1.

' An-open system is one in which

(a) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

(b) Neither mass nor energy cross the boundaries of the system

(c) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

(d) Mass crosses the boundaries but. not the energy

2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I List II
A. Throttling 1. Third law
B. Phase change 2. Clapeyron's equation

C. Absolute entropy 3. Joule-Thomson effect

Code :

AB

(a) 1 3 2 , (b) 3 2 1 (c) 1 2 3 (d) 3 1 2

3.. The basis for measuring thermodynamic

properties of temperature is given by (a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b). First law of
thermodynamics (c) Second law of.thermodynamics (d) Third law of thermodynamics

4. Two insulated tanks containing ideal gases at different pressures and temperatures are connected to
each otherr and the gases are ' allowed to mix. The process will have

(a) (b) (c)

Free expansion Constant internal energy Constant enthalpy

I (d) ReMersible adiabatic expansion

5. Consider the following statements : 1. Constant pressure lines in the liquid region practically coincide
with the saturated liquid line. 2. Constant volume lines in T-s diagram are found to be concave
downwards in wet steam regiori. Which of these statements is/are correct ?
Neither 1 nor 2 Both 1 and 2 1 only 2 only •

• , 6. Consider • the following statements for Clapeyronequation : 1. Clapeyron equation gives the rate
of change of pressure with respect to change of saturation temperature.

SU-EHDB-M-H (2-A)

It helps to estimate the latent heat in 'a change of phase.

Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 ( (I) Neither 1 nor 2

7. For an ideal gas, the Joule-Thomson coefficient is equal to (a) Unity (b) Zero (c) Infinity (d) Greater
than zero

8. The magnitude of which of the quantities given below does not indicate the departure of a real gas
from the ideal gas behaviour ? (a) Compressibility factor (b) Joule-Thomson coefficient (c) Fugacity (d)
Entropy

9. Which performance parameter is not associated in the operation of two stroke cycle IC engine ? (a)
Brake thermal efficiency (b) Mechanical efficiency (c) Relative efficiency (d) Volumetric efficiency

10.. With the increase of load, knocking tendency in compression ignition engines

(a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Does not change (cl) None of the above

11. If the delay period is more during the first stage of combustion of a,diesel engine then (a) Knocking
decreases (b) Knocking increases (c) Knocking is not affected (d) Life of the engine increases

12. Detonation in Spark-Ignition engines can be reduced by 1. Retarding the spark timing. 2. Reducing
the engine speed (rpm). 3. Making the fuel-air ratio very rich.

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

13. Spark-Ignition engine knock can be suppressed by 1: IncreaSing the engine speed. 2. Supercharging.
3. Reducing the spark advance. 4. Increasing the compression ratio.

SU-EHDB-M-H ( 3 — A)

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

14. The purpose of supercharging an I.C. engine is to

1. Increase the thermal efficiency of:he engine. 2 Compensate for the loss of power due to altitude. 3.
Increase the power output for a given weight and bulk of the engine.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

15. An aircraft is propelled by a turbo jet engine. For same flight speed, if the jet• speed is increased
then the propulsive efficiency of the aircraft will

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Increase Decrease Remain unchanged None of the above

16. Which of these systems will give lowest COP,? (a) Vapour compression cycle using dry compression
(b). Vapour compression cycle using wet compression (c) Vapour • compression cycle using superheated
vapour (d) Vapour absorption cycle

17. The conditioned air supplied to the room must .have the capacity to take up (a) Room sensible heat
load only ' (b) Room latent heat load only

(c) Both room sensible heat and latent heat loads

(d) None•of the above

18. For a sample of moist air, evaporative cooling takes place with constant

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Dew-point temperature Dry bulb temperature . Wet bulb temperature Evaporation temperature

19. The temperature at which condensation begins, when the moist air is cooled at constant pressure is
called

(a) (b) (c)

Vaporization temperature Adiabatic saturation temperature Dew point temperature (d) Wet bulb
temperature

20: Which property remains unchanged during an adiabatic saturation of moist air ? (a) ' Dew-point
temperature (b) Dry bulb temperature (c) Wet bulb temperature (d) Relative humidity

SU-EHDB-M H ( 4 — A )

21. The relative humidity during heating and humidification

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Decreases Increases First decreases then increases None of the above

22. A gas with a kinematic viscosity of 60 x 10-6 m2/s flows over a flat plate. The free stream velocity is
10 m/s. • The Reynolds number at a section 300 mm from the leading edge will be

(a) 40 x 103 (b) 45 x 103 (c) 50 x 103 (d) 55 x 103

23. Consider the following statements with regards to performance of hydraulic pumps : 1. Centrifugal
pumps are started with the delivery valve closed to avoid -air leakage. 2. Reciprocating pumps are
suitable for high heads and low discharges. Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2
only (c) .Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. A compressible fluid at supersonic speed passes through a normal shock. The thermodynamic
process undergone by the fluid is

(a) Isothermal compression (b) Isentropic compression (c) Adiabatic compression (d) Constant volume
compression SU-EHDB-M-H

25. Consider the following statements pertaining to the conditions when a Pitot tube is introduced in a
supersonic flow :

1. The pressure indicated will be equal to the static pressure outside the tube.

2. A curved shock wave appears ahead of the inlet to the tube. 3. The temperature inside the tube will
be less than that of supersonic flow ahead.

Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

26. The gear train. that is used to transmit very high velocity ratio with smaller gear in less space is
known as

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Compound gear train Reverted gear train Simple gear train EpiCYclic gear train

27. With smaller gear ratio, it is desirable to connect two parallel shafts by

(5-A)

(a) Helical gears (b) Spur gear with full depth teeth (c) Spur gear with stub teeth (d) Herringbone gears

28. A flywheel absorbs energy during those periods of crank rotation when (a) , The turning moment is
greater than the resisting moment (b) The turning moment is equal to the resisting moment (c) The
turning moment is less than the resisting moment (d) Absorbs energy during all periods of crank rotation

29. The unbalanced force due to revolving masses • (a) Varies in magnitude but constant in direction (b)
Varies in direction but constant in magnitude (c) Varies in magnitude and direction both (d) Remains
constant in magnitude and direction both

30. A piston rod and a cross head are connected by

(a) Universal joint (b) Oldham's coupling (c) Muff coupling (d) Cotter joint

31. In a double parallel fillet weld of length I and leg length t, the maximum load that can be applied is
equal to (-c is the shear stress) (a) ttl (b) -di

(c)

Ttl

(d) 2Tt/

SU-EHDB-M-H

132. Oldham couplings are used for (a) Intersecting shafts • (b) Shafts which are in line

(c) Shafts which are parallel but not in the same line

(d) None of the above

33. The relation between Young's modulus E, Bulk modulus of elasticity K and Poisson ratio p may be
expressed as

(a) E= 3K (1 - 211), (b) E = 3K (1 - 3p) (c) E =3K (1 -

(d) E = 3K (1 - 11) 2

34. For a cantilever beam of length L, Modulus of elasticity E and Moment of Inertia I, the PL3 deflection
under load P is -. The strain 3E1

(6—A)

energy due to bending is P2L3 (a) 3E1 P2L3 (b) 6E1 1,20 (c) 4E1 P2L3 (d) 48E1

35. , Ratio of average shear stress to the maximum shear stress in a beam under- transverse. loading
with a square cross-section is (a) 1 2 (b) 3

(c) 3. 2 (d) 2

36. A helical spring of stiffness k is cut into four equal helical springs and these 4 helical springs are
assembled parallel to each other. The equivalent spring stiffness of the arrangement is - (a) 4 (b) k (c) 4k
(d) 16k

37. When a closed coil helical .spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to (a) Shear stress (b) Tensile
stress (c) Compressive stress . (d) All the above
38. The central core area within which a concentrated load (parallel to the axis) should lie for a column
of. circular cross-section of diameter d, such that no tensile stresses are set up anywhere in the column,
is given by

(a)

(b)

( c)

(d)

ad2 4 .12 16 . itd2

32

ad2

64

39. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code. given below the lists : List I List
II • (Iron) (Microstructure)

A: White cast iron 1. Graphite flakes

B. Grey cast iron

2. Spheroidal e, graphite

C. Malleable cast iron 3. Excess cementite

D. Nodular iron

Code :

4. Temper form of carbon

A . B C 1J

(a) 2 4 (b) 3 4 1 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 1 4 2

40. Thermosetting polymers are (a) Linear polymers (b) Cross-linked polymers (c) Branched polymers (d)
Co-polymers

SU-EHDB-M-H ( 7 — A )

41. Match List I with List II and select the correct 4. In tube drawing process, the friction is answer using
the code given below the lists maximum at List I List II (a) Die-metal interface (Alloy) (Application) (b)
Mandrel-metal interface (c) Coiling roll which receives the,tube A. Heat resisting steel 1. Shaper tools6
(d) Coiling roll from which the tube is B. Shock resisting steel 2. Wire pulled out drawing dies C. High
speed steel 3. Furnace 1.), 45. When the welding electrode is moved closer to parts weld puddle
operating with a constant current

D. Cemented carbide 4. Leaf springs power source Code • (a) Voltage decreases, amperage increases
and metal deposit rate decreases (b) Voltage decreases, amperage increases and metal deposit rate
increases ( c) Voltage increases, amperage decreases and metal deposit rate decreases (d) Voltage
increases, amperage decreases and metal deposit rate increases

A B. C D

(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 ,1 4 2 - (c) 2 4 1 3 (0) 3 4 ' 1 2

42. The alloys used to generate motion . and/or force in temperature sensitive actuators are (a) Shape
memory alloys '(b) Super alloys (c) Light weight alloys (d) Heat resistant alloys

43. In tube extrusion, to restrict the flow of metal for production of seamless tube, the tools required
are

(a) One additional mandrel (b) Only die with circular opening (c) One additional die and one small
cylinder. (d) Only a cylinder fitted with a plunger

46. For machining brittle materials like brass (a) Positive rake angle is provided (b) Negative rake angle is
provided (c) Zero rake angle is provided (d) Any rake angle is provided

,47. Consider the following statements about cycle in a project network 1. A cycle is any path of jobs that
leads _ back into itself and hence a job list with cycle cannot be put in topological order. 2. It does not
create logicdl errors and hence, there is no need to remove (them before scheduling computdtion.
Which of these statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

SU-EHDB-M-H ( 8 — A )

48. Crashing is used in critical path method

(a) To reduce the estimated time for finishing the task by adding resources

(b) To the project crash due to lack of

resources •

(c) When the • task becomes a critical activity (d) When the slack becomes zero

.,49. In ABC analysis, the 'C' items are those which represent

(a) Small percentage of closing inventory value

(b) Small percentage of total annual consumption value

(c) High percentage of • closing inventory value

(d) High percentage of total annual consumption value

50. In generating and linking the material requirements planning (MRP) record of items, which of the
following details are used ?

(a) Master production schedule (MPS), Explosion process and Inventory status

(b) Explosion process, Bill of material (BOM) and Lead time offsetting (c) Master production schedule
(MPS), Explosion process, Inventory status, Bill of material (BOM) and Lead time offsetting (d) Inventory
status, Bill of 'Material (BOM) and Master production schedule (MPS)

51. An electric field can deflect (a) X-rays (b) Neutrons (c) .ce-particles (d) 7-rays

52. Coulomb's law in MKS units is q1 q2 (a)

r2

(b) qiq2 Er2

(c) .47r,er2

ch q2

(d) 4.7tqi q2 6r2

53. Which of the following represents the Gauss law in a homogeneous isotropic medium ? (a) f D . ds =
p . dv

(b) V.11=D (c) V.J=pr (d) V E = 0

54: Which of the following • equations specify. Kirchhoff-'s current law ? (a) • 'T7' = o (b) J = a E (c) D= £E

SU-EHDB-M-H (s—A)

(d) EV=IER

55., Which are the dependent quantities. for a 2-port network described by h-parameters ? (a) Input and
output voltage (b) Input and output currents (c) Input voltage and output current (d) Output voltage and
input current

/ 56. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List
II (A B C D (Quantity Parameters) Defined) A. 1 1. Short circuit A current gain B - = 1 2. Open circuit
transfer impedance C. C3. Open circuit voltage gain D. 1 4. Short circuit transfer admittance

Code : AB C D 2 , 1 2 3 4 4 3

(a) 3 4 (b) 1 4 (c) 3 2 (d) 1 2

57. If a transmission line is terminated by its characteristic impedance, then (a) Standing wave pattern
will be obtained (b) It is equivalent toinfinite line (c) No power will reach .the load (d) Power will be
reflected to the generator

. The Norton's equivalent circuit of a network consists of

(a) .A current source with finite impedance in series

(b) ' A voltage source with impedance in parallel (c) A current source with finite impedance in parallel (d)
A voltage source with finite impedance in series •

59. The poles of the transfer function of a network are at - 1 and - 2. Which of the following gives the
natural response of the network ?

(a) t e-t + t e-2t

(b) k1e-t + k2 t e--2t (c) k1e-t + k2 e-2t k2 e-2t (d) t et

60. For a series RLC circuit, one of the half power frequencies of oscillations is

SU-EHDB-M-H ( 10 - A )

(a) (b) (c) (d) 1 2n 12n 1 2n 1 27c ki 1 + R2 LC 40 R L L R 2L R 2L 11 1 R2 -4L2 1 + R2 LC 4L2 [ 1 + R' LC L2

61. The equation for current in an RL series circuit with a DC supply suddenly switched on at t = 0 is

E E ._Rt (a) i = - e L RR

RL

(b) E e- t. 2R 2R

E ERt (c)= — - — e 2R 2R

E -- (d) i = R — - R — e RL

, 62. The poles and zeros of a network function are at - 1, - 3, - 4 and - 1 + j, - 1 - j respectively. Which of
the following gives the network function H(s) ? (s + 1)2

(a)

. (b)

(c)

(d)

(s+1)(s+4)(s+3) s2 + 2s + 2
(5 + 1) (s + 4) (s + 3)

s2 + 4s + 1

(s + 3) (s + 4) (s + 1) (s + 1) (s + 4) (5 + 3) s2 + 2s + 2

63. A network has a transfer function F(s), the final value theorem is applicable to this network if

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Zeros of F(s) lie in right half plane Poles of F(s) lie in left half plane Poles and zeros of F(s) lie in right half
plane Poles and zeros of F(s) lie in left half plane

64. If a synchronous motor is switched on to a 3-phase supply with its rotor winding short circuited, it
will

(a) Start (b) Not start (c) Start and continue to run as an induction motor

(d) Start and continue to run as a synchronous motor

,65. While considering different categories of losses in rotating machines, the occurrence of core-loss in
d.c. machines and in induction machines exists, in the

66.

SU-EHDB-M-H ( 11 - A )

(a) Rotor of d.c. machines but in the stator of induction machines

(b) 'Stator of d.c. machines but in the rotor of induction machines

(c) Stator of both d.c. machines and induction machines

(d) Rotor of both d.c. machines and induction machines

The efficiency of induction motor can be determined by

(a) Direct loading (b) No load test (c) Short circuit test (d) All of the above

67. Which of the following is a function of 71. Which types of instrument are most commutator in
d.c.generator ?economical and suitable for measurement of high a.c.-d.c. voltage ?

(a) To convert a.c. into d.c. (b) To convert d.c. into a. c. (c) To act as inverter (d) None of the above

I 68. In a long-shunt compound-wound generator, the shunt field is connected in parallel with

(a) Armature (b) Series field

(c) Parallel combination of armature and series field

(d) Series combination of armature and series field

69. By controlling the flux of a d.c. motor its speed can be obtained (a) Above the base speed only (b)
Both above and below the base speed (c) Below the. base speed only (d) None of these

(a) Rectifier and Electrostatic type (b) Moving iron and Electrostatic type (c) Thermocouple and Rectifier
type (d) Moving iron and Rectifier type

72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I List II
A. Anderson "fridge 1. Frequency 13.De-Sauty Bridge 2.Mutual inductange C. Wien Bridge 3. Wide range
of inductances

D. Heaviside- 4. Capacitance Campbell Bridge Code :

A B C D (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 4 1 3

73. A type '1' system exhibits zero steady state

70. Speed control of d.c. motors can be done by (a) Armature resistance control (b) Field resistance
control (c) Applied voltage control (d) All of the above SU-EHDB-M-H ( 12 — A )

error for which of the following inputs ? (a) Step input (b) Velocity input (c) Acceleration input (d) All of
these

/7

. If unit ' ramp input signal is applied to a ' type-2 control system, the steady state error will be

(a) Positive constant value (b) Negative constant value (c) Zero (d) Infinity

75. Which of the following is not desirable for a closed loop system designed with negative feedback ?

(a) Increased accuracy (b) Noise rejection (c) Prolonged oscillations in response (d) Less steady state
error

c 76. Considering usual meanings of the notations, the : Nichols charts are constructed with variables as
(a) M versus a and (I) versus to

(b) Gin dB versus clis in degrees

(c)

G versus tan 4

1+G

(d) 1 + G .versus G
77. The discrete linear time invariant system is represented by the impulse response as 1 2 h(n) (-2) u(n).
Then the system is (a) Causal and stable. (b) Non causal and stable (c) Causal and unstable (d) Non causal
and unstable

78. A system in which the output signal at any specified time depends on the values of the input signals
at the present time as well as past times is called a (a) Time variant system (b) Dynamic system (c) Non
causal system (d) Unstable system

79. The electrical waveform that is used to deflect the electron beam in a cathode ray tube from left to
right and is also referred to as Time-base is

• (a) Contintious (b) Step (c) Saw tooth (d) Sinusoidal waveform

80. A system has an input-output relation given by, y = 3x + C. The system is linear if (a) C < 0 (b) C >0 (c)
C = 0 (d) All of the above

SU-EHDB-M-H ( 13 — A )

88.: The action of a JFET in its equivalent circuit can be best represented as a (a) Current controlled
current source (b) Current controlled voltage source (c) Voltage controlled voltage source (d) Voltage
controlled current source

89. The gain of transistor amplifiers falls off at low and high frequency due to

(a) Coupling and internal capacitance respectively

(b) Bypass and coupling capacitance respectively

(c) Internal and coupling capacitance respectively

(d) Coupling and bypass capacitance respectively

90. The common source amplifier with a resistance connected between the source and ground is

(a) Current shunt feedback (b) Current series feedback (c) Voltage shunt feedback (d) Voltage
seriesfeedback SU-EHDB-M-H

91. By placing an inverter between both inputs of an S-R flip-flop, resulting flip-flop becomes

(a) J-K flip-flop (b) D-flip-flop (c) T-flip=flop (d) Master-Slave J-K flip-flop

92. If the probability of a message is 1/4, then the information in bits is (a) 1-bit (b) 2-bits (c) 3-bits (d) 4-
bits

93. In Amplitude Modulation transmission, the frequency which is not transmitted is

(a) Upper side frequency (b) Lower side frequency . (c) Audio frequency (d) Carrier frequency ( 15 — A )

94. According to sampling theorem (a) The signal should be sampled at least twice in each cycle of its
lowest frequency . (b) Nyquist rate should be as slow as possible (e) Guard time should be as large as
possible (d) The signal should be sampled at the rate of twice the highest frequency component in the
signal

95. Increase of 1-bit in encoding quantization levels in PCM, increases signal-to-noise ratio by (a) 2 dB

(b) 4 dB (c) . 6 dB (d) '8 dB

96. A link list in which elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the middle, is known
as

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Queue Stack Dequeue Tree

98. In tri-state, the output of any bus will be (a) All digital '1' (b) All digital '0' (c) Indeterminate (d) Equal
to Vc,

,99.

The output data lines of microprocessors and memories are usually tristated, because

(a) More than one device can transmit information over the data bus at the same time

(b) Data lines can be multiplexed for output only .

(c) Data lines- can be multiplexed for both input and output

(d) It increases speed of data transfers over the data bus

100. When HLT instruction of a 8085 microprocessor is executed, the microprocessor

97. An index register in a digital computer is used for (a) Pointing to the stack address (b) Indirect
addressing (c) Keeping track of number of times a loop is executed (d) Address modification SU-EHDB-
M-H ( 16 — A )

(a) is disconnected from the system till the reset is pressed

(b) halts execution of the program and returns to monitor

(c) enters into a halt state and the buses are tristated

(d) reloads the program from the locations 0024 and 0025 H