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Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
BATCHES – 1819 (MAINS)
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4
(four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of
each question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item
in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall /
room.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
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PART – I : PHYSICS
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Two satellites A and B go round a planet P in circular orbits having radii 4R and R respectively. If
the speed of the satellite A is 3V, the speed of the satellite B will be
(A) 12 V (B) 6 V
4V 3V
(C) (D)
3 2
2. The escape velocity on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. What would be the escape velocity
on the surface of another planet of the same mass but 1/4 times the radius of the earth?
(A) 44.8 km/s (B) 22.4 km/s (C) 5.6 km/s (D) 11.2 km/s
3. Two water pipes of diameters 2 cm and 4 cm are connected with the main supply line. The
velocity of flow of water in the pipe of 2 cm diameter is
1
(A) 4 times that in the other pipe (B) times that in the other pipe
4
1
(C) 2 times that in the other pipe (D) times that in the other pipe
2
4. A metal wire of length L and radius r is clamped rigidly at one end. A force F is applied at another
end so that its length increases by L. The increase in length of another metal wire of length 2L
and radius 2r, when stretched by a force 2F, will be
(A) 2L (B) L (C) L/2 (D) L/4
5. Two soap bubbles with radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) come in contact. Their common surface has a radius
of curvature
r1 r2 r1 r2 r1 r2
(A) (B) (C) (D) r1 r2
2 r1 r2 r1 r2
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7. Maximum acceleration of an object in simple harmonic motion is 24 m/s 2 and maximum velocity is
16 m/sec. The amplitude of object is
32 3 2 3
(A) m (B) m (C) m (D) m
3 32 3 2
8. Time period of a simple pendulum of length L is T1 and time period of a uniform rod of the same
length L pivoted about one end and oscillating in a vertical plane is T2. Amplitude of oscillations in
both the case is small. Then T1/T2 is
4 3 1
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D)
3 2 3
10. A racing car moving towards a cliff sounds its horn. The driver observes that the sound reflected
from the cliff has a frequency one octave higher than the actual frequency of the horn. If v is the
velocity of sound, then the velocity of the car is
v v v v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4 3
11. The end correction of a resonance column is 1.0 cm. If the shortest length resonating with a
tuning fork is 14.0 cm, the next resonating length is
(A) 44 cm (B) 45 cm (C) 46 cm (D) 47 cm
12. A stretched wire of some length under a tension is vibrating with its fundamental frequency. Its
length is decreased by 45% and tension is increased by 21%. Now its fundamental frequency
(assuming linear mass density remains the same)
(A) increases by 50% (B) increases by 100%
(C) decreases by 50% (D) decreases by 25%
Rough work
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13. Speed of sound wave is v. If a reflector moves towards a stationary source emitting waves of
frequency f with speed u, the frequency of reflected wave will be
vu vu vu vu
(A) f (B) f (C) f (D) f
vu v vu v
14. Oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. Equal volumes of hydrogen and oxygen are mixed.
The ratio of the velocity of sound in the mixture to that in oxygen is
1 32 17
(A) (B) (C) (D) 8
8 17 32
16. If the temperature of the sun is increased from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then the ratio
of the radiant energy received on earth to what it was previously will be
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 64
(A) T1 T2 (B) T1 T2
(C) T1 T2 (D) cannot be predicted
Rough work
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19. The density of the core of a planet is r1 and that of the outer shell is
2R
r2, the radii of the core and that of the planet are R and 2R
respectively. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the
planet is same as at a depth R. Find the r1/r2.
r1
r1 5 r1 7 R
(A) (B)
r2 3 r2 3 r2
r1 4 r1 9
(C) (D)
r2 3 r2 3
20. A point P
3 R, 0 , 0 lies on the axis of a ring of mass M and radius R. The ring is located in
y – z plane with its centre at origin O. A small particle of mass m starts from P and reaches O
under gravitational attraction only. Its speed at O will be
GM Gm
(A) (C)
R R
GM GM
(C) (D)
2R 2R
21. If the ratio of intensities of two waves causing interference by 9 : 4, then the ratio of the resultant
maximum and minimum intensities will be
(A) 9 : 4 (B) 3 : 2
(C) 25 : 1 (D) 5 : 1
22. A rigid circular loop of radius r and mass m lies in the x-y plane on a flat table and has a current
®
flowing in it. At this particular place. The earth’s magnetic field is B = Bx i + By j . The minimum
value of for which one end of the loop will lift from the table is
mg mg mg mg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
r Bx rB y 2
2r B x B y2
r B 2x B 2y
Rough work
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(A) 0.35 N-m (B) 0.25 N-m (C) 0.55 N-m (D) 2.5 N-m
r
27. A wire of length 5.0 cm carries a current of 3.0 A; kept in an external uniform magnetic field B of
magnitude10-3 Wbm-2. Calculate the magnetic force exerted on the wire, if the wire is inclined at
30° with B .
(A) 7.5 ´ 10-5 N (B) 5.7 ´ 10-5 N (C) 5 ´ 10-5 N (D) 7 ´ 10-5 N
28. There are 50 turns of a wire in every cm length of a long solenoid. If 4 ampere current is flowing
in the solenoid, the approximate value of magnetic field along the axis at an internal point and at
one end will be approximately:
(A) 12.6 ´ 10-3 wb/m2 and 6.3 ´ 10-3 wb/m2 (B) 12.6 ´ 10-3 wb/m2 and 25.1 ´ 10-3 wb/m2
(C) 25.1 ´ 10 wb/m and 12.6 ´ 10 wb/m
-3 2 -3 2
(D) 25.1 ´ 10-5 wb/m2 and 12.6 ´ 10-5 wb/m2
Rough work
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PART – II : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. 2.8 g of a gas at 1 atm and 273K occupies a volume of 2.24 litres. The gas can not be
(A) O2 (B) CO
(C) N2 (D) C2H4
2. Pressure of 1 g ideal gas X at 300 K is 2 atm. When 2 g of another gas Y is introduced in the
same vessel at same temperature, the pressure become 3 atm. The correct relationship between
molar mass of X and Y is is
(A) MY 2MX (B) MY 4MX
(C) MX 4MY (D) None of these
3. An ideal solution was found to have a vapour pressure of 80 torr when the mole fraction of a non-
volatile solute was 0.2. What would be the vapour pressure of the pure solvent at the same
temperature?
(A) 64 torr (B) 80 torr
(C) 100 torr (D) 400 torr
Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mole X Px 150 torr and 2 mol Y PY 300 torr is 240
º º
4.
torr. In this case
(A) there is a negative deviation from Raoult’ law
(B) there is a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(C) there is no deviation from Raoult’s law
(D) can not be decided
5. PtCl4 �6H2O can exist as a hydrated complex. Its 1 molar aq. Solution has depression in freezing
point of 3.72. Assume 100% ionisation and K f H2 O 1.86º C mol kg, then complex is
1
Pt H2 O 6 �
(A) �
� Cl4
� Pt H2O 4 Cl2 �
(B) �
� �Cl2 �
2H2O
Pt H2O 3 Cl3 �
(C) �
� �Cl �
3H2O Pt H2O 2 Cl4 �
(D) �
� �. 4H2O
Rough work
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6. Consider 0.1 M solutions of two solutes X and Y. The solute X behaves as a univalent electrolyte
while the solute Y dimerises in solution. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
these solutions?
(1) The boiling point of the solution of X will be higher than that of Y
(2) The osmotic pressure of the solution of Y will be than that of X
(3) The freezing point of the solution of X will be lower than that of Y
(4) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of both the solutions will be the same
Select the correct answer from the option given below
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
7. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest osmotic pressure?
(A) 0.011 M AlCl3 at 50ºC (B) 0.03 M NaCl at 25ºC
(C) 0.012 M NH4 2 SO 4 at 25ºC (D) 0.03 M NaCl at 50ºC
9. Which of the following expression is correct in case of a sodium chloride unit cell (edge length,
a)?
(A) rc ra a (B) rc ra a 2
(C) rc ra 2a (D) rc ra 2a
11. The distance between an octahedral and tetrahedral void in fcc lattice would be
3a 3a 3a
(A) 3a (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4
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12. In the rock salt AB, if C introduced in tetrahedral voids such that no distortion occurs, then formula
of resultant compound is
(A) ABC (B) ABC2
A
(C) 4 4B C (D) ABC8
N
H
HCN
® A ®
LiAlH4
B
NaNO2
HCl
® C
(A) O O
(C) O OH
HO
CH2
15. Which of the following pairs of reactants is most effective in forming an enamine?
O O
Rough work
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OH
PCC
® A
OH
PCC
® B
(A) and (B) is differentiated by
(A) NaH (B) 2-4DNA
(C) Tollen’s reagent (D) NaHSO3
CO 2H CO2H
CH3
CH3
How many product will be formed when above compound undergo de-carboxylation?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
18. Spin only magnetic moment of which of the following complex ion is 4.9 B.M.?
2 2
�Cr NH3 6 �
(A) � � �Fe NH3 6 �
(B) � �
3
�Co H2O 6 � (D) [ NiF6 ]
2
(C) � �
20. For an octahedral complex, which of the following d-electron configuration will give maximum
CFSE?
(A) High spin: d6 (B) Low spin; d5
4
(C) Low spin; d (D) High spin; d7
Rough work
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21. Which of the following complexes cannot exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism?
Co H2O Cl3 �
3
Ru en 3 �
(A) �
� � (B) �
� �
PtBrCl H2O NH3 �
(C) �
� � CoBr2 en 2 �
(D) �
� �
Correct code is
(A) A, B, C (B) B, C
(C) C, D (D) only B
24. SbF5 reacts with XeF4 to form an adduct. The shapes of cation and anion in the adduct are
respectively:
(A) square planar, trigonal bipyramidal (B) T-shaped, octahedral
(C) square pyramidal, octahedral (D) square planar, octahedral
26. The aqueous solution of transition metal salt changes colour from pink to blue, when
concentrated hydrochloric acid is added to it. The change in colour is due to
(A) evolution of hydrogen that changes the oxidation state of the metal ion
(B) change in the coordination number of the metal ion from 6 to 4 and formation of new species
in solution
(C) formation of a coordination complex of the metal ion with hydrochloric acid
(D) protonation of the metal ion
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28. What volume of HCl solution of density 1.2 g/cm 3 and containing 36.5% by mass HCl, must be
allowed to react with zinc (Zn) in order to liberate 4.0 g of hydrogen?
(A) 333.33 mL (B) 500 mL
(C) 614.66 mL (D) None of these
30. Which of the following monomers are involved in the formation of sucrose?
(A) a-D-glycopyuranose and b-D-fructofuranose
(B) b-D-glycopyranose and b-D-fructofuranose
(C) a-D-glycopyranose and a-D-fructofuranose
(D) b-D-Glycopyranose and a-D-fructofuranose.
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2. The least integral value of k such that (k –2)x2+ 8x +k + 4 is positive for all real values of x is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5
3. Let S be the set of values of a for which ( a-4)sec 4x+( a –3)sec2x +1 = 0 has real solutions.
Then S is
(A) R (B) (- ¥, 3]
(C) (4, ¥) (D) [3, 4)
4. If all the real solutions of the equation 4x – ( a – 3)2x + ( a – 4) =0 are non positive, then
(A) 4 < a £ 5 (B) 0 < a< 4
(C) a> 4 (D) a < 3
5. If a, b, c be the sides of DABC and equations ax2 + bx + c = 0 and 5x2 + 12x + 13 = 0 have a
common root, then ÐC is
(A) 60° (B) 90°
(C) 120° (D) 45°
6. If z1, z2, z3 . . .. zn-1 are the roots of the equation z n-1 + zn-2 + zn-3 + . . .+z +1= 0, where n Î N,
n > 2, then
(A) wn, w2n are also the roots of the same equation.
(B) w1/n, w2/n are also the roots of the same equation.
(C) z1, z2, . . . , zn-1 form a geometric progression.
(D) none of these.
Where w is the complex cube root of unity.
7. If z1 and z2 are two complex numbers such that |z1| = |z2| + |z1 – z2|, then
z1 z1
(A) Im = 0 (B) Re = 0
z2 z2
z1 z
(C) Re Im 1 (D) none of these.
z2 z2
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9. y = x + r and y = - x + r where r takes all decimal digits. Then the number of squares in xy plane
formed by these lines with diagonals of 2 units length are
(A) 81 (B) 100
(C) 64 (D) 49
10. Let y be an element of the set A = {1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30} and x 1, x2, x3 be positive integers such
that x1x2x3 = y, then the number of positive integral solutions of x 1x2x3 = y is
(A) 64 (B) 27
(C) 81 (D) None of these
11. The total number of eight-digit numbers, the sum of whose digits is odd, is
(A) 9 ´ 107 (B) 5 ´107
(C) 45 ´ 10 6
(D) 55 ´ 106
12. The sum of the products of the 2n numbers ± 1, ± 2, ± 3, .... , ± n, taking two at a time, is
n2 n 1 n2 n 1
2 2
(A) (B) –
4 4
n n 1 2n 1 n n 1 2n 1
(C) – (D)
6 6
13. A number is chosen at random from the numbers 10 to 99. By seeing the number a man will
laugh if product of the digits is 12. If he choose three numbers with replacement then the
probability that he will laugh at least once is
3 3
3 43
(A) 1 – (B)
5 45
3 3
4 43
(C) 1 – (D) 1 –
25 45
14. Two events A and B have probabilities 0.25 and 0.50 respectively. The probability that both A and
B occur simultaneously is 0.14. Then the probability that neither A nor B occurs is
(A) 0.39 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.11 (D) none of these
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1 x a b
1 1
1 x a b
1 2
1 x a b
1 3
1 x a b
3 1
1 x a b
3 2
1 x a b
3 3
(A) 1 (B) 0
3
(C) a b
i1
i i (D) None of these .
16. For any 1£ r £ n – 1, the value of nCr –2. nCr-1+3.nCr-2 …+(-1)r(r + 1) is equal to
(A) n-1Cr (B) n+1Cr
n-2
(C) Cr (D) n-1Cr-1
tan 3 sin 3
17. If 4, then equals
tan sin
(A) 3/5 (B) 4/5
(C) 3/4 (D) none of these.
19.
If a, b, c are three non-coplanar unit vectors, then a b c is [
]
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 1/ 2 (D) None of these
20. If 1+ 99n, n being an odd positive integer greater than 1, is divisible by 10 m, then largest m is
equal to
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
21. A sequence a1, a2 …. an of real numbers is such that a1 = 0, |a2| = |a1 – 2|, |a3| = |a2 – 2|, ….. |an|
= |an-1 – 2|. Then the maximum value of the arithmetic mean of these numbers is
(A) 1 (B) 4n
(C) n (D) none of these
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1 1 1
22. If , , are in A.P. then 9ax + 1, 9bx+1, 9cx+1, x ¹ 0 are in
b c c a a b
(A) G.P. (B) G.P. only if x < 0
(C) G.P. only if x > 0 (D) none of these
2 12
23. The first two terms of an H.P. are and . The value of the largest term of the H.P. is
5 23
72
(A) (B) 6
73
1
(C) (D) none of these
6
a1 b1 c1
25.
[
]
If â, b̂, ĉ are three non-coplaner unit vectors, then [ â p q] â b̂ p q b̂ [ ĉ p q] ĉ is
equal to
(A) â b̂ ĉ ´ p ´ q
(B) â b̂ ĉ p q
(C) p q (D) p ´ q
26. If a is any vector in
the plane of unit vectors b̂ and ĉ , with b̂ ĉ = 0, then the
magnitude of the vector a ´ b̂ ´ ĉ is
(A) | a | (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) none of these .
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® ® ® ® ® ®
27. OA and OB are two vectors such that | OA OB | = | OA 2 OB | . Then ;
(A) ÐBOA = 90° (B) ÐBOA > 90°
(C) ÐBOA < 90° (D) 60° £ ÐBOA £ 90°
28. If a and b are two unit vectors and is the angle between them, then the unit vector
along the angular bisector of a and b will be given by
ab ab
(A) (B)
2 cos 2 cos
2 2
ab
(C) (D) none of these.
2 sin
2
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_19
ANSWERS KEY
PART – I
PHYSICS
1. B 9. B 17. A 25. A
2. B 10. D 18. B 26. B
3. A 11. A 19. B 27. A
4. B 12. B 20. A 28. C
5. B 13. C 21. C 29. C
6. B 14. B 22. D 30. C
7. A 15. D 23. C
8. C 16. D 24. B
PART – II
CHEMISTRY
1. A 9. B 17. B 25. A
2. B 10. D 18. B 26. B
3. C 11. D 19. B 27. A
4. A 12. B 20. B 28. A
5 C 13. C 21. D 29. A
6. A 14. A 22. D 30. A
7. D 15. B 23. D
8. D 16. C 24. B
PART – III
MATHEMATICS
1. B 9. C 17. D 25. D
2. D 10. A 18. B 26. A
3. D 11. C 19. D 27. B
4. A 12. C 20. D 28. B
5. B 13. D 21. A 29. B
6. C 14. A 22. A 30. D
7. A 15. B 23. B
8. D 16. C 24. B
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_21
1. B
VA rB 3V R
Þ Þ VB 6 V
VB rA VB 4R
2. B
2GM
ve 11 .2 km/s
R
2GM 2GM
ve 2 2 ´ 11.2 22.4 km/s.
R/4 R
3. A
2
V1 A2 d 2
AV = Constant Þ
V2 A1 d1 2
V1 4 2
4
V2 2 2
4. B
FL FL
Y \ l
r 2 l r2
l1 F1 L1 r22 F L 4r
2
= ´
´
2 = 1 : 1
l2 F2 L2 r12 2F 2L r
or l1 = l2
5. B
P0 = atmospheric pressure
4S 4S
p1 p0 and p 2 p0
r1 r2
4 S 4S 4 S
i.e. p 2 p1
r r2 r1
r1 r2
or, r
r1 r2
6. B
m
K ´ 2K 2 T 2
k eq K\ 2
K 2K 3 K
3
7. A
w 2 A 24 …(i)
wA 16 …(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
32
A
3
8. C
L I
T1 2 and T2 2 (physical pendulum)
g MgL / 2
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_22
T1 3
\
T2 2
9. B
l
After P length of pendulum becomes .
4
T T ' T T 3T
Therefore, the desired time will be t
2 2 2 4 4
10. D
In case of reflection from a stationary cliff,
v v0 v
f f 2 f \ v0
v v0 3
11. A
1
e (l 2 3l1 )
2
1
1 l 2 3 ´ 14 Þ l 2 44 cm
2
12. B
1 T
f
2l
1 1.21T 1 T
f 2f
2 ´ 0.55l l
13. C
vu
Apparent frequency for reflector would be f1 f
v
After being reflected the apparent frequency will further change and the reflector will now behave
as a source. The apparent frequency will now become :
v
f2 f1
vu
vu
Finally we get f 2 f
vu
14. B
P v02 rm
v ,
r vm r 02
15. D
dy dy
Particle velocity v
dt dx
dy
or wave velocity ´ slope of the wave
dt
(a) For upward velocity, v Pa ve , so slope must be
negative which is at the points D, E and F.
(b) For downward velocity, v Pa ve , so slope must be negative
which is at the points A, B and H.
(c) For zero velocity slope must be zero which is at C and G.
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_23
mgr ir 2 bx 2 by 2
mg
\i
r bx 2 by 2
23. C
q.V.B mgcos
q(0 gsin .t).B mgcos
mcot
\t
qB
24. B
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_24
3
l R
2
qBR 2 qBl
� \v
m 3 m
25. A
Fm ^ B ® a ^ B
rr
a.B 0
( 8 / 3iˆ yj).(3i
ˆ ˆ 4 ˆj) 0
y=2
26. B
r
| t | = MBsin
= niAB sin
t = (0.04) (2) sin 900
= 0.25 N- m
27. A
The forceis given by the vector relation
F i ´ B
\ F = i B sin where is the angle between and B
F = (3.0A) ´ (5 ´ 10-2 m) ´ (10-3 Wbm-2) ´ 0.5 = 7.5 ´ 10-5 N
The direction of this force is perpendicular to the plane which contains both and B .
28. C
Bin = 0 n i
ni
Bend = 0
2
29. C
df dB R �R �
DV = (Area) � �(Bo )
dt dt 2 �
�2 �
R2
DVAB Bo
4
30. C
di
VA – VB = i(5) + 10V + L
dt
3
= 5(5) + 10 + L( 10 )
VA – VB = 35 – 35 × 10–3 × 10+3 = 0.
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_25
CHEMISTRY
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
1 2
PIdeal solution �150 �300 250
3 3
Q Psolution PIdeal solution ; ve deviation
5 C
3.72 = 1.86 [i m]
i = 2 [Pt H2O 3 Cl3 ] Cl �
3H2 O
6. A
For x i 2 and Y i 1
\ Tb x Tb y ; x y ; Tf x Tf y
7. D
�iCT; iCT is maximum for 0.03 M NaCl at 50ºC
8. D
9. B
10. D
Density of crystal always increases due to substitutional impurity defect.
11. D
Octahedral void present at the centre of cube and tetrahedral void is present at 1 4
th
of the
distance along each body diagonal.
3a
\ 2 ´ distance between octahedral and tetrahedral void.
2
12. B
13. C
NH
NH
N N
H
H
14. A
OH O
OH
O CN CH2 NH2
LiAlH4
HCN
® ® NaNO2 HCl
®
A B
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. B
Complex ions eff in B.M.
2
Cr NH3 6 �
(a) �
� � 2.8
2
Fe NH3 6 �
(b) �
� � 4.9
3
Co H2O 6 �
(c) �
� � 0
(d) [ NiF6 ]
2
0
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_26
19. B
K 2 [ PtCl4 ] Diamagnetic square planar d8 ,SFL, C.N. 4
K 2 [ MnCl4 ] Paramagnetic tetrahedral d5 , WFL, C.N. 4
K 2 [ ZnCl4 ] Diamagnetic tetrahedral C.N. 4
K 2 [ HgI4 ] Diamagnetic tetrahedral d10 ,C.N. 4
20. B
6 4 2
(a) High spin : d � t 2g eg CFSE= –0.4 D0
5 5 0
(b) Low spin : d � t 2g eg CFSE = – 2.0D0
4 4 0
(c) Low spin: d � t 2ge g CFSE = – 1.6D0
7
(d) High spin: d
21. D
Co H2 O Cl3 �
�
� �do not both geometrical and optical isomerism as it has plane of symmetry.
22. D
NH3 is a weak reducing agent than PH3 , because X – H bond strength decreases down the
group. Due to absence of H-bonding, only weak van der Waals force of attraction exists in PH 3, it
has lower critical temperature than NH3 .
23. D
6CaOCl2 ���� Auto
oxidation
� Ca ClO3 2 5CaCl2
24. B
�[ XeF3 ] [ SbF6 ] ��
�[ XeF3 ] [ SbF6 ]
XeF4 SbF5 ��
3 3 2
sp d sp d
bent T shape octahderal
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. A
Zn 2HCl ��� ZnCl2 H2
Moles of H2 evolved = 2
Moles of HCl required = 4
V �1.5 �0.365
4
36.5
V 333.33ml
29. A
Melamine is thermosetting plastic
30. A
Sucrose has 1, 2–glycosidic linkage between a-D-Glycopyranose and b-D-fructofuranose
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_27
MATHEMATICS
1. B
Let f(x, y, z) = x2 + 4y2+ 3z2 – 2x –12y – 6z + 14
= ( x- 1)2 + (2y – 3)2 + 3( z- 1)2 + 1
For least value of f ( x, y, z)
x-1 = 0 ; 2y – 3 =0 and z – 1 =0
\ x = 1 ; y = 3/2 ; z = 1
Hence least value of f(x, y, z) is f( 1, 3/2, 1) = 1 .
2. D
For ( k-2) x2 + 8x +k +4 > 0
(k-2 ) > 0 and (8)2 – 4( k-2)( k +4) < 0
i.e. k > 2 . . . . (1)
and 24 – k2 – 2k < 0
i.e. k2 +2k – 24 > 0
i.e. ( k+6) ( k-4) > 0
Þ k < -6 or k > 4 . . . . . (2)
From (1) and (2), we have k > 4 .
\ The least integral value of k = 5 .
3. D
1
sec2 x= , -1
4a
Rejecting the negative value
1
Sec2x = Þ 4 –a > 0 Þ a < 4 . . . . (1)
4a
1
Also, ³ 1, 4 – a £ 1 . . . . (2)
4a
a³3
Combining (1) and (2) , we get the solution [3, 4) .
4. A
2x = a 3 ± a 3 2 4 a 4
=a – 4 , 1
2
It is given that roots are non-positive
i.e. x £ 0 Þ 2x £ 1 Þ 0 < 2x £ 1 Þ 4 < a £ 5 .
5. B
since 5x2 + 12x + 13 = 0 has imaginary roots as D = 144 – 4 ´ 5 ´ 13 < 0
So, both roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 and 5x2 + 12x + 13 = 0 will be common
a b c
\ Þ a2 + b2 = c2 Þ ÐC = 90°
5 12 13
6. C
Given zn-1 + zn-2+ zn-3 + . . . + z +1 = 0
Þ (z – 1) ( zn-1 + zn-2 + . . . + z +1) = 0, z ¹ 1
Þ zn = 1 = ei2r ( r Î N)
i 2r
Þ zr = r = 1, 2, 3, . . . , n-1
e n
i2 i4 i6 i 2n 2
Þ The roots are , , e n ,, e .
e n e n n
i2
Which is a G.P., with common ratio .
e n
7. A
We have |z1| = |z2| + |z1 – z2|
Þ |z1 – z2|2 = ( |z1| - |z2|)2
Þ |z1|2 + |z2|2 - 2|z1| |z2| cos( 1 - 2) = |z1|2 + |z2|2 - 2|z1| |z2|
z1
Þ cos(1 – 2) = 1 Þ 1 - 2 = 0 Þ arg (z1) – arg(z2) = 0 Þ is purely real
z2
z1
Þ Im = 0 .
z2
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_28
8. D
(3+ 4i)n = 25n
Þ |3 + 4i|n =|25|n Þ (25)n/2 = 52n Þ n = 0.
9. C
Draw all ten lines y = x + r and other ten lines y = -x + r. We can observe that required squares
are 82 = 64
10. A
The number of solutions of the given equation is the same as the number of solution of the
equation x1x2 x3 x4 = 30 = 2 ´ 3 ´ 5 (here x4 is dummy variable)
Hence number of solutions is 43 = 64.
11. C
The numbers will vary from 10000000 to 99999999. If sum of digits of a particular number is
even, then the sum of digits of its next consecutive number will be odd and the sum of
digits of next consecutive number will be even and so on.
As sum of digits of first number is odd and sum of digits of last number is even,
total number of 8 - digit numbers
So number of numbers with sum of digits as odd = .
2
90000000
= 45 ´ 106 .
2
12. C
a a 2 a a
i
2
i
2
i j
i ¹j
Here a i 0
a
1
2 n n 1 2n 1
n
Þ aia j i =
1
´2 r2 = .
i¹j 2 2 r 1 6
13. D
There can be four such numbers i.e. 43, 34, 62, 26.
Whose product of digit is 12.
4 2
Þ Probability that the man will laugh by seeing the chosen numbers =
90 45
3 3
2 43
Þ Required probability = 1– 1 1
45 45
14. A
P(A) = .25, P (B) = .50, P A B .14
P A B P( A ) P(B) P ( A B)
= .25 + .50 – .14 = .61
P A B P A B 1 P A B = 1 – .61 = .39
15. B
Since we are interested in coefficient of x we can ignore higher power of x in the binomial
expansion i.e. (1+x)n = 1+nx shall be taken,
1 a1b 1x 1 a 1b 2 x 1 a 1b 3 x
= a 2 b1 b 2 x a 2 b 2 b3 x 1 a 2b 3 x
a 3 b1 b 2 x a3 b 2 b3 x 1 a 3b 3 x
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_29
a1 a1 1 a1b 3 x
a2 a2 1 a 2b 3 x
a a3 1 a 3b 3 x
= (b1 – b2) (b2 –b3)x2 3 = 0.
Hence coefficient of ‘x’ = 0.
16. C
(1+x)n-2 = (1+x)n (1+x)-2
equating the coefficient of xr on both sides, we get
n-2
Cr = nCr–2. nCr-1+3nCr-2…(-1)r (r+1)
17. D
tan 3 Þ tan2 = 1
4
tan 11
sin 3 1 8
Now, = 3 – 4 sin2 = 3 – 4
sin 2
1 cot 3
18. B
The maximum value of cos 2(cos) is 1 and that of sin 2(sin) is sin21, both exists for
= /2. Hence maximum value is 1+ sin21.
19. D
ab c (a ´ b ).c sin cos a
Þ cannot be found from the data given.
20. D
1 + 99n = 1+ (100– 1)n
= 1+ [ (100)n – n (100)n –1+… + n.100 – 1]
which is divisible by 102. Hence m = 2
21. A
a12 = 0
a22 = a12 + 4 – 4a1
a32 = a22 + 4 – 4a2
....... ..... .
....... ..... .
an2 = a2n-1 + 4 – 4an – 1
a2n+1 = a2n + 4 – 4an
Adding all these, we get
a12 + a22 + … + a2n+1 = (a12 + a22 + … an2) – 4 (a1 + a2 + … + an) + 4n
Þ 4(a1 + a2 + … +an) = 4n - a2n+1
a1 a 2 .... an
Þ £ 1.
n
22. A
2 1 1 2 b a c
We have
c a
b c
a b
b c a b
Þ 2 ab 2b 2 ac 2 bc = 2 bc 2 ac c 2 ab a
Þ 2b = a + c
The given numbers are in G.P. if
2(bx + 1) = ax + 1 + cx + 1 Þ [2b – (a + c)] x = 0
23. B
5 23
and are in A.P.
2 12
7
d=
12
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JEE MAIN TEST SERIES_2018-2019_30
37 7n
Tn = 0 Þ n £ 5 Þ 5th term has least positive value.
12
Therefore largest term of H.P. = 6.
24. B
2
a1 b1 c1 1 0 0 a1 b1 c1
a2 b2 c2 = 0 1 0 =1 Þ a 2 b2 c2 = ± 1 .
a3 b3 c3 0 0 1 a3 b3 c3
25. D
[â p q] = projection of p ´ q in the direction of â . Hence the given vector is p ´ q
26. A
b̂ ´ ĉ =1 . Also angle between the vectors a and b̂ ´ ĉ is 90°.
Hence
a ´ b̂ ´ ĉ
a =a.
27. B
® ® ® ®
Given | OA OB | = | OA 2 OB | .
® ® ® ®
On squaring (OA)2 +(OB)2 +2 OA . OB = (OA)2 + 4(OB)2 +4 OA . OB
Þ 2 OA . OB = - 3 OB 2 < 0
® ®
® ®
Þ 2 | OA | .| OB | cos 0
Þ cos < 0 Þ > 90°
i.e. Ð BOA > 90°.
28. B
ab
vector in the direction of angular bisector of a and b = .
2
a
a b have magnitude cos(/2)
2 /2
ab
so, the unit vector in this direction will have magnitude .
2 cos
2 b
29. B
a ´ b ´ (a ´ c).d
= [( a ´ b.c )a ( a ´ b.a )c ].d = [ a b c ] a. d
30. D
1
A.M. ³ G.M Þ (3tan2 +12 cot2) ³ 6
2
Þ 3 tan2 + 12cot2 has minimum value 12.
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