteriors in quadrant 2 and 3

Q. Patient’s wife was worried about his nutrition, may absence of teeth influence his nutritional
balance
A. Advise to wife that teeth can be restored with RPD
B. Patient has enough teeth to maintain his nutrition
C. Advise implants Or (Damir)

Q. Photo of teeth formula (26, 27, 28, 36, 27, 38 are absent). What do you advice to patient?
A. No treatment

Q. His wife worries that she cannot take care about teeth and his nurses are very often exchanged.
How to keep his teeth as long as possible?
A. Regular debridement.
B. Educate staff

Q. If you discuss implants with patient’s wife

A. Possible with good OH maintenance
B. OH is poor. It is contraindication for implants

Q. Patient’s wife said that patient is looked after in nursing home and the nurses always changing.
What advice would you give (or what is your tactic)
A. Educate nurses in nursing home how to look after those patient’s OH
B. Give one off OH educational appointment to patient so he can maintain his OH
C. Continue regular SC appointments
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SBQ 5

Patient was complaining of discoloured upper right central incisor. He remembers having a trauma
when he was 15 years old due to sporting injury and had a lot of treatment done for that tooth.

Picture was given.

Q1. What investigation will help for diagnosis and treatment planning?
A. Pulp sensibility
B. Periapical x-ray
C. Percussion
D. OPG
E. Probing

Q2. What is the cause of discoloration?

A. Tetracycline stains
B. Internal resorption
C. Discoloration of the restoration.
D. Pulp necrosis

Q3. If the tooth was endodontically treated, what would be the most likely cause?
A. Incomplete debridement of pulp chamber
B. Coronal leakage

Q4. What is the best treatment for this patient?

A. External bleaching
B. Internal bleaching
C. Change restoration
D. PFM crown
E. Ceramic

Q5. What risk from internal bleaching?

A. Internal resorption
B. External resorption
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SBQ 6

Dislodged/defective amalgam restoration.

Photo showing upper molar. It has a big dark/black looking cavity-only MB, DB, little of ml cusps seen.
The filling fell of 2 days ago while patient was having breakfast. And now it is sensitive to hot and
cold.

Q. Reason for the amalgam to fall down

A. Unretentive cavity
B. Secondary caries
C. Fractured cusp

Q1. What is the probable diagnosis?

A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Open dentinal tubules
C. Irreversible pulpitis without involvement of PA area
D. Irreversible pulpitis with involvement of periapical infection.

Q2. In case root canal treatment needs to be done, what problems would you encounter (IOPA was
given here)
A. Difficulty to place the rubber dam
B. Difficult to access the canals
C. Curvature of canal

Q3. A temporary restoration was given and the patient is asymptomatic now. What is the choice of
restoration?
A. Composite restoration
B. Amalgam with 3 pins.

Q4. For capping a cusp

A. Minimum 2 mm of amalgam is required
B. Cusp should be reduced to level of gingiva and then built up
C. Add a pin for each cusp
D. 2 mm following the outline of the cusp
E. 2mm flat outline

Q5. The best survival rate can be expected with. There was a photo with the tooth with defective
amalgam
A. Full veneer crown
B. Amalgam with min 3 pins
C. Composite build up
D. Core and crown
E. Post core and crown
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SBQ 7
Woman with amalgam fillings and consulting with naturopath.
A lady with 12 amalgam restorations over fifteen years old , recently consulted a naturopath , is
allergic to nickel, wants to remove all the amalgam restorations

Q1. What will you advise her

A. Report to the Mercury & Dental amalgam at the NHMRC
B. Replace all the Restorations
C. Ex[plain that the level of mercury is not high enough to cause toxicity.
D.

Q2. Photo attached of the buccal mucosa along occlusal plane, diagnosis is
A. Lichen planus
B. Lichenoid reaction
C. Frictional keratosis ( near the bite line)
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MCQs paper1

Q1. An 8 years old patient with avulsed tooth about 25 min ago, presented to dental office and
replaced successfully and what u do next?
A. Wait and observe
B. RCT
C. Apexogenesis

Q2. Reaction of pulp to dental caries A. Formation of reparative dentin B. Formation of primary dentin
C. Pulp polyp

Q3. Which of the following mostly affect the incidence of dental caries
A. Frequency of eaten sugar
B. Amount of sugar
C. Type of sugar

Q4. Normal mouth with no caries have

A. High buffering saliva
B. Low buffering saliva
C. High amylase D. Glycoprotein? E. Low mucin level

Q5. Biofilm in newborns A. None

B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Staphylococcus aureus

Q6. (865) Why do we itch enamel for composite restorations:

A. To increase surface area
B. To decrease surface area
C. Does not really change the surface area
D. Increase the chemical bonding capability
E. Decrease the chemical bonding capability

Q7. (879) The MAJOR disadvantage of Gutta Percha is

A. Soluble in chloroform
B. Too weak for narrow canals

OR

Q7. (199) The technique of placing Gutta-Percha cones against the root canal walls providing space
for additional Gutta Percha is termed
A. Lateral Condensation
B. One major Gutta Percha point
C. Laterally above condensed

Q8. The MOST common occurrence after direct pulp capping is

A. Signs of reversible pulpitis

Q9. (1016) Patient complains of sensitivity; on examination you found a composite restoring a good
cavity preparation without any secondary caries; what is your next step
A. Extirpate the pulp that is obviously inflamed
B. Place ZOE dressing to sedate the pulp
C. Ask patient to come back in six months
D. Repeat restoration
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Q10. (1056) What is the MOST COMMON configuration of the mesial buccal canal of upper first
molar A. Two canals and one foramina

Q11. Hypochlorite in RCT (???)

A. Chelating agent
B.

Q12. What are not in pulp?

A. Fibroblasts
B. Histiocytes
C. Fat cells
D. Plasma cells
E. Lymphocytes

Q13. Pulp nerves?

A. Afferent and sympathetic
B.

Q14. Reaction of pulp to dental caries?

A. Formation of reparative dentine
B.

Q15. Why do we need vitality test in trauma?

A. Get base line
B.

Q16. (22) What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth?
A. Obtain baseline response
B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality

Q17. (130) Which pin system has proven to be the most retentive
A. Self tapping threaded pin
B. Friction peak pin
C. Cemented pin

Q18. (133) When do you finish campsite resin restorations

A. Immediately after curing
B. After 24 hours
C. A week after placement

Q19. (168) The most common cause of RCT “Root Canal Treatment” failure is:
A. The canal not filled completely (Short obturation)
B. Over filled canals

Q20. Patient had throbbing pain, aggravated by heat, able to localized tooth and percussion positive.
A. Irreversible pulpitis
B. Occlusal trauma
C. Pulp hyperaemia
D. Pulp necrosis

Q21. Root caries microorganisms

A. Actinomyces
B. Lactobacillus
C. S. mutans
D.
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Q22. (172) Transillumination is used for?

A. To find intrinsic tooth colouration
B. To detect caries
C. Pulp-stones
D. Haemorrhagic pulp
E. Calculus

Q23. (202) Transmission of fluid in dentinal tubules is by

A. Hydrodynamic pressure (Osmotic)
B. Mechanical

Q24. (226) Electrical pulp testing is least useful in /or does not detect in some papers/
A. Traumatised teeth
B. Just erupted teeth (ref.cawson mcqs)
C. Multi-rooted teeth
D. Capped teeth
E. Necrotic pulp

Q25. (251) How would you diagnose a periapical abscess

A. Pain on percussion
B. Pain when eating hot food
C. Pain when eating cold food
D. The thickness of periodontal ligament on X-Ray

Q26. (314) The method you will use to fill root canal of maxillary lateral incisor is
A. One major Gutta Percha cone
B. Laterally condensed
C. Laterally above condensed

Q27. (348) Etching techniques are used always to

A. Minimise the leakage of restorations
B. For aesthetic considerations

Q28. (356) If amalgam gets contaminated with moisture, the most uncommon result is
A. Blister formation
B. Post-operative pain
C. Secondary caries
D. Lower compressive strength

Q29. (383) The final material you use for endodontically treated deciduous molars is
A. Amalgam
B. GIC
C. Composite resin
D. Wrought base metal crown

Q30. (539) In RCT the ideal root filling

A. Ends at the apex
B. Extends beyond apex to achieve a good seal
C. Ends at the dentino-cemental junction
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Q31. (553) What is true in regards to lateral mandibular incisor (RE UPPER FIRST MOLAR MB
CANAL???)
A. 20% have 2 canals with one foramen
B. 20% have 2 canals with two foramina
C. 40% have two canals with 10% ending in two foramina
D. 40% have two canals with only one ending in two foramina

Q32. (755) In regards to the enamel surface

A. It is a perfect substance for bonding
B. It does not conform to the bonding requirements
C. It is the most inorganic, rough part
D. It is free from contamination and roughness
E. None of the above

Q33. (760) All of the following are properties of fluoride except

A. Crosses the placental barrier
B. It deposits rapidly in bone
C. It is excreted rapidly by kidneys
D. It is bacteriostatic
E. It produces extrinsic tooth stain

Q34. (780) The objective of pulp capping is to

A. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp
B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp
C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp
D. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp

Q35. (781) The objective of pulpotomy is to

A. Preserve vitality of coronal pulp
B. Preserve vitality of entire pulp
C. Preserve vitality of radicular pulp
D. Regenerate a degenerated and necrotic pulp
E. None of the above

Q36. (788) To achieve optimum cavity preparation which of the following factors of internal anatomy
must be considered
A. Outline form
B. The age and shape of pulp chamber; in addition to the direction of individual root canals
C. Internal external relationship
D. Intra-coronal preparation
E. None of the above

Q37. (823) The palatal canal of maxillary molars is found under

A. Disto lingual cusp
B. Mesio lingual cusp

Q38. (857) What is the range of the visible light cure beam
A. 100-120 nm
B. 200-300 nm
C. 400-430 nm
D. 470 nm or 450-500 nm
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Q39. (10) Dental caries of the proximal surfaces are usually starts at
A. Somewhere between the ridge and the contact area
B. Just gingival to contact areas
C. Just about the gingival margin
D. Occlusal to contact point

Q40. Best method for RCT in lateral lower incisor?

A. Lateral condensation
B.

Q41. What consequences after if u go with instrument out of apex?

A. Postoperative pain

Q42. Primary goal of pulpitis treatment?

A. Relief pain

Q43. Hybrid glass particles vs microfilled composites

A. High thermal expansion and lower crushing strength

Q44. (Boucher) Dental caries of the proximal surfaces in deciduous molars are usually starts at
A. Somewhere between the ridge and the contact area
B. Just gingival to contact areas
C. Just about the gingival margin
D. Occlusal to contact point
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PAPER 2
SBQ 1

X-ray. Implant 15 not enough space between 14 and 16, implant in situ

Q1. Not enough space for accurate impression. What to do?

A. Order customized impression pin
B.

Q2. Put crown and x-ray, but crown above occlussion line. What is failure and what to do?
A. Send back to laboratory, because abutment and crown do not fit implant
B.

Q3. After adjusting crown, patient returns 1 week later and has pain on lower right. Reason?
A. Check premature occlusion contacts on crown
B. Pulpitis
C. TMJ disfunction

Q4. Minimum space required for two implants of 3.5 mm diameter (?)
A. 7mm
B. 11mm
C. 13mm
D. 14mm

Ref:
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SBQ 2

X-ray OPG. 2 Implants in lower jaw and removable prosthesis, upper edentulous.

Q1. How to check that framework fit passive?

A.
B.
C. Check framework after screwing at each one

Q2. Smoking cessation protocol.

A. 2 weeks before surgery
B. 4 weeks before surgery
C. 2 weeks before and 4 weeks after
D. 2 weeks before and 8 weeks after

Q3. Implant success related to periodontitis and smoking. What is most significant related to implant
failure?
A. Smoking
B. Diabetes

Q4. What is most common failure of……….

A. Loosening of internal screw
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SBQ 3

Picture given - lower anteriors present (from Canine to Canine), upper completely edentulous)

(Maxilla- maxillary ridge has undercuts, a red elevated spot in the incisor area, flabby ridges, buccalfrenum
slightly more prominent, bulbous maxillary tuberosity.
Mandible- marked resoprtion of mandibular posterior region, with supra-erupted anteriors and triangular
embrasure gap between them)
70 year old lady, wearing dentures since last 20 years, never had any problem with them. Her new denture (12
months old) is giving her problem. It is fine when at rest or talking but the lower denture becomes loose when
eating.
She got her teeth extracted early in age, on her second baby, and she is wearing dentures since then. She recently
had a hip replacement procedure done, and is in early stage of Parkinson.

On examination, you found that the denture fits well and is made to a high standard. She says her lower incisors
are becoming long and she should get them all extracted now, when she is fit and healthy.

Q1. What is the red spot on the upper ridge

A. Incisive papilla
B. Insertion of labial frenum
C. Root fragment
D. Abscess

Q2. By looking at the picture, how would you describe Maxilla?

A. Undesirable labial undercut
B. Excessive resorption of anterior ridge
C. Exostosis of anterior maxilla
D. Unmanageable buccal frena
E. Overhanging/enlarged maxillary tuberosities

Q3. In making Lower denture (of high quality), what is the most significant difficulty that you will face?
A. Lingual plate showing through the lower incisors embrasure
B. Hypertrophy of tongue/ inadequate area for the tongue- to manage it in the lower denture
C. High occlusal plane- due to over erupted incisors
D. To get retentive area on Canine, as undercut lies in the gingival third
E. Problematic buccal frenum

Q4. Reason for the denture to become loose during function

A. Canine interference on lateral excursion
B. Unfavourable palatal anatomy
C. Decrease saliva (xerostomia) / changes in saliva quality
D. Involuntary muscle action on denture, due to Parkinson disease

Q5. Before the procedure? (Patient had undergone hip replacement, what will you do before
performing the procedure/extraction)
A. No prophylaxis required
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B. Refer to Orthopedic to consult regarding prophylaxis

Q6. What will be the difficulty in making new denture?

A. Recording jaw relation

Q7. If all mandibular teeth are extracted, which ridge will be resorbed more
A. Upper ridge palatally
B. Mandible loses more bone from the buccal than lingual
C. Mandible loses more bone from lingual than buccal
D. Same amount of bone is lost on either side
E. Upper ridge buccally

Q8. When you construct the mandibular distal extension partial denture what is the most significant
problem you will face
A. Inability to get enough undercut on canines
B. Marked ridge resorption
C. Big tongue

Q9. What was the principal complication or difficulty to design new denture for this patient
A. Resorption of anterior ridge
B. Large buccal frena
C. Her medication case
D. Parkinson disease

Q10. What is the difficulty during construction of lower RPD

A. High occlusal level of lower anterior teeth
B. Inadequate space for the tongue (a bit large)
C. Adjust occlusal plane according to retromolar area
D. Problematic buccal frenums
E. Resorbed upper anterior ridge

Q11. What material will u use for final impression of the lower jaw?
A. Alginate
B. PVS
C. Polyether
D. Impression plaster
E. additional silicone
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SBQ 4
The patient with fracture porcelain

.
A male patient presented with a chipped porcelain 3 unit PFM bridge. It was made by another dentist
who moved interstate. Edge to edge bite is clearly seen. 3 unit bridge, porcelain chipped off in the
region of 11, 12. He has a meeting today and needs it to be fixed urgently.

Q1. What is the most probable main cause for this defect in bridge
A. Improper framework
B. Unfavourable bite (resulting in chipping) A à is the most common cause of PFM fractures.
C. Bridge design But according to this photo, edge to edge has also
D. Hard biting taken part.
E. Thin porcelain YOU NEED TO PROPERLY ANALYSE THE PHOTO à
i.e. see the impact of the bite to decide A or B.
Q2. What is the name of this defect
A. Adhesion cohesion defect
B. Adhesion Adhesion defect is the most common (B), but in this
C. Cohesion photo à also cohesive defect is evident à so take
D. Wrote adhesion A

Q3. If you want to repair the fractured porcelain in the chair, what you will do
A. CAD/CAM or similar option
B. Etching with 4% hydrofluoric acid for 20 sec and restore with composite
C. Etching with 4% hydrofluoric acid for 5 min and restore with composite

Q4. How would you prevent similar fracture in future?

A. Occlusion
B. Use splint at night Best if you find proper framework design and prep
C. Make group function occlusion of tooth str. (or similar)

Q5. For a new bridge if you wanted to construct high strength metal free bridge, what material would
you use?
A. Feldspathic
B. Procera
C. Zirconia
D. Scintered aluminia
E. Porcelain

Q6. Resin bonded bridges loose retention between

A. Resin-enamel
B. Resin-metal
C. Within resin
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Q7. At a later date when you want to replace 3 unit bridge, what do u want to alter
A. Change the labial contour
B. Alter the bridge design

Q8. How many mm will you reduce the Fabrication of the Metal Ceramic Crown Restoration

A. 1.2 mm to 1.5 mm for the labial surface, 0.5 mm to 0.7 mm for the lingual surface, 2.0 mm for the
occlusal surface
B.

Q9. What main problem when need to provide aesthetic bridge to patient in future
A. Gingival margin
B. Grind incisal edge of 11 more Need to see the photo à mostly it’s B
C. Extract and placement of implants

Q10. What would be the most challenging or difficult aspect in replacing this bridge
A. Removing the bridge
B. Lip or smile line
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SBQ 5

Patient 60-70 year old. Photo of total upper prosthesis with hyperplasia of tissie about buccal flaunges
of prosthesis. He had previously RPD and had no problem, after the immediate prosthesis done after
extraction and was corrected many times.

Q1. What is possibly diagnosis?

A. Chronic tissue hyperplasia
B. Connective tissue fibromatosis

Q2. What is cause?

A. Chronic trauma of buccal flanges of prosthesis

Q3. What to do?

A. Excision and biopsy, correct buccal part of prosthesis
B. Send to specialist for laser surgery
C. Immediate surgery
D. Adjust denture

Q4. If you do biopsy, what would be diagnosis?

A. Hyperplastic
B. Fibrous hyperplasia

REF.: (Damir)
Epulisfissuratum
Description:
A Lesion that appears in the buccal vestibule of the anterior maxilla or the lingual aspect. (most commonly in anterior
aspect)Where the body of the dental prosthetic appliance flanges contact with for a long time, causing a two or more folds of
soft tissue that is separated by a cental groove.The excess tissue is firm and fibrous, and ulcerations may be present.The size
of the affected tissue varies widely, since almost the entire length of tissue around a denture can be affected.Most of the
patients are females (64% of cases study) in the fifth and sixth decade of like.The lesion's duration is from one week to 10
days, but 40% of the patients reported a duration of 6 months to two years.No symptoms are associated with the lesion except
some pain with ulcerated types.Also Known As: Granuloma fissuratum, inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia, denture epulis and
denture induced fibrous hyperplasia.
Etiology:
This is an inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia or oral mucosa caused by ill-fitting or over-extended denture borders.
Histologically:
The excessive tissue is composed of cellular, inflamed fibrous connective tissue.
Microscopic Appearance:
The appearance of an epulis fissuratum microscopically is an overgrowth of cells from the fibrous connective tissue. The
epithelial cells are usually hyperkeratotic and irregular, hyperplastic rete ridges are often seen.
Treatment:
Surgical excision of the lesion and reduction of the denture border.
Prognosis: Good
Differential Diagnosis:
The lesion has such a characteristic clinical appearance that differential diagnosis is not a problem.
Persistent ulcerated areas in epulis fissuratum should be biopsied to rule out squamous carcinoma.
Folds similar to epulis fissuratum may be seen in Crohn’s disease. Epulis fissuratum can also appear around dental implants.
occurred because the Broken implant denture clasp with poor oral hygiene.
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SBQ 6

VRF #
POST CROWN FRACTURE
Patient has been treated with post crown 5 years back on maxillary right central incisor. Now it has
become loose
Q1. What investigation will help
A. Vitality
B. Probing
C. Percussion
D. OPG

Q2. What could be the cause of dislodgement of the post core that has least favourable prognosis
A. Vertical root fracture
B. Internal resorption
C. Luting cement issue

Q3. How will you treat this patient

A. Crown lengthening
B. Crown lengthening and orthodontic extrusion
C. Better post fabrication
D. Extraction
E. Gingivoplasty

Q4. What is the significant problem in replacing the post core

A. Insufficient ferrule
B. Retention
C. Absence of seal

Q3. If this tooth is extracted, what is best method of restoration which is long lasting
A. Implant
B. Fixed bridge
C. Cantilever bridge
D. RPD
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MCQs paper 2

Q1. Regarding free way?

A. 2-4 mm
B.

Q2. The most common failure of PFM?

A. Inadequate framework

Q3. Best strength of porcelain?

A. Under compression

Q4. (276) In cementing Maryland or Roche bridges, the effect is generally to

A. Lighten the colour of the teeth by the opacity of the cement
B. Darken the colour of the abutment by the presence of metal on the lingual
C. Have no detrimental colour effect
D. Darken the abutment teeth by incisal metal coverage

Q5. How to access height of linqual connector of prosthesis?

A. Depend on mouth floor

Q6. Why is tripod marked on a cast being surveying?

A. To orient cast to surveyor

Q7. Best fixed pin?

A. Self-threatening

Q8. (893) What is the neutral zone

A. The zone where displacing forces are neutral
B. The zone where buccal and lingual forces are balanced

Q9. Face bow

A. Orient maxilla to cranial base

Q10. Buccal trauma by prosthesis - cheek bite. What to do?

A. Buccal surface of mandibular molars

Q11. (89) Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture
A. Mentalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Levator angulioris

Q12. (150) When correction preparation for re contouring of occlusal surface is to be applied.
Grinding only of the adjusted surface
A. Should not be felt flat
B. Require a flat crown
C. Require no contact with adjacent teeth
D. Should be felt flat
E. None of the above
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Q13. (163) The first thing to check when patient comes complaining of pain under denture is
A. Occlusion
B. Soft tissues changes

Q14. (190) What is main reason of ordering another periapical radiograph of the same tooth
A. To disclose the other roots
B. To observe tooth from different angle

Q15. (191) The ideal length of RCT is

A. At the apex
B. As far as you can obturate
C. 0.5 t0 1.5 mm before the apex

Q16. (192) Retentive part of clasp position is

A. Below the survey line
B. Above survey line
C. As close as possible to the gingival margins

Q17. (212) The best way of getting good retention in full veneer crown is by
A. Tapering
B. Long path of insertion

Q18. (278) The gingival portion of natural tooth differs in colour from
the incisal portion because the
A. Lighting angle is different
B. Gingival and incisal portions have different fluorescent qualities
C. Gingival area has a dentine background
D. Incident light is different

Q19. (279) In bridge work, which of the followings terms is NOT CORRECT
A. A retainer could be a crown to which a bridge is attached to
B. A connector connects a pontic to a retainer or two retainers to each other
C. The saddle is the area of the edentulous ridge over which the pontic will lie and comes in contact
with pontic
D. A pontic is an artificial tooth as part of a bridge

Q20. (284) Distortion or change in shape of a cast partial denture clasp during its clinical use probably
indicates that the
A. Ductility was too low
B. Hardness was too great
C. Ultimate tensile strength was too low
D. Tension temperature was too high
E. Elastic limit was exceeded

Q21. (286) When a removable partial denture is terminally seated ; the retentive clasps tips should
A. Apply retentive force into the body of the teeth
B. Exert no force
C. Be invisible
D. Resist torque through the long axis of the teeth
 23

Q22. (290) Which one of following statement about overdenture is not correct
A. Greater occlusal loads can be applied by the patient
B. Retention and stability are generally better than with conventional complete denture
C. Alveolar bone resorption is reduced
D. The retained roots are covered by the denture thus protecting them from caries and periodontal
diseases

Q23. (319) Where do Maryland bridges lose retention often

A. Resin-metal
B. Resin enamel
C. Resin layer

Q24. (336) Pontic replaces upper first molars in a bridge should be

A. Slightly compress soft tissues
B. Be clear of soft tissues
C. Just in contact with soft tissues

Q25. (478) Which of the following is a frequent cause of opaqueness in a porcelain jacket crown
A. Porcelain layer is too thin over the opaque layer.
B. Porcelain layer is too thick

Q26. (482) The first molars are extracted in both arches

A. The bone resorption will be the same for both arches
B. Resorption is more on the palatal side of maxillary molars
C. Resorption is more on lingual side of mandibular molars
D. The ridge height resorbs more in maxilla than mandible

Q27. (542) What is the ideal length for a post in post-core in an RCTreated tooth
A. 2/3 of the tooth length
B. ½ of the tooth length
C. 2/3 of roots
D. Same as the anticipated crown
Ans C

Q28. (554) Splinting the adjacent teeth in fixed bridge is primarily done to
A. Distribute the occlusal load
B. Achieve better retention

Q29. (555) Porcelain must not be contaminated by handling between which two stages
A. Pre-soldering and heat treatment
B. Heat treatment and opaque /bake/ stages
C. Opaque and bisque stages
D. Bisque and glazing stages
E. First opaque bake and second opaque bake

Q30. (559) In complete dentures, cheek biting is most likely a result of

A. Reduced overjet of posterior
B. Increased vertical dimension
C. Teeth have large cusp inclines
 24

Q31. (570) When you tries to seat a crown on tooth you find a discrepancy of 0.3mm at the margin;
you will
A. Reduce inner surface of crown
B. Remake a new crown
C. Smooth the enamel at the margin
D. Hand burnish crown margins

Q32. (872) A lateral incisor labial to the arch needs to be restored in normal alignment with PFM
retraction. How will the tooth appear
A. Too wide
B. Too short
C. To narrow
D. To long

Q33. (877) Why are three tripods marked on a cast being surveyed
A. To orient cast to articulator
B. To orient cast to surveyor
C. To provide guide planes

Q34. (887) What interferes with maxillary denture in posterior vestibular fold
A. Coronoid process
B. Condyle
C. Masseter muscle

Q35. (947) The auxiliary occlusal rest on teeth for partial denture should be placed
A. Away from edentulous space
B. Adjacent to edentulous space
C. Near fulcrum line
D. Away from fulcrum line

Q36. (958) The advantage of using the lingual plate on lingual bar is
A. It acts as indirect retention

Q37. (963) Why don’t we use porcelain in long span bridge works:
A. Because of the high casting shrinkage of porcelain

Q38. (1/after 1000) Muscles required to close the mouth till centric occlusion:
1. lateral pterygoid
2. medial pterygoid
3. masseter
4. temporalis

A.1 2 3
B. 2 3 4
C. 3 & 4
D. All of the above

Q39. (18/after 1000) RPD Framework doesn't fit the patient’s mouth but seated on cast
A. Distortion of impression
B. Inadequate expansion of investment
 25

Q40. Circumferential clasp, what is incorrect

A. Rigid 2/3 above survey line & flexible 1/3 below
B. Flexible 2/3 above survey line & rigid 1/3 below
C. Should always engage deepest undercut
D. Cross section is circle
E. Should engage a predetermined undercut

Q41. (Boucher 3) In the construction of a full veneer gold crown, future recession of gingival tissue can
be prevented or at least minimised by:
A. Extension of the crown 1 mm under the gingival crevice
B. Reproduction of normal tooth inclines in the gingival one third of the crown
C. Slight over contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown
D. Slight under contouring of the tooth in the gingival one fifth of the crown

Q42. (5/after 1000) Crown fits on the die, but on the tooth there is a discrepancy of about 0.3mm, what
will you do?
A. Remake the crown
B. Grind the interior of the crown
C. Prepare the tooth further

Q43. (5/?) Which of the following will NOT be used in determination of vertical dimension?
A. Aesthetics
B. Phonetics
C. Gothic arch tracing
D. Swallowing
 26

PAPER 3

SBQ 1
Ameloblastoma with same questions

A patient has type I diabetes. Multilocular radiolucency in the angle of the mandible (multilocular was
given in the text of the question).
*OPG -- Large radiolucent lesion in the right mandibular angle.
47(or 48 can't remember) is positioned in close proximity to the lesion. Only crown can be seen
(horizontally impacted). Well beyond the occlusal plain, near the roots of 46(47?).

(Damir) Sbq Ameloblastoma with same questions (photo big radiolucency in the angle of the ramus of
mandibule with crown 48 with unformed roots displaced in mesial part of lesion under 47)

Q1. What is the diagnosis?

A. Dentigorous cyst
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Odontogenic keratocyst

Q2. Best radiograph for it:

A. Lateral oblique
B. CT
C. MRI

Q3. What is the treatment?

A. Enaculation + extraction + Carnoy's solution
B. Resection
C. Excision
D. Marsupialization
E. Curettage

Q4. Which of the following is best to assess glycaemic control of patient?

A. Random blood sugar
B. Glycosylated haemoglobin.
C. Glucose tolerance test
D. Blood haemoglobin

Q5. What is the major risk in this patient:

A. Poor healing
B. Infection
C. Control of glucose before operation
D. Control of glucose after operation
E. Fracture of mandible
 27

SBQ 2
Boy 17 years old, with epilepsy, taking dilantin. Photo of teeth (hypertrophy of gingiva and generalized
plaque) came to your clinic for check-up.

Q1. What is diagnosis if patient is taking Dilantin

A. Epilepsy

Q2. What is treatment?

A. Resection and debridement
B. Professional debridement and oral prophylaxis with plaque control instructions can help resolve a
problem
C. Surgical resection and professional debridement and drug stop

Q3. He refused his teeth brushing. He said that he doesn’t want to bothered, he doesn’t like
appearance of his teeth and gums. What phase of trans theoretical model his behaviour belongs to?
A. Pre-contemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
E. Maintenance

TRANSTHEORETICAL MODEL

Pre-contemplation – in this stage people do not take action in the foreseeable future (defined as within the next 6
months). People are often unaware that their behaviour is problematic or produces negative consequence.

Q4. He asked about Continued Professional Education of dentists.

A. 60 hours with 80% of clinically and scientifically based.
 28

SBQ 3
Women came with complains on lesion around 47, which happened some days ago after her GP
prescribed her NSAID. Patient also has started recently using new tooth paste. And for 5 years
patient was taking antyhypertensives methyldopa. Photo of red lesion adjusted buccal 47

Q1. What is it?

A. Lichen Planus
B. Lichenoid reaction to NSAID
C. Lichenoid reaction to tooth paste
D. Lichenoid reaction to Methyldopa

Q2. What to do?

A. Incisional biopsy

SBQ 4
Patient with white lesion on buccal mucosa, striae like.

Q. What is it?
A. Lichen Planus
B. Lekoplakia

SBQ 5
Patient came today with multiple ulcerated lesions around mouth, lips, generalized gingiva (on pic
looked badly). Pemphigus vulgaris.

Q. What to do?
A. Biopsy
B. Immediately send patient to dermatologist
 29

SBQ 6
Adrenal suppression
Women has business with flowers or something like that and got treatment with systemic
corticosteroids. Her tooth 37 was restored with amalgam but now is fractured.

Q1. When should be proposed risk for adrenal crisis

A. 10 mg prednisolone over last 5 weeks

Q2. If tooth to be extracted, is the need for antibiotic prophylaxis.

A. No

Q3. What is the least reason for antibiotic prophylaxis? Or

Deep bone impacted molar teeth in a fit person
A. Clearance in diabetic type 2
B. Periodontally affected teeth in fit person
C.EXO of periodontally affected tooth in diabetic type 1
D.EXO of periodontally affected teeth in a fit person
E. Tooth with reccurent episodes of infection

Q4. If tooth to be extracted, what needs to be done

A. Double dose before surgery
B. Double dose on the day of the surgery
C. Double dose the day before and on the day of the surgery

Q5. What is NOT allowed for dental assistant to do in your clinic in spite of their Continued Education
A. IOPA
B. Fix/put braces
C. Take impressions
D. Participate in treatment pan (?)
E. Give OHI

Q6. What gland produces cortisone?

A. Adrenal gland
B. Pituitary gland
 30

SBQ 7 (PP 690)

(old) military doctor with same options.
72 years old patient (Doctor, GP) came for extraction of his lower left molar. He experiences pain of
short duration, and bad odor (other symptoms can't remember). Previously he has a similar pain and
one of his molars (46) and eventually was extracted. Bitewing x-rays show: 35 - caries on distal. 36 –
missing. 37 - tipped, angular bone loss mesially contact between 35 and 37 is not fully closed, bone
loss. Bitewing x-rays several years before (for comparison) 35 - no caries

Q.1 What is the cause of the patient complain (diagnosis)?

A. Open contact and food impaction
B. Caries on 35
C. Perio-endo lesion on 37
D. Periodontitis on 37
Answer: D

Q2. The patient insisted on extraction of 37. He tells you, that if you don't do it, he will do it himself as
he had an experience from the army. What will you do?
A. Extract 37 as he insists, and he will do it anyway, make him sign a consent form
B. Give him instruments to do extraction
C. Refer to the maxillo-facial surgeon for second opinion and extraction if decided
D. Refuse to extract and make sure that the patient understand the diagnosis well
Answer: C

Q3. Periodontal state prognosis is based on assessment of

A. Periodontal pockets
B. Attachment loss
Answer: B

Q4. What is the most significant difference between two BWs

A. Carious 15

Q5. How would you treat this patient?

A. Scaling and root planning
B. Raise a flap to scale and root planning
C. Extraction 37
Answer: A
 31

SBQ 8
A 42 year old patients came to your clinic with a celebrity photo saying that she wants her teeth to be
like this. A photo with a bright smile of celebrity was attached.
She is 32 weeks pregnant for first time, she developed moderate hypertension & gestational diabetes
but no medication required. She wants the entire procedure completed before her child is born.

Q1. What do you think of her demand for veneers? (psychologically, this patient suffers)
A. Normal behavior
B. Body dismorphogenesis
C. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
D. Anxiety
E. Depression

Q2. Risk of premature term delivery

A. High
B. Low
C. Moderate
D. No risk
E. Unknown – my answer

Q3. When will you start with her veneers preparations?

A. Before delivery
B. Immediately after delivery
C. 6 months later after delivery – my answer
D. Don't do her any preps

Q4. What common oral manifestations will be seen in her mouth?

A. Periodontitis
B. Gingival inflammation

Q5. The patient asked when she should bring her daughter to you after delivery for her first dental
checkup
A. Around time of eruption of her 1 deciduous tooth
B. After the eruption of first primary tooth
C. After the eruption of her all primary teeth
D. After the eruption of her first permanent teeth
E. When dental treatment needed
 32

SBQ 9
A 20 year old man came to your clinic after sustaining an extrusive luxation to his upper central while
cycling with his friends. He fell over and his lower jaw hit on the bar handle of the cycle. Friends bring
him to you. Patient says he takes excessive amounts of NSAIDS and glucosamine to help him bike
ride for long distances. “He hit the rock and went over the long brake handles. He was winded but not
knocked out”. Otherwise the patient is healthy and fit

Q1. What is the most important thing to check in the patient

A. Arms.
B. Legs
C. Neck
D. Back
E. Teeth

Q2. The patient feels pain in his shoulder and chest and tingling in his fingers. What will you do
A. Call the ambulance
B. Ask his friends to take him to his doctor
C. Ask his friends to take him to the hospital
D. Take him to the hospital yourself

Q3. When should the teeth be repositioned

A. After radiographs
B. Immediately when he presents to the clinic
C. After medical examination
D. Within 6 hours
E. After a few weeks

Q4. The patient has history of taking NSAID and glucosamine, what effects are likely to have?
A. He will have no pain
B. He will swell more
C. He will bleed more (prolong bleeding)
D. It will have no effect on his teeth
E. Renal impairment

Q5. What is the MOST UNLIKELY after delayed fixation of luxated teeth?
A. Teeth may fall out spontaneously
B. External resorption
C. Internal resorption
D. Spontaneous resolution
E. Pulp necrosis
 33

SBQ 10
Patient was long on warfarin, but 3 months ago warfarin was changed to other anticoagulant,
pradaxa.
Q1. What to do if you would like to extract tooth?
A. Contact his GP to clear his situation and if he has liver impairment
B. Proceed with EXO applying local haemostatic measure
C. Check INR

Q2. For what is INR?

A. Assess patients on warfarin

SBQ 11

Diabetic Patient has ulcer on lateral border of tongue since some weeks, no pain, previously had
sharp edge on tooth opposite to ulcer.
Q1. What is it?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma

SBQ 12
Patient came for extraction, previous Hepatitis B 20 years ago, you gave to patient local anaesthesia.
But you need to help to your assistant to take out forceps, but your skin is irritated during hand wash.
Q1. What is management?
A. no additional antiseptic, after helping assistant, take on new gloves and continue.

Q2. What is NOT correct?

A. All team should be vaccinated

SBQ 13
You had a school teacher patient on Friday night she had irreversible pulpitis and she told that she
can't tolerate rubber dam at all
Your practice is 300 km away from city
And she was preparing herself to attend in a weeding on Sunday

Q. What could you do for her as a dentist

A. Do pulp therapy without rubber dam and use cotton roll as an isolation
B. Extract the tooth
C. Refer to endodontist
D. Give her topical analgesic
E. Give her systemic analgesic to control pain
 34

SBQ 14

Something about implants ……

Something about perimplantitis?
Q. What to do?
A. Debridement

SBQ 15 questions
Patient, extracted 37, he said that he lost his taste sensation on tongue for several hours after last
extraction 48. He asked what is risk
Q1. You explain to patient
A. Last time because of trismus, nerve linqualis was traumatised
B. Because of the other side and anatomy is different – no problems should occur

SBQ 16
Patient is diabetic, taking diabex.
Q1. What is mechanism of influence of diabex.
A. Biagutidine reduce production of hepatic glucose in liver and increase peripheral
increase peripheral uptake.
B Reduce production of hepatic glucose, increase peripheral uptake.

SBQ 17
Asian women, non –English speaker. came with her daughter to your clinic for a check-up. She has
diabetes type 2 which was managed with exercise and about 3 months back had been started on
medicines for her diabetes . Her daughter tells you that her diabetes is maintained for the last 3
months at HBA1C 7.

Q: type of local anaesthesia for debridement in diabetic type II with random glucose 6.5 mmol/mol(it
means well controlled)
A. Lidocaine 2% with 1:80000
B. Sitanest
C. Articaine 4%
D. Prilocaine
E. None - for this patient local anaesthesia is contraindicated.

Q. How to determined prognosis for this patient

A. Secure glucose level

 35

SBQ 18 (picture case)

Photo. White lesion on mouth floor?

Q. What is NOT seen as possible diagnosis?
A. Fordyce’s spots (glandules)
B. SCC
C. Leukoplakia
D. LP
 36

MCQs paper 3

Q1. Patient on warfarin, Best to assess?

A. INR

Q2. Muscle to close mouth

A. All except pterygoid lateral

Q3. Metastasis of SCC of the lower lip?

A. Submental

Q4. CORRECT about Basal cell carcinoma?

A. Can Not came from mucosa of mouth

Q5. Chlorhexidine, What is NOT correct?

A.

Q6. Drug does NOT depend on?

A. Cognitive impairment
B. Renal impairment
C. Hepatic impairment
D. Diabetes II

Q7. Most common sign of cranio-mandibular dysfunction?

A. Trismus (limited opening of mouth)

Q8. What is INCORRECT about lichen planus?

A. All options A B C can be given indefinitely

Q9. Modern strategy in management of patients with anticoagulant therapy?

A. NOT cease medication, local management

Q10. Topical corticosteroids. What is NOT correct?

A. Give alone in presence of oral infection

Q11. What is not seen in dentinogenesis imperfecta

A. More dentinal tubules
B. Small pulp chambers
C. Weak enamel

Q12. What is INCORRECT regarding Lichen Planus?

A. Triamcinolone acetonide paste 1% topically 3 times a day
B.Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% ointment topically twice daily after meal
C. Topical corticosteroid should not be used for more than 3 weeks
D. If the lesions have not resolved after 3 weeks refer to specialist

Q13. (40) Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia?

A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease
B. The pain is usually unilateral
C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain
D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead
E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine
 37

Q14. (44) Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by

A. Rapid growth and metastasis
B. Local cutaneous invasion
C. Inability to invade bone
D. Poor prognosis
E. Radiation resistance
F. Cannot metastasise to the bone

Q15. (54) The tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of

A. Angle of the mandible
B. C6 vertebrae
C. Jugulodigastric crossing
D. Clavicle
E. Jugulo-omohyoid crossing

Q16. (173) What is the common malignant lesion that occurs in the oral cavity
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Osteosarcoma

Q17. (241) Which of the following conditions present as complete vesicles

A. Pemphigus
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. ANUG
D. Mucous pemphigoid
E. Erythema multiforme

Q18. (330) Which drug is specific for Trigeminal Neuralgia

A. Diazepam
B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
C. Ergotamine
D. Phenytoin

Q19. (529) Which of the following is NOT TRUE in regards to lateral periodontal cyst
A. It is more common in anterior region
B. It occurs more in maxilla than mandible
C. Probable origin is from dentigerous cyst which develops laterally
D. Encountered in the cuspid-premolar region of the mandible, derived from the remnants of the
dental lamina

Q20. (658) Painless bluish lump filled with fluid on the lips; MOST likely is
A. Smoker’s keratosis
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Mucocele
D. Fibroma
E. Fibro-epithelial polyp

Q21. (After 1000 Sep14, 6) Cementoma treatment

A. no treatment
B. RCT
C. Excision
 38

Q22. (After 1000 Sep14, 9) Cyst commom in mandibular premolar area

A. Traumatic bone cyst
B. Lateral periodontal cyst

Q23. (82) In the inferior alveolar block the needle goes through or close to which muscles
A. Buccinator and superior constrictor
B. Medial and lateral pterygoid
C. Medial pterygoid and superior instructor
D. Temporal and lateral pterygoid
E. Temporal and medial pterygoid

Q24. (138) Blow to mandible causing fracture in molar’s right side region, you expect a second
fracture of
A. Sub condylar of right side
B. Sub-condylar of left side
C. Fracture of symphysis

Q25. (466) TMJ dysfunction common symptom is

A. Clicking
B. Locking
C. Pain in the muscles of mastication

Q26. (601) In minor oral surgery which is TRUE in regards to antibiotic

A. Amoxicillin is satisfactory against most oral infection
B. Metronidazole and Amoxil have the same penetrating power
C. It is evident that it will reduce post-operative swelling

Q27. (602) In regards to third molars surgery

A. Maximum swelling is seen after 24-48 hours
B. Prophylactic antibiotic will reduce swelling
C. Antibiotic cover is compulsory

Q28. SCC of lateral border of the tongue. In which lymph nodes does it metastasize
A. Submandibular unilateral
B. Submandibular bilateral
C. Submental unilateral
D. Submental bilateral

Q29. Which drug DOES NOT cauese xerostomia

A. Mao antidepressant
B. Biperiden
C. Atropin
D. Parasetamol
E. Carbaxine

 39

Q44. What is NOT TRUE

A. Hypoglycemia is more of a concern the hypoglycaemia
B. Insulin dependent patients are more.........than non insulin dependent
C. Adrenalin containing anestesia affects blood sugar levels

Q.
 40

PAPER 4

SBQ 1
OPG with big horizontal radiopaque line.
Q1. What is it?
A. Collar

Q. 2: why is it happened?
A. Chin is too down

SBQ 2
OPG with artefact on right angle of mandible. What is it?
A. Patient movement

SBQ 3
OPG with radioopacity under roots of lower incisors. What is it?
A. Cervical vertebrae
B. Condence osteitis
C. Osseodisplasia

SBQ 4
OPG. Mandible curved
Q. What is mistake?
A. Chin is too up
 41

SBQ 5

Military, 23 years old came to dental check up to control his wisdom teeth. No complains.
OPG with radiolucency in lower jaw between 34-36.
Q. What is It?
A. Keratocyst
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Ameloblastoma

SBQ 6
Child 9 years, regular check-up, no complains, last visit 3 years ago. Parents don’t have money but
like Australian insurance coverage for kids. U take set of bite-wings. On X-ray metal crown 84, caries
on 85, 65 and something more. In other side Bite wing 65 is absent

Q1. According X-ray what previous treatment on 84 was done?

A. Pulpotomy and SSC

Q2. Mother worries about space on absent 65. What to do?

A. No treatment because premolar is not far to erupt

Q3. What treatment on 84 And 85

A. 84 no treatment, 85 GIC.
 42

SBQ 7

Please note that recession was on 31 and 41, one of them was more severe than other

18 year old lady with recession on 31and 41, picture was given. On photo: vertical recession on 31
with less than 1 mm attached gingiva 3-4 mm. Tooth is in overocclussion plane for 1 mm. Other teeth
are ok.
Q1. What is the best recommendation for her to prevent future recession
A. Send to specialist for graft surgery

Q2. But father doesn’t have money to pay for graft. What is to do in such situation?
A. Oral hygiene, soft toothbrush, diet and chlorhexidine and fluorides

Q3. What is reason for her pain complains?

A. Over erupted tooth with uncovered root surface, pain due to vigorous teeth bruising
B. Sensitivity due to TBA

Q4. Grandmother agreed to pay for patient’s treatment. As grafting procedure is not predictable, what
is prognosis for her grafting? What would you tell to grandmother?
A. Good if good oral hygiene maintained
B. Poor because of Miller Class 2 recession
C. Good if frenumectomy or correction

Ref: Clinical Problem Solving in Periodontology n Implantology(my Ibooks)

SBQ 8 (Boucher p. 340 similar, just not mentioned timing in Boucher and answers pulpotomy on both)
9 years old boy came with both maxillary central incisors fractured. 11 obligue crown fracture with a
slight exposure of the pulp and 21 horizontal crown fracture with badly lacerated pulp. 2 days after
trauma.
Q. What to do?
A. Pulpectomy 21 and pulpotomy 11
B. Extraction of both incisors
C. Pupectomy of both incisors
D. Pulp cupping on 11 and pulpotomy on 21
 43

SBQ 9

Women, photo of generalized swelling on teeth. She did not visit dentist 3-5 years, 2 years ago
marked mobility of her 2 lower teeth, now she is taking dilantin. Patient was complaining of a sudden
generalized pain and bleeding, waking up with bleeding spots on a pillow.

Q1. What is her disease?

A. Acute periodontal infection
B. ANUG
C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. Leukoplakia

Q. What is treatment?
A.
 44

SBQ 10
Chen with ANUG

Photo of patient with acute ulcerative gingivitis. Patient, 20 year old man, works at some
industry/factory, smokes 20 cigarettes per day and consumes alcohol 3 standard drinks per day.
Woke up one morning with acute pain in the gums and fever of 38 degrees. You examine him.

Q1. From the history and clinical examination, what do you think is the probable diagnosis?
A. Acute ulcerative gingivitis
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Periodontal abscess
D. Gingivostomatitis

Q2. First line treatment

A. Oral hygiene instructions
B. Oral hygiene instructions plus gentle debridement
C. Gentle debridement followed with 0.12% chlorhexidine
D. Gentle debridement followed with 20% hydrogen peroxide
E. No immediate treatment

Q3. What will you give for systemic symptoms.

A. Amoxicillin
B. Metronidazole 400mg
C. Acyclovir
D. Debridement with chlorhexidin 0.2% till the lesion subsides
E. Gentle removing of necrotising tissues

Q4. The best prognosis when treating pocket

A. Suprabony pocket
B. One wall defect
C. Two walls defect
D. Three walls defect

Q5. Greatest risk factor to prevent recurrence

A. Alcohol
B. Smoking
C. Change occupation
D. Acidic fumes

Q6. Why will primary herpetic gingivostomatitis not be a common occurrence in this patient
A. Because he is a smoker
B. It’s common more in females than males
C. Because early exposure in childhood would have led to formation of antibodies against it
D. Because those adults/infected patients get themselves treated immediately by antiviral, during the
prodromal phase of the viral infection.
 45

SBQ 11
Indigenous man, teacher in school, came to your clinic for regular periodontal check-up.
Q1. What would you say him about needs of taking antibiotic prophylaxis?
A. Indigenous Australians with previous endocarditis need antibiotic prophylaxis for periodontal
assessment.

Q2. You make x-ray and what is diagnosis?

A. Internal resorption

Q3. He would like that you support him in his school for kids teaching, but wants that you use
materials for teaching only clinical and scientific based. What is the most proved Information from?
A. Randomised Clinical Study
B. Cohort Study ( Cohort studies are a type of used to investigate the causes of disease, establishing links
between risk factors and health medical research outcomes. Cohort studies are usually forward-looking - that is,
they are "prospective" studies, or planned in advance and carried out over a future period of time)
C. Case control Study
D. Cross-sectional Study
E. Review of scientific studies
F. Prospective studies
 46

SBQ 12
Patient came for extraction, previous Hepatitis B 20 years ago, you gave to patient local anaesthesia,
but you need to help to your assistant to take out forceps, but your skin is irritated during hand wash.
Q. What is management?
A. No additional antiseptic, after helping assistant, take on new gloves and continue.
B. All other options were about “reglove”
2. What is NOT correct? Different options. My answer: all team schould be vactinated.

SBQ 13(?)
Photo of women with severe ulcers on mucosa and skin. Disease developed 2 days ago?
Q1. What is It?
A. I dont remember options(D)( T- I think this case-question about pemphigus)
Q2. What to do?
A. Send immidiately to General Mediciner (T-specialist dermatologist)
 47

MCQs paper 4

Q. (from Boucher p. 508) answer is C = The emergency tx of a root # involves the apposition of the fractured
parts, immobilisation and control of infection
What should be immediate treatment of a tooth that has a fracture to the middle third of the root include
A. Pulpectomy to the coronal portion and apicoectomy of the root portion
B. Pulpectomy to both portions of the tooth
C. Splinting
D. No treatment required

Q. Cells in 14-21 days in chronic periodontitis

A. Plasma cells with bone involvement

Q. Method of evaluation in 4 weeks after oral hygiene?

A. BOP
B. CPITN

Q. How does gingiva regrow?

A. Long junctional epithelium

Q. The most cause of SEVERE gingiva enlargement?

A. Plaque induced (possible wrong answer)

Q. Structure of pdl fibres best described as

A. Wavy
B. Oblique

Q. Pdl fibres that hold the tooth into alveolar bone are
A. Oblique fibres
B. Apical fibres
C. Circumferential fibres
D. Transeptal

Q. Which instrument do we use in second sextant for subgingival calculus removal

A. Scaler
B. Gracey 11/12(or 13/14/
C. Gracey 1/2
D. Universal(or Columbia) 4R/4L
Answer: C
 48

Q. What is approximate angle for closed gingival curettage

A. 45
B. 60
C. 90
D. 100

Q. What is incorrect
A. Incidence

Q. Preschool kid (3yo) with intruded incisors and diastema. What to do?
A. No treatment is required

Q. Intruded incisor. What to do?

A. Radiograph

Q. Teeth erupted in 9 year old kid.

A. All incisors and molars

1.23 APP. How much PPM?

A. 12300

Q. Fissure sealants. What is correct?

A. Seal if probe is stick in a fissure
B. BW X-Ray

Q. Cephalogram, face convex points

A. Nasion, pronasale, pogonion

Q. Down syndrom, NOT seen

A. Severe caries and ....

Q. Ectodermal displasia
A. Hypodontia...

Q. What is seen in "tongue sucking"?

A. Retroclined mandibular incisors

Q. Brace ligature. For What?

A. Ectopic eruption of molar

Q. Herpes simplex
A. Aciclovir inhibits....prodromal phase

Q. Eruption sequence, what is CORRECT?

A. Lower molar, upper incisor, lower premolar, upper canine
 49

Q. GTR. For what?

A.

Q. Palatal flap. Which artery supply blood?

A. Great palatine

Q. First bacteria in plaque?

A. S. Sangvinus

Q. What bacteria in mouth of new born?

A. None

Q. Most common place of oral SCC in Australians ?

A. Dorsal tonque
B. Ventral tonque

Q. Nitrous oxide. Why is used in pediatric dentistry?

A. Rapid uptake, excreation, algesic effect make safe in kids

Q. What is NOT advantage of paralleling technique?

A. Increase object-target to improve picture )

Q. (244) What are the commonest congenitally missing teeth

A. 12, 22
B. 35, 45
C. 15, 25
D. 33, 43

Q. (820) Hypoplasia as seen in x-rays

A. Thick enamel surface
B. Thin enamel surface
C. Sometimes large pulp chamber
D. Cannot be detected on X rays

Q. (912) Child with less than normal number of teeth, mandibular lateral incisor is larger than usual;
on x rays it shows with two roots and two roots canals; your diagnosis is
A. Dilaceration
B. Gemination
C. Fusion
D. Concrescence
E. Taurodontism
 50

Q. (98) Loss of tooth in mixed dentition affects the

A. Same quadrant
B. The relevant jaw
C. The whole mouth
D. The relevant quadrant

Q. (110) Boucher 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisors erupted, but yet only three
permanent first molars are erupted. Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the un-erupted
permanent area. A panoramic radiograph shows the alveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent
first molar crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no other radiographic abnormalities.
The most appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan in such situation would be
A. Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation
B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure
C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to erupt into its place
D. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the molar
E. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic traction

Q. Brass ligature wire is used for

A. Closing midline
B. Rotated tooth
C. Anterior croosbite
D. Ectopically erupting maxillary first molar
E. unilateral posterior crossbite

Q. Chlorohexidine: what's not true

A. Literature proved it has a MOST potent antiplaque effect
B. Microbial resistance might occur
C. Doesn't cause systemic toxicity
D. It has good substantivety
E. Straining teeth

Q.

Q. Which of the following does state BEST the morphology of periodontal ligament fibres
A. Elastic
B. Striated
C. Non-striated
D. Levity
E. Wavy