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DATE : 29-04-14 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com

IRP TEST–1 (COURSE-2014)


JEE Advance (Paper-2)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 234
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 48 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 4 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the


invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.

Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ..........................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

e x 1 ; 0  x 1
1. If f(x) =  and g(x) = x2 – ax + b such that f(x)g(x) is continuous in [0, 3) then the
 x  1  { x} ; 1  x  3
ordered pair (a, b) is (where {.} denotes fractional part function) :
(A) (2, 3) (B) (1, 2) (C) (3, 2) (D) (2, 2)

 4 3 2 4 3 2 
2. If xlim  x  ax  3 x  bx  2  x  2x  cx  3 x  d  = 4, then find the value of 2c + a.
  
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12

x y  z
 
3. Let matrix A  1 2 3  where x, y, z  N. If det.(adj.(adj.A)) = 28 · 34 then the number of such matrices
1 1 2 

A, is
[Note : adj. A denotes adjoint of square matrix A.]
(A) 220 (B) 45 (C) 55 (D) 110

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MATHEMATICS
4. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f '(x) = f(x) with f(0) = 1, and g(x) satisfies f(x) + g(x) = ex (x + 1)2, then the
1
–x
value of e
0
f ( x ) g( x ) dx is

e
(A) e (B) e – 1 (C) (D) e – 2
2

3x 2  3 x – 4
5. The function f : R  R defined as f ( x )  is
3  3x – 4 x 2
(A) One to one but not onto (B) Onto but not one to one
(C) Both one to one and onto (D) Neither one to one nor onto


r
6. If and are the roots of the quadratic equation 4x2 + 2x – 1 = 0 then the value of  (  r ) is :
r 1

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 0

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

dx
7. If  1  sin4 x = a tan x + b tan–1 (c tan x) + D, then

1 1
(A) a = (B) b = 2 (C) c  2 (D) b 
2 2 2

(sin(sin x )  sin x ) 1
8. If xlim 3 5
  , then
0 ax  bx  c 12
(A) a = 2 (B) a = –2 (C) c = 0 (D) b  R

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MATHEMATICS
9. All the 7 digit numbers containing each of the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 exactly once and not divisible by 5 are
arranged in increasing order. Then
(A) 1800th number in the list is 3124567 (B) 1897th number in the list is 4213567
(C) 1994th number in the list is 4312567 (D) 2001th number in the list is 4315726

10. The system of equations x + 2y + z = 1, 2x + y + 3z = 2 and 5x + 5y + 9z = 4


(A) is inconsistent for  = 2 (B) is consistent for  = 3

12
(C) has a unique solution for  = 3 (D) has an infinite number of solutions for  =
5

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MATHEMATICSK
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

11. Column-I Column-II


(A) Let P be the product of non-real roots (P) 1
of the equation x4 – 4x3 + 6x2 – 4x = 2010
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function),
P
then find  
10 

(B) Solution of the equation (Q) 2


 4  3x  4
cot  cot –1 2r 2  
  3 x  2 is equal to
 r 1 

(C) Suppose that the functions F(x), G(x) (R) 3


Satisfy the following properties F(3) = 2,
G(3) = 4, G(0) = 3, F(3) = –1, G(3) = 0,
G(0) = 2, If T(x) = F(G(x)) and
U(x) = ln F(x) then | T(0) + 6U(3) | is equal to (S) 4

1
(D) f(x) = x n x then f(x) = 0 then x can be (T) 5

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MATHEMATICS
12. Column-I Column-II

z12 z 22 z32
(A) Let |z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1, + + + 1 = 0, (P) 3
z 2z 3 z 3 z1 z1z 2

then |z1 + z2 + z3| can be equal to


(B) Let |z| = 1, |z – 1| = K sin , where  = arg(z), then K can be equal to (Q) 0
2

K
(C) If |z – (2 + 4i)| = | az  a z  b | , where a = 3 + 4i , b  R, (R) 1
40
locus of z is ellipse, then K can be equal to

(D) Locus of z in part (C) is parabola, then K is equal to (S) 2


(T) 4

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

13. There are 3 different pairs (i.e. 6 units say a, a, b, b, c, c) of shoes in a lot. Now three person come and pick
the shoes randomly (each gets 2 units). Let p be the probability that no one is able to wear shows (i.e. no one

13p
gets a correct pair), then the value of , is _________
4–p

14. If x1, x2 (x1 > x2) are the two solutions of the equation

33
3log 2 x – 12 ( x
log16 9
) = log3  1  , then the value of x1 – 2x2 is
3

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MATHEMATICS
15. The number of solutions of the system of equations :
2sin2x + sin22x = 2
sin2x + cos2x = tanx
in [0, 4] satisfying 2cos2x + sinx  2 is :

16. Consider all 5 digit numbers such that the sum of their digits is 7 and each of the digits 0, 1, 2 occurs atleast
once in them. If N is the number of such numbers, then the sum of the digits of N is

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
17. In nth second of the motion, the distance moved by the body is three times the distance moved in the
previous second. The motion is uniformly accelerated and the initial velocity was zero. Find n.
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

18. The block of mass m is placed on a rough horizontal floor and it is pulled by a ideal string as shown by a
constant force F. As the block moves towards right the friction force on block

(A) Remains constant (B) Increases (C) Decreases (D) Cannot be said

19. At a point on the axis of an electric dipole


(A) The electric field is zero
(B) The electric potential is zero
(C) Neither the electric field nor the electric potential is zero
(D) The electric field is directed perpendicular to the axis

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PHYSICS
20. A point charge q is kept along the axis of an electric dipole at a distance OA = r from it, as shown. Then
electric force exerted by the charge on the dipole is :
pq 2pq O A
q
(A) towards left (B) towards right
4 0 r 3 4 0 r 3 p
pq 2pq
(C) 3 towards right (D) towards left
4 0 r 4 0 r 3

21. The velocity (v) displacement (x) graph for the motion of a particle along x-axis is shown. The average
acceleration over the time interval for the journey from x = 0 to x = L is v
3v0
4 v 20 4 v 20
(A) (B)
Ln3 Ln2
2v 02 3v 02 v0
(C) (D) L
L 2nL x

22. A plank of mass m is free to slide on a frictionless surface S. The plank starts rom rest under the action of the
force F which varies with time t as F = Kt where K is a positive constant. The velocity of the plank at time
2mg
t is
K

mg2 mg2 S
(A) upward (B) downward
K 4K
F
mg2 mg 2
30º
(C) downward (D) upward
8K 2K

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
23. A convex lens made of glass (g = 3/2) has focal length f in air. The image of an object placed infront of it is
inverted, real and magnified. Now the whole iarrangement is immersed in water (w = 4/3) without changing
the distance between object and lens. Then
(A) The new focal length will become 4f (B) The new focal length will become f/4
(C) New image will be virtual and magnified (D) New image will be real, inverted and smaller in size

24. From the floor of a lift moving up, a body is projected at an angle of 30º and with initial velocity of 6 m/s as
observed from the floor of the lift. The body lands back on the floor at a distance of 1.5 3 m from the point of
projection
(A) the lift is moving up with an acceleration of 2 m/s2
(B) the lift is moving up with an acceleration of 3 m/s2
(C) the time of flight is 0.5 s
(D) the time of flight is 0.75 s

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PHYSICS
25. As shown in figure, A and B are two Blocks of mass 5 kg and 10
kg connected by inextensible and massless strings. Pulleys 1, 2,
3 are massless, no friction exists between pulley and strings. The
coefficient of friction between block B and the surface is  = 0.1.
Take g = 10 m/s2. Choose the correct statements
(A) The acceleration of block A is nearly 0.06 ms–2
(B) The acceleration of block B is nearly 0.24 ms–2
(C) The tension in the string connecting pulley 1 and block A is 24.7 N
(D) The tension in the string connecting pulley 3 and block B is 6.175 N

26. In the figure shown is an isolated cylinder with an ideal gas. XY is an


opening and is such that we can shut it at any instant when desired. The
initial pressure, temperature and internal energy are P, T and U respectively.
X
When the opening is shut
P
(A) The pressure in the left and right compartments will be each
2 Y
(B) The temperature in the left and right compartment will be T
X Y
U
(C) The internal energy of the gas in the left and right compartments will be
2
(D) The density of the gas in left and right compartment will be same as that of the initial one

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

27. Column-I lists comments on electric field column-II lists certain charge configuratins.
Column I Column II

(A) Electric field at the point O is (P) An electric dipole. O is on


towards right (+ x-direction) it's perpendicular bisector

(B) Electric field at C (Q) A uniformly positively charged


is zero disc with a cavity inside.
C is centre of disc.

(C) Electric field at C is (R) A regular hexagon with 5


towards left (–x-direction) charges as shown.
C is centre of hexagon.

(D) Electric field at C is (S) A uniformly charged ring with


towards right (+x-direction) centre C, point O and charge
+q in its plane.

(T) A uniformly charged ring with


centre C, point O is on its axis.

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PHYSICS
28. In all the four situations depicted in column-I, a ball of mass m is connected to a string. In each case, find the
tension T in the string, and match the appropriate entries in column-II
Column I Column II


(A) (P) T = mg cos 

Conical pendulum


(B) (Q) T cos  = mg

Pendulum is swinging, angular


position  is the extreme
position, T is tension in
extreme position


a
(C) (R) Speed of ball with respect to ground is costant.

The car is moving with constant


acceleration. The ball is at rest
always with respect to car.

(D) (S) Velocity of ball with respect to ground is changing continuously


v = const.

The car is moving with constant


velocity. The ball is initially at rest
with respect to car in the shown (T) Acceleration of the ball is constant.
position. T is tension in this shown
position

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PHYSICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

29. On both sides of pulley we hang two blocks with the same mass M. At the same time we put two masses on
the blocks on the right, a mass of 3 m and on the left m. Determine the Normal force R (in Newton) acting on
the mass 3 m. Take m = 2 kg, M = 1 kg. Fill R/4 in OMR sheet.

m 3m

30. A gas undergoes a process such that P  1/T. If the molar heat capacity for this process is C = 33.24 J/mol-
K, find the degree of freedom of the molecules of the gas.

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PHYSICS
31. See the diagram. The system is in equilibrium. There is no friction anywhere. Spring, string, pulley are
massless. Spring compression is x cm. Find x.

K = 1000 14 kg
N/m
21 kg
30º

32. The ratio of magnitude of electric field due to +q and –2q at a point where net potential is zero on x-axis is
z : 1, then z will be
y
(6, 0)
+ – x
O +q –2q

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
33. 0.32 gm of CH4(g) is diffused through a pin hole of rigid vessel in 20 sec., if all the SO2(g) at same pressure
and temperature that will diffused through same pin hole in 40 sec. is collected in a closed vessel of volume
1L over liquid water at 27ºC, then calculate total pressure in container. If vapour pressure of water at 27ºC is
27 mm of Hg (Given : Consider SO2 (g) is water insoluble and volume of water is negligible wrt. volume of
vessel)
(A) 401.38 mm of Hg (B) 374.38 mm of Hg
(C) 760.4 mm of Hg (D) 500.5 mm of Hg

34. [A] Shiny white crystal on treatment with AgNO3 gives white crystalline precipitate. Also (A) discharge the
colour of KMnO4 solution but no gas is evolved. Probable radical present in (A)
(A) NO2– (B) Cl– (C) Br– (D) CO32–

35. For the decomposition of H2O2(aq.), when fresh solution of H2O2 (at t = 0) reacted with KMnO4 volume of
KMnO4 used 40 ml, while after 15 min, 30 ml volume of KMnO4 used.
If the same reaction had been followed by measurment of volume of O2 and if VO2 (maximum) was 200 ml at

0ºC and 1 atm. What is the value of VO2 after t = 15 min at same T and P?

(A) 25 ml (B) 50 ml (C) 75 ml (D) 100 ml


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CHEMISTRY
36. Following are the structural formula of two natural products recently synthesised in the laboratory. The
number of stereoisomers possible for each compound are respectively ?

H
O O
CH3CH2
(a) (b) H
A pheromone of the Dictyopterene B
norway spruce beetle (a marine gamete attractant)
(A) 4, 16 (B) 8, 8 (C) 16, 4 (D) 4, 8

37. Match the reactions


Reactions Temperature range

(K) Fe2O3 + CO  CO2 + Fe (I) 1200ºC

(L) C + CO2  CO (II) 900ºC

(M) C + H2O  CO + H2 (III) 600ºC

(N) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (IV) 1100ºC
Choose the correct alternate
K L M N K L M N
(A) IV III II I (B) II IV III I
(C) I II IV III (D) I II III IV
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CHEMISTRY
O
H3C H
OH– (i) LiAlH4 N
38. (A) H 2O H + (C)
(ii) H2O
HO
(B) H CH3

Compound A on reaction with dil. base gives (B) + (C).


Thus, compounds A, C are respectively :
O
H O
O OH
H H N H
H3C
O N
(A) H ,
O H
H CH O
3
O
OH H
O O
H H N
H3C
H
H O O N
(B) ,
H O
H CH3
O
H O
O
OH O N H
H3C
N
H O
(C) ,

H CH3 O O
O
OH H O
O H
H N H
H3C
O N
(D) H O ,
H
CH3 O
H
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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
39. Which of the following set(s) of complexes is/are correct with respect to the properties indicated against
each?
(A) [V(CO)6], K4[Mn(CN)6], Cs2[Ni4+F6] - Low spin octahedral complex with one unpaired electron.
(B) K2[NiCl4], [NiCl(PPh3)3], [NiCl2(PPh3)2] - Tetrahedral geometry containing two unpaired electrons.
(C) Cs[AgF4], [Cu(NH3)4] (NO3)2, K2[Zn(CN)4] - Square planar geometry and diamagnetic.
(D) Na[Co(CO)4], [Ni(CO)4], Na2[Fe(CO)4] - Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic.

40. Select incorrect statement(s)


(A) Internal energy remain constant in every isothermal process in a closed system.
(B) For a closed system at rest in absence of external field E = q + w.
(C) If neither heat nor matter can enter or leave a system, that system must be isolated.
(D) If a closed system at rest in the absence of external field undergoes an adiabatic process that has
w = 0, then the system’s temperature must remain constant.

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CHEMISTRY
41. Compare bond length between PCl4F and PCl5
(A) P – F axial bond length of PCl4F < P – Cl Equatorial bond length of PCl4F
(B) P – Cl axial bond length of PCl4F < P – Cl axial bond length of PCl5
(C) P – Cl equatorial bond length of PCl4F < P – F axial bond length of PCl4F
(D) P – Cl axial bond length of PCl5 < P – Cl axial bond length of PCl4F

42. In which of the following intramolecular aldol condensation reaction more than two products are possible.
O O
KOH
(A) CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C – H 

CH2 – CH = O
KOH
(B) 

CH2 – C – CH3
O

O O
2 Ca( OH)
(C) H – C – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C – H   

Ba( OH)
2
(D)   


O

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

43. Column-I (Reactions) Column-II (A and B is differentiated by)



(1) Conc. HO
(A) Ph – CH = O + A+B (P) Tollen's test
(2) H

+2
Hg
(B) CH3 – C CH A (Q) Fehling test
dil . H2SO4

(1) BH3 , THF


CH3 – C CH – B (R) NaHCO3
(2) H2O2 , HO

O O
|| ||
(C) Ph – C – CH2 – C – OH (A) (S) Iodoform test

O O
|| ||
CH3 – CH2 – C – CH – C – OH (B)
| 
CH3

—O— H 3O
+
(D) A+B (T) FeCl3

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CHEMISTRY
44. Column-I Column-II
(Electrolytic solution) (Product at electrode on electorlysis)
(A) Dil. solution of HCl (P) O2 evolves at anode
(B) Dil. solution of NaCl (Q) H2 evolves at cathode
(C) Molten NaCl (R) Cl2 evolves at anode
(D) AgNO3 solution (S) Ag deposit at cathode
(T) Na deposits at cathode

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

45. For the first order reaction


A(aq)  2B(aq) + C(aq)
at what time (in min) concentration of A will become (1/30) times of concentration of B. If half life is 2 min.

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CHEMISTRY
46. Suppose you had a mixture of the three compounds shown on the left below and carried out the indicated
separation scheme.
Flask 1
aqueous

aqueous dil. HCl


ether
OH
ether dil. NaOH
ether
ether
Flask 2

CO2H ether
dilute HCl Flask 3
ether
aqueous
Flask 4
NH2
aqueous dil. NaOH
ether

ether
Flask 5
Which flask contains the cyclohexanol?

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CHEMISTRY
47. In the following reaction scheme

[A] Excess CN [C]
Blue solution of Solution of colourless
transition metal salt complex

H2S in acidic H2S


medium

[B] No precipitate
Black precipitate

Find the number of unpaired electron(s) in the complex [C]

48. Calculate total number of extensive properties among following given properties.
Viscosity, Resistance, Emf. of cell, pH, Molar mass, Heat capacity, Specific volume, Entropy, Vapour pressure,
Normality.
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DATE : 29-04-14 CODE - A

Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each
part has 4 sections.

10. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

11. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

12. Section III contains 2 questions. Each questions has four statements (A, B, C and D)
given in Column I and five statements (P, Q, R, S and T) in Column II. Any given
statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s)
given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in Q and R, then for that particular question, against statement B,
darken the bubbles corresponding to Q and R in the ORS.

13. Section IV contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

C. Marking Scheme :
14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 5 marks if you have darken
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.

16. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in
which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus,
each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darkened the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In all other cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.

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