A.
The AFP operating through the area
CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE EXAMINATION
=============================
===========
FINAL COACHING
LAW ENFORCEMENT
ADMINISTRATION
1. It refers to the field of management which
involves planning, and controlling the efforts of
a group of individuals toward achieving a
common goal with maximum dispatch and
minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Administation
B. Personnel Management
C. Organization
D. Police Organization
 Organization-a group of persons working
together for a common goal or objectives a
form of human association for the
attainment of a goal or objective.
 Police Organization- a group of trained
personnel in the field of public safety
administration engaged in the achievement
of goals and objectives.
 Administration- an organizational process
concerned with the implementation of
objectives and plans and internal operating
efficiency.
 Police Administration- the process
involved in ensuring strict compliance,
proper obedience of laws and related
statutes focuses on the policing process.
2. The national headquarters of the PNP is
located in Quezon City. It was named after the
1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
A. Antonio Torres
B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Rafael Crame
D. Lamberto Javalera
 PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of
the Philippine National Police
 Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino chief
of police of the Manila Police Department in
1935
 Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief of
police of the Manila Police Department after
the Philippine Independence from the
United States of America in 1946
3. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996. She
was 29 years old then. What year can
Eugene retire if he wants to avail the
mandatory retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023
 Compulsory – upon reaching the age
FIFTY-SIX (56), the age of retirement
 Optional – upon completion of TWENTY
(20) YEARS of active service
4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to
national security?
commander is the one primarily responsible
on matters involving insurgency and other
serious treats to national security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role
towards insurgency and other serious treats
to national security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP
in insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these
5. The procedure which is intended to be used
in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide
and by men in the field operations relative to
reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and
investigation refers to:
A. Field Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Headquarters procedure
 Headquarters Procedures - include the
procedures to be followed in the
headquarters, usually reflected in the duty
manual
 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) -
procedures intended for specific operations
to ensure uniformity of action
6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for
a period ______?
A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
 Attrition by Attainment of Maximum
Tenure
Those who have reached the prescribed
maximum tenure corresponding to their position
shall be retired from the service
 Chief 4 years
 Deputy Chief 4 years
 Director of Staff Services 4
years
 Regional Directors 6 years
 Provincial/District Directors 9 years
 Other positions higher than
Provincial Director 6 years
7. The law that empowered the police
commission to conduct entrance and
promotional examination for police members
refers to:
A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
B. RA 157 D. PD 765
 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau of
Investigation, enacted June 19, 1947 and
later reorganized by R.A. 2678
 PD 765- otherwise known as the Integration
Act of 1975, enacted on August 8, 1975;
established the Integrated National Police
(INP)
 R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare
8. The theory of police service which states Lombroso
those police officers are servants of the people  August Vollmer - recognized as the Father
or the community refers to: of Modern Law Enforcement
A. Old  Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner of
B. Home rule Scotland Yard
C. Modern  Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern
D. Continental Criminology.

 Continental - policemen are regarded as
servants of the higher authorities
o It exist in France, Italy and Spain-
countries with a decentralized form of
government
 Old Concept - measurement of police
competence is the increasing number of
arrests.
 Modern Concept - police efficiency is
measured by the decreasing number of
crimes
9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to
join the Philippine National Police. What would
be his initial rank upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE
13. When responding to call for police
assistance due to planted or found explosives,
what immediate actions should the patrol officer
will do?
A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or
not.
B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid
further injury to happen.
C. Never attempt to handle, call for
Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for
proper procedure to be followed, after
investigating the item.
14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of
the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his
equivalent rank in the PNP?

 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists, A. Inspector C. Senior

nurses, engineers, graduates of forensic Inspector
sciences, graduates of the PNPA and B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent
licensed criminologists
 Inspector – Captain
 Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains,
 Chief Inspector – Major
members of the bar and doctors of medicine
 Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel
10. The following are functions in a police
15. How many Deputy Director General ranks
organization, EXCEPT:
are there in the PNP?
A. primary functions A. 1 C. 3
B. administrative functions B. 2 D. 4
C. secondary functions
D. auxiliary functions Deputy Director General ranks

 DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)

 Primary or Line Functions- functions that
 DDG for Operation (3rd in Command)
carry out the major purposes of the
 Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in
organization, Patrolling, traffic duties, and
Command)
crime investigation
 Staff/Administrative Functions- designed 16. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
to support the line functions and assist in
the performance of the line functions A. Four star general C. Director
examples of the staff functions of the police B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General
are Planning, research, budgeting and legal
advice  Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the
 Auxiliary Functions- functions involving rank of DIRECTOR GENERAL
the logistical operations of the organization
examples are communication, maintenance, 17. What is the minimum police-to-population
records management, supplies and ratio?
equipment management.
A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
11. If the external patting of the suspect’s B. 1:500 D. 1:7
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is: Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to-
population ratio)
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect. o 1:500 – nationwide average
C. No further search may be made.
18. What kind of force is needed during armed
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate confrontation?
supervisor.
A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force
12. He is known as the father of modern B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded
policing system? Force

Page 2 of 43
19. The largest organic unit within a large
department. 25. The provincial governor shall choose the
A. Bureau C. Section provincial director from a list of _____ eligible’s
B. Division D. Unit recommended by the PNP regional director:
A. six C. five
 Division- The primary subdivision of a B. Three D. four
bureau.
 Section- Functional units within a particular  MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE
division. This is necessary for specialization. eligible’s recommended by the PD.
 Units- Functional group within a section
where further specialization is needed. 26. The deployment of officers in a given
community, area or locality to prevent and deter
20. The word “police” was derived from the criminal activity and to provide day-to-day
Greek word _______, which means government services to the community.
of the city. A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
A. politia C. politeia B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol
B. polis D. Policy
27. The head of the IAS shall have a designation
 Polis – Greek word which means “City- of ____________?
State”. A. Director General C. Solicitor
 Politia – Roman word which means General
“condition of the state or the Government”. B. Inspector General D. IAS General

21. It is defined as the determination in advance 28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there
of how the objectives of the organization will be should be how many PLEB for every 500 police
attained. personnel?
A. planning C. A. one (1) C. more than one
Advancement B. at least one D. less than one
B. police planning D. Development
 there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for
 Police Planning - it is an attempt by police every five hundred (500) city or municipal
administration to allocate anticipated police personnel
resources to meet anticipated service
demands. 29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what
would be the immediate things to do when
22. It is the premier educational institution for accident occur?
the training, human resource development and A. Cordon the area
continuing education of all personnel of the PNP, B. Go away and call your superior
BFP, and BJMP. C. Bring the victim to the nearest
A. PPSC C. RTS hospital
B. PNPA D. NPC D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him

PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD
1184, premier educational institution for future
officers of the tri-bureaus.
23. It is the central receiving entity for any
citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
A. IAS C. PNP
B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
 NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative
control and operational supervision over the
PNP
 IAS - investigate complaints and gather
evidence in support of an open
investigation; conduct summary hearings on
PNP members facing administrative charges;
24. The following are the grounds for Patrol
officers to execute spot checks.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the
area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your
superior;
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police
officer;
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the
suspect’s prior criminal record; and
e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect
is carrying a pyrotechnics.
A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d,
e
30. The following are the upgraded general
qualifications for appointment in the Philippine
National Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five
(5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or
over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral
character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably
discharged from military services or civilian
position in the government; and
e. Applicant must be eligible.
A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e
31. All of the following are members of the
People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace
and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community
B. A bar member chosen by the
Integrated Bar of the Philippines
C. Any barangay captain of the
city/municipality concerned chosen by the
association of barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglunsod
32. Two or more persons forming an  Delegation of Authority- conferring of
organization must identify first the reason for certain specified authority by a superior to a
establishing such organization. They must subordinate
identify the organization’s _________:  Chain of Command- the arrangement of
A. strategy C. Goal officers from top to bottom on the basis of
B. Tactic D. objective rank or position and authority
 Span of Control- the maximum number of
 Strategy – is a broad design, method; a subordinates that a superior can effectively
major plan of action that needs a large supervise
amount of resources to attain a major goal  Command Responsibility- dictates that
or objectives. immediate commanders shall be responsible
 Goal- General Statement of intention for the effective supervision and control of
normally with time perspective. It is their personnel and unit
achievable end state that can be measured
and observed. 39. Who has the authority to promote Insp Jhack
 Tactic – it is a specific design, method or T. Khole?
course of action to attain a particular A. President C. Chief,
objective in consonance with strategy. PNP
B.CA D. Regional
33. To improve delegation, the following must Director
be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards Promoting Authorities:
B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work Grade/Rank Promoting
D. define authority and responsibility Authorities

34. The number of subordinates that can be  Director General President

supervised directly by one person tends to:  Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President
A. Increase as the physical distance between  Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP
supervisor and subordinate as well as  PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, PNP
between individual subordinate increases
B. Decrease with an increase in the 40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
knowledge and experience of the
subordinate A. Standard operation procedures
C. Increase as the level of supervision B. Special operation procedures
progresses for the first line C. Standard operating procedures
supervisory level to the management D. Special operating procedures
level
D. All of the above 41. The following are the characteristics of a
good plan, EXCEPT:
35. This means controlling the direction and flow A. flexibility C. specific
B. clear D. expensive
of decisions through unity of command from top
to bottom of organization:
42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is
A. Audit C. Coordination
B. Monitoring D. Authority 1200. How many of the annual quota is
allocated for women?
36. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. 10% C. 120
B. 100 D. 200
A. Performance evaluation measures
credibility of the police
 The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT (10%)
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for
of its annual recruitment, training and
salary increases or promotion
education quota for women
C. Performance evaluation is done once a
year among police personnel 43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP
D. Performance evaluation is may be waived in the following order:
implemented to determine the
quality of work performance of A. age, height, weight & education
personnel B. age, weight, height & education
C. height, education, weight & age
37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to D. in any order
the DILG for _______:

A. Administrative control  Applicants who possess the least

B. Administration and control disqualification shall take precedence over
C. Operational supervision those who possess more disqualification;
D. Policy and program coordination  The requirement shall be waived in the
following order: Age, Height, Weight and
38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same Education. (AHWE)
supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the
A. delegation of authority basis provided by law.
B. span of control A. attrition C.
C. unity of command Specialization
D. chain of command B. promotion D. retirement

Page 4 of 43
 Specialization- the assignment of
particular personnel to particular tasks
which are highly technical and require
special skills and training
 Retirement - The separation of the police
personnel from the service by reason of
reaching the age of retirement provided by
law, or upon completion of certain number
of years in active service.
 Promotion - It is a upgrading of ranks
and/or advancement to a position of
leadership
45. The age requirement for new PNP applicants
must not be less than twenty-one (21) years of
age. The Maximum age requirement for PNP
applicants using the lateral entry program is
____.
A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
B. 30 years old D. 31 years old
46. A Field training Program for all PNP
uniformed members is required for permanency
of their appointment. Who among the following
is exempted to undergo the Field Training
Program and issued a permanent appointment?
A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr.
Inspector via Lateral entry.
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
Inspector via Lateral entry.
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is
appointed Inspector after graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist
and First Place in the Examination.
 Field Training Program. – All uniformed
members of the PNP shall undergo a Field
Training Program for twelve (12) months
involving actual experience and assignment
in patrol, traffic, and investigation as a
requirement for permanency of their
appointment.
47. Planning as a management function is to be
done in the various levels of PNP organization.
Broad policy based from laws directives, policies
and needs in general is the responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans
B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP
D. Dep. Dir. For Administration
48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy
Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
A. Lt. General C. Major General
B. Brigade General D. General
 Chief Superintendent – Brigade General
 Director – Major General
 Director General - General
49. The Philippine National Police will recruit 300
new policemen on March 2012 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D. Migz who was born on August 10,
1991
 For a new applicant, must not be less than
twenty-one (21) nor more than thirty (30)
years of age
50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine
National Police on October 5, 1988.
Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
embalmer, he decided to file an optional
retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the
gratifying PNP which he served with extreme
commitment and loyalty. When does Bruno can
retire?
A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6, 1999
B. September 5, 2010 D. September
5, 2008
51. Which of the following administrative
penalties is immediately executory?
A. Dismissal C. Forfeiture
of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty
52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to SPOIV?
A. Officers Candidate Course
B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course
D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
 SLC- SPOII to SPOIII
 JLC – POIII to SPOI
 PSBRC – POI to POII
53. The head of the National Capital Regional
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR
director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Superintendent D.
C/Inspector
 Regional Director -with the rank of Chief
Superintendent
 Provincial Director -with the rank of
Senior Superintendent
 NCR District Director -with the rank of
Chief Superintendent
 Chief of Police – with the rank of Chief
Inspector
54. Under the waiver program, who among the
following PNP applicants is the least priority for
appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in
college
B. Renz who is under height
C. Justine who is underweight
D. Philip who is overage
55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
as____________.
A. Department of Interior and Local
Government Act of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and Local
Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the Local
Government Act of 1990
 D. Department of the Interior and the Local
Government Act of 1990
56. The following are the component agencies
that compose the Philippine National Police
(Sec. 23, RA 6975).
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and
e. National Action Committee on Anti-
Hijacking.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00
base pay since he was promoted. After five
years from promotion, what would be his
monthly base pay after adding his longevity
pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37,
690.00
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31,
549.00
58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall
be appealed to the__________:
A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Police Commission
 National Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered by
the PNP Chief and the IAS.
 Regional Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered by
the RD, PD, COP, the city or municipal
mayor and the PLEB except decision on
suspension.
NOTE:
 The PLEB decision of the suspension is
final and cannot be appealed.
 The decision of dismissal by either PLEB or
Regional Director is final and executory but
subject to appeal to RAB.
 Decision of Chief of Police is appealable
within 10 days to Provincial Director, upon
receipt of decision.
 Decision of Provincial Director is appealable
within 10 days to Regional Director, upon
receipt of decision.
 Decision of Regional Director is appealable
within 10 days to Chief, PNP upon receipt of
decision.
 The decisions of COP, PD, and RD are from
those cases concerning internal discipline.
 Cases involving internal discipline filed
with the Chief, PNP originally, the
decision is appealable to NAB which
decision is Final.
 Motion for Reconsideration is only allowed
ONCE.
59. Who shall administer the entrance and
promotional examinations for police officers on
the basis of the standards set by the
Commission as amended by RA 8551?
A. PLEB C. CSC
B.PRC D. NAPOLCOM
 Police Entrance Examination – taken by
applicants of the PNP
 Police Promotional Examinations – taken
by in-service police officers as part of the
mandatory requirements for promotion
NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed
Criminologists, no longer need to take the
Police Promotional Examinations as part of the
requirements for promotion. As PRC Board
Passers, they have already complied with the
eligibility requirement.
60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted, if
he is promoted who has the appointing
authority?
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for
the national headquarters personnel
attested by the Civil Service Commission.
B. Chief PNP, recommended by
immediate superiors and attested
by the Civil Service Commission.
C. President, upon recommendation of Chief
PNP, endorsed by the Civil Service and
subject to confirmation by the
Commission of Appointment.
D. President from among the senior officers
down to the rank of Chief
Superintendent, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointment.
Appointment of uniformed PNP personnel
 PO1 TO SPO4 – appointed by the Regional
Director for regional personnel or by the
Chief, PNP for the national headquarters
 INSP. TO SUPT. – appointed by the Chief,
PNP
 SR. SUPT TO DDG – appointed by the
President upon recommendation of the
Chief, PNP, subject to confirmation by the
Commission on Appointments
 DIRECTOR GENERAL – appointed by the
President from among the senior officers
down to the rank of C/Supt, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointments
61. It is known as the Professionalization act of
1966.
A. R.A. 4864 C. Act 255
B. Act 175 D. Act 183
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for
the Organization and Government of an
Insular Constabulary”, enacted on July 18,
1901
 Act No. 183 - created the Manila Police
Department, enacted on July 31, 1901
 Act No 255 - The act that renamed the
Insular Constabulary into Philippine
Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901
62.________ is given to any PNP member who
has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry
at the risk of his life above and beyond the call
of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position
B. Meritorious Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
Page 6 of 43
 Regular – promotion granted to police
officers meeting the mandatory
requirements for promotion
 Promotion by virtue of Position- any PNP
personnel designated to any key position
whose rank is lower than what is required for
such position shall, after 6 months
occupying the same, be entitled to rank
adjustment corresponding to position.
63. PNP members under the waiver program but
is dismissed for failure to comply with the
requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B. Absolutely Yes D.
Absolutely No
 PNP members under the waiver program but
is dismissed for failure to comply with the
requirements can RE-APPLY provided he now
have the minimum requirements.
64. The reason why police officer appears in
court as a witness has to be in complete uniform
is to show his respect to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B. Profession D.
Comrades
65. One having supervisory responsibilities over
officers to the lower rank, whether temporary or
permanent.
A. None C. Superior
officer
B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
 Sworn Officer- The term referring to
personnel of the police department who has
taken oath of office and possesses the
power to arrest.
 Ranking Officer-Refers to the officers
having the highest rank or grade according
to their date of appointment to that grade
66. Law that created the Manila Police
Department, enacted on July 31.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175
 RA 4864- otherwise known as the Police
Professionalization Act of 1966, enacted
on September 8, 1966; created the Police
Commission (POLCOM); later POLCOM was
renamed in Act No 255 - The act that
renamed the Insular Constabulary into
Philippine Constabulary, enacted on
October 3, 1901 to National Police
Commission (NAPOLCOM)
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing
for the Organization and Government of
an Insular Constabulary”, enacted on
July 18, 1901
67. The performance evaluation system is
conducted:
A. thrice a year C. Every 6
months
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
 January to June Evaluation Report to be
submitted 1st week of July
 June to December Evaluation Report to be
submitted 1st week of January of the
succeeding year.
68. A PNP member who acquired permanent
physical disability in the performance of his duty
and unable to further perform his duty shall be
entitled to a lifetime pension equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary
D. 80% of his last salary
Retirement due To Permanent Physical
Disability
PNP uniformed personnel who are
permanently and totally disabled as a result of
injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the
performance of his duty shall be entitled to ONE
YEAR’S SALARY and to a LIFETIME PENSION
equivalent to EIGHTY PERCENT (80%) of his
last salary, in addition to other benefits.
Should such PNP personnel die within
FIVE (5) YEARS from his retirement due to
physical disability, his legal spouse or legitimate
children shall be entitled to receive the pension
for the remainder of the five year-period.
69. How many successive annual rating
periods before a police officer may be
separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance?
A. 2 C. 4
B.3 D. 1
Attrition by other Means
Those who have at least five (5) years of
active service shall be separated based on any
of the following:
 inefficiency based on poor performance
during the last two (2) successive
annual rating periods;
 inefficiency based on poor performance
for three (3) cumulative annual rating
periods;
 physical and/or mental incapacity to
perform police functions and duties; or
 failure to pass the required entrance
examinations twice and/or finish the
required career courses except for
justifiable reasons
70. Female detainees shall not be transported in
handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and
proper escort, preferably aided by a police
woman. The statement is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False
71. In this theory, management assumes
employees may be ambitious and self-
motivated and exercise self-control. It is
believed that employees enjoy their mental and
physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B. X theory D. Y theory
 Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity
whereby subjects improve or modify an
aspect of their behavior being
 experimentally measured simply in
response to the fact that they are being
studied, not in response to any particular
experimental manipulation.
 X theory - management assumes
employees are inherently lazy and will
avoid work if they can and that they
inherently dislike work.
72. The theory X and Y is a human motivation
created and developed by?
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino
B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Henry A. Landsberger
D. Douglas McGregor
 Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino - New York City
Police officer, who pioneer fighting
Organized Crime.
 Henry A. Landsberger – coined the word
Hawthorne Effect
 John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the
Federal Bureau of Investigation; he was
instrumental in founding the FBI in 1935.
73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to Senior
Superintendent.
A. Officers Senior Executive Course
B. Officers Advance Course
C. Officers Basic Course
D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
 MNSA/Allied MA Degree – Chief
Superintendent - up.
 OAC – Chief Inspector
 OBC – Senior Inspector
 BSPS - Inspector
74. Who among the following have summary
dismissal powers?
A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All of these
The NAPOLCOM, PNP Chief and Regional
Directors have summary dismissal powers in
any of the following cases:
 when the charge is serious and the
evidence of guilt is strong
 when the respondent is a recidivist or
has been repeatedly charged and there
are reasonable grounds to believe that
he is guilty of the charges; and
 when the respondent is guilty of a
serious offense involving conduct
unbecoming of a police officer
75. If the offense is punishable for a period of
not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16
days, the citizen’s complaint against erring PNP
member shall be filed at the
A. Office of the chief of police
B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office
D. any of them
 Chief of Police - for a period not exceeding
FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
 PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY (30)
DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be
___ of the base pay and longevity pay of the
retired grade in case of 20 years active service
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 2.5% D. 55%
 Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY
PERCENT (50%) of the base pay in case of
twenty years of active service, increasing by
TWO AND ONE-HALF PERCENT (2.5%)
for every year of active service rendered
beyond twenty years.
77. This type of plan is intended for specific
purpose such as drug crackdown, crime
prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up
campaign. It concludes when the objective is
accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Functional Plan
D. time bound operational plan
 Functional Plan- includes the framework
for the operation of the major functional unit
in the organization Such as patrol and
investigation.
 Strategic Plan - It relates to plans which
are strategic or long range in application, it
determine the organization’s original goals
and strategy.
78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP
members on routine and field operations and
some special operations
A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. policy or procedural plan
 Extra-Departmental Plans - which require
actions or assistance from persons or
agencies outside of the department
 Operational Plan - often called work plan;
the work program of the field units
 Tactical Plans - concern methods of action
to be taken at a designated location and
under specific circumstances
79. What kind of appointment when the
applicant is under the waiver program due to
weight requirements pending satisfaction of the
requirement waived.
A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special
 Permanent – when an applicant possesses
the upgraded general qualifications for
appointment in the PNP
 Probationary- All PNP members upon entry
level, before appointed to permanent status
shall undergo a mandatory 1 Year
probationary period.
80. The institution of a criminal action or
complaint against a police officer is
A. A ground for dismissal
B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss
Page 8 of 43
 D. Not a bar to promotion
 Pursuant to RA 9708, “…In addition, the
institution of a criminal action or complaint
against a police officer shall not be a bar to
promotion
81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or
elements of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement
of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and
bringing the offenders to justice
A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D.
Employment
 Deployment- shall mean the orderly and
organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province, city
or municipality for purposes of employment
82. What is the first step in making a plan?
A. Frame of reference
B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Selling the plan
83. It identify the role of police in the
community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans
B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning
D. Incremental Planning
 STRATEGIC PLANS – are designed to meet
the long-range, overall goals of the
organization.
 SYNOPTIC PLANNING (Rational
comprehensive approach) – is the dominant
tradition in planning. It is also the point of
departure for most other planning
approaches. It is base on “pure” or
“objective” rationality and attempts to
assure optimal achievement of desired goals
from a given situation. It relies heavily on
the problem identification and analysis
phase of planning process.
 INCREMENTAL PLANNING – this approach
disfavors the exclusive use of planners who
have not direct interest in the problems at
hand and favors a sort of decentralized
political bargaining that involves interested
parties.
84. The organizational structure of the PNP is
__________.
A. Line C. Staff
B. Functional D. Line and
staff
 Line – oldest and simplest kind; few
departments
 Functional – according to functions of the
organization
85. It is the process of developing methods or
procedure or an arrangement of parts intended
to facilitate the accomplishment of a definite
objective.
A. Management C. Functioning
B. Budgeting D. Planning
86. Refers to any offense committed by a
member of the PNP involving and affecting
order and discipline within the police
organization.
A. Breech of Internal Discipline
B. Citizens Complaint
C. Minor Offense
D. Any of these
 Minor Offense -shall refer to an act or
omission not involving moral turpitude but
affecting the internal discipline of the PNP
 Citizen’s Complaints- pertains to any
complaint initiated by a private citizen or his
duly authorized representative on account of
an injury, damage or disturbance sustained
due to an irregular or illegal act committed
by a member of the PNP.
87. Which of the following is NOT a function of
police personnel unit?
A. Preparing policy statements and standard
operating Procedures relating to all areas
of the administration of human resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other
line officials regarding personnel matters
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning
officers to identify, and subsequently
correct, unsatisfactory working conditions
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to
the exclusive ranks
88. It refers to the process of screening out or
eliminating undesirable applicants that do not
meet the organization’s selection criteria
A. Promotion C. Recruitment
B. Transfer D. Selection
 Recruitment – it is the process of
attracting candidates who have the
maximum qualifications to be eligible for the
selection procedure.
89. It is recognized as the best method of filing
A. Pigeon Hole
B. Retrieval operation
C. Records Management
D. Chain of custody
90. It is considered to be the heart of any
identification system; it provides positive
identification of the criminal
A. Arrest and booking report
B. Miscellaneous Records
C. Identification records
D. Fingerprint Records
91. The payment of Missing Uniformed
Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for
the heirs is for a maximum of how many
months?
A. 1 year C. 2 months
B. 30 Days D. 12 months
 Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL)
- Failure to report for duty without official
notice for a period of THIRTY (30) DAYS
92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____
number of hours of classroom training should be
required for newly promoted supervisory
personnel
 A. 72 hours C. 80 99. The operational support unit of the PNP shall
hours function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit
B. 75 hours D. 85 to augment police forces for civil disturbance
hours control, counter-insurgency, hostage taking,
93. It should be proactive, people oriented, rescue operations and other special operations:
based on individual need, and delivered in such A. NARCOM C. SAF
a way as to motivate the experienced officer to B. SWAT D. SOCO
a higher degree of
professionalism/professionalization 100. The primary objective of Philippine National
A. Recruit Training Police:
B. Specialized training A. Law Enforcement C. Peace
C. In Service and Order
D. Field Training B. Protect and Serve D. Crime
Prevention
94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade
possessing the entire mandatory and other 101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms
consideration in promotion, is what kind of are not allowed to possess except when there is
promotion? an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as
A. Promotion by Virtue of Position determined by proper authority, but shall not
B. Regular Promotion exceed ______ of the total number of security
C. Meritorious Promotion guards.
D. Promotion A. 50% C. 20%
B. 30% D. 10%
95. It involves assistance and action by non
police agencies such as Local Safety Council for 102. The vault door should be made of steel at
Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile least __________ in thickness?
Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans A. 7 inches C. 9 inches
and Civil defense plans B. 6 inches D. 20 feet
A. Management Plans or more
B. Procedural plan
C. Tactical Plans Specifications of Vault
D. Extra departmental plan
 Doors should be 6 inches thick made of
96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of steel
metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible  Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12
evidence of an award: inches thick
A. Medal C. Awards  Floor should be elevated by 4 inches
B. Decorations D. Ribbons  Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size
 Vault door must be fire-resistive up to 4 to
 Award — anything tangible granted to an 6 hours
individual in recognition of acts of gallantry
or heroism, meritorious service or skill and 103. An act or condition, which results in a
proficiency. situation conducive to a breach of the protection
 Decoration — a piece of metal/material system, or that, could result to loss.
representing an award. A. Hazards C. Human Hazards
B. Natural Hazards D. Security
97. For every _______ letters of commendation, a Hazards
medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP Kinds of Security Hazard
member:
A. Six C. Four  Human Hazard – is the act or condition
B. Five D. Three affecting the safe operation of the facility
caused by human action.
98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful  Natural Hazard – is the act or situation
exaction, domination, or excessive use of caused by natural phenomenon, like
authority: floods, typhoons, earthquakes, etc.
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty
B. Incompetency D. Oppression 104. An inquiry into the character, reputation,
discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an
 Misconduct generally mans wrongful, individual in order to determines person
improper, or unlawful conduct, motivated by suitability for appointment or access to
premeditated, obstinate or intentional classified matter.
purpose. It usually refers to transgressions
or some established and definite rule of A. Local Agency check
action B. Background Investigation
 Incompetency — is the manifest lack of C. National Agency Check
adequate ability and fitness for the D. Personnel Security Investigation
satisfactory performance, of police duties.
 Dishonesty — is the concealment or  National Agency Check- It consists of LAC
distortion of the truth in a matter or act supplemented by investigation of the
relevant to one’s office, or connected with records and files of the following agencies:
the performance of his duties. PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of Immigration
and Deportation and other agency.

Page 10 of 43
 Local Agency Check- Refers to the Line Leadership Staff
investigation of the records and files of  Security Supervisor 3- Detachment
agency in the area of principal residence of Commander- the field or area commander
the individual being investigated like Mayor, of the agency.
Police, Fiscal, Judge.  Security Supervisor 2- Chief Inspector-
 Background Investigation – a check made responsible for inspecting the entire area
on an individual usually seeking employment coverage by the detachment.
through subjects records in the police files,  Security Supervisor 1- Inspector-
educational institutions, place of residence, responsible for the area assigned by the
and former employers. chief inspector or the detachment
commander.
105. The importance of the firm or installation
with reference to the national economy security. 111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is
A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4
program point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire
B. Relative criticality D. Relative fencing should not be less than ___ high
security excluding the top guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
 Relative Vulnerability – is the B. 7 feet D. 6 feet
susceptibility of the plant or establishment
to damage, loss or disruption of operation
due to various hazards.
Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
106. Private security agencies have to be
registered with the: Specifications
A. SEC C. DTI
B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD  Standard barbed wire is twisted double
strand, 12 gauge wires, with 4 point barb
 Trade name of the Security Agencies must spaced on equal distant part.
be registered at the Department of Trade  Barbed wire fencing should not be less than
and Industry 7 feet high, excluding the top guard.
 Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed to
107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a post not more than 6 feet apart.
certain facility what must be constructed.  The distance between strands will not
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence exceed 6 inches and at least one wire will be
B. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences interlock vertical and midway between
posts.
 Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence
that provides visual access through the 112. Who exercises the power to remove, for
fence. cause, license issued to security guards.
108. A private security Guard who is escorting a A. Any of these
big amount of money or cash outside his area of B. Secretary, DILG
jurisdiction shall be issued with a- C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail D. C/PNP
Order
B. Mission Order D. None of These 113. What type of alarm is best suited for doors
and windows?
109. What is the duration of the Basic Security A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
Guard Course? B. Metallic foil D. Vibration
A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours Detection
B. 72 Hours D. 300
Hours  Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device - A
light beam connected by a wire to control
Classification and Duration Period of station and when an intruder crosses the
training beam he breaks the contact with the
photoelectric coil which thus activates the
 Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-Licensing alarm.
Training Course)- 150 Hours  Audio Detection Device - It is a
 Re-Training Course- 48 Hours supersensitive microphone speaker sensor
 Security Officers Training Course- 300 that is installed in walls, ceilings, and floors
Hours of the protected area, Any sound caused by
 Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours attempted forced entry is detected by file
 Security Supervisor Development Course censor.
 Other Specialized Training Course  Vibration detection device - Any
vibration caused by attempted force entry is
110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership detected by the sensor.
staff:
114. Is the process of conducting physical
A. Detachment Commander examination to determine compliance with
B. Chief Inspector establishment security policies and procedures?
C. Post-in-Charge A. Security Education C. Security
D. Security Supervisor 1 Inspection
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey

Security Planning- Is a corporate and
executive responsibility. It involves knowing the
objectives of the security and the means and
the method to reach those objectives or goal
must then evolve.
 Security Survey- Is the process of
conducting an exhaustive physical
examination and thorough inspection of all
operation system and procedures of a
facility
 Security Education - The basic goal is to
acquaint all the employees the justification
behind the security measures and to insure
cooperation at all times.
115. What is the last phase of Security
Education?
A. Initial Interview C.
Conference
B. Dissemination D. Security
promotion
Phases of Security Education
 Initial Interview
 Training Conference
 Refresher Conference
 Security Reminders
 Security Promotion
 Special Interview
 Debriefing
116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or
electronic device designed to prevent entry into
a building, room container, or hiding place, and
to prevent the removal of items without the
consent of the owner
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination
Locks
 Padlock- A portable and detachable lock
having or sliding hasp which passes through
a staple ring or the like and is then made
fast or secured.
 Code-Operated Locks - They are open by
pressing a series of numbered buttons in the
proper sequence.
 Combination Locks - A lock that requires
manipulation of dials according to a
predetermined combination code of
numbers or letters
117. A type of protective alarm system where
the protective alarm located outside the
installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central
Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
 Local Alarm by chance System - This is a
local alarm in which a siren or bell is
sounded with no predicable Response.
 Auxiliary System - In this system
installation circuits are led into local police
or fire department by lease telephone line
 Proprietary System - It is the same as the
central station system except that it is
owned by, operated and located in the
facility
118. In which the badge or pass coded for
authorization to enter specific areas issued to
an employees who keeps it in the possession
until his authorization is change or until he
terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange
system
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass
System
 Pass Exchange System- Which he
exchange one-color coded pass at the
entrance to the controlled area is issued to
an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization or until he terminates.
 Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of
passes are issued to an individual with the
same photograph. The individual exchange
his badge for another color or markings at
the entrance. Once inside, if he needs to
enter a restricted area, he exchanges it for
another color acceptable in that area.
119. It is placed on the floor in such a position
that tellers may activate the alarm by placing
the front of their foot to engage the activation
bar
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze
Button
 Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency
Activation, when currency is removed from
the devices, the alarm is activated.
 Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed
inside the deck or teller station so they can
be activated by knee or thigh pressure.
 Double Squeeze Button - It requires
pressure on both side of the device and
therefore the probability of accidental alarm
is reduced.
120. These are wide beam units, used to extend
the illumination in long, horizontal strips to
protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier;
it projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to
30 degrees in the vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights C.
Floodlights
B. Street Lights D. Search lights
 Floodlights - projects light in a
concentrated beam. Best used in
boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise
known as reflectorized or spotlight.
 Searchlights - highly focused incandescent
lamps used in pinpointing potential
 Street Lights - produced diffused light
rather than direction beam.
121. The following Firearms are allowed to be
issued to a private security guard under normal
condition:
I. Cal .50;
II. Cal .45;
III. Cal .38;
IV. Magnum .22; and
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.
A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V
B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III,
IV, V
Page 12 of 43
122. What is the required capital investment for 129. The maximum number of firearms allowed
organization of private security agency? to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000 units.
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000 A. 30 C. 500
B. 70 D. 1000
New applicants to operate shall be required to
obtain a minimum capitalization of ONE Use of Firearms
MILLION (P1, 000, 000.00) pesos with a
minimum bank deposit of FIVE  Number of firearms shall not exceed one
HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00) (1) for every two (2) Security Guard. (1:2)
pesos in order to start its business  For Temporary licensed, one hundred (100)
operations. guards, an initial of at least 30 licensed
123. One who steals with preconceived plans firearms.
and takes away any or all types of items or  For regular licensed two hundred guards
supplies for economic gain? (200), at least 70 pieces of licensed
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer firearms.
B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic
pilferer 130. What type of gaseous discharge lamp
emits a blue- green color?
 Casual Pilferer – one who steals due to his
inability to resist the unexpected opportunity A. Sodium vapor lamp
and has little fear of detection. B. Mercury vapor lamp
C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp
124. The metallic container used for securing D. Quartz lamp
documents or small items in an office or  Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of Gaseous
installation refers to: Discharge lamp that emit Yellow Light.
A. Safe C. File room  Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very
B. Vault D. None of these bright white light and instant on almost
as rapidly as the incandescent lamp.
125. Chain link fences must be constructed  Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very
in______ material excluding the top guard? economical to use but for industrial
A. Seven feet C. Four feet security it is not acceptable due to long
B. Six feet D. Five feet time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5
minutes to light.
Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)  Incandescent Lamps- These are
Specifications common light bulbs that are found in
every home. They have the advantage of
 Must be constructed in 7 feet material providing instant illumination
excluding the top guard
 Must be of 9 gauge or heavier 131. What type of security deals with the
 Mesh opening must not be larger than 2 industrial plants and business enterprises where
inches personnel, processes, properties and operations
are safeguarded?
126. The following things are used as barrier, A. Personal security C. Operational
which serves as a deterrent to the possible security
intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT: B. industrial security D. bank
A. Human C. Doors security
B. Fences D. NONE
 Personal Security- Involves the
127. Vaults are storage devices which are protection of top-ranking officials of the
usually designed to be at least _______fire government, visiting persons of
resistant. illustrious standing and foreign
A. 3 hours C. 6 hours dignitaries. Also called VIP security.
B. 24 hours D. 12 hours  Operational Security- This involves the
protection of processes, formulas, and
128. A lock which is commonly installed in safe patents, industrial and manufacturing
deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it activities from espionage, infiltration,
is operated by utilizing combinations by means loss, compromise or photocopying.
of a dial.  School Security- Security involving not
A. None C. Card Operated only facilities but also the students or
Locks pupils.
B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler
locks 132. The following are principles of Physical
Security, EXCEPT:
 Card-Operated Locks - Coded card
notched, embossed or containing an A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
embedded pattern of copper flocks. B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously
 Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as wafer entry.
tumbler type, has flat metal tumblers with C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
open center fitted into lock case, commonly D. Intelligence requires continuous
used for Automobile Industry which affords security measures.
delay up to 7 to 10 minutes.
133. For a Security agency, how much is the
registration fee for each security guard?
 A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo
Php
Payment of fees and licenses
 For Agency
 The sum of two thousand pesos (P
2,000.00) as national license fee
payable to the National Treasurer.
 The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00) as
payment for registration fee for each
security guard employed.
 For Individual
 One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per year
for Security Consultant,Security Officer
and Private Detectives
 Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for
Security Guard payable at the Chief
Finance Office, HQ PNP.
134. Security Clearance is a certification by a
responsible authority that the person described
is cleared to access and classify matters at
appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
valid for a period of____ from the date of
issuance.
A. 1 year C. 4 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years
 Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years
135. The term used in England for lock pickers,
safecrackers and penetrators of restricted areas
or room.
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
B. Thug D. Peterpan
136. The tenure of a security guard is:
A. Six Months
B. Co-terminus with the service contract
C. Two years
D. Contractual
137. Which among the following is not an
advantage of a full-view fence, except:
A. It allows visual access to the installation
which aids the intruder in planning
B. It allows the intruder to become familiar
with the movements of persons in the
installation.
C. It creates shadows which could
prevent concealment of the intruder.
D. None of these
138. Every registered PSA are mandatory to
give surety bond which shall answer for any
valid and legal claims against such agency filed
by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety
bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000
 Surety Bond
o Agency with 1-199 guards – P 50,000.00
o Agency with 200-499 guards –
P100,000.00
o Agency with 500-799 guards –
P150,000.00
o Agency with 800-1000 guards –
P200,000.00
This bond shall answer for any valid and legal
claims against such agency filed by aggrieved
party.
139. What type of investigation involves all
aspect and details about the circumstances of a
person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
 Partial Background Investigation -
investigation of the background of the
individual but limited only to some of the
circumstances of his personal life.
140. The exposure and the teaching of
employees on security and its relevance to their
work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security
Education
B. Security Orientation D. Security
Survey
141. It is under physical security which provides
sufficient illumination to areas during hours of
darkness.
A. Protective Lighting C. Standby
Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable
Lighting
 Standby Lighting- This system is similar to
continuous lighting but it is turn on manually
or by special device or other automatic
means.
 Moveable Lighting- This consist of
stationary or portable, manually operated
searchlights. The searchlights may be
lighted continuously during the hours of
darkness nor only as needed, it is just a
supplementary to other protective or
security Lighting.
 Emergency Lighting- This standby lighting
may be utilized in the event of electric
failure, either due to local equipment or
commercial failure.
 Stationary Luminary- This is a common
type consisting of series of fixed luminous
flood a given area continuously with overlap
142. In order to be qualified as a Security
Consultant, you must have ____ year/s
experience in the operation and management of
security business.
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10
years
B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years
143. What is the ratio of the security guard to
their licensed firearm is needed after operating
for six months.
A. 1:3 C. 1:2
B. 1:5 D. 1:1
144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is
useful in areas where insects predominate?
A. Mercury vapor lamp
Page 14 of 43
 B. Sodium vapor Lamp A. Partially Correct C. Partially
C. Quartz lamp Wrong
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely
Wrong
 Amber color does not attract insects at
night. 153. It refers to any structure or physical device
capable of restriction, deterring or delaying
145. What is an act governing the organization illegal access to an installation.
and management of private security agency, A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier
company guard force and government B. Barrier D. Energy
security forces? Barrier
A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487  Perimeter Barrier- A medium or structure
which defines the physical limits of an
146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link installation or area to restrict or impeded
or concertina. Chain link are for ______. access thereto
 Animal Barrier – Animals are used in
A. Solid structure partially providing a guarding system like
B. Permanent structure dogs and geese.
C. Least permanent structure  Energy Barrier – It is the employment of
D. Semi- permanent structure mechanical, electrical, electronic energy
imposes a deterrent to entry by the potential
 Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent) intruder.
 Concertina Wire Fences (Least
Permanent) 154. It is normally provided at main perimeter
entrances to secure areas located out of doors,
147. It is more comprehensive investigation and manned by guards on a full time basis.
than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
and complete investigation of all or some of the B. Tower Guard D. Control Stations
circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is
conducted?  Tower/Guard Tower – house-like
structures above the perimeter barriers.
A. Personnel Security Investigation It gives a psychological effect to
B. Background Investigation violators.

C. Partial Background Investigation 155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or
D. Complete Background Investigation uniform member of the PNP honorably
discharged/separated or retired from the service
148. The unobstructed area maintained on both are exempted from the requirements of a
sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and private detective. The statement is-
interior parallel area to afford better observation A. False C. Absolutely
of the installation refers to: True
A. Clear zone C .Complimentary B. Partially True D. Maybe False
zone
B. Open zone D. Free zone 156. The following are the areas to be lighted:
a. Parking Areas;
b. Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and
e. Susceptible Areas.
149. The extension period for a license to
operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d
required minimum number of guards is: B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c,
A. 1 month C. 6 d, e
months
B. 2 years D. 1 year 157. An additional overhead of barbed wire
placed on vertical perimeter fences fencing
150. Which of the following types of lock is upwards and outward with a 45* angle with
generally used in car doors? three to four strands of barbed wires spread 6”
A. Warded lock C. Lever lock apart.
B. Disc tumbler lock D. Combination A. Top guard C. Fence Top
lock B. Barbed Wire D. None of these

151. Which among the following aspects of
Security is the weakest of them all?
A. Physical security
B. Personnel security
C. Personal Security
D. Document and information security
158. When are security guards deputized by the
PNP Chief or local mayor to have police
authority within their assigned area of
responsibility?

152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The

statement is-
A. When there is an employee’s strike 5. Honorably discharged military/police
B. When the company is in retrenchment personnel.
C. During times of emergency
D. When there is a crime committed inside the A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
establishment B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5
159. It refers to records that are irreplaceable;
reproduction of this record does not have the 165. The minimum age requirement for Security
same value as the original. Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old
A. Vital Documents B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
B. Important Documents
C. Useful Documents  18 years Old- minimum age
D. Non- Essential Documents qualification for SG.
 50 years Old – Maximum age
Types of Documents qualification for SG.

 Class II – Important Documents- This
includes records, the reproduction of which
will close considerable expense and labor, or
considerable delay.
 Class III – Useful Document- This include
records whose loss might cause
inconvenience but could b readily replaced
and which would not in the meantime
present an insurmountable obstacle
 Class IV – Non-essential Documents-
These records are daily files, routine in
nature even if lost or destroyed, will not
affect operation or administration. This class
represents the bulk of the records which
should not be attempted to protect.
160. It is the importance of firm with reference
to the national economy and security.
A. Relative Operation
B. Relative Security
C. Relative Vulnerability
D. Relative Criticality of Operation
161. A new Private security agency that has
been issued a temporary license to operate is
good for how many years?
A. One C. Two
B. Three D. Four
 PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular
license to operate good for two (2) years
162. The removal of the security classification
from the classified matter.
A. Segregation C. Declassify
B. Reclassify D. Exclusion
163. The form of security that employs
cryptography to protect information refers to:
A. Document and information security
B. Operational security
C. Communication security
D. Industrial security
164. The following are exempted from Pre-
licensing training.
1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws
2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science
in Criminology;
3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or
any PNP training school;
4. Veterans and retired military/police
personnel; and
166. The following are the categories of
automatic alarm system, EXCEPT:
A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye
Device
B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps
167. Which of the following is NOT a false key?
A. picklock or similar tool .
B. A duplicate key of the owner.
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
D. Any key other than those intended by
the owner.
168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs.
B. 1000 lbs. D. 600
lbs.
169. The minimum number of guards required
for a company security force is:
A. 1000 C. 30
B. 100 D. 200
 For PSAs – a minimum of two hundred
(200) and maximum of one thousand
(1,000).
170. It refers to a system use in big installation
whereby keys can open a group of locks.
A. Key Control C. Master Keying
B. Change Key D. Grand Master
Key
 Key control- is the management of keys in
a plant or business organization to prevent
unauthorized individual access to the keys.
 Change key - A key to single lock within a
master keyed system.
 Sub-Master Key - A key that will open all
the locks within a particular area or
grouping in a given facility.
 Master Key - A special key capable of
opening a series of locks.
 Grand Master Key - A key that will open
everything involving two or more master key
groups.
171. PADPAO stands for:
A. Philippine Association of Detective and
Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective
Agency Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and
Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and
Protective Associations Operators, Inc.

Page 16 of 43
172. It refers to a protection against any type of 180. File room is a cubicle in a building
crime to safeguard life and assets by various constructed a little lighter than a vault but
methods and device. bigger size. One of the specifications of file
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter room should be ___feet high.
Security A. 12 C. 36
B. Operational Security D. Security B. 24 D. 48

173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a Specifications of File Room
security officer.
 Should be 12 feet high
A. Has graduated from a Security Officer  Interior cubage should not be more than
Training Course. 10,000 cubic feet
B. Holder of Masters Degree.  Water-tight door, fire-proof for 1 hour
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
D. Physically or mentally fit. 181. Concertina wire should be ______ feet long
and 3 feet diameter.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
174. These provides access within the perimeter B. 30 feet D. 50 feet
barrier and should be locked and guarded.
182. What type of security lighting is focused to
A. Gates and Doors the intruder while the guard remains in the
B. Side-Walk Elevator comparative darkness?
C. Utilities Opening A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
D. Clear Zones B. Emergency lighting D. Glare-
projection
175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of  Controlled Lighting Type- The lighting
security, with the corresponding is focused on the pile of items, rather
recommendation is: than the back ground.
A. security inspection C. security
education 183. What is the system of natural or man-
B. security training D. security survey made barriers placed between the potential
intruder and the object, person and matter
176. What unit of PNP handles the processing being protected?
and issuances of license for private security
personnel? A. Communication security
A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED B. Document security
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD C. Physical security
D. Barrier
177. What is the most common type of human
hazard? 184. The following are the purposes of Security
A. Sabotage C. Pilferage Survey, EXCEPT:
B. Theft D. Subversion A. To ascertain the present economic
status
178. What is the security force maintained and B. To determine the protection needed
operated by any private company/ corporation C. To make recommendations to improve the
for its own security requirements? overall security
A. GSU C. CSF D. None of these
B. PSA D. PD
185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License
Types of Security Guard Certificate document which is issued by
____________ authorizing a person to engage in
 Private Security- A security guard hired by employing security guard or detective, or a
client belonging to private security agency. juridical person to establish, engage, direct,
 Government Security- A security guard manage or operate a private detective agency.
recruited and employed by the government A. Secretary of DILG
B. Chief, PNP
C. Security and Exchange Commission
D. President
179. What type of controlled area requires
highest degree of security? 186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire
A. Limited C. Restricted fence is that the distances between strands will
B. Special D. Exclusive not exceed _______and at least one wire will be
interlock vertical and midway between posts.
 Restricted Area - It refers to an area in A. 3 inches C. 6
which personnel or vehicles are controlled inches
for reasons of security. B. 4 inches D. 7 inches
 Limited Area - It is a restricted area in
which lesser degree of control is required 187. Clear Zone of _______ must be established
than in an exclusion area but which the between the perimeter barrier and structure
security interest would be compromised by within the protected areas.
uncontrolled movement. A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or
more
 B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet 192. Any physical structure whether natural or
or more man-made capable of restricting, deterring or
delaying illegal or unauthorized access.
20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
and exterior structure. (Outside) B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier

188. Which among the following statements is 193. A company owned protective alarm with
FALSE? unit in a nearest police station of fire
department.
A. Protective Lighting diminish A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary
visibility so that intruders can be Alarm
seen, identified or apprehend. B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for
guards to identify employees during 194. It is Lighting equipment which produced
night time. diffused light rather than direction beam. They
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological are widely used in parking areas
fear, which serves as a deterrent. A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights
number of stationary guards.
195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses shall
189. The highest rank in security agency cease to operate, and with ____ days after
organizational structure: having been duly notified of such cease
operation order, shall immediately deposit all its
A. Security Executive Director firearms with the FEO.
B. Chief Security Director A. 7 days C. 21 days
C. Security Staff Director B. 3 days D. 30 days

D. Security Staff Director 196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the

Security Management Staff
 Security Director (SD)-Agency
Manager/Chief Security officer-
responsible for the entire operation and
administration/management of the security
agency
 Security Executive Director (SED) -
Assistant agency manager/Assistant
chief security officer- automatically the
security executive director, assists the
agency security director and takes
operational and administrative management
when the manager is absent.
 Security Staff Director (SSD) - Staff
director for operation and
administration- He is also responsible for
the conduct of investigation and training.
190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar
resistance container usually a part of the
building structure use to keep, and protect cash,
documents and valuables materials.
A. Vault C. Safe
B. File Room D. None of
these
sudden rise in temperature will not cause the
safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000
0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening
then it has passed the test.
A. Fire Endurance Test
B. Fire and Impact Test
C. Burning Test
D. Explain Hazard Test
Test for Fire Resistance
 Fire Endurance Test- A safe should not
have any one time a temperature 350 0F.
 Fire and Impact Test- Its objective is to
determine the strength of a safe to resist
the collapse of a building during fire.
197. Services of any security personnel shall be
terminated on the following grounds:
1. Expiration of contract;
2. Revocation of license to exercise
profession;
3. Conviction of crime involving moral
turpitude;
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and
5. Physical and mental disability.

A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and
191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after 5
his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his
Firearm?
198. For every security guard the basic load of
A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the their Firearm is-
company’s Vault. A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds
B. Turnover to the next security guard B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited
on duty.
C. Bring home the firearms for easy  50 rounds- basic load of a firearm
responses.
199. The following are the specifications of a
D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of
Vault:
the guards table.
I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches
thick;
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;

Page 18 of 43
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of 204. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon
steel; and reaching the end of the line beat, and before
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches. returning to the point of origin.
A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation
A. I, III, IV C. I, II, III Report
B. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
IV
Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty
200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any
activities to test its validity. 205. The ideal police response time is:
A. Practice C. Dry run A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
B. Rehearsal D. Trial B. 7 minutes D. 10
minutes
201. A fixed point or location to which an officer
is assigned for duty: 206. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition
A. Post C. Beat possessing a high potential for criminal attack
B. Area D. Route or for the creation of problem necessitating a
demand for immediate police service:
 Route - the length of street or streets, A. Hazard C. Opportunity
designated for patrol purposes also B. Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard
referred to as line beat.
 Beat - an area designed for patrol  Hazard – it refers to any person, place,
purposes, whether foot or motorized. thing, situation, or condition which, if
 Sector - an area containing two or more allowed to exist may induce an accident or
beats, routes or posts. cause the commission of a crime.
 District - a geographical subdivision of a
city for patrol purposes, usually with its 207. The most expensive patrol method and
own station. gives the greatest opportunity to develop
 Area - A section or territorial division of sources of information is:
a large city. A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol
202. The patrol strategy which employs bait or
distracter to in order to catch criminals is known 208. Walking closed to the building at night is a
as: tactic in patrol which makes the policemen less
A. High visibility patrol visible during the night. The primary purpose is:
C. Target Oriented patrol
B. Low visibility patrol A. To surprise criminals in the act of
D. Decoy patrol committing a crime
B. To have sufficient cover
 Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is C. To attract less attention
designed to increase the number of D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
apprehension of law violator to engage in
certain types of crimes 209. The following are included in the cause and
 High Visibility – Marked police Car and effect of team policing.
Poilce inj Uniform. Primary objective is
Crime Prevention. a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
 Target Oriented Patrol - It is patrol c. Facilitate career development;
strategy which is directed towards d. Diminish police morale; and
specific persons or places. e. Improve police community relation.

203. Barangay Tanod is included in what A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e

component of Integrated Patrol System? B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e

A. Fixed Component 210. This patrol tactic differs from traditional

B. Auxiliary Component patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol
C. Secondary Component officers perform specific predetermined
D. Patrol Component preventive functions on a planned systematic
basis:
 Fixed Components - include the
different police station headquarters, A. Target Oriented Patrol
PCP, police visibility points, and traffic
post. B. High-Visibility Patrol
 Patrol Components - include the air C. Low-Visibility Patrol
patrols; the line beat patrols, mobile D. Directed deterrent Patrol
patrols and detective repressive
211. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s
patrols.
area can be best penetrated by the police
 Auxiliary Components - include the
through.
security guards deployed in area, the
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
traffic enforcer, barangay tanods,
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter
volunteers and NGO’s.
patrol
212. Integrated patrol system is the total Designate and select the members of the
system used to accomplish the police visibility patrol team/s;
program of the PNP. The Police officers in Police Inspect the members of the patrol on the
Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with completeness;
prescribed divisions of: Render hourly report of location and
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts situation; and
B. 3 shifts D. every other Resolve conflicts/differences between
day shift. neighbours.

213. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV
totally prevent the desire of human being to B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,
commit crime.
220. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired
A. Preventive C. Proactive
upon, except when its occupants pose imminent
B. Reactive D. High Visibility
danger of causing death or injury to the police
 Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol officer or any other person, and that the use of
personnel in their respective Area of firearm does not create a danger to the public
Responsibility with definite objectives. and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use.
 Reactive Patrol- An old concept in In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following
patrolling wherein officers and units drive parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
around their area of responsibility waiting
for something to happen or waiting for a A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
call that they will respond. suspect/s with the police officer and other
persons.
214. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
of ________________ since they can be operated harm in certainty the police officer or other
very quietly and without attracting attention. persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
A. Mobility and wide area coverage. the police officer or other p
B. Reduced speed and greater area D. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing
covered. suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
D. Mobility and stealth 221. When Patrol officer visually observe a
weapon during pat-down search, a more secure
215. What is the most excellent method of search position may be:
Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol A. Standing position
B. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol B. Lying Face down Position
C. Hands placed against a stationary object,
216. When was the first automobile patrol and feet spread apart.
initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief of D. All of these
the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police
Department was Isaias Alma Jose? 222. All except one are the types of specialized
A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954 patrol method:
B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917 A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
B. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol
217. As a Patrol officer, when checking
suspicious persons, places, buildings/ 223. A uniformed patrol officers work in
establishments and vehicles especially during generally judged by his-
night-time, be prepared to use your service
firearm and Flashlight should be- i. Knowledge of all problems in the community
ii. Residents developed good public relations
A. Nearby the body, to have an easy iii. Ability
searching of a possible target. iv. His capability to solve crimes that happened
B. Tightly away from the body to avoid in his area
making you a possible target.
C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten 224. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful
possible adversary. assemblies?
D. None of these A. True C. False
B. Absolutely Yes D.
Absolutely No

225. In Police Radio System, What frequency is

needed in the police department?
218. What is your priority as a Patrol officer
when responding to Calls for Police Assistance? A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds
A. Arrest criminals C. Securing B. 30 – 300 MHz
the area C. Above 30 MHz
B. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money D. NONE
219. The following are the duties of Patrol  Radio waves- The radio or electromagnetic
Supervisors: waves travel as fast as the speed of light at
Make a patrol plan;

Page 20 of 43
 186, 000 miles per second or 300, 000
kilometers per second.
 30 – 300 MHz – intended for short
distances transmission.
226. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D. It is the single largest unit in the police
department that can be eliminated
227. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance,
parades and special events.
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot
Patrol
B. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat Patrol
 Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when then
there is considerable foot movement such
as business and shopping center, family
dwellings and the like.
o Line beat patrol – it is used in
securing certain portion of the road.
o Random foot Patrol – It is used in
checking residential buildings, business
establishments, dark alley, and parking
lots.
228. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
229. This type of patrol maintains better
personal contact with the members of the
community ideal in gaining the trust and
confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
 Automobile Patrol - It separates public
from the Police.
230. The patrol pattern which is usually done at
the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing
happened in the area of responsibility of the
patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
 Clockwise Patrol Pattern -
Rectangular/square size of beat; done in the
start of 8 hours tour of duty.
 Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern -
Done by patrolling the streets within the
perimeter of the beat not at random but with
definite target location where he knows his
presence is necessary.
 Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol
Pattern - Hazard oriented patrol; Easiest to
observe the movement of the patrol officer.
 Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway
intersection designed to route traffic without
interference, by means of a system of
curving ramps from one level to another, in
the form of a Four (4) leaf clover
231. The following are the advantages of Foot
Patrol. EXCEPT:
A. It involves larger number of personnel
B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It promotes easier detection of crime
232. Dogs are of great assistance in search and
rescue as well as in smelling out drugs and
bombs. What do you call the large dog with
drooping ears and sagging jaws and keenest
smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking
purposes?
A. German shepherd C.
Bloodhounds
B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
 German Shepherd- the most frequently
used and high scoring dog for police work
 WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and
Video Exploration System) – It is the
system of attaching miniature camera and
transmitter to a search dog which makes
the dogs the eyes and ears of his handler.
233. The best method of patrol to be done in
sector is:
A. Foot C. Automobile
B. Bicycle D. Helicopter
234. A supervisor’s span of control is usually
computed in terms of number of:
A. Superiors to whom he reports
B. Superiors from whom he takes orders
C. Subordinates directly reporting to
him
D. Any of these
235. Frequent beat changes prevent a police
officer from becoming _______ with people,
hazards, and facilities on his beat.
A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
B. Energetic D. Unfamiliar
236. The patrol pattern to be followed after the
clockwise and before the counter-clockwise?
A. Straightway C. Crisscross
B. Sector D. Zigzag
237. The two-man patrol became_________ due
to increase attack of police officer by militant,
dangerous section to be patrolled and many
riots demonstration in the street.
A. Unnecessary C. Necessary
B. Voluntary D. Redundant
238. A police strategy which aims to directly
involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
C. Detective Beat System
B. Comparative Police System
D. Community Oriented Policing
System
Integrated Patrol System
 Considered as the best way of immersing
policemen in various activities of a
 particular area and to demonstrate to
the populace the commitment of the
Police to serve and protect the
community.
 It is response to the requirement of
Police Visibility.
Detective Beat System - enhancing the
efficiency and effectiveness of the PNP’s
investigation capability
239. Which among the following routine patrol
duties, is the least likely to become completely
a function of automobile patrol is the checking
of-
A. Security of business establishment.
B. Street light outrages.
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Illegal posting of signs and other
advertisement.
240. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for
patrolmen in areas where police hazards are
serious is that, it usually-
A. Encourages laxness on the part of
Patrolman.
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted
charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.D. Keeps the
patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick
mobilization is needed.
241. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief
in the-
A. Opportunity for graft.
B. Existence of an opportunity to
effectively violate the law.
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized
squads.
242. Team Policing is said to be originated
in________:
A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
B. Vienna, Austria D. London, England
243. They are considered as the first to utilize
dogs for patrolling:
A. Egyptians C. English
B. Chinese D. American
244. Psychology of Omniprescense
means______.
A. Low Visibility C. High
Visibility
B . Reactive D. Proactive
245. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping in
a 13th floor building. Which of the following
should be the first thing to do by the Patrol
officer who first arrived at the scene?
A. Urge no to jump
B. Call nearest relative
C. Clear the area
D. Report immediately to Station
46. What is the most realistic advantage of the
motorcycle patrol over the other patrol
methods?
A. Low cost C. Visibility
B. Speed D. Security
247. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol
officers are different from ordinary Police
Officer.
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of
Police Organization.
3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in
determining the quality of justice to be served in
a community.
4th Statement- All police function had been
vested to the patrol division.
A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct
B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
D. All statements are correct
248. The basic purpose of patrol is most
effectively implemented by police activity
which-
A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol,
with less emphasis on routine.
B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker
aspiration to commit crime.C. Influences
favorable individual and group attitudes in
routine daily associations with the
police.
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s
expectation of apprehension.
249. What is the new concept, police strategy
which integrates the police and community
interests into a working relationship so as to
produce the desired organizational objectives of
peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol C. Community
Relation
B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing
250. What is the appropriate patrol method that
is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-
and-rescue operations?
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
B. Helicopter D. Horse
 Automobile – To carry an Extra equipment
by the Patrol Officers
251. If the external patting of the suspect’s
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
supervisor.
252. During Civil Disturbances, what may be
utilized when demonstrators become unruly and
aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their
secondary positions?
A. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
B. Truncheon D. Shield
 Tear gas - may be utilized to break up
formations or groupings of
demonstrations who continue to be
aggressive and refused to disperse
despite earlier efforts.
253. The factors to be considered in
determining the number of patrol officers to be
deployed in an area are the following:
Page 22 of 43
 a. Size of the area; A. Police Omnipresence
b. Topography;
c. Crime rate and; B. Police Patrol
d. Possible problems to be encountered. C. Police Discretion
D. Integrated Patrol
A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d 261. A patrol beat refers to a:

254. The patrol strategy which is best on A. Number of crimes to be solved

populous areas such as markets, malls, and B. Location of police headquarters
ports is: C. Number of residence to be protected
A. Blending patrol C. Reactive D. Geographical area to be protected
patrol
B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes 262. Team members of the decoy may dress
patrol themselves in a manner designed to help them
blend the neighborhood where they are
255. Going left while patrolling upon reaching deployed.
every intersection until reaching the point of A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely
origin is following what pattern? True
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No
B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross
263. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the
256. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle advantage of:
Patrol:
A. Can report regularly to the command A. One Man Patrol Car
center. B. Two Man Patrol Car
B. Can operate quietly and without C. Foot Patrol
attracting attention. D. Canine Patrol
C. C. It is inexpensive to operate . 264. The least desirable of all police shifts due
to lack of activities:
D. It can cover areas that are not accessible A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
by patrol cars. B. Night Shift D. None of these
257. The following are advantages of the use of 265. Time between the call of the Police to
Radio in Police Work: arrival at the scene of an incident:
A. Response Time C. Call Time
I. Simple Installation Process; B. Duration Time D. Critical Time
II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down;
III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;  Response time - It refers to the running
IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission time of the dispatched patrol car from his
of classified operational information. position where the assignment was received
and the arrival at the scene.
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV 266. The percentage of police officers assigned
in patrol is:
258. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing after A. 20% C. 40%
patrol is- B. 25% D. 50%
A. To integrate the police and the community
interest into a working relationship.B. To remind  Criminal Investigation – 15%
the patrol on the strict observance of the PNP  Traffic Function – 10%
Operational Procedures.  Vice and Juvenile Related Functions –
C. To assess its conduct and make 10%
necessary corrective measures on defects  Administrative Function – 10%
noted.  Auxilliary Functions – 5%
D. All of the Above
267. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting
259. The members of the Patrol teams shall of armed and dangerous person or persons,
form and assemble at the police unit aboard a vehicle or on foot, including the power
headquarters at least _______ before the start of to use all necessary and legal means to
their shift for accounting- accomplish such end.
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes D. 15 A. Dragnet Operation
minutes B. Hasty Checkpoint
C. High-Risk Arrest

D. High Risk Stop

 Dragnet Operation - is a police
260. The police must make an effort to ascertain operation purposely to seal-off the
and amaze upon the law abiding citizens and probable exit points of fleeing suspects
would be criminals alike that the police are from the crime scene to prevent their
always existing to respond to any situation at a escape.
moment’s notice and he will just around the
corner at all times. This statement refers to:
  High Risk Arrest - is the actual B. It enables patrol officers to cover a
restraint of armed persons following a considerable area
high-risk stop. C. Inspire more Public confidence.
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate D. The officer can actually get to know the
response to block the escape of lawless physical layout of his beat better.
elements from a crime scene, and is also
established when nearby checkpoints are 274. The word Patrol was derived from the
ignored or during hot pursuit operations. French word ________which means to go through
paddles.
268. Which among the following activities A. Patroulier C. Patroul
during post-patrol or post-deployment phase is B. Politeia D. Politia
not included?
275. The concept of Unity of command is:
A. Formation & Accounting A. No one should have more than one
B. Inspection & recall of Equipment boss.
C. Debriefing/Report Submission B. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
D. Briefing C. Number of subordinates that a Superior can
effectively supervise.
269. It refers to a computer that is installed D. Conferring certain tasks, duties, and
inside a patrol car which allows patrol officer to responsibilities to subordinates.
have an access from the Headquarters files and
other Law Enforcement Agencies which are used 276. Which among the following Patrol Method
in order to expedite their operation. is appropriate when responding to quick
emergency call?
A. Mobile Data Terminal
A. Motorcycle Patrol C.
Automobile Patrol
B. Vehicle-Mounted TV
B. Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan
D. CCTV
277. The following are the advantages of
Regular post.
 Vehicle-Mounted TV – It refers to a Video
Camera which is attached and installed in a I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly
patrol car with a high-resolution and wide familiar with the various post
angle lens. conditions;
 High Intensity Emergency Lighting II. Patrol officer takes more pride and
Plan – It refers to a heavy duty light that interest in improving the conditions on
can provide two (2) million candle power of his post resulting in better public
light. relations and cooperation from the
residents;
270. The first organized patrol for policing III. Favoritism will be lessened because of
purposes was formed in London. This patrol transitory assignments; and
pattern is usually done at the last hour of duty IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced,
to ascertain that nothing happened in the area since a steady post is an indication of
of responsibility of the patrol? public acceptance of his work.
A. Straight C. Crisscross
B. Clockwise D. Counter A. I, II and III C. I, II, and IV
clockwise B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and
IV
271. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer
garments of an individual for weapons only. 278. Detective Beat System is one of the
A. Frisking C. Search concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing the
B. Spot Check D. Pat-down field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief
Search who introduces this DBS?
A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo
 Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief
Pena
stopping of an individual, whether on foot or
B. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene
in a vehicle, based on reasonable
Sarmiento
suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of
determining the individual’s identity and  Dir. Almajose – First Chief of Mobile
resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning Patrol in Manila.
criminal activity.
279. The type of Patrol which requires special
272. It is one by patrolling the streets within the skills and training:
perimeter of the beat not at random but with A. TV C. Air
definite target location where he knows his B. Automobile D. Foot
presence is necessary.
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag 280. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines
B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross was initiated on:
A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7,
273. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the 1901
following are the advantages of Foot patrol, B. November 22, 1901 D. March 17,
EXCEPT: 1901
A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for
action taken.

Page 24 of 43
 287. The advisable cruising speed in automobile
281. In police communication, 10-74 means: patrol ranges from:
A. Negative C. Need A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph
Assistance B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph
B. Caution D. Unable to copy

Some APCO TEN SIGNALS

288. It is the primary objective of police patrol
 10 – 0 Caution operations:
 10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location
 10 – 50 Accident A. Crime Prevention
 10 – 70 Fire Alarm B. Preservation of Peace and Order
 10 – 78 Need Assistance C. Law enforcement
 10 – 90 Bank Alarm D. All of these

282. This patrol tactic would result to
improvement of police omnipresence:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
283. Police Community Precincts are
mandatorily led by an officer with the rank of
_______ with a minimum of 30 personnel
including the commander divided into 3 shifts.
A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent
B. Supt. To Sr. Supt.
C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt.
D. C/Insp. To Supt.
284. The smelling sense of dog is up to how
many times more sensitive than human’s sense
of smell?
A. One thousand times C. One hundred
times
B. Ten thousand times D. Ten
million times
285. Transfer of knowledge from one person to
another through common medium and channel.
A. Information C.
Communication
B. Police Communication D. Radio
286. Refers to a location where the search,
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate
purposes.
A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined
Area
 Hot Pursuit (Cross Jurisdictional
Pursuit) - (also termed in the US as fresh
pursuit) immediate, recent chase or follow-
up without material interval for the purpose
of taking into custody any person wanted
by virtue of a warrant, or one suspected to
have committed a recent offense while
fleeing from one police jurisdictional
boundary.
 Pre-Determined Area - is the specific or
projected spot where the armed and
dangerous person or persons would pass or
likely to pass and so tactically located as to
gain calculated advantage against said
person or persons.
 Preservation of peace and order - It
is the fundamental obligation of the
Police and it is the most important
function performed by the patrol service
289. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a
patrol strategy called:
A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed Patrol
B. Preventive Patrol D.
Proactive Patrol
290. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a
crime incident faster but undetected, then the
best patrol method that he should employ is:
A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile
patrol
B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
291. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the
act of a person that enables another to victimize
him:
A. Instrumentality C.
Opportunity
B. Motive D. Capability
 Motive - It is the basis why the people will
commit crime or it is what induces the
people to act.
 Instrumentality - it is the means used in
executing the crime
292. The factors to be considered in
determining the number of patrol officers to be
deployed in an area are the following, except:
A. Size of the area
B. Topography
C. Possible problems to be encountered
D. Neither of them
293. The patrol strategy which brings the police
and the people together in a cooperative
manner in order to prevent crime:
A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
294. The theory in patrol which states that
police officers should conduct overt police
operations in order to discourage people from
committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low police visibility theory
C. Low profile theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory
295. The principle of patrol force organization
which states that patrol officers should be under
the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control
 B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command
D. Command responsibility
Organization Principles
 Span of Control - refers to the number
of officers or subordinates that a
Superior supervises without regard to the
effectiveness or efficiency of the
supervision.
 Delegation of Authority - is the
assignment of tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to subordinates while at
the same time giving them the power or
right to control, command, make
decisions, or otherwise act in performing
the delegated responsibilities.
 Chain of Command - the arrangement
of officers from top to bottom on the
basis of rank or position and authority
 Command Responsibility - dictates
that immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective supervision
and control of their personnel and unit.
296. The elimination of the opportunity of
people to commit crime as a result of patrol.
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime intervention
C. Crime suppression
D. Crime deterrence
297. What type of Patrol method is appropriate
when mobility is needed in small alleys?
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
Motorcycle Patrol – mobility in wider area
298. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the
primary objective of patrol activity is:
A. To prevent commission of crime.
B. Integrate the police and the
community
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. Visibility and Omniprescence.
299. The following are benevolent services
performed by the Patrol officers:
I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.
II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
300. All but one are the dogs best suited for
police work except:
A. Askals C. Chihuahua
B. Rottweiler D. All of these
301. What law provides for the creation of the
National Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
A. EO 389 C. EO 1012
B. EO 1040 D. EO 246
 EO 389- ordered that the Philippine
Constabulary be one of the four services of
the Armed Forces of the Philippines, enacted
on December 23, 1940
 EO 1012- transferred to the city and
municipal government the operational
supervision and direction over all INP units
assigned within their locality; issued on July
10, 1985
 EO 1040- transferred the administrative
control and supervision of the INP from the
Ministry of National Defense to the National
Police Commission
302. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer
B. Cryptography D. Code breaker
 Cryptography- It is defined as an art
and science of codes and ciphers.
 Cryptographer- It refers to a person
who is highly skilled in converting
message from clear to unintelligible
forms by use of codes and cipher.
303. Agent who is a member of paramilitary
group organized to harass the enemy in a hot
war situation.
A. Guerilla C.
Propagandist
B. Provocateur D. Strong Arm
Kinds of Action Agent
 Espionage Agent- Agent who
clandestinely procure or collect
information.
 Propagandist- Agents who molds the
attitudes, opinions, and actions of an
individual group or nation.
 Saboteur- Agents who undertakes
positive actions against an unfriendly
power, resulting in the loss of use
temporarily or permanently of an article or
others.
 Strong Arm- Agent who is made to
provide special protection during
dangerous phase of clandestine
operations.
 Provocateur- Agent who induces an
opponent to act to his own detriment
304. It is a type of Cover which alters the
background that will correspond to the
operation.
A. Multiple C. Natural
B. Artificial D. Unusual
 Multiple- Includes different cover
 Natural- Actual or True Background.
305. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
i. Intelligence Officer can submit his
information report any time since it is to
processes.
ii. All intelligence information’s are collected by
clandestine method.
iii. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a
medium size police station.
iv. Patrol Officers can help collect
intelligence information by initiating
good public relations.
Page 26 of 43
306. Wire tapping operations in our country is
strictly prohibited but it can be done at the
commander’s discretion since it tends to collect
intelligence information.
A. Partly True C. Partly False
B. Wholly True D. Wholly False
307. If information comes with a low reliability
and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Maybe Yes C. Yes
B. No D. Maybe No
308. In selection and recruitment of informers
the best factor to be considered is:
A. Age C. Access
B. Educational AttainmentD. Body built
309. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
Wiretapping Act” which prohibits wiretapping in
our country.
A. RA 1700 C. RA 4200
B. RA 7610
D. CA 616
 RA 1700 – Ant-Subversion Act
 CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and
other Offenses against National Security
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children
Against Abuse, Exploitation and
Discrimination Act
310. Security Clearance is a certification by a
responsible authority that the person described
is cleared to access and classify matters at
appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
valid for a period of____ from the date of
issuance.
A. 1 year C. 5 years
B. 2 years D. 4 years
 Final Clearance – 5 years
311. How will you evaluate the intelligence
report of Agent Buanko with an evaluation
rating of D2?
A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true
information
B. Unreliable source – probably true information
C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true
information
D. Not Usually reliable source – probably
true information
312. It is a process or method of obtaining
information from a captured enemy who is
reluctant to divulge information.
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging
B. Elicitation D. Tactical
Interrogation
 Elicitation - The process of extracting
information from a person believes to be in
possession of vital information without his
knowledge or suspicion.
 Bugging - The use of an equipment or tool
to listen and record discreetly conversations
of other people.
 Wiretapping - A method of collecting
information thru interception of telephone
conversation.
313. The term of office of the members of the
PLEB is _______
A. 6 years
B. 3 years
C. 6 years without re-appointment
D. None of the above
314. He directs the organization in conducting
the clandestine activity.
A. Target C. Sponsor
B. Agent D. Support Agent
 Target- Person, place or things against
which the clandestine activity is to be
conducted.
 Agent- It refers to a person who conducts
the clandestine Operations to include
Principal Agents, Action Agents, and Support
Agents.
315. It refers to an associate of the subject who
follows him to detect surveillance.
A. Convoy C. Decoy
B. Subjct D.
Surveillant
 Decoy- A person or object used by the
subject in attempt to elude Surveillant
 Surveillant – is the plainclothes
investigator assigned to make the
observation.
 Subject – is who or what is observed. It can
be a person, place, property, and vehicle,
group of people, organization or object.
316. It is a type of Agent used in collecting
information who leaks false information to the
enemy.
A. Double Agent C. Expendable
Agent
B. Agent of Influence D. Penetration
Agent
Types of Agent used in collecting of
Information
 Agent of Influence- Agent who uses
authority to gain information
 Agent in Place- Agent who has been
recruited within a highly sensitive target
 Penetration Agent- Agent who have
reached to the enemy, gather
information and able to get back without
being caught.
 Double Agent- An enemy agent, who
has been taken into custody, turned
around and sent back where he came
from as an agent of his captors.
317. It is one of the Functional Classification of
Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes
and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of
criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Public Safety Intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
 Internal Security Intelligence (INSINT) –
refers to the knowledge essential to the
maintenance of peace and order.
 Public Safety Intelligence (PUSINT) – A. Number 13:17 C. Number
refers to the knowledge essential to ensure 3:17
the protection of lives and properties B. Number 17:13 D. Number
17:3
318. Intelligence is the end product resulting
from the collection, evaluation, analysis, 322. A certain locality is identified to be a major
integration, and interpretation of all available source of illicit drugs, to resolve this issue
information. What is considered as the core of intelligence officer was deployed to live in the
intelligence operations? area for a considerable amount of time to find
A. Dissemination C. Analysis out the authenticity of such reports.
B. Mission D. Planning A. Social assignments
319. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized B. Work assignments
Military Espionage". C. Organizational assignments
A. Alexander the Great D. Residential assignments
B. Frederick the Great
C. Karl Schulmeister  Work Assignment – getting employed
D. Arthur Wellesley where the investigator can observe the
activities of the subject at his place of work.
 Sir Arthur Wellesly- Regarded as the  Social Assignments – Frequent places of
"Greatest Military Spymaster at All entertainment and amusement habitually
Time". being visited by the subject.
 Karl Schulmeister- famous as  Personal Contact Assignment – the
"Napoleon's Eye". He was credited for investigator required to develop the
establishing counter intelligence friendship and trust of the subject.
conducted against spies.  Multiple Assignment – The investigator is
 Alexander the great - He was able to tasked to cover two (2) or more of the above
identify those disloyal ones by ordering specific assignments simultaneously, it can
the communication letters opened and produce extensive information with
was successful in curtailing the decline of minimum expenses but more prone to
esprit de corps and morale of his men. compromise.
Accuracy of
323. It is a type of intelligence activity which
Reliability of Information Source of the Information
deals with defending the organization against
Informati CODE: CPPDIT
its criminal enemies?
on
A. Line Intelligence C. Counter-
CODE: CUFNUR
Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical
A – Completely Reliable 1 – Confirmed By T – Direct Observation by a
Intelligence
Other Sources commander or Unit

 Line or Tactical Intelligence – it is the

B – Usually Reliable 2 – Probably True U – Report by a penetration or
intelligence information which directly
resident agent contributes to the accomplishment of
specific objectives and immediate in
C - Fairly Reliable 3 – Possibly True V – Report by an AFP trooper or
nature.
PNP personnel in operation  Strategic Intelligence - This is
intelligence information which is not
D – Not Usually Reliable 4 – Doubtfully True W – Interrogation of a captured
immediate operational but rather long
enemy or agent range.

E – Unreliable 5 – Improbable X – Observation by a government 324. What is the evaluation of an intelligence

or civilian employee or official report which is “usually from a reliable source
and improbable information”?
F – Reliability Cannot Be 6 – Truth Cannot Be Y – Observation by a member of A. C-5 C. B-5
Judged Judged populace B. B-3 D. C-3

Z - Documentary EVALUATION GUIDE FOR COLLECTED

INFORMATION
320. There are four categories of classified
matters; top secret, secret, confidential, and
restricted. To distinguish one against the other, REMINDER: You should LEARN BY
their folder consists of different colors. What will HEART this Evaluation Guide
be the color of the document which requires the
highest degree of protection? 325. It is a form of investigation in which the
A. Red C. Black operative assumes a cover in order to obtain
B. Blue D. Green information
A. Overt operation C. Undercover
 Secret (RED) assignment
 Confidential (BLUE) B. Covert operation D. clandestine
 Restricted (BLACK) operation

321. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes 326. What is evaluation of the intelligence
the biblical indication of the beginning of report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which
Intelligence? is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true
information?

Page 28 of 43
 A. D C. C-4
B. C-5 D. D-5
327. The following must be observed during
surveillance:
a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
b. Avoid contact on the subject;
c. Recognize fellow agent;
d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
A. a, c, d C. b, d, e
B. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
328. In surveillance, the following are done to
alter the appearance of the surveillance vehicle,
EXCEPT:
A. Changing license plates of surveillance
vehicle
B. Putting on and removing hats, coats
and sunglasses
C. Change of seating arrangement within the
surveillance vehicle
D. Keep the cars behind the subject car.
329. A _______ is usually for the purpose of
waiting for the anticipated arrival of the suspect
who is either wanted for investigation or who is
expected to commit a crime at a certain
location.
A. Stake out C. Rough
Shadowing
B. Shadowing D. surveillance
 Surveillance – is the covert, discreet
observation of people and places for the
purpose of obtaining information
concerning the identities or activities of
subjects.
 Moving Surveillance or Shadowing or
tailing – simply the act of following a
person.
 Rough Shadowing – employed without
special precautions, the subject maybe
aware of the surveillance; employed also
when the subject is a material witness and
must be protected from harm or other
undesirable influences.
330. In the Intelligence function, the black list
includes ________ forces.
A. Unwanted C. Friendly
B. Neutral D. Unfriendly
331. They are responsible for foreign
intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also
referred as Box 850 because of its old post
office box number.
A. Security Service (MI-5)
B. Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6)
C. Government Communication
Headquarters
D. Defense Intelligence Staff
UK Intelligence Agency
•Security Service (MI-5 or Military
Intelligence Section 5) – Internal Counter-
Intelligence and Security agency also
responsible for internal Security of United
Kingdom.
• Government Communications
Headquarters (GCHQ) - responsible for
providing signals intelligence (SIGINT) and
information assurance to the UK government
and armed forces.
•Defense Intelligence Staff (DIS) - is a
collector of intelligence through its Intelligence
Collection Group (ICG)
332. Known as the Prussia's "King of
Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he studied
the use of propaganda and censorship as well as
utilizing statistical intelligence accounting.
A. Napoleon Bonaparte C. Wilhem
Steiber
B. AKBAR D. Delilah
 Napoleon Bonaparte- "One Spy in the
right place is worth 20,000 men in the
field". He organized two Bureau of Interest.
 Akbar- The "Great Mogul" and wise
master of Hindustan employed more than
4,000 agents for the sole purpose of
bringing him the truth that his throne might
rest upon it.
 Delilah- A biblical personality who was able
to gain information by using her beauty and
charm.
333. If the information or documents are
procured openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis
 Covert Operation – Information are
procured clandestinely
334. Investigation of the records and files of
agencies in the area and residence of the
individual being investigated.
A. CBI C. NAC
B. PBI D. LAC
 National Agency Check- It consists of LAC
supplemented by investigation of the
records and files of the following agencies:
PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of
Immigration and Deportation and other
agency.
 Background Investigation – a check made
on an individual usually seeking employment
through subjects records in the police files,
educational institutions, place of residence,
and former employers.
 Complete Background Investigation- it
is a type of BI which is more comprehensive,
that consist of detailed information
regarding the subject.
335. The end product resulting from the
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
interpretation of all available information
regarding the activities of criminals and other
law violators for the purpose of affecting their
arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan
to commit crimes.
A. Police Intelligence
B. National Intelligence
C. Miltary Intelligence
D. Departmental Intelligence
 National Intelligence- integrated product
of intelligence developed by all government
departments concerning the broad aspect of
national policy and national security.
 Department of Intelligence – the
intelligence required by department or
agencies of the government to execute its
mission and discharge its responsibilities.
 Military Intelligence – refers to the
knowledge by the military institution
essential in the preparation and execution of
military plans, policies and programs.
336. It is considered as the most secured
method of disseminating the information to the
user of classified matters is by means of:
A. Debriefing C. Conference
B. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
337. It refers to the combination of all analyzed
data to form a logical picture or theory.
A. Integration C. Evaluation
B. Recording D. Interpretation
 Recording – is the reduction of
information into writing or some other
form of graphical representation and the
arranging of this information into groups
related items.
 Evaluation – is the determination of the
pertinence of the information to the
operation, reliability of the source of or
agency and the accuracy of the
information.
 Analysis- This is the stage in which the
collected information is subjected to
review in order to satisfy significant facts
and derive conclusion there from.
 Interpretation- Process of determining
the significance of new information in the
possible alternatives.
338. It refers to the person who conducts the
clandestine Operation.
A. Agent C. Support Agent
B. Action Agent D. Principal
Agent
 Principal Agent- Leader or
management Agent in clandestine
operation usually undertaken by the case
officer.
 Support Agent- Agent who is engaged
in activities which supports the
clandestine operations and or the action
agent in his operations
339. It is claimed that 99% of information is
obtained from conspicuous sources and 1% of
information is obtained from clandestine
sources. Clandestine means.
A. Observable C. Overt
B. Visible
D. Covert
340. An E-3 intelligence report means:
A. The information comes from
completely reliable sources and Improbable
true.
B. The information comes from
Unreliable sources and probably true.
C. The information comes from Fairly
Reliable sources and doubtfully true.
D. The information comes from
Unreliable sources and possibly true.
341. The following are methods of Surveillance
Detection, EXCEPT:
A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace
B. Convoy and Watching Procession
C. Entering Crowded buildings and
concealment to movement
D. Retracting the cause and Window
Shopping
343. The process of assigning higher category of
document or information according to the
degree of security needed.
A. Reclassify
C. Classify
B. Upgrading
D. Declassify
 Classify – Assigning of Information or
material to one of the four security
classification after determining that such
information requires security as
prescribed by PNP regulation 200-012.
 Reclassify – The act of changing the
assigned classification of a document or
material.
 Declassify – The removal of the security
classification from classified document or
material.
 Compartmentation – The granting of
access to classified document or
information only to properly cleared
persons when such classified information
is required in the performance of their
official duties, and restricting it to
specific physical confines when feasible.
345. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is
to determine if the information is true and-
A. Reliable C.
Accurate
B. Correct D. Probably true
347. It refers to a place, building or enclosed
area where police undercover men meet for
debriefing or reporting purposes.
A. Safe house C. Log
B. Live Drop D. Decoy
 Log – chronological records of activities that
took place in the establishment under
surveillance.
 Live Drop- Refers to a place where agents
or informants leave their messages to the
other Agents.
348. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or
LAC, which includes some or all of the
circumstances.
A. National Agency Check
B. Background Investigation
C. Complete Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
349. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant is
encouraged. The statement is –
A. Yes C. NO
B. Absolutely Correct D. False
350. What specialist group of CIA that was
established to research, create and manage
technical collection discipline and equipment.
A. National Clandestine Service
B. Directorate of Intelligence .
C. Directorate of Support
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 D. Directorate of Science and
Technology
 National clandestine Service
(Formerly known as Directorate of
Operations)- responsible for collecting
intelligence mainly from clandestine
sources and covert action.
 Directorate of Intelligence (DI)-
Responsible for providing timely and
accurate all source of intelligence
analysis.
 Directorate of Support- Provides
everything that the CIA needs to
accomplish its mission.
351. The persons listed in________ are allowed to
enter a certain establishment or building.
A. Access list C. Black
List
B. Blue Print D. Silver
list
352. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or
damage of equipment, a public service, as by
enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
A. Subversion C. Sabotage
B. Espionage D. None of
these
 Subversion - acts designed to destabilize
or overthrow the authority of a ruling
power.
 Espionage - the secret collection of
information, or intelligence, that the
source of such information wishes to
protect from disclosure.
353. In order to secure the intelligence the
surveillance Operation center, the stationary
surveillance must _________ before leaving.
A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
B. Conduct Debriefing
C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
D. Conduct Interrogation
354. It deals with the demographic and
psychological aspects of groups of people.
A. Sociological Intelligence
B. Economic Intelligence
C. Biographical Intelligence
D. Political Intelligence
 Political Intelligence – deals with
Domestic and Foreign affairs and relation of
government operations
 Economic Intelligence – deals with the
extent and utilization of Natural and Human
resources to the industrial potential of the
Nations
 Biographical Intelligence – deals with
individual personalities who have actual
possession of power
 Geographical Intelligence – deals with
the natural as well as manmade features of
the physical environment of man
considered from the point in view of military
operations
 Scientific Intelligence – deals with the
progress of the research and development
as it affects the economic and military
potential of a nation.
355. Which among the following principles of
intelligence deemed to be the most important?
A. Intelligence requires continuous security
measures
B. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
C. Intelligence must be available on time
D. Intelligence must be flexible
356. It is the careful inspection of a place to
determine its suitability for a particular
operational purpose.
A. Casing C. Loose
Tail
B. Close Tail D. Stakeout
 Loose tail – employed where a general
impression of the subject’s habits and
associates is required.
 Close tail – extreme precautions are
taken against losing the subject is
employed where constant surveillance is
necessary.
357. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means
that –
A. Termination of Surveillance
B. Actual Surveillance
C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject
D. On target Requirements and Instruction
358. It refers to the most dangerous type of
informant.
A. Women C. Double
Crosser
B. False D. Anonymous
 Anonymous-Unidentified or unknown
informants
 False Informant- reveals information of
no consequences, value or stuff
connected within thin air.
 Frightened Informants- weakest link in
criminal chain, motivated by anxiety.
 Self-Aggrandizing- moves around the
center of criminals delight in surprising
the police about bits of information.
 Mercenary- Information for sale needed
something for exchange of information.
 Double-Crosser- He wants to get more
information from the police more than he
gives.
 Legitimate- operators of business
desire to give information for legitimate
reasons.
359. It is the transforming of coded message
into plain text.
A. Coding C. Encrypting
B. Decoding D. Reclassify
 Coding-It is the changing of message
from plain clear text to unintelligible form
also known as “Encrypting”.
360. After the planning on how intelligence is to
be collected, the intelligence officer must have
thorough knowledge of the __________.
A. The strength of the area where the
information will be gathered
B. Where they will be collecting the information
C. Available sources of information
D The vulnerabilities of the possessor of B. Police Intelligence D. Police
intelligence Investigation

361. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the
street of Rome to gather first hand information,
he is considered as the greatest military
strategist.
A. Alexander the Great C. Hannibal
B. Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan
362. If information comes with a low reliability
and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Yes C. True
B. No D. False
370. The term appropriate for someone who
gives information in exchange for a reward is:
A. Informer C. Informant
B. Special informer D. Confidential
Informant
 Informants- Any person who hand over
information to the agents which is
relevant to the subject. The informant
may openly give the information
clandestinely and choose to remain
anonymous.

371 Developing security consciousness among

policemen forms part of enhancing _______.
A. Line intelligence C. strategic
363. It is one of the Functional Classification of intelligence
Police Intelligence which refers to the B. counter intelligence D. artificial
knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes intelligence
and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of
criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence 372. It is a type of Support Agent who obtains
B. Criminal Intelligence money when needed for operational use.
C. Public Safety Intelligence A. Procurer of Funds C. Safe house
D. Preventive Intelligence Keeper
B. Communication Agent D. Surveillant
364. If the information or documents are
procured openly without regard as to whether  Surveillant- Agent who observes persons
and places of operations of interest.
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for  Safe house Keeper- Agents who manages
and maintains a safe house for clandestine
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. operations like meetings, safe heavens,
training, briefing, and debriefing.
Clandestine
B. Surveillance D. Covert Operation  Communication Agent- Agent who is
detailed as securing of clandestine
365. Which of the following is the most common communications.
reason why an informer gives information to the 373. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable
police?
and Possibly true?
A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity A. C-2 C. E-2
B. Revenge D. As a good citizen
B. E-3 D. C-3
366. A method of collecting information thru
374. Phase of intelligence covering the activity
interception of telephone conversation. devoted in destroying the effectiveness of
A. Bugging C. Wire
hostile foreign activities and the protection of
Tapping information against espionage, subversion and
B. Code name D. NONE
sabotage.
A. Passive Intelligence
367. Is the condition, situation, and
B. Counter Intelligence
circumstance the enemy’s’ area of C. Line Intelligence
consideration that render the criminal groups
D. Demographic Intelligence
susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by
the police organization.
379 All except one are interrelated to one
A. Conclusion C. Capabilities another.
B. Vulnerabilities D.
A. Fixed Surveillance
Evaluation B. Stakeout Surveillance
C. Stationary Surveillance
368. It is the general statement describing the D. Active Surveillance
current police internal defense, internal
development, psychological operation and 380. The agent will gain access to the subject
responsibilities of the organization
by going to the different hang out places of the
A. Area of operation subject.
B. Capabilities of organized crime
A. Social Assignment
C. the crime situation B. Residential Assignment
D. the mission
C. Work Assignment
D. None of these
369. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted
information concerning organized crime and 381. A person who informs solely for the
other major police problems.
pecuniary or other material gain he is to
A. Military Intelligence C. Military receive.
Information
A. Gratitude C. Repentance

Page 32 of 43
 B. Remuneration D. Vanity A. Counter Intelligence
B. Passive Counter Intelligence
382. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency C. Active Counter Intelligence
is led by a- D. Intelligence
A. Director C. General
B. President D.  Passive CI Measures – protection of
Director-General classified and sensitive information to the
unauthorized through secrecy,
383. Integrated product of intelligence communication security, and other various
developed by all government departments safeguards.
concerning the broad aspect of national policy
and national Security. 391. All EXCEPT one should be considered in
A. National Intelligence conducting stationary surveillance.
B. Departmental Intelligence A. Preparation
C. International Intelligence B. Financial Requirement
D. Social Intelligence C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and Security
D. Coverage of Operation
384. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means:
A. Actual Surveillance 392. Undercover operation is also known as;
B. Collation of Report and Analysis of A. Roping C. Bait
Significant Observation B. Clandestine D. Loose
C. Preparation of reports and its submission
D. Observe time 393. It is defined as an art and science of codes
and ciphers.
385. Factors to be considered in choosing a A. Cryptography C.
“Safe House” EXCEPT: Cryptanalysis
A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability B. Decipher D. Coding
B. Activity of the people in neighborhood and
location of Police Outpost 394. The protection resulting from the
C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits and application of various measures which prevent
Escape Routes or delay the enemy or unauthorized person in
D. Operational Technical Requirements gaining information through communication.
A. Communication Security
B. Physical Security
386. Which of the following statement is FALSE? C. Document Security
A. Classified information must not be D. Internal Security
discussed with friends and members of
the family. 397. It is a certification by a responsible
B. Classified information should be authority that the person described is cleared to
known only by one person. access and classify matters at appropriate
C. Cabinets with classified documents must levels.
be secured with padlocks and security A. Security Clearance
measures at all times. B. Document Clearance
D. All classified documents must be C. Interim Clearance
safeguarded. D. Nome of these

387. It refers to the person who conducts the 398. Refers to an attack amounting to actual or
surveillance. eminent threat to the life, limb, or right of the
A. Surveillant C. person claiming self-defense.
Subject A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful
B. Interrogator D. Interviewee Aggression
B. Just Cause D. None of these
 Interrogator- person who conduct
Interrogation 399. The police officer may stop an individual
for the purpose of conducting a spot
388. The following are objectives of Casing check/accosting only when-
EXCEPT: A. Probable Cause Exist
A. Security of an Agent B . Notion to commit crime
B. Planning for Surveillance and preparation of C. Rational Grounds
Search D. Reasonable Suspicion
C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting
D. Verification 399. X evaluates the information as usually
reliable and probably true.
389. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is A. C-4 C. B-3
to determine if the information is true and- B. B-2 D. C-5
A. Reliable C.
Correct 400. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency
B. Probably true D. Accurate of _____________.
A. Russia C. Philippines
390. It refers to those measures, which seek B. Israel D. Pakistan
actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain
information or engage in espionage, subversion,  Russia - Federal Security Service of Russian
and sabotage. Federation
 Philippines- National Intelligence  Robert Peel – Father of Modern policing
Coordinating Agency System
 Pakistan - Inter-Services Intelligence  O.W. Wilson - responsible in reducing
corruption and introduced
professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
401. Law enforcement in China was carried out Chicago Police Department
by _______ which developed in both chu and jin
kingdom of the Spring and Autumn period. 412. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
A. Watch man C. Prefect A. Law and Order
B. Gendemarie D. Constabulary B. Knowledge is Safety
C. Serve and Protect
402. First Female Filipino commissioned officer D. We serve with pride and Care
in a UN integral mission.
A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa I. 413. Where do you can find the so called Police
Mitra Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization
B. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas for police officer whose are changed of
D. None of these committing any form of misconduct:
A. Northern Ireland C. England
 SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non- B. China D. Japan
Commissioned officer in a UN integral
Mission 414. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank
 P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First structured of police force is identical up to the
Commissioned officer in UN Integral rank of?
Mission A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector
B. Chief Superintendent D. Inspector
403. New York Police Department (NYPD) have
limited jurisdiction on _______: 415. In USA, what state are among the first to
A. USA C. New York hire women and minorities as police officer.
B. None of these D. Los A. Massachusetts C. California
Angeles B. New York D.
Washington
405. In the etymology of the word police the
ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a person 416. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the
who_____? comparable rank to inspector or sub-lieutenant?
A. Enforcing Law C. Civil Policy A. Police Rank 4
B. Guarding a City D. B. Police Supervisor Rank 4
Citizenship C. Police Officer Rank 1
D. Police Supervisor Rank 1
406. During the middle ages, there were two
guard officer of the kingdom of France with 417. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is
police responsibilities those are the Marshal of the lowest possible rank of its police personnel?
France and ________: A. Police Rank 1 C. Police Officer Rank
A. Constable of France C. Queens Royal 1
Guard B. Investigator 1 D. Constable
B. Scotland Yard D. Constabulary
418. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau
408. The typical number of Detectives roughly Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s
________ of police service personnel: Finest” police force and in having, set up the
A. 75% C. 5 to 10% foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong
B. 15 to 25% D. 7 to 10% and has won a good reputation as one of the
safety cities in the world.
409. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over A. Philippine National Police
federal crimes or those with an interstate B. Hong Kong Police Force
components. The statement is: C. Japan Police Department
A. Correct C. Partially D. National Police Agency
Correct
B. False D. partly False 419. It is the highest possible rank in Australia
Police Force:
410. This pertains to all those forms of policing A. Commissioner General C. Director
that, in some sense transgress national borders: General
A. International Policing B. Commissioner D. Director
B. Global Policing
C. National Policing  Director General – Philippine National
D. Transnational Policing Police
 Director – BJMP and BFP
411. In US, he introduced police reforms to  Commissioner General - highest position
include educational requirement for police in Japan Police Organization
officer:
A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir Robert 420. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
Peel A. Omerta C. Morse
B. August Volmer D. O.W. B. Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra
Wilson
421. INTERPOL stands for:

Page 34 of 43
 A. International Police A. Oskar Dressler C. Ronald K.
B. International Organization of Police Noble
C. International criminal Organization B. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen
D. International Criminal Police Scotland
Organization
Johann Schober - The first president of the
422. The supreme governing body of the Interpol
INTERPOL is the:
A. Executive Assembly C. Major Assembly 435. Group of highly specialized armed men
B. National Assembly D. General who inflict fear and uses violence to accomplish
Assembly their objectives with a usual international scope
of activity.
423. The general Secretariat office of the A. Organized Crime
INTERPOL is run by the: B. Transnational Crime
A. Director General C. Supervisor C. Transnational Organized crime
B. Inspector General D. Secretary D. Terrorist
General
 Organized Crime - Group activities of
425. The police rank in Japan that is called three or more persons, with hierarchical
Keishi: links or personal relationships, which
A. Policeman C. Chief permits their leaders to earn profits or
Superintendent control territories or markets, internal or
B. Superintendent D. Senior foreign, by means of violence,
Superintendent intimidation or corruption, both in
furtherance of criminal activity and to
426. It is the counterpart of Police Community infiltrate the legitimate economy.
Precinct in Japan:  Transnational Crime - a continuing
A. Keishi C. Koban illegal activity of group of person which is
B. Omerta D. Keiban primarily concerned with the generation
of profits, irrespective of national
427. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it boundaries as a result of globalization.
is the highest position in Japan Police  Transnational Organized crime - is a
Organization: crime perpetuated by organized criminal
A. Commissioner Secretariat group which the aim of committing one
B. Commissioner or more serious crimes or offenses in
C. Chairman order to obtain directly or indirectly, a
D. Commissioner General financial or other material benefits
committed through crossing of borders
428. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed or jurisdictions
by a Commissioner General who is appointed
by: 436 Is the terrorist group which was founded by
A. Japans Emperor Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
B. Prime Minister A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
C. National Public Safety Commission B. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
D. Japan Commission
 Mafia – is a term used to describe a
429. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force: number of criminal organizations
A. Junsa C. Constable around the world.
B. Sergeant D. Police  Jihad - refers to the holy war by
Officer members of the Islamic religion against
430. Irish Police are called: the Jews
A. Militsiya C.
Constable 438. It is the category of terrorist organization
B. Police Force D. Garda Socha which is aimed in achieving political autonomy
or religious freedom.
431. The following are the language of A. Revolutionary C. Separalist
communication used by the Gen. Secretariat: B. Ethnocentric D. Political
a. French;
b. Mandarin;  Ethnocentric - is the category of
c. English; terrorist organization which is aimed at
d. Arabic; and establishing a dominant or superior race
e. Spanish. that will be looked upon by the entire
populace in the world.
A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e  Revolutionary - is the category of
B. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e terrorist group which is dedicated to
overthrow an established order and
432. It States that the yardstick of police replacing it with a new political or social
proficiency relies on the absence of crime. structure.
A. Home rule C. Continental  Political - is the category of terrorist
B. Old police service D. Modern police group which aims in restructuring the
service society.

433. The first secretary general of the Interpol.

  Nationalistic - those who commit acts
of violence due to their loyalty or
devotion to their country.
439. It is the anchor of the investigation of all
crimes committed via the internet:
A. Dynamic IP Address
B. Internet Protocol Address
C. Static IP Address
D. Website
 ISP – stands for Internet Service
Provider. It provides internet service to
internet users.
 IP Address – series of numbers
assigned by an Internet Service Provider
to an internet user when it connects to
the Internet
 Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP
Address that changes every time the
internet user accesses his Internet
Service Provider. It is usually assigned to
dial-up or base speed broadband service
subscribers
 Static IP Address – a type of IP Address
that is constant regardless of the time or
number of attempts the internet user
accesses the internet. It is usually
assigned to High-Speed Internet Users.
 Website – a portfolio of a person /
organization / entity / company which is
posted on the Internet for accessibility
worldwide.
440. It is the act of illegally accessing the
computer system or network of an individual,
group or business enterprise without the
consent of the party’s system:
A. Computer Fraud C. Hacking
B. Cracking D. Theft
 Hacking - is the act of illegally
accessing the computer system/network
of an individual, group or business
enterprise without the consent or
approval of the owner of the system.
 Cracking - is a higher form of hacking in
which the unauthorized access
culminates with the process of defeating
the security system for the purpose of
acquiring money or information and/or
availing of free services
441. It refers to a Code written with the
intention of replicating itself.
A. Trojan Horse
C. Worm
B. Logic Bomb
D. Computer Virus
442. It is a center created by Executive Order
No. 62 to establish a shared database among
concerned agencies for information on
criminals, methodologies, arrests and
convictions on transnational crime
A. Philippine Center on Transnational
Crimes (PCTC)
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking
(NACAH)
C. International Criminal Police Organization
(ICPO)
D. Philippine National Police (PNP)
443. An order strengthening the operational,
administrative and information support system
of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall
exercise general supervision and control over
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
A. EO 100 C. EO 465
B. EO 465 D. EO 789
444. Considered as the major concerns of the
PCTC, EXCEPT:
A. Information Exchange
B. Strategic studies and capacity building
C. Law enforcement coordination
D. none of these
445. A decree codifying the law on
Illegal/unlawful Possession, manufacture,
Dealing in, acquisition or disposition of firearms,
ammunitions or explosions
A. RA 9165 C. RA
9372
B. RA 8294 D. RA
8792
 RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act
 R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive Dangerous
Drug Act of 2002
 RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007
 PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 -
Illegal Possession of Firearms and
Explosive
 RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009
 RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Video
Voyeurism Act of 2009
 RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act of
2009
 RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of
2010
446. What is the highest rank of police officer in
Japan?
A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI SO
B. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO

 Worm spread itself to other computers 447. The founder of the Texas Rangers and
without needing to be transferred as part known to be the “Father of Texas”.
of a host. A. Stephen Austin C. Vernon
 Trojan horse - is a file that appears Knell
harmless until executed. Trojan horses do B. Dave Batista D. Johann Schober
not insert their code into other computer 449. The following have summary dismissal
files powers over errant police members.
 Logic bomb - a set of instructions a. District Director;
secretly inserted into a program that is b. Chief of Police;
designed to execute if a particular c. Regional Director;
program is satisfied. d. Chief, PNP;
e. PLEB; and
f. NAPOLCOM.

Page 36 of 43
 457. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get
A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f the lump sum of his retirement benefits for the
B. b, d, e D. a, c, e, f period of the first _____.
A. 10 years C. 5 years
450. Amado Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She B. 6 years D. 2 years
was 29 years old then. What year will Amado
will retire? 458. Specific Qualifications may be waived like
A. 2016 C. 2023 Age, Height, Weight and Education, only when
B. 2012 D. 2031 the number of qualified applicants falls below
the minimum annual quota. Appointment status
451. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP under a waiver program is ________.
commissioned and non-commissioned officer A. Temporary C. Probationary
may retire and be paid separation benefits B. Permanent D. Regular
corresponding to a position two ranks higher
than his/her rank: 459. No officer who has retired or is retirable
A. Retirement in the next higher grade within _______ from his compulsory retirement
B. Compulsory retirement age be appointed as chief of the PNP.
C. Early retirement program A. Three months C. Six months
D. Optional Retirement B. One year D. Two years

452. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an 460. __________ is given to any PNP member who
independence from the PNP. It has an has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry
investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP at the risk of his life above and beyond the call
members. of duty.
A. Internal Affairs Service A. Meritorious Promotion
B. National Police Commission B. Special Promotion
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board C. Regular Promotion
D. National Appellate Board D. On-the-Spot Promotion

453. In police operational planning the use of 461. Which among the following has no
the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line promotional authority over the members of the
would be probable used for: PNP?
A. Arm confrontation C. Relief Operation A. Deputy Director General
B. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security B. Director General
C. President of the Philippines
453. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of D. Regional Director
carrying the regulations of the Department of
State; this was armed and considered as the 462. The establishment of a formal structure of
mounted police. authority through which works and divisions are
A. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica arranged, defined and coordinated refers to:
B. Guadrilleros A. Planning C.
C. Guardia Civil Organizing
D. Metropolitan Police Force B. Staffing D. Directing

454. What is the appropriate training course for 463. In regard to the police planning function, it
POIII to SPOI? may be said that:
A. Officers Senior Executive Course A. Planning is essentially order giving.
B. Officer Basic Course B. Planning is essentially decision making
C. Senior Leadership Course in advance of action.
D. Junior Leadership Course C. Policemen must plan carefully than their
supervisors.
455. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of D. The higher the job in the organization, the
deputation of local chief executives as shorter the time-lag between planning
representative of the NAPOLCOM: and execution.
I. Repeated unauthorized absences;
II. Abuse of authority; 464. The National Bureau of Investigation, was
III. Habitual tardiness; patterned by the Federal Bureau Investigation, it
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and was organized by R.A. 157. What law
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security. reorganized the NBI?
A. R.A 9708 C. R.A
A. I, II, III, V C. II, V, IV, I 6040
B. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, IV, B. R.A. 2678 D. R.A.
V 9262

456. Planning for emergencies of a specific 465. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
nature at known locations. members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
A. Functional Plan C. Time Specific personnel to any key position. The statement is:
Plans A. Partly True C. Partly False
B. Tactical Plans D. B. Absolutely True D.
Operational Plans Absolutely False
466. The following are the offenses for which a 472. Who has the disciplinary authority in
member of the PNP may be charged citizen’s complaint when the penalty imposed is
administratively: not exceeding fifteen (15) days?
I. Oppression; A. City/Municipal Mayor C. Chief of Police
II. Misconduct; B. Provincial Director D. PLEB
III. Neglect of Duty;
IV. Violation of law; and  City/Municipality Mayors- not less
V. Incompetence. than SIXTEEN but not exceeding
THIRTY (30) DAYS
A. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV  People’s Law Enforcement Board
B. V, II, III, I D. IV, III, (PLEB)- exceeding THIRTY (30)
IV, I, II DAYS, or by DISMISSAL

467. The police function in which patrol belong 473. The law that governs the Code of Conduct
is: and Ethical Standards for officials and
A. Line function C. Administrative employees of the Government – National or
function Local.
B. Staff function D. Auxiliary A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610
function B. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263

468. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief
and other high ranking PNP officials is known as:
A. Broad external policy planning
B. Incremental planning
C. Internal policy planning
D. Radical planning
469. Refers to the actual restraint of armed
persons following a high-risk stop.
A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty
Checkpoint
B. High -Risk Arrest D. High Risk
Stop
 Dragnet Operation - police operation
intentionally to seal-off the probable exit
points of fleeing suspects from the crime
scene to prevent their escape.
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate
response to block the escape of lawless
elements from a crime scene, and is also
established when nearby checkpoints are
ignored or during hot pursuit operations.
 High Risk Stop - actual stopping of
armed and dangerous persons, aboard a
vehicle or on foot, including the power to
use all necessary and legal means to
accomplish such end.
470. Maximum period wherein a police officer
may be suspended from service by the Chief
PNP:
A. 180 days C. 60 days
B. 90 days D. 30 days
Disciplinary Authorities for Breach of
Internal Discipline
 Chief of Police- NOT EXCEEDING
FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
 Provincial Directors- NOT
EXCEEDING THIRTY (30) DAYS
 Regional Director- NOT EXCEEDING
SIXTY (60) DAYS
471. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
personnel to any key position. The statement is-
A. YES C. NO
B. Wholly Correct D. Wholly
False
 RA 7160 – Local Government Code
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children
against Abuse, Exploitation and
Discrimination
 RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP
Professionalization Act of 2004
474. How vacancy filled up in the commission,
except through expirations of term?
A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only
with the capacity for regular appointment
for another full term.
B. It shall be filed up for the unexpired
term only without re appointment.
C. It shall be filed up by another person with full
term
D. None of these
475. Under the police reform and reorganization
law, a Field training Program for all PNP
uniformed members is required for permanency
of their appointment consisting of 12 months.
Basic areas of actual experience and
assignment during this period shall be on:
A. Patrol, traffic and investigation
B. Patrol, investigation and Intelligence
C. Patrol, Public Relations and auxiliary services
D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence
476. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the
following are the factors considered in
promotion:
a. Educational Attainment;
b. Personality traits;
c. Potential;
d. Service reputation; and
e. Physical Fitness.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, e, c, a
B. d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e
477. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang is
due to be promoted. Who has the authority to
promote him to his next rank?
A. Chief, PNP C. CSC
B. Secretary, DILG D. President
478. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December
11, 1964; He opted to join the Philippine
National Police in March 1999. Is he qualified to
join the PNP?
A. Yes C. Wholly True

Page 38 of 43
 B. No D. Wholly False
484. What is the name of the acclaimed first
479. In times of war or other national formally organized modern police force in the
emergency declared by the Congress the world?
President may extend such term of office from A. Interpol C. Scotland
__________________depending on the gravity of Yard
the situation. B. New York Police District D. Texas rangers
A. Six months to one year
B. One year to two years 485. The following are the law enforcement
C. One to six months principles enunciated by the Father of Modern
D. Five months to one year Policing System, except:
A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the
480. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19, police
870.00 base pay since he was promoted. After B. The police must have full respect of the
five years from promotion, what would be his citizenry
monthly base pay after adding his longevity C. The police are the public and the public are
pay? the police
A. 21, 857.00 C. 19, D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by
970.00 final judgment
B. 24, 870.00 D. 31, E. None of the above
549.00
487. The period of time elapsed since the oath
481. If the police plan of Municipality X can of office was administered is termed
carry out the purpose or goal of the police A. Tour of duty C. Term of office
station then the plan is considered_______. B. On duty D. Length of
A. Feasible C. Acceptable service
B. Suitable D. Adaptable
488. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or
482. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed modify personnel disciplinary actions involving
by a police officer with the rank of __________ demotion or dismissal from the service imposed
and a designation as Inspector-General. upon members of the PNP by the Chief PNP
A. Deputy Director General C. General through the:
B. Director D. A.PLEB C. RAB
C/Superintendent B. NAB D. C/PNP

483. The shift that receives most of the call of 489. Promotion by virtue of position shall be
the public which are directly related to police granted after:
function, it is considered as the busiest among A. 6 months C. 2 years
them all. B. 1 year D. 18 months
A. Afternoon shift C.
Day shift 490. Breach of internal discipline committed by
B. Midnight shifts D. Night Shift any member of the PNP shall be brought to the
office of the Chief of Police or equivalent
 Night Shift – Least Desirable shift supervisor if the penalty imposed covers the
period of:
484. If we are seeking for an arrest of wanted A. Not exceeding 15 days
person with a view to extradition. B. Not exceeding 60 days
A. Blue Notice C. Not exceeding 30 days
C. Red Notice D. Dismissal
B. Black Notice
D. Purple Notice 491. Any PNP member shall be dismissed
immediately from the service after due notice
Types of Notice by INTERPOL and summary hearings if it was proven that he
 Yellow Notice- To help locate missing went on AWOL for a continuous period of:
persons, often minors, or to help identify A. 30 days or more C. 15 days
persons who are unable to identify or more
themselves. B. 20 days or more D. 60 days or more
 Blue Notice- To locate, identify or obtain
information on a person of interest in a 492. The city or municipal mayor shall develop
criminal investigation. an integrated community public safety plan
 Black Notice- To seek information on pursuant to:
unidentified bodies. A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903
 Green Notice- To warn about a person's B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551
criminal activities if that person is
considered to be a possible threat to 493. The Statute of Winchester introduced the
public safety. system known as:
 Orange Notice- To warn of an event, a A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew
person, an object or a process B. Watch and ward D. Justice of
representing an imminent threat and the peace
danger to persons or property.
 Purple Notice- To provide information 494. Which of the following is a characteristic of
on modi operandi, objects, devices and effective plan?
concealment methods used by criminals. A. give police department a clear direction
 B. increase personnel involvement
C. clearly define objectives and goals
D. contain a degree of flexibility for the
unforeseen
495. As a general rule, a patrol officer on foot
during day time should walk ____ the curb:
A. Outside C. Inside
B. Near D. Far
496. The following are the duties and
responsibilities of Patrol officers:
a. Conduct home visitations when a
circumstance warrants, dialogues with the
residents in their beat;
b. Report occurrences and conditions which
relate to crime, public peace, order and safety;
c. Observe and monitor public gatherings,
prevent disorders and disperse unlawful
assemblies;
d. Assist personnel of responsible agencies/unit
in facilitating the flow of traffic at busy
intersections/roads within his Area of
Responsibility (AOR) and;
e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in various
places of business establishments and other
installation and remove hazards to public safety.
A. b, c, d C. c, e, a, b
B. e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e
497. Which among the following is not included
in a Patrol Plan?
A. Organization Detail of Personnel
C. Stand-by points
B. Spot Report
D. Area Coverage
498. The terrorist group Abu Sayyaf is formerly
included in what terrorist group?
A. MILF C. MNLF
B. Al Qaeda D. NPA
499. The Koban policing system is adopted in:
A. Japan C. Malaysia
B. Korea D. Thailand
500. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally
means-
A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base
B. Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah
 Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic
Congregation
 Al Qaeda – The Base
 Hezbollah – Party of God
 Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present
commander of Al Qaeda
501. PNP in-service training programs are under
the responsibility of the;
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource
and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
It is the total number of police officers assigned
in patrol duties.
502. Who is responsible in determining whether
there is a permit for the holding of the public
assembly?
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
Commander
B. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
503. The following are the things to be done
after armed confrontation, EXCEPT:
A. Check whether the situation still poses
imminent danger
B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP
operatives
C. Submit the fact-finding report
D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest
hospital
E. None of these
504. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio of
the following cases:
I. incidents where a police personnel
discharges a firearm;
II. incidents where death, serious physical
injury, or any violation of human rights
occurred in the conduct of a police
operation;
III. incidents where evidence was
compromised, tampered with,
obliterated, or lost while in the custody
of police personnel;
IV. incidents where a suspect in the custody
of the police was seriously injured; and
V. Incidents where the established rules of
engagement have been violated.
A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III, IV, and
V
B. I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV
and V
497. The nature of which, the police officer is
free from specific routine duty is the definition
of
A. “on duty” C. “Active Service”
B. “Length of Service” D. “off duty”
 Length of Service- The period of time
elapsed since the oath of office was
administered.
 Active Service- shall refer to services
rendered as an officer and non-officer,
cadet, trainee or draftee in the PNP
498. The first step a dispatcher must take when
a felony-in-progress call has been received
through telephone or by direct alarm signal is
to?
A. assigns an investigator to investigate the
witness
B. clears the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene
D. sends augmentation force
499. How many years of non-promotion before
a PNP Member can be attrited?
A. 5 years C. 2 years
B. 10 years D. 18 Months
 Attrition by Relief - Those who have
been relieved for just cause and have not
been given an assignment within TWO (2)
YEARS after such relief shall be retired or
separated
 Attrition by Demotion in Position or
Rank - who shall not be assigned to a
position commensurate to his or her grade
Page 40 of 43
 within EIGHTEEN (18) MONTHS after such
demotion shall be retired or separated
500. What is the main purpose why police car or
police officers are not allowed to be sent in the
scene of a Kidnap for ransom?
a. To avoid unnecessary actions for the
kidnappers
b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation
c. To avoid any indication that police have
been informed of the KFR incident
d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the KFR
activities inside the warehouse
501.Which among the following, is not a
applicable legal parameter during rallies,
strikes, demonstrations or other public
assemblies, under the pertinent provisions of
the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas
Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the
Philippines, as amended and other applicable
laws.
A. Exercising Maximum Tolerance
B. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or
participant shall be made during the
public assembly, unless he violates any
pertinent law as evidence warrants.
C. In case of unlawful aggression, only
reasonable force may be employed to
prevent or repel it.
D. Directly employment of tear gas and
water cannons.
502. Which of the following is considered as the
most important factor in formulating an
effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. rank of the patrol commander
C. adequacy of resources of police station
D. salary rates of police personnel
503. The peace-keeping detail shall not be
stationed in the picket line (or confrontation
line) but should be stationed in such manner
that their presence may deter the commission
of criminal acts or any untoward incident from
either side. The members of the peace-keeping
detail shall stay outside a _______ radius from
the picket line.
A. 50 feet C. 50 meter
B. 100 feet D. 100 meter
504. Police officers are required to give the
suspect Miranda Warning, during Spot checks
and pat down searches. The statement is-
A. Partially C. Correct
B. Partially Wrong D. Wrong
505. The following are the circumstances which
may justify pat-down search, EXCEPT:
A. The appearance and demeanor of the
suspect
B. The time of the day and the location
where the pat-down search took
C. Where the police officer handles several
suspects
D. None of these
506. Whenever possible, pat-down searches
should be conducted by-
A. Day time to avoid ambush or Surprise
attack.
B. At least two police officers, one to
perform the search while the other
provides protective cover.
C. the aid of civilian to act as a witness
during the search.
D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
507. Which of the following is not included in
the patrol function?
A. Respon.se for citizen calls for assistance
B. Investigation of crimes after this is
reported to the investigation section
C. Routine preventive patrol
D. Inspection of identified hazards
508. During police intervention operations, the
duty to issue a warning is not absolute before
he could use force against an offender.
A. Correct C. Partially
Correct
B. Wrong D. Partially Wrong
509. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if
transported by a patrol jeep, the subject must
be-
A. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the Right side
facing the subject
B. Seated on the Right rear seat and a
PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the
left side facing the subject
C. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the left side
facing the subject
D. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the Right side
facing the subject
510. Which among the following should be
observed during the patrol operations?
A. Render after-patrol report
B. Buddy System
C. Kabit System
D. Render Hourly Report
511. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or
other public assemblies, employment of tear
gas and water cannons shall be made under the
control and supervision of the-
A. Ground Commander C. Incident
Commander
B. Immediate Commander D. Superior Officer
512. What should be the action of patrol
officers, when responding to Calls for Police
Assistance, except?
A. Stop the car at some distance away from
the scene.
B. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
C. Determine the crime committed.
D. None of these
513. Where should the patrol officer turnover
the information and pieces of evidence gathered
at the crime scene?
 A. SOCO team C. Immediate
Supervisor
B. Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer
514. Request for police assistance in the
implementation of final decisions or orders of
the court in civil cases and of administrative
bodies on controversies within their jurisdiction
shall be acted upon by the appropriate police
office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to
the actual implementation.
A. 3 days C. 10 days
B. 5 days D. 15 days
515. In cases of armed confrontation wherein a
suspect dies, the Team Leader of the operating
unit shall?
A. He shall immediately undertake the
necessary investigation and processing
of the scene of the encounter.
B. After the Investigation, He shall
immediately request the SOCO team to
conduct Crime Scene Processing.
C. He shall submit the incident for
inquest before the duty Inquest
Prosecutor prior to the removal of
the body from the scene.
D. He shall report immediately to his
superior for the proper undertakings to
be done.
516. PNP personnel who will point/profile
suspected vehicle subject for checkpoint:
A. Search Sub-Team C. Security Sub-Team
B. Spotter D. Investigation Sub-
team
 Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take
responsibility in the conduct of checkpoint
preferably an officer with the rank of at
least Police Inspector;
 Spokesperson - TL or member who is
solely in charge of communicating with the
motorists subject for checkpoint;
 Investigation Sub-team - in charge of
investigation and documentation of
possible incidents in the checkpoint to
include issuance of Traffic Citation Ticket
(TCT) or Traffic Violation Report (TVR);
 Search/Arresting Sub-Team - designated
to conduct search, seizure and arrest, if
necessary;
 Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide
security in the checkpoint area; and
 Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team
tasked to block/pursue fleeing
suspects/vehicle.
517. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to
display high-powered firearms and are
positioned where they can best provide security
to the Checkpoint team including themselves.
A. Security Sub-Team C. Search
Sub-Team
B. Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B
518. As much as practicable, who shall lead the
PNP contingent detailed to assist the Sheriff
during the demolition activity.
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
Commander
B. Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police
519. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a
complaint or report or information that a child
has been or is being abused, maltreated,
discriminated, exploited, neglected, or
abandoned, or is under imminent danger of
being abused or exploited, shall take immediate
action thereon, but under no circumstance shall
be beyond____?
A. 12 hours C. 36 hours
B. 24 hours D. 48
hours
520. In designating a “safe” assembly area, well
away from the threatened structure, out of line-
of-sight of the building and well clear of
windows. A minimum distance of is
recommended.
A. 200 meters C. 100 meters
B. 150 meters D. 300 meters
521. Provides for methods of apprehending a
criminal by an act of the complainant shout to
call all male residents to assemble and arrest
the suspect.
A. Tun Policing C. Hue and Cry
B. Statute of 1295 D. Courts of the Star
Chamber
 Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) - The
room set-up is formed in a shape of a star
and judges were given great powers such
as the power to force testimony from a
defendant leading to a great abuse of
power or brutality on the part of the judges.
 Statute of 1295 - the law that mark the
beginning of the curfew hours, which
demanded the closing of the gates of
London during sundown.
 Tun Policing System - A system of
policing emerged during the Anglo-Saxon
period whereby all male residents were
required to guard the town
522. Refers to a location where the search,
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate
purposes.
A. Clear Zone C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined
Area
523. Electronic blotter is a computerized
system, which was accepted by the courts,
prosecutors’ office and the public in general.
What police office is using this kind of blotter?
A. Makati C. Cebu
B. Baguio D. Davao
524. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the
earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is
standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is
not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but
the ______ for successful robbery is prevented.
A. Ambition C. Intention
B. Motive D. Opportunity
525. Police personnel whose rank at the time of
his retirement is Superintendent shall retire with
the rank of __________:
A. Superintendent C.
C/Superintendent
B. Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
Page 42 of 43
526. Which among the following terms is not
related to each other?
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fresh Pursuit
B. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D. Bright
Pursuit

527. General rules on media relations, No

information regarding the incident shall be
released without clearance from the_________:
A. Chief of police C. Ground
Commander
B. Incident Commander D. Immediate
Superior

528. Which of the following is not true about

patrol?

A. It is the backbone of the police

department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the
police department that can be
eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police
department
529. The low informers and unreliable
renegades of value chiefly in spreading
false information to the enemy.
A. Common Spies C. Double Spies
B. Spies of Consequences D. None

530. Refers to utilization of units or elements of

the PNP for purpose of protection of lives and
properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of
peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of
criminal offenders and etc.
A. Deployment C. Operation
B. Service D. Employment

Deployment- shall mean the orderly and

organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province, city
or municipality for purposes of employment

-END-

“In everything you do always put GOD first

and He will guide you and reward your
efforts with Success.”– NMK12