Mock Test 7 Paper 2 PDF

MOCK TEST-7
IIT – JEE, 2019

Paper Code
PAPER-II 100397.1
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 228
A. Question Paper Format

1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics-Part-I, Chemistry-Part-II, and Mathematics-Part-III) and each part consists of four sections.
2. Section – A(i) contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is
correct.
3. Section – A(ii) contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or
more is/are correct.
4. Section – A(iii) contains 2 groups of questions. Total 5 questions based on two paragraphs. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one is correct.
5. Section B contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in
Column II. Any given statement in column I can have correct matching with one or more statements(s) given in column II. For example, if for
a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the
bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
6. Section - C contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single – digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be
appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.
B. Marking scheme:
7. For each question in Section – A(i), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero
mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded.
8. For each question in Section – A(ii), you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero
mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.
9. For each question in Section – A(iii), you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero
mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded.
10. For each question in Section B, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the
correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this
section.
11. For each question in Section C, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no
bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section
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Mock Test-7–Paper-2 (100397.1)-CMP-IITJEE-2
PART – I
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct
1. Two positive point charges q1 and q2 of magnitude 16 nC and 144

nC are placed at point A and B as shown in figure. The potential at
each point of the given equipotential surface is 640 Volt. Then the q2
q1
separation between the point charges is
(A) 3.6 m (B) 2.7 m A B
(C) 1.8 m (D) 0.9 m
2. A lamp post is fixed at point (0, 0, 5m). A man is moving with constant velocity 6 m/s along a line
y 3x. Height of man is 2m and initially the man is at origin. The velocity of edge of his shadow
along the line of motion of man is
(A) 8iˆ 6 ˆj (B) 6iˆ 8ˆj
(C) 5 3 ˆi 5ˆj (D) 5iˆ 5 3ˆj
3. A plank of mass M and sphere of mass 2 M are kept on a smooth inclined

plane as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between sphere and 2M
plank is ‘ ’. If system is released from rest then choose the INCORRECT
alternative at t = 0. M
(A) Friction force between sphere and plank is 2 Mg cos .
(B) Acceleration of plank with respect to sphere is zero.
(C) Friction force between sphere and plank is zero.
(D) Acceleration of plank and sphere is same.
Space for Rough work
Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
4. A plane mirror is rotating about point ‘O’ with y

constant angular velocity 4 rad/sec in anticlockwise
direction. A point ‘P’ is moving in a circle of radius P
50 cm with constant speed 3 m/s in anticlockwise 4 rad/s
direction about point O. At a given instant as shown
in figure, the angular velocity of image is
(A) 6 rad/sec in clockwise
(B) 6 rad/sec anticlockwise direction
(C) 2 rad/sec in anticlockwise
O x
(D) 2 rad/sec in clockwise direction
5. Three long wires are placed in xy plane in a gravity free space y

‘i’ is the current flowing in each wire. The currents are constant
A B C
in magnitude. Distance between each wire is ‘d’ and ‘ ’ is the
mass per unit length of each wire. Wire ‘A’ and wire ‘C’ are
fixed and wire ‘B’ is slightly displaced along ‘z’ axis. The period i i i
of oscillation of wire ‘B’ is
d 2 d x
(A) (B)
i 0 i 0
d d
d 4 d
(C) (D)
2i 0 i 0
6. Figure (i) shows a galvanometer without shunt and figure (ii) shows same galvanometer with a shunt
which is connected in parallel to the galvanometer. The resistance of shunt is 1/n times the resistance
of galvanometer. If the sensitivity of galvanometer in figure (i) is ‘S’ then sensitivity of ammeter in
figure (ii) is (sensitivity is defined as the deflection per unit current)
G
i
G S
i
Figure-1 Figure-2
1
(A) nS (B) S
n
1
(C) (n + 1) S (D) S
n 1
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct
7. Three capacitors A, B, and C of capacitance 2 F , 2 F and 4 F A

respectively are connected with a resistance of 4 as shown. Initially S
potential difference across capacitor A is 5 V, while capacitor B and C are C
uncharged. Now switch is closed at t = 0. Choose the correct statement(s). B
(A) The magnitude of current in the circuit at t = 0 is zero.
(B) After a long time the magnitude of charge on each capacitor is equal.
(C) After a long the magnitude of charge on capacitor B is 4 C.
(D) After a long time energy stored in capacitor C is 2 J.
8. A block of mass 1 kg is released from the top of a wedge of mass 2 kg. 1 kg

Height of wedge is 10 meter and all the surfaces are frictionless. Then
(A) Displacement of centre of mass of system in vertical direction is zero. 10m
(B) Displacement of centre of mass of system, vertically downward, is 2 kg
10
m.
3
(C) Ratio of normal reaction between block and wedge to the acceleration of wedge w.r.t. ground is 4
(in kg).
(D) Momentum of system will be conserved in horizontal direction.
9. Three concentric spherical shells of radius a, 2a and 4a P

having positive charges Q1 and Q2 and Q3 respectively are 5a
placed as shown. Now, shell of radius ‘a’ and ‘4a’ are
earthed through switch S1 and S2. A point ‘P’ lies at a
distance 5a from the centre of shell and a point R inside the a R S1 S2
inner most shell. Now, choose the correct option(s) when
switch S1 and S2 are closed.
(A) The magnitude of electric field at ‘P’ and at ‘R’ is equal. 2a 4a
(B) The potential of inner most shell and outermost shell
must be equal
(C) The magnitude of charge on shell of radius 2a remain unchanged.
(D) Potential must drop in moving from inner most shell to middle shell
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based on
the other paragraphs 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 and 11
One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a process AB P

as shown. Pressure at A and B are 5P 0 and P0 while volumes A
are V0 and 5 V0 respectively. On the basis of the given 5P0
information answer the following question(s).
P0 B
V
V0 5V0
10. Choose the correct option regarding the process A B.

(A) Work done by the gas from A B is negative.
(B) Change in internal energy of the gas from A B is positive.
(C) Work done by the gas from A B is zero
(D) Change in internal energy of the gas from A B is zero
11. During the process from A B, pressure and volume of the gas, where the direction of flow of heat
is reversed, is
5 7
(A) P0 , V0 (B) P0 ,5V0
2 2
9 3
(C) 4P0 , 2V0 (D) P0 , V0
2 2
Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 and 14
Five equal resistances, a capacitor and two batteries are V

R
A
connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The capacitor is D
initially uncharged and each battery has negligible internal R R
C
resistance. It is given that R = 1 , C = 1 F and V = 8 volt. On
the basis of above information answer the following questions, if E C
1 B R
switch ‘S’ is closed at t = 0. (assume e = 0.37, if required)
S R
2V
12. Current in the branch of capacitor at t = 5/8 s is (approximately)

(A) 6 A (B) 3 A
(C) 12 A (D) 10 A
13. Current in the branch AB at t = 5/8 s is (approximately)

(A) 1.7 A (B) 4.3 A
(C) 3.4 A (D) 8.6 A
14. Potential difference between points A and C at t = 5/8 s is (approximately)

(A) 1.7 V (B) 2.5 V
(C) 6 V (D) 9.3 V
SECTION – B
(Matching List Type)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The codes for the
Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
1. A narrow slit S transmitting light of wavelength is placed a

distance d above a large plane mirror as shown in the figure.
S
The light coming directly form the slit and that coming after the
reflection interfere at a screen placed at a distance D from d
the slit. Assume that the mirror is 100% reflecting and d << D. O
Match the quantities in Column–I with their corresponding
D
values in Column –II. (given D = 1m, d = )
Column–A Column–B
(A) Distance from O, where first interference maximum is formed on (p) 0
screen
(B) Distance from O, where closest interference minimum is formed (q) 1/4
on screen
(C) Fringe width of the interference pattern (r) 1/2
(D) Closest point to O on screen where waves interfere with a phase (s) 1
difference of /2
(t) 1/8
D
2. A frame ABCD is rotating with angular velocity about an axis
which passes through the point O perpendicular to the plane of B L
paper as shown in the figure. A uniform magnetic field B is applied
into the plane of the paper in the region as shown. Match the B
O C
following. L L
L
A B
Column–I Column–II
(A) Potential difference between A and O (p) zero
2
(B) Potential difference between O and D (q) B L /2
2
(C) Potential difference between C and D (r) B L
2
(D) Potential difference between A and D (s) 2B L
2
(t) 8B L
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
1. A light beam of power 12 watt and wavelength 6000 Å falls normally on a partially reflecting plate. If
n
reflecting plate absorb 80% of light falling on it then force exerted on the plate is 4.8 10 Newton.
Find the value of + n.
2. Two infinitely long wires are placed perpendicular to the plane of paper. Current in wire P +
A is 4 i0 outward the plane of paper and current in ‘B’ is i0 inward the plane of paper.
K A
The B d along the QP is i . Find the value of K.
– 2 00
B
Q –
3. Four blocks A, B, C and D of equal mass are placed on the d d d d

belt of conveyor at equal distances as shown. Mass of each
block is 2 kg and distance between blocks (d) is 400 mm.
Assume masses of rollers and conveyor are negligible. T A B C D U
Friction is sufficient to prevent the slipping between blocks
P
and belt. A constant force of 1000 N is applied parallel to the
belt as shown. Neglect the radius of roller as compare to d. F=1000 N
The magnitude of velocity of block B when it leave the roller roller roller
7
at point ‘T’ is 10 m/s. Find the value of .
4. The reflecting surface of two mirrors M1 and M2 are at angle M2

= 50 as shown in the figure. A ray of light, parallel to M2, is
incident on M1. The emerging ray intersects the incident ray
at an angle = 10 (in degree). Find the value of .
M1
5. The length of a simple pendulum, measured by an instrument of least count 4 mm, is found to be 40
cm. Its time period is measured by taking 200 oscillations using a watch of resolution 2s. The time
period is found to be 0.4 s. Find the percentage error in the determination of the acceleration due to
gravity using this data.
PART – II
SECTION – A
1. Which of the following is correct order of stability of given species?

OH
(I) (II) (III) (IV) H2C NH2 (V) CH2OH

OH
(A) I > III > II (B) I > II > III
(C) IV < V (D) I < V
2. Compare the C – O bond lengths in the following?

O O
O
(a) (b) (c)
O O O
O
(d) (e) CO23 (f) RCOO
(A) b > e > f > c > d > a (B) e > b > f > d > c > a
(C) b > e > f > d > a > c (D) d > c > a > b > f > e
3. Some of the inorganic compounds when subjected to transformations from gaseous phase to liquid or
solid phases, they ionize themselves and consequently hybridization of central atom changes. Match
the following columns in this refrence.
Column I Column II Column III
(Species in gas phase) (Hybridisation (Hybridisation
of central atom in gas phase) in solid/liquid phase)
3 2
(a) N2O5 (p) sp d (w) sp, sp
2 3 3 2
(b) BrF3 (q) sp (x) sp d, sp d
3 2 2 3
(c) Cl2O6 (r) sp d (y) Sp , sp
3 3 3 2
(d) IF5 (s) sp (z) sp , sp d
(A) (a, q, w); (b, p, z); (c, s, z); (d, r, y) (B) (a, q, z); (b, p, x); (c, s, w); (d, r, y)
(C) (a, q, w); (b, p, z); (c, s, y); (d, r, x) (D) (a, p, w); (b, q, z); (c, s, x); (d, r, y)
4. The following reversible reaction starts only with A;

1
K1 sec
A 1
B;
K 2 sec
What is the time taken by the reaction to achieve equilibrium?

1 K 1 K
(A) n 1 1 (B) n 1 1
K1 K2 K2 K2
1 K K1 1 K
(C) n 2 (D) n 2 1
K1 K1 K2 K1
5. Which of the following give an acidic gas on heating?

(A) (NH4)2CO3 (B) N2H5NO2
(C) AgNO3 (D) All of these
6. Which of the following set of polymers belongs to condensation polymer?

(A) Nylon-66, Kevlar, orlon (B) Orlon, Perlon, Nylon-66
(C) Polytetrafluoroethylene, Nylon-66, Bakelite (D) Bakelite, Nylon, Kevlar
7. Which of the following acquire bent shape upto appreciable extent?

(A) CH3NCS (B) H3Si – NCS
+
(C) PH2NCS (D) I3
8. Which of the following is/are correct combination about cellulose and starch?
Cellulose Starch
I II III IV
(A) Natural polymer Linear polymer Natural polymer Cross linked polymer
(B) Natural polymer Cross linked polymer Natural polymer Linear polymer
(C) Homo polymer Condensation Co polymer Condensation polymer
polymer
(D) Randum Imparts blue colour Graft polymer Imparts blue colour to
polymer to KI solution KI solution
9. Which of the following is/are correct about the product (P) of the following process?
NH2
1 H2SO4 dil.
2 Prolonged heating at 180o C
Product P ;
(A) M.P. of P is very high. (B) P is soluble in aqueous NaOH.

(C) P is insoluble in HCl solution. (D) It is electrically neutral.
Comprehension Type
Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 to 11
In case of alkanes anticonformers are more stable than Gauche and other conformations. However, in case of
the groups at adjacent positions, strong van der Waals forces of attraction or hydrogen bonding are more
stabilized in Gauche form instead of anti form. In E2 reactions anti elimination occurs while in E1 & E1cB it is
not necessary.
10. In the following reaction which ‘H’ eliminates preferentially from alkyl fluoride?
Hb
NO 2
NaOH
Ha Hd EtOH
alkene
CH3 Hc
F
(A) Ha (B) Hb
(C) Hc (D) Hd
11. For which of the following compound, Gauche conformation is more stable than its anticonformation?
H H
(A) H3C C C CH3 For C1 H & C2 Clbond

1 2
C2H5 Cl
(B) H
H C NH2 For .p. & C H bond
C2H5
(C) CH2 CH2 In aqueous solution
Cl Cl
(D) CH2 CH2 COOH & SH at high pH
HOOC SH
Solubility of salts in water is mainly depends upon the hydration energy and lattice energy. It hydration energy
is greater than lattice energy then the salt becomes soluble. However, if the metallic part of the salt form
soluble complex in some specific conditions then again it becomes soluble under those conditions, not in pure
water. Hydration energy and lattice energy both are directly proportional to q+ and q (charges on the cationic
and anionic part of the salts respectively) and both of those depend on the size of cations and anions as
follows:
1 1
hydrationH ;r radius of cation
r r
r = radius of anion.
1
Lattice energy U ;
r r
+
In this case if r >> r then lattice energy is less dominant than hydration energy. Lattice energy on the other
hand also depend upon packing of ions in crystal, which further depends upon the size of cation and anion,
better is the packing and more is the lattice energy and less is the solubility.
12. Which of the solubility order is correct?

(A) BeO < MgO < CaO < SrO < BaO (B) NaBr < KBr < RbBr < CsBr
(C) NaClO3 > KClO3 > RbClO3 > CsClO3 (D) BeS2O3 < MgS2O3 < CaS2O3 < SrS2O3
13. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Oxalates, Borates and Chromates of alkali metals as well as alkaline earth metals are soluble in
water.
(B) All permanganate salts are soluble in water but all nitrite salts are not.
(C) Permanganate salts of alkali metals are soluble in water however solubility of permanganates of
alkaline earth metals increases down the group. And Ba(MnO4)2 is insoluble in water.
H2O
(D) Na2CO3 AgNO3 boiled above 300o C
Brown precipitate of Ag2O.
14. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Na3PO4 aq. AgNO3 Light yellow precipitate
Cold
Re ddish brown precipitate
(B) KHCO3 HgCl2

Boiled
No precipitate
(C) On adding HgCl2 to KHCO3 solution in cold, pH decreases drastically.
(D) Na2CO3 aq. BaCl2 aq. White precipitate

Excess of NaOH solution
Clear solution
SECTION – B
1. Match the following columns for P & R:
R P
Column I Column II
(P) (R)
Na,NH3
(A) (p)
(B) (q) H2, Pd/BaSO4/quinoline
2+
(C) (r) H2O/Hg /H2SO4
(D) (s) Excess H2/Ni/
(t) (i) B2H6/THF (ii) H2O2/OH
2. Match the Column – I with Column II:

Column – I Column – II
(A) P1
Isothermal process (reversible) (p) W 2.303nRT log
P2
(B) Adiabatic process (q) PV constant

(C) nR (r) V1
W T2 T1 W 2.303nRT log
1 V2
(D) Irreversible isothermal process (s) W = -Pext(V2 – V1)
SECTION – C
(both inclusive).
X
1. Number of bond in Fe2(CO)9 is X and 3 , then value of ‘n’ will be.
n
2. 100 ml of ‘x’ normal H2O2 gives 3 litre of O2 gas under the conditions when 1-mole occupies 24 litre.
What is the value of x?
3. A complex is represented by CoCl3yNH3. It’s 0.1 molal solution freezes at –0.558°C. Kf H2O = 1.86 K
–1
Kg mol . Coordination number of Co(III) is six. Assuming 100% ionization, what is the value of y ?
3
4. How many of the following bear unpaired electron in sp hybridised orbitals?
ClO2; ClO3; NO2; NO; CH3 ; CF3 ; ICl2;
5. How many gases/vapours are involved either as reactants or products in Serpeck’s process used for
concentration of bauxite (Al2O3.2H2O) ?
PART – III
SECTION – A
1. The number of ways in which three couples can sit around a rectangular table with three seats each
along the opposite length of table, such that no couple sit in front of each other is ___ (seats are
numbered)
(A) 6 P3 2 (B) 384
(C) 424 (D) none of these
2. If there exists atleast one z satisfying |z – ki| = k + 4 and |z – 3| 4, then which of following can not be
the value of k
(A) 4 (B) 0
3
3. Let f(x) = 27 + x + x . The values of x which satisfy f f f f x f f f x is
(A) –10 < x < –4 (B) x < –10
(C) x > –3 (D) none of these
4. Let p, q, r are three vectors such that p r q p and p r 1 then which of following is true
p q p p q
(A) 2 2
(B) r 2
p p
2
2p q
(C) p q r 2
(D) none of these
p
5. If f(x) be a differentiable function in interval (– , ) such that f(x) = f(10 – x), then the value of
5
2
f ' 5 x x 4 e x dx is
5
2 5 2
(A) 5e – 1 (B) e 1
3
1
(C) 0 (D)
3
Space for rough work
6. The degree of differential equation for the family of curves such that the tangent at any point P on
curve divides the OPN in the ratio 1 : 2, where PN is perpendicular to x-axis and O is origin, is
(A) 1 (B) 2
7. If A BA = 0 for all 3 1 column matrices A, then which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
(where A represents transpose of matrix A)
(A) B is a skew symmetric matrix (B) B is a non singular matrix
(C) B is a singular matrix (D) |B| = 0
8. If f: [0, 27] R be a differentiable function such that f(0) = 0, f(10) = 1 and f(27) = 1, then which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct
1
(A) there exist some where f '
10
(B) there exist some where f ( ) = 0
(C) f (x) < 0 x (0, 27)
27
2 3 2 3
(D) there exist some , (0, 3) such that 2 f t dt 9 f f
0
9. If f(x) be twice differentiable function such that f (x) is positive in [0, 4], then which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct
(A) f(0) + f(4) = 2f(c) for atleast one c (0, 4) (B) f(0) + f(4) < 2f(2)
4
(C) f(0) + f(4) > 2f(2) (D) 2f(0) + f(4) > 3f
3
Comprehension Type
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
2 2 2 2 2
For the equation (2x – 1) + 2ax(2x – 1) + x (4a – 1) = 0
10. The values of a for which above equation has all roots positive
(A) (– , –1) (B) (–1, 2)
(C) (2, ) (D) none of these
11. The values of a for which above equation has two positive and two negative roots
(A) (– , –4) (B) (5, )
1 1
(C) , (D) none of these
3 3
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
The differentiable function y = f(x) has property that chord joining any two points A( , f( )) and B( , f( ))
always intersects the y-axis at (0, 3 ). If f(1) = 2 then
1
12. f x dx is
0
5
(A) 1 (B)
2
3
(C) (D) none of these
2
13. If the area bounded by y = f(x) and y = mx – 2 is minimum, then the value of m is
(A) 5 (B) 6
14. The equation of circle which touches y = f(x) at (1, 2) and passes through (0, 0) is
2 2 2 2
(A) (x – 1) + (y – 2) + 5(y + x – 3) = 0 (B) (x – 1) + (y – 2) + 4(y + x – 3) = 0
2 2 2 2
(C) (x – 1) + (y – 2) + (y + x – 3) = 0 (D) 3(x – 1) + 3(y – 2) + 5(y + x – 3) = 0
SECTION – B
1. Match the following Column-I with Column-II

(A) If
10 20 20 9 20 19 8 20 18 20 10
2 · C0· C10 – 2 · C1· C9 + 2 · C2· C8 – … + C10· C0
20 ,
= Ck then the value of k is (p) 10
(B) If the product of all divisors of 240 is 2 3 5 , then the value

(q) 12
of is
6
3 5 7 9
(C) If the number of divisors of the number n = 2 3 5 7 of the
t (r) 6
form 4k + 3 is t then is
20
(D) Let set A has 4 elements and a subset P is randomly
formed from set A. Set A is reconstructed and again a 93
subset Q is randomly formed from set A. The probability (s)
that number of elements in set P are greater than number 256
of elements of set Q is
93
(t)
128
2. Match the following Column-I with Column-II

x 2m , if x 1
(A) If f : R R, f x , then for all
mx 4 , if x 1 (p) one-one function
values of m (– , –2) f(x) is
x x
(B) If f : R – { , } R, f x . < < < ,
x x (q) many-one function
then f(x) is
2x
(C) If f : R (– , 0], f x ln x
, then f(x) is (r) into function
2 1
1 3
(D) If f : R R, f(x) = x 2x 2 6x sin x 1 , then f(x)
3 (s) onto function
is
(t) invertible function
SECTION – C
(both inclusive).
n2
n n 1
1. If L = lim ln e , then is _____
n n 1 L
x2 y 2
2. The line y + x = 2 intersects ellipse 1 at A and B. A circle with diameter AB is drawn to
16 9
intersect the same ellipse at two more points C and D. If equation of line CD is y = mx + c, then the
value of m is _____
3
3 1/3
3. The value of 1 x 1 x2 1 dx is _____
1
4. Let points A, B, C be (0, 0), (1, 0), (2, 0) respectively. A point P moves in the xy-plane such that
3
maximum {PA + PB, PB + PC} 2. If the area of region bounded by point P is k , then the
3 4
value of k is _____
5. The slope of the tangent at ( 1, f( 1)) to the continuous and differentiable

x2 10x 6 , x 2
2
function f x ax bx c , 2 x 0 is _____
2
x 4x , x 0

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MOCK TEST-7

IIT – JEE, 2019

A. Question Paper Format

Straight Objective Type

1. Two positive point charges q1 and q2 of magnitude 16 nC and 144

3. A plank of mass M and sphere of mass 2 M are kept on a smooth inclined

Space for Rough work

4. A plane mirror is rotating about point ‘O’ with y

5. Three long wires are placed in xy plane in a gravity free space y

Space for Rough work

Multiple Correct Choice Type

7. Three capacitors A, B, and C of capacitance 2 F , 2 F and 4 F A

8. A block of mass 1 kg is released from the top of a wedge of mass 2 kg. 1 kg

9. Three concentric spherical shells of radius a, 2a and 4a P

Space for Rough work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 and 11

One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a process AB P

10. Choose the correct option regarding the process A B.

Space for Rough work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 and 14

Five equal resistances, a capacitor and two batteries are V

12. Current in the branch of capacitor at t = 5/8 s is (approximately)

13. Current in the branch AB at t = 5/8 s is (approximately)

14. Potential difference between points A and C at t = 5/8 s is (approximately)

Space for Rough work

(Matching List Type)

1. A narrow slit S transmitting light of wavelength is placed a

Space for Rough work

3. Four blocks A, B, C and D of equal mass are placed on the d d d d

4. The reflecting surface of two mirrors M1 and M2 are at angle M2

Space for Rough work

Straight Objective Type

1. Which of the following is correct order of stability of given species?

(I) (II) (III) (IV) H2C NH2 (V) CH2OH

2. Compare the C – O bond lengths in the following?

(d) (e) CO23 (f) RCOO

Space for Rough work

4. The following reversible reaction starts only with A;

What is the time taken by the reaction to achieve equilibrium?

5. Which of the following give an acidic gas on heating?

6. Which of the following set of polymers belongs to condensation polymer?

Space for Rough work

Multiple Correct Choice Type

7. Which of the following acquire bent shape upto appreciable extent?

(A) M.P. of P is very high. (B) P is soluble in aqueous NaOH.

Space for Rough work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 to 11

(A) H3C C C CH3 For C1 H & C2 Clbond

Space for Rough work

Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 14

12. Which of the solubility order is correct?

13. Which of the following is correct?

14. Which of the following is correct?

(B) KHCO3 HgCl2

(D) Na2CO3 aq. BaCl2 aq. White precipitate

Space for Rough work

(Matching List Type)

1. Match the following columns for P & R:

(B) (q) H2, Pd/BaSO4/quinoline

(D) (s) Excess H2/Ni/

(t) (i) B2H6/THF (ii) H2O2/OH

2. Match the Column – I with Column II:

(B) Adiabatic process (q) PV constant