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Q: Pitch Disconnect Handle pulled free movement of the left yoke causes deflection of which
elevator?
Ans.: Left
Q: Full Rudder travel is restricted with the Flap Selector at 0 by how many degrees?
Ans.: 12 degrees
Q: The maximum airspeed when operating with one rudder actuator at a full 3000 psi is?
Ans.: 200 kts
Q: Can the flaps be configured with a Flap Drive Caution Light illuminated, why?
Ans.: Yes, secondary cable will still drive jackscrews and transfer gearbox
Q: Will the Flaps configure to a normal position with the #1 Engine Shutdown?
Ans.: Yes
Q: How are the Roll Spoilers operating in the Ground Mode normally retracted after landing and
clearing the runway?
Ans.: Once clear of the runway, the spoilers can be retracted by selecting the Flight/Taxi switch to
Taxi.
Q: At speeds above 140 kts (150 kts in the 300's), how is roll control accomplished?
Ans.: Ailerons and Inboard Spoilers
Q: Which flight control surface(s) receive(s) input from the Air Data computer?
Ans.: The Rudder, and Roll Spoilers through rudder actuators which receive airspeed information
from the ADC
Q: For the propeller synchrophase system, which prop is the master and which is the slave?
Ans.: #1 is the Master #2 is the Slave
Q: At what prop RPM will the over-speed governor PNEUMATICALLY control the prop?
Ans.:1308
Q: At what prop RPM will the over-speed governor HYDRAULICALLY control the prop?
Ans.: 1236
Q: Once the Aux Feathering Pump is selected to Feather, how long will it run?
Ans.: 18 seconds
Q: Once the Aux Feathering Pump is selected to Unfeather, how long will it run?
Ans.: 15 seconds
Q: Will the Alternate Feather/Unfeather system work if the engine is not running?
Ans.: Yes, one cycle
Q: The props should be within how many rpm before activating the Synchrophase System?
Ans.: 20 rpm
Q: The Synchrophase System uses the #1 prop as the Master and the #2 prop as the Slave?
Ans.: Yes
Q: An engine failure after takeoff with the Autofeather selected & armed, how much will the good
engine's torque be uptrimmed?
Ans.: Approximately 10%
Q: If electrical power is removed from an engine instrument (i.e. Torque, ITT, etc.), what will the
gauge indicate?
Ans.:
Pointer drops to zero
Digital Indicator is blank
Q: What kind of protection is provided for Nh (high pressure compressor rotor) overspeed?
Ans.: Overspeed protection is provided by separate overspeed circuits in each ECU. Overspeed
circuits shut down the ECU's fuel schedule mode circuits to initiate manual mode engine operation;
ENG MANUAL light is on.
Q: What cockpit caution or advisory lights would be illuminated if an ECU fails or is not operating?
Ans.: ENGINE MANUAL
Q: While on takeoff, a non-critical input of the ECU will cause an engine rollback.
Ans.: No...If the failed input is of a non-critical nature, the ECU will fail, but it will freeze the fuel
schedule at the last point, and the engine will not roll back.
Q: During Quiet Taxi mode the ECU will maintain prop RPM at?
Ans.: 785
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: Power Uptrim on a PW120A will boost output power to?
Ans.: 2,000 SHP
Q: Once an Nh overspeed has occurred, can you select the ECU back on?
Ans.: No. A lockout circuit will prevent the ECU from returning to normal operation when NH drops
below 102%.
Q: In the DHC-8 100, what occurs to the pitch command bar when the TOGA button is pushed?
Ans.: It will instruct you to pitch UP to approximately 10-12 degrees.
Q: In the DHC-8 300, what occurs to the pitch command bar when the TOGA button is pushed?
Ans.: It will instruct you to pitch UP to approximately 9 degrees
Q: How can you change from one Flight Guidance Computer to another in the Dash?
Ans.: Selecting the Left or Right HSI Button
Q: At _____ feet to go, the altitude alert annunciator on each altimeter illuminates and sounds a
warning horn for one second. At _____ feet to level off the light extinguish.
Ans.:
1000
250
Q: Activation of the stick shaker/stick pusher will cause what light to illuminate?
Ans.: A/P Disengage
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: Dual Coupled Approach mode becomes active when?
Ans.: When tracking both localizer and glideslope signals, AND radio altitude is below 1200 feet and
both navigation receivers are valid, the system will transition to the dual HSI mode of operation.
Q: The autopilot/yaw damper channels must be selected to the associated HSI side in order for the
AFCS to operate correctly
Ans.: False
Q: Pressing the STBY button on the Flight Guidance Controller will cancel the Flight Director and
turn off the Autopilot if it is on.
Ans.: False
Q: In a DHC-8 100, the NAV/SEL button must be selected to the captain's side when using what
mode of navigation?
Ans.: AUX
Q: The autopilot may be used during single engine operations after re-trimming.
Ans.: True
Q: The RESET button on the ID-802 panel is used to clear messages on which line?
Ans.: Disengage/Caution/Conditional Status Messages line 2
Q: On which line of the ID-802 panel are active flight director modes displayed?
Ans.: Line 4
Q: For approaches to runways where the glideslope is inoperative, which mode should be selected?
Ans.: NAV
Q: What component provides information to and triggers the overspeed warning horn?
Ans.: Air Data Computer
Q: The standby altimeter receives its information from the Air Data Computer.
Ans.: No. From the Alternate Static Source selection
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: How many Air Data Computers are there?
Ans.: 2
1. FGC
2. AHARS
3. EFIS (if installed)
Q: If an EADI screen fails, the EHSI screen will automatically switch to a composite mode.
Ans.: False, turn off by use the dimmer switch.
Q: The #1 and #2 AHRS receive heading information from flux valves located where?
Ans.: In the Wing-tips
Q: With the accumulator charged to 3000 psi, how many parking brake applications do you have?
Ans.: Approximately 4 applications
Q: The tiller provides ___ degrees of nosewheel steering either side of center.
Ans.: 60
Q: Where does the normal braking system receive its hydraulic power from?
Ans.: # 1 Hydraulic System FARPIN
Q: The rudder pedals provide approximately ___ degrees of nosewheel steering either side of center
with the nosewheel steering turned on.
Ans.: 7 degrees
Q: Must the gear lever lock release button be held down when making a gear selection?
Ans.: Yes
Q: A LDG GEAR INOP caution light indicates a failure associated with what valve?
Ans.: Failure of a Gear Door Sequencing Valve
Q: The solenoid sequence valve gets its signal to open or close the gear doors from the PSEU.
Ans.: True. Sequencing and indication for the gear and gear doors is controlled by the Proximity
Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU).
Q: How long do the anti-skid lights stay on when testing is performed on the ground?
Ans.: 3 seconds - in flight
6 seconds - on ground
Q: Which component monitors the position of the uplocks, downlocks, and gear door positions?
Ans.: The PSEU interrogates each sensor several times a second.
Q: Where does the emergency parking brake receive its hydraulic pressure from?
Ans.: #2 Hydraulic System
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: When will the landing gear warning horn sound?
Ans.:
Non-mutable:
Not Down and Locked
Flaps Set 15 or greater,
Autofeather System Off
Power Levers Below Takeoff Setting
Mutable:
Not Down and Locked
One or both Power Levers near FLT IDLE
Airspeed Below 130
Q: With anti-skid on and operating, at what point are the brakes available after touchdown?
Ans.: When the Wheels spin up to at least 35 knots, or 2.5 seconds after touchdown
Q: Does the LDG GEAR INOP caution light require an alternate gear extension?
Ans.: Yes. Normal extension will cause damage due to failure of a door valve
Q: During an alternate gear extension, if the landing gear fails to free-fall to the down and locked
position the main and nose gear can be manually pumped down.
Ans.: No. Only the main landing gear can be pumped into position. The nosewheel free falls.
Q: How many degrees will the nose wheel free-caster left or right of center?
Ans.: 120
Q: What is meant by the illumination of the ENG HYD PUMP caution light?
Ans.: No.1 or No. 2 Engine-driven pump has failed (pressure below 2000 psi.
Q: Which hydraulic system are the Inboard Roll Spoilers a part of?
Ans.: No. 1 Hydraulic System
Q: Which hydraulic system are the Normal Wheel Brakes a part of?
Ans.: No. 1 Hydraulic System
Q: Which hydraulic system are the Outboard Roll Spoilers a part of?
Ans.: No. 2 Hydraulic System
Q: The STBY HYD PUMP HOT caution light indicates that the pump motor is overheated and the
crew should do what?
Ans.: Nothing. It will be available as soon as it cools.
Q: The standby pressure gauge always reads the pressure of the standby hydraulic pump only?
Ans.: Yes. Indicates pressure produced by the #1 (left scale) and #2 (right scale) electrically driven
standby hydraulic pumps
Q: What is one proprietary name for the hydraulic fluid used on the DHC-8?
Ans.: Skydrol
Q: The minimum dispatch hydraulic quantity for the #1 and #2 systems are___and ___ respectively.
Ans.: #1 1.5 qts
#2 3.0 qts
Q: The normal hydraulic system pressure via the engine driven pump is _____ psi.
Ans.: 3000 psi
Q: The ENG HYD PUMP caution light illuminates when the engine driven hydraulic pump output
pressure falls below _____ psi.
Ans.: 2000 psi
Q: The FLAP POWER caution light illuminates when the hydraulic pressure at the flap motor falls
below _____ psi
Ans.: Hydraulic pressure in flap power unit during flap extension or retraction is below 1,500 psi
(3,000 normal).
Q: What is the pilot action for a MAIN BATT HOT warning light?
Ans.: Select Main Battery OFF. Monitor Main Battery Temperature
Q: What (is/are) the Immediate Action Item(s) associated with the MAIN BATT HOT warning light?
Ans.: Affected battery, verify over temperature. Affected battery select off
Q: A "L AC BUS" or "R AC BUS" caution light indicates a fault on which bus?
Ans.: The fault is on the associated variable ac bus, Left or Right
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: If a DC Generator fails in flight, will its respective Main Bus be powered?
Ans.: Yes. Main DC Buses will tie to provide power
Q: What are the only times (other than when on external power or the APU is operating), that the
Main to Secondary buses tie?
Ans.: When the Bus Tie Logic System detects no power from output from BOTH generators, and
BOTH TRUs are on-line...
Or, No power output from BOTH TRUs and BOTH Generators are on-line
1. Engine 1
2. Engine 2
3. APU
Q: Why is the max load limitation of a DC Gen only 0.7 when on the ground?
Ans.: To prevent overheating (through current load) on the ground
Q: If a TRU fails in flight, will the Secondary Bus on the same side be powered?
Ans.: Yes. If a TRU Failure occurs, the Secondary DC buses tie. If a double TRU failure occurs,
Secondary DC buses tie to Main DC buses.
Q: The Maximum DC Generator load meter reading during flight ops is?
Ans.: 1.00
Q: Maximum Inverter load meter reading for ground and flight ops is?
Ans.: 1.00
Q: The AC Generator output voltage is regulated to within plus or minus how many volts?
Ans.: 2.8 v
Q: A 26 vac caution light could illuminate under several conditions. What are they?
Ans.: Loss of power on left 26-volt fixed frequency bus and possible loss of power on 115-VAC
fixed-frequency bus.
Q: What happens to the Main Bus Tie when the DC BUS caution light illuminates?
Ans.: Bus bar protection unit inhibits buses from tying, then after seven-to-nine-second delay,
isolates and shuts down the affected DC generator and removes affected battery from faulty main
bus. All services on affected left or right main DC buses are affected.
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: Max AC Generator loadmeter reading for ground ops above +10 degrees C is?
Ans.: .33
Q: How can the Left Main Bus be powered with only battery power available?
Ans.: Select MAIN BUS TIE (ON)
Q: If DC external power is still powering the electrical system, will a DC Generator come online
after an engine start?
Ans.: No
Q: What happens when you pull the "PULL FUEL OFF" handle?
Ans.:
1. Arms the extinguisher
2. Closes the fuel Shut off valve
3. Closes the hydraulic emergency shut off valves.
Q: Must both smoke detectors sense a baggage compartment smoke condition in order for an
indication to be received on the flight deck?
Ans.: No. Either detector will activate the alarm.
Q: How can you confirm a fire bottle has discharged from the cockpit?
Ans.: The amber bottle discharge light goes out.
Q: DHC-8 incorporates a two-shot capability extinguishing system. What does this mean?
Ans.:
2 Shots into one Nacelle
or
1 shot into each Nacelle
Q: If the flight crew must use the cockpit fire extinguisher, what should the crew do?
Ans.: Must don oxygen masks and use oxygen 100%
Q: How many lights should you see when conducting the APU fire test?
Ans.: 8 lights
1. FIRE (red)
2. FAULT (amber)
3. BTL (amber)
4. FUEL VALVE CLOSED (white)
5. Master CAUTION (amber)
6. Master WARNING (red)
7. APU Caution (amber)
8. CHECK FIRE DET (red)
Q: When a fire is detected by the loop around the APU, the fire bottle will operate automatically as
long as what bus has power?
Ans.: Essential.
Q: Will the APU fire extinguisher switch operate manually without the Battery Master switch on?
Ans.: Yes
Q: What is the automatic feature associated with the ACM PACK HOT caution light in a DHC-8
Ans.: 100? All engine bleeds to the pack shut off.
Q: AIR COND PACK HOT caution light indicates that excessive temperature is being sensed where?
Ans.:
1. Compressor discharge
2. Over temperature switch
Q: Can the Flight Compartment Fan (pre mod 8/1538) be switched on in flight?
Ans.: No
Q: If a cooler cabin temperature is selected, what will the ACM pack bypass valve do?
Ans.: Opens to allow bleed air into the ACM
Q: Can the crew select cabin temp in the "manual" mode while the flight compartment temp
controller is in the auto mode?
Ans.: Yes
Q: Does the pressurization toggle switch have to be in manual for the manual increase knob to
work?
Ans.: No
Q: What is the difference between the forward outflow selector and the manual increase knob?
Ans.: They both open the forward outflow valve, but the manual increase knob allows a modulated
opening.
Q: What happens when the pressurization toggle switch is selected to the "manual" position?
Ans.: The rear outflow valve closes and pressurization is accomplished by modulating the forward
outflow valve.
Q: What occurs when the pressurization toggle switch is selected to the "auto" position?
Ans.: Cabin Altitude Computer signals aft outflow valve to maintain cabin altitude selected
Q: What is the position of the rear outflow valve when the aircraft is on the ground? (Engines
running bleed on)
Ans.: WOW keeps the outflow valve open when on the ground
Q: When controlling pressurization manually, the manual increase knob should be turned which
way to decrease cabin altitude?
Ans.:
1. Clockwise Increases altitude
2. Counterclockwise Decreases altitude
Q: Are both outflow valves capable of automatic pressure relief at 5.8 +/- .15 PSI?
Ans.: Yes
Q: What is the cabin rate of change when the rate knob is at the index?
Ans.: 500 fpm up and 300 fpm down
Q: How do we change from fully automatic mode to semi-automatic mode for the pressurization
system?
Ans.:
1. Cabin alt Mode AUTO
2. Cabin Alt Auto CAB SET
3. Cabin Alt Rate Index mark
4. Cabin Alt Indi Desired Cabin Alt
5. Baro Current setting
6. Manual control Fully counterclockwise
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: What does the MIN/MAX rheostat on the bleed control panel do?
Ans.: Controls bleed air flow rate to the packs.
Min-minimum flow
Max-maximum flow
Q: What type of overheat protection is available for the windshield heat system?
Ans.: If an overheat condition occurs (42c is norm), the system is de-energized.
Q: How long does each de-ice boot inflate in the automatic mode?
Ans: 6 seconds
Q: How long is the dwell time when the auto mode selector is set to FAST?
Ans.: 24 seconds
Q: How long is the dwell time when the auto mode selector is set to slow?
Ans.: 204 seconds
Q: How many fuel tanks are installed on the DHC-8 100 and 300 airframe?
Ans.: 2
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: How is fuel moved from the Main Tank to the Collector Tank?
Ans.: In each wing, by means of 3 Scavenger Pumps powered by motive force, and by openings
managed by 3 Flapper Valves
Q: T or F On some Older aircraft, the EMER NORM switch is located where the HOT MIC/ON switch
is normally located.
Ans.: True
Q: T or F the Auto Pilot / Yaw damper channels must be selected to the associated HSI in order for
the AFCS to operate properly
Ans.: False
Q: How long do the Anti-Skid lights stay on during a ground test, and air test?
Ans.:
6 seconds on ground
3 seconds in air
Q: Batteries?
Ans.:
2 NiCad
40 amp hour
3 Battery Switches
Battery Master
Main Battery
Aux Battery
CAS
Main Batt Hot
Aux Batt Hot (65*C)
Dash 8 Systems CQT
Q: Busses?
Ans.:
6- 28VDC
4- 115VAC Fixed Freq.
2- 115VAC Variable Freq.
Q: DC Gen GCU
Ans.:
Regulates to 28 VDC regardless of speed and load
Trips the gen offline during a malfunction
Q: TRU
Ans.:
Transforms- Steps voltage down
Rectifies- AC to DC
Q: What is the difference between the foward outflow selector and the foward valve?
Ans.:
1. Selector- modulates
2. Valve- full closed or open
2. 150 up
90down
3. 2500 up
1500 down