NEETS 10

Q1. What is propagation?

A1. Propagation means spreading out.

Q2. How is a wave defined as it applies to wave propagation?

A2. A wave is a disturbance which moves through a medium.

Q3. What is wave motion?

A3. A means of transferring energy from one place to another.

Q4. What are some examples of wave motion?

A4. Sound waves, light waves, radio waves, heat waves, water waves.

Q5. What type of wave motion is represented by the motion of water?

A5. Transverse waves.

Q6. What are some examples of transverse waves?

A6. Radio waves, light waves, and heat waves.

Q7. What example of a longitudinal wave was given in the text?

A7. A sound wave.

Q8. What are the three requirements for a wave to be propagated?

A8. A source, medium, and detector (receiver).

Q9. What is a cycle?

A9. A sequence of events, such as the positive and negative alternation of electrical current.

A10. The space occupied by one cycle of a radio wave at any given instant.

Q11. What is the law of reflection?

A11. The law of reflection states: The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

Q12. When a wave is reflected from a surface, energy is transferred. When is the transfer of
energy greatest?
A12. When the incident wave is nearly parallel with the surface.

Q13. When is the transfer of energy minimum?

A13. When the incident wave is perpendicular to the surface. Also a dull (or black) surface reflects
very little regardless of the angle.

Q14. A refracted wave occurs when a wave passes from one medium into another medium. What
determines the angle of refraction?
A14. The density of the two mediums, and the velocity of the waves.
Q15. The apparent change in frequency or pitch because of motion is explained by what effect?
A15. The Doppler effect.

Q16. What term describes sounds capable of being heard by the human ear?
A16. Sonics.

Q17. Are all sounds audible to the human ear? Why?

A17. No. The average human ear cannot hear all sounds in the infrasonic and ultrasonic regions.

Q18. Sound waves transmitted from a source are sometimes weak when they reach the detector.
What instrument is needed to boost the weak signal?
A18. An amplifier.

Q19. What are the three basic requirements for sound?

A19. A source, medium, and detector (receiver).

Q20. What are the two general groups of sound?

A20. Noise and tones.

Q21. What are the three basic characteristics of sound?

A21. Pitch, intensity, and quality.

Q22. What is the normal audible range of the human ear?

A22. 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

Q23. What is intensity as it pertains to sound?

A23. The amount of energy transmitted from a source.

Q24. What characteristic of sound enables a person to distinguish one musical instrument from
another, if they are all playing the same note?
A24. Quality.

Q25. How does density and temperature affect the velocity of sound?
A25. Velocity increases as density decreases and temperature increases.

Q26. What term is used in describing the science of sound?

A26. Acoustics.

Q27. A sound wave that is reflected back toward the source is known as what type of sound?
A27. Echo.

Q28. What is the term for multiple reflections of sound waves?

A28. Reverberation.
Q29. A cavity that vibrates at its natural frequency produces a louder sound than at other
frequencies. What term is used to describe this phenomenon?
A29. Resonance.

Q30. What do we call a disturbance that distracts or distorts the quality of sound?
A30. Noise.

Q31. What are three means of producing light?

A31. Mechanical, electrical, and chemical.

Q32. What is the smallest unit of radiant energy?

A32. A photon.

Q33. What unit is used to measure the different wavelengths of light?

A33. Angstrom unit.

Q34. What are the three primary colors of light?

A34. Red, green and blue.

Q1. Which two composite fields (composed of E and H fields) are associated with every antenna?
A1. Induction field and radiation field.

Q2. What composite field (composed of E and H fields) is found stored in the antenna?
A2. Induction field.

Q3. What composite field (composed of E and H fields) is propagated into free space?
A3. Radiation field.

Q4. What is the term used to describe the basic frequency of a radio wave?
A4. Fundamental frequency.

Q5. What is the term used to describe a whole number multiple of the basic frequency of a radio
wave?
A5. Harmonic frequency or harmonics.

Q6. It is known that WWV operates on a frequency of 10 megahertz. What is the wavelength of
WWV?
A6. 30 meters.

Q7. A station is known to operate at 60-meters. What is the frequency of the unknown station?
A7. 5 megahertz.

Q8. If a transmitting antenna is placed close to the ground, how should the antenna be polarized to
give the greatest signal strength?
A8. Vertically polarized.
Q9. In the right-hand rule for propagation, the thumb points in the direction of the E field and the
forefinger points in the direction of the H field. In what direction does the middle finger point?
A9. Direction of wave propagation.

Q10. What is one of the major reasons for the fading of radio waves which have been reflected
from a surface?
A10. Shifting in the phase relationships of the wave.

Q11. What are the three layers of the atmosphere?

A11. Troposphere, stratosphere, and ionosphere.

Q12. Which layer of the atmosphere has relatively little effect on radio waves?
A12. Stratosphere.

Q13. What is the determining factor in classifying whether a radio wave is a ground wave or a
space wave?
A13. Whether the component of the wave is travelling along the surface or over the surface of the
earth.

Q14. What is the best type of surface or terrain to use for radio wave transmission?
A14. Radio horizon is about 1/3 farther.

Q15. What is the primary difference between the radio horizon and the natural horizon?
A15. Sea water.

Q16. What three factors must be considered in the transmission of a surface wave to reduce
attenuation?
A16. (a) electrical properties of the terrain (b) frequency (c) polarization of the antenna

Q17. What causes ionization to occur in the ionosphere?

A17. High energy ultraviolet light waves from the sun.

Q18. How are the four distinct layers of the ionosphere designated?
A18. D, E, F1, and F2 layers.

Q19. What is the height of the individual layers of the ionosphere?

A19. D layer is 30-55 miles, E layer 55-90 miles, and F layers are 90-240 miles.

Q20. What factor determines whether a radio wave is reflected or refracted by the ionosphere?
A20. Thickness of ionized layer.

Q21. There is a maximum frequency at which vertically transmitted radio waves can be refracted
back to Earth. What is this maximum frequency called?
A21. Critical frequency.

Q22. What three main factors determine the amount of refraction in the ionosphere?
A22. (a) density of ionization of the layer (b) frequency (c) angle at which it enters the layer

Q23. What is the skip zone of a radio wave?

A23. A zone of silence between the ground wave and sky wave where there is no reception.

Q24. Where does the greatest amount of ionospheric absorption occur in the ionosphere?
A24. Where ionization density is greatest.

Q25. What is meant by the term "multipath"?

A25. A term used to describe the multiple pattern a radio wave may follow.

Q26. When a wide band of frequencies is transmitted simultaneously, each frequency will vary in
the amount of fading. What is this variable fading called?
A26. Selective fading.

Q27. What are the two main sources of emi with which radio waves must compete?
A27. Natural and man-made interference.

Q28. Thunderstorms, snowstorms, cosmic sources, the sun, etc., are a few examples of emi
sources. What type of emi comes from these sources?
A28. Natural.

Q29. Motors, switches, voltage regulators, generators, etc., are a few examples of emi sources.
What type of emi comes from these sources?
A29. Man-made.

Q30. What are three ways of controlling the amount of transmitter-generated emi?
A30. (a) filtering and shielding of the transmitter (b) limiting bandwidth (c) cutting the antenna to
the correct frequency

Q31. What are three ways of controlling radiated emi during transmission?
A31. (a) physical separation of the antenna (b) limiting bandwidth of the antenna (c) use of
directional antennas

Q32. What are the two general types of variations in the ionosphere?
A32. Regular and irregular variations.

Q33. What is the main difference between these two types of variations?
A33. Regular variations can be predicted but irregular variations are unpredictable.

Q34. What are the four main classes of regular variation which affect the extent of ionization in the
ionosphere?
A34. Daily, seasonal, 11-year, and 27-days variation.

Q35. What are the three more common types of irregular variations in the ionosphere?
A35. Sporadic E, sudden disturbances, and ionospheric storms.
Q36. What do the letters muf, luf, and fot stand for?
A36. Muf is maximum usable frequency. Luf is lowest usable frequency. Fot is commonly known
as optimum working frequency.

Q37. When is muf at its highest and why?

A37. Muf is highest around noon. Ultraviolet light waves from the sun are most intense.

Q38. What happens to the radio wave if the luf is too low?
A38. When luf is too low it is absorbed and is too weak for reception.

Q39. What are some disadvantages of operating transmitters at or near the luf?
A39. Signal-to-noise ratio is low and the probability of multipath propagation is greater.

Q40. What are some disadvantages of operating a transmitter at or near the muf?
A40. Frequent signal fading and dropouts.

Q41. What is fot?

A41. Fot is the most practical operating frequency that can be relied on to avoid problems of
multipath, absorbtion, and noise.

Q42. How do raindrops affect radio waves?

A42. They can cause attenuation by scattering.

Q43. How does fog affect radio waves at frequencies above 2 gigahertz?
A43. It can cause attenuation by absorbtion.

Q44. How is the term "temperature inversion" used when referring to radio waves?
A44. It is a condition where layers of warm air are formed above layers of cool air.

Q45. How does temperature inversion affect radio transmission?

A45. It can cause vhf and uhf transmission to be propagated far beyond normal line-of-sight
distances.

Q46. In what layer of the atmosphere does virtually all weather phenomena occur?
A46. Troposphere.

Q47. Which radio frequency bands use the tropospheric scattering principle for propagation of
radio waves?
A47. Vhf and above.

Q48. Where is the tropospheric region that contributes most strongly to tropospheric scatter
propagation?
A48. Near the mid-point between the transmitting and receiving antennas, just above the radio
horizon.
Q1. What connecting link is used to transfer energy from a radio transmitter to its antenna located
on the mast of a ship?
A1. Transmission line.

Q2. What term is used for the end of the transmission line that is connected to a transmitter?
A2. Input end, generator end, transmitter end, sending end, and source.

Q3. What term is used for the end of the transmission line that is connected to an antenna?
A3. Output end, receiving end, load end and sink.

Q4. List the five types of transmission lines in use today.

A4. Parallel two-wire, twisted pair, shielded pair, coaxial line and waveguide.

Q5. Name two of the three described uses of a two-wire open line.
A5. Power lines, rural telephone lines, and telegraph lines.

Q6. What are the two primary disadvantages of a two-wire open line?
A6. High radiation losses and noise pickup.

Q7. What type of transmission line is often used to connect a television set to its antenna?
A7. Twin lead.

Q8. What is the primary advantage of the shielded pair?

A8. The conductors are balanced to ground.

Q9. What are the two types of coaxial lines in use today?
A9. Air coaxial (rigid) and solid coaxial (flexible).

Q10. What is the chief advantage of the air coaxial line?

A10. The ability to minimize radiation losses.

Q11. List the three disadvantages of the air coaxial line.

A11. Expensive to construct, must be kept dry, and high frequency losses limit the practical length
of the line.

Q12. List the two common types of waveguides in use today.

A12. Cylindrical and rectangular.

Q13. What are the three types of line losses associated with transmission lines?
A13. Copper, dielectric, and radiation.

Q14. Losses caused by skin effect and the I 2 R (power) loss are classified as what type of loss?
A14. Copper losses.
Q15. What types of losses cause the dielectric material between the conductors to be heated?
A15. Dielectric losses.

Q16. What must the physical length of a transmission line be if it will be operated at 15,000,000
Hz?

Q17. What are two of the three physical factors that determine the values of capacitance and
inductance of a transmission line?
A17. (1) Type of line used, (2) dielectric in the line, and (3) length of line.

Q18. A transmission line is said to have distributed constants of inductance, capacitance, and
resistance along the line. What units of measurement are used to express these constants?
A18. Inductance is expressed in microhenrys per unit length, capacitance is expressed in
picofarads per unit length, and resistance is expressed in ohms per unit length.

Q19. Describe the leakage current in a transmission line and in what unit it is expressed.
A19. The small amount of current that flows through the dielectric between two wires of a
transmission line and is expressed in micromhos per unit length.

Q20. All the power sent down a transmission line from a transmitter can be transferred to an
antenna under what optimum conditions?
A20. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line and the load impedance are
equal.

Q21. What symbol is used to designate the characteristic impedance of a line, and what two
variables does it compare?
A21. Z0 and it is the ratio of E to I at every point along the line.

Q22. What is the range of the characteristic impedance of lines used in actual practice?
A22. Between 50 and 600 ohms.

Q23. Two types of waves are formed on a transmission line. What names are given to these
waves?
A23. Incident waves from generator to load. Reflected waves from load back to generator.

Q25. On an open-ended transmission line, the voltage is always zero at what distance from each
end of the line?
A25. One-fourth the distance from each end of the line.

Q26. A nonresonant line is a line that has no standing waves of current and voltage on it and is
considered to be flat. Why is this true?
A26. The load impedance of such a line is equal to Z0.

Q27. On an open line, the voltage and impedance are maximum at what points on the line?
Q28. At what point on an open-circuited rf line do voltage peaks occur?
A28. At 1/2 wavelength from the end and at every 1/2 wavelength along the line.

Q29. What is the square of the voltage standing-wave ratio called?

A29. Power standing-wave ratio (pswr).

Q30. What does vswr measure?

A30. The existence of voltage variations on a line.

Q1. What are the two basic classifications of antennas?

A1. Half-wave (Hertz) and quarter-wave (Marconi).

Q2. What are the three parts of a complete antenna system?

A2. Coupling device, feeder, and antenna.

Q3. What three factors determine the type, size, and shape of an antenna?
A3. Frequency of operation of the transmitter, amount of power to be radiated, and general
direction of the receiving set.

Q4. If a wave travels exactly the length of an antenna from one end to the other and back during
the period of 1 cycle, what is the length of the antenna?
A4. One-half the wavelength.

Q5. What is the term used to identify the points of high current and high voltage on an antenna?
A5. Current and voltage loops.

Q6. What is the term used to identify the points of minimum current and minimum voltage on an
antenna?
A6. Current and voltage nodes.

Q7. The various properties of a transmitting antenna can apply equally to the same antenna when
it is used as a receiving antenna. What term is used for this property?
A7. Reciprocity of antennas.

Q8. The direction of what field is used to designate the polarization of a wave?
A8. Electric (E) field.

Q9. If a wave's electric lines of force rotate through 360 degrees with every cycle of rf energy, what
is the polarization of this wave?
A9. Circular polarization.

Q10. What type of polarization should be used at medium and low frequencies?
A10. Vertical polarization.

Q11. What is an advantage of using horizontal polarization at high frequencies?

A11. Less interference is experienced by man-made noise sources.

Q12. What type of polarization should be used if an antenna is mounted on a moving vehicle at
frequencies below 50 megahertz?
A12. Vertical polarization.

Q13. What is the radiation resistance of a half-wave antenna in free space?

A13. 73 ohms.

Q14. A radiating source that radiates energy stronger in one direction than another is known as
what type of radiator?
A14. Anisotropic radiator.

Q15. A radiating source that radiates energy equally in all directions is known as what type of
radiator?
A15. Isotropic radiator.

Q16. A flashlight is an example of what type of radiator?

A16. Anisotropic radiator.

Q17. What terms are often used to describe basic half-wave antennas?
A17. Dipole, doublet and Hertz.

Q18. If a basic half-wave antenna is mounted vertically, what type of radiation pattern will be
produced?
A18. Nondirectional.

Q19. In which plane will the half-wave antenna be operating if it is mounted horizontally?
A19. Vertical plane.

Q20. Since the radiation pattern of a dipole is similar to that of a doublet, what will happen to the
pattern if the length of the doublet is increased?
A20. The pattern would flatten.

Q21. What is the simplest method of feeding power to the half-wave antenna?
A21. To connect one end through a capacitor to the final output stage of the transmitter.

Q22. What is the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave antenna?

A22. A circular radiation pattern in the horizontal plane, or same as a half wave.

Q23. Describe the physical arrangement of a ground screen.

A23. It is composed of a series of conductors arranged in a radial pattern and buried 1 to 2 feet
below
the ground.
Q24. What is the difference in the amount of impedance between a three-wire dipole and a simple
center-fed dipole?
A24. Nine times the feed-point impedance.

Q25. Which has a wider frequency range, a simple dipole or a folded dipole?
A25. Folded dipole.

Q26. What is the purpose of antenna stubs?

A26. To produce desired phase relationship between connected elements.

Q27. What is the primary difference between the major and minor lobes of a radiation pattern?
A27. Major lobes have the greatest amount of radiation.

Q28. What is the maximum number of elements ordinarily used in a collinear array?
A28. Four.

Q29. Why is the number of elements used in a collinear array limited?

A29. As more elements are added, an unbalanced condition in the system occurs which impairs
efficiency.

Q30. How can the frequency range of a collinear array be increased?

A30. By increasing the lengths of the elements of the array.

Q31. How is directivity of a collinear array affected when the number of elements is increased?
A31. Directivity increases.

Q32. What is the primary cause of broadside arrays losing efficiency when not operating at their
designed frequency?
A32. Lower radiation resistance.

Q33. When more than two elements are used in a broadside array, how are the elements
arranged?
A33. Parallel and in the same plane.

Q34. As the spacing between elements in a broadside array increases, what is the effect on the
major lobes?
A34. They sharpen.

Q35. What are some disadvantages of the end-fire array?

A35. Extremely low radiation resistance, confined to one frequency, and affected by atmospheric
conditions.

Q36. Where does the major lobe in the end-fire array occur?
A36. Along the major axis
Q37. To maintain the required balance of phase relationships and critical feeding, how must the
end-fire array be constructed?
A37. Symmetrically.

Q38. What two factors determine the directivity pattern of the parasitic array?
A38. Length of the parasitic element (tuning) and spacing between the parasitic and driven
elements.

Q39. What two main advantages of a parasitic array can be obtained by combining a reflector and
a director with the driven element?
A39. Increased gain and directivity.

Q40. The parasitic array can be rotated to receive or transmit in different directions. What is the
name given to such an antenna?
A40. Rotary array.

Q41. What are the disadvantages of the parasitic array?

A41. Their adjustment is critical and they do not operate over a wide frequency range.

Q42. What is the advantage of adding parasitic elements to a Yagi array?

A42. Increased gain.

Q43. The Yagi antenna is an example of what type of array?

A43. Multielement parasitic array.

Q44. To radiate power efficiently, a long-wire antenna must have what minimum overall length?
A44. One-half wavelength.

Q45. What is another name for the Beverage antenna?

A45. Wave antenna.

Q46. What is the polarity of the currents that feed the V antenna?
A46. Opposite.

Q47. What is the main disadvantage of the rhombic antenna?

A47. It requires a large antenna site.

Q48. What is the primary reason for the development of the turnstile antenna?
A48. For omnidirectional vhf communications.
NEETS 11
WAVEGUIDE THEORY AND APPLICATION

Q-1. What is the region of the frequency spectrum from 1000 MHz to 100,000 MHz called?
A-1. Microwave region.

Q-2. Microwave theory is based upon what concept

A-2. Electromagnetic field theory.

Q-3. Why are coaxial lines more efficient at microwave frequencies than two-wire transmission
lines?
A-3. The electromagnetic fields are completely confined.

Q-4. What kind of material must be used in the construction of waveguides?

A-4. Conductive material.

Q-5. The large surface area of a waveguide greatly reduces what type of loss that is common in
two-wire and coaxial lines?
A-5. Copper loss.

Q-6. What causes the current-carrying area at the center conductor of a coaxial line to be
restricted to a small layer at the surface?
A-6. Skin effect.

Q-7. What is used as a dielectric in waveguides?

A-7. Air.

Q-8. What is the primary lower-frequency limitation of waveguides?

A-8. Physical size.

Q-9. At very high frequencies, what characteristics are displayed by ordinary insulators?
A-9. The characteristics of the dielectric of a capacitor.

Q-10. What type of insulator works well at very high frequencies?

A-10. A shorted quarter-wave section called a metallic insulator.

Q-11. The frequency range of a waveguide is determined by what dimensison?

A-11. The "a" dimension.

Q-12. What happens to the bus bar dimensions of the waveguide when the frequency is
increased?
A-12. The bus bar becomes wider.

Q-13. When the frequency is decreased so that two quarter-wavelengths are longer than the "a"
(wide) dimension of the waveguide, what will happen?
A-13. Energy will no longer pass through the waveguide.

Q-14. What interaction causes energy to travel down a waveguide?

A-14. The interaction of the electric and magnetic fields.

Q-15. What is indicated by the number of arrows (closeness of spacing) used to represent an
electric field?
A-15. The relative strength of the field.

Q-16. What primary condition must magnetic lines of force meet in order to exist?
A-16. Magnetic lines of force must form a continuous closed loop.

Q-17. What happens to the H lines between the conductors of a coil when the conductors are
close together?
A-17. The H lines cancel.

Q-18. For an electric field to exist at the surface of a conductor, the field must have what angular
relationship to the conductor?
A-18. The field must be perpendicular to the conductors.

Q-19. When a wavefront is radiated into a waveguide, what happens to the portions of the
wavefront that do not satisfy the boundary conditions?
A-19. Decrease to zero.

Q-20. Assuming the wall of a waveguide is perfectly flat, what is the angular relationship between
the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?
A-20. The angles are equal.

Q-21. What is the frequency called that produces angles of incidence and reflection that are
perpendicular to the waveguide walls?
A-21. Cutoff frequency.

Q-22. Compared to the velocity of propagation of waves in air, what is the velocity of propagation
of waves in waveguides?
A-22. Slower.

Q-23. What term is used to identify the forward progress velocity of wavefronts in a waveguide?
A-23. Group velocity.

Q-24. What term is used to identify each of the many field configurations that can exist in
waveguides?
A-24. Mode of operation.

Q-25. What field configuration is easiest to produce in a given waveguide?

A-25. Dominant mode.
Q-26. How is the cutoff wavelength of a circular waveguide figured?
A-26. 1.71 times the diameter.

Q-27. The field arrangements in waveguides are divided into what two categories to describe the
various modes of operation?
A-27. Transverse electric (TE) and transverse magnetic (TM).

Q-28. The electric field is perpendicular to the "a" dimension of a waveguide in what mode?
A-28. TE.

Q-29. The number of half-wave patterns in the "b" dimension of rectangular waveguides is
indicated by which of the two descriptive subscripts?
A-29. Second.

Q-30. Which subscript, in circular waveguide classification, indicates the number of full-wave
patterns around the circumference?
A-30. First.

Q-31. What determines the frequency, bandwidth, and power-handling capability of a waveguide
probe?
A-31. Size and shape.

Q-32. Loose or inefficient coupling of energy into or out of a waveguide can be accomplished by
the use of what method?
A-32. Slots and apertures.

Q-33. What is the result of an impedance mismatch in a waveguide?

A-33. Standing waves that cause power losses, a reduction in power-handling capability, and an
increase in frequency and sensitivity.

Q-34. What is used to construct irises?

A-34. Metal plates.

Q-35. An iris placed along the "b" dimension wall produces what kind of reactance?
A-35. Inductive.

Q-36. How will an iris that has portions along both the "a" and "b" dimension walls act at the
resonant frequency?
A-36. As a shunt resistance.

Q-37. What device is used to produce a gradual change in impedance at the end of a waveguide?
A-37. Horn.

Q-38. When a waveguide is terminated in a resistive load, the load must be matched to what
property of the waveguide?
A-38. Characteristic impedance.
Q-39. What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?
A-39. Absorb all energy without producing standing waves.

Q-40. The energy dissipated by a resistive load is most often in what form?
A-40. Heat.

Q-41. What is the result of an abrupt change in the size, shape, or dielectric of a waveguide?
A-41. Reflections.

Q-42. A waveguide bend must have what minimum radius?

A-42. Greater than 2 wavelengths.

Q-43. What is the most common type of waveguide joint?

A-43. Choke joint.

Q-44. What is the most likely cause of losses in waveguide systems?

A-44. Improperly connected joints or damaged inner surface.

Q-45. What is the primary purpose of a directional coupler?

A-45. Sampling energy within a waveguide.

Q-46. How far apart are the two holes in a simple directional coupler?
A-46. 1/4 wavelength.

Q-47. What is the purpose of the absorbent material in a directional coupler?

A-47. Absorb the energy not directed at the pick-up probe and a portion of the overall energy.

Q-48. In a directional coupler that is designed to sample the incident energy, what happens to the
two portions of the wavefront when they arrive at the pickup probe?
A-48. The wavefront portions add.

Q-49. What happens to reflected energy that enters a directional coupler that is designed to
sample incident energy?
A-49. The reflected energy adds at the absorbent material and is absorbed.

Q-50. What two variables determine the primary frequency of a resonant cavity?
A-50. Size and shape of the cavity.

Q-51. Energy can be inserted or removed from a cavity by what three methods?
A-51. Probes, loops, and slots.

Q-52. Inductive tuning of a resonant cavity is accomplished by placing a nonmagnetic slug in what
area?
A-52. The area of maximum H lines.
Q-53. What are the two basic types of T junctions?
A-53. E-type and H-type.

Q-54. Why is the H-type T junction so named?

A-54. The junction arm extends in a direction parallel to the H lines in the main waveguide.

Q-55. The magic-T is composed of what two basic types of T junctions?

A-55. E-type and H-type.

Q-56. What are the primary disadvantages of the magic-T?

A-56. Low power-handling capability and power losses.

Q-57. What type of junctions are formed where the arms of a hybrid ring meet the main ring?
A-57. Basic E-type junctions.

Q-58. Hybrid rings are used primarily for what purpose?

A-58. High-power duplexes.

Q-59. Ferrite devices are useful in microwave applications because they possess what properties?
A-59. Magnetic properties and high resistance.

Q-60. Which of the two types of electron motion (orbital movement and electron spin) is more
important in the explanation of magnetism?
A-60. Electron spin.

Q-61. The interaction between an external field and the binding force of an atom causes electrons
to do what?
A-61. Wobble at a natural resonant frequency.

Q-62. The resonant frequency of electron wobble can be changed by variation of what force?
A-62. The applied magnetic field.

Q-63. Rotating the plane of polarization of a wavefront by passing it through a ferrite device is
called what?
A-63. Faraday rotation.

MICROWAVE COMPONENTS AND CIRCUITS

Q-1. What happens to the impedance of interelectrode capacitance as frequency increases?

A-1. Impedance decreases.

Q-2. What undesirable effect is caused by the inductance of the cathode lead?
A-2. Degenerative feedback.

Q-3. How does transit time affect the relationship of the grid voltage and the plate current at high
frequencies?
A-3. Transit time causes the grid voltage and plate current to be out of phase.

Q-4. Moving tube electrodes apart to decrease interelectrode capacitance causes an increase in
the effect of what property?
A-4. Transit time.

Q-5. The kinetic energy of an electron is directly proportional to what property?

A-5. Velocity.

Q-6. What will be the effect upon an electron traveling in the opposite direction to the lines of force
in an electrostatic field?
A-6. The electron will be accelerated.

Q-7. How is a beam of electrons velocity-modulated?

A-7. By alternately speeding up or slowing down the electrons.

Q-8. What portion of an electron gun causes the electrons to accelerate or decelerate?
A-8. The buncher grids.

Q-9. What is the effect upon an electron that enters the buncher gap when the potential across the
grids is at 0 volts?
A-9. There is no effect.

Q-10. What determines the placement of the catcher cavity?

A-10. The frequency period of the buncher grid signal.

Q-11. What is the basic principle of operation of a klystron?

A-11. Velocity modulation.

Q-12. The electrons in the beam of a klystron are speeded up by a high dc potential applied to
what elements?
A-12. The accelerator grid and the buncher grids.

Q-13. The two-cavity klystron uses what cavity as an output cavity?

A-13. The catcher cavity.

Q-14. A two-cavity klystron without a feedback path will operate as what type of circuit?
A-14. Amplifier.

Q-15. What can be added to the basic two-cavity klystron to increase the amount of velocity
modulation and the power output?
A-15. Intermediate cavities between the input and output cavities.

Q-16. How is the electron beam of a three-cavity klystron accelerated toward the drift tube?
A-16. A large negative pulse is applied to the cathode.
Q-17. Which cavity of a three-cavity klystron causes most of the velocity modulation?
A-17. The middle cavity.

Q-18. In a multicavity klystron, tuning all the cavities to the same frequency has what effect on the
bandwidth of the tube?
A-18. The bandwidth decreases.

Q-19. The cavities of a multicavity klystron are tuned to slightly different frequencies in what
method of tuning?
A-19. Stagger tuning.

Q-20. What element of the reflex klystron replaces the output cavity of a normal klystron?
A-20. The reflector or repeller.

Q-21. When the repealer potential is constant, what property of the electron determines how long it
will remain in the drift space of the reflex klystron?
A-21. Velocity.

Q-22. The constant-speed electrons of an electron bunch in a reflex klystron must remain in the
repeller field for what minimum time?
A-22. Three-quarter cycle.

Q-23. If the constant-speed electrons in a reflex klystron remain in the repeller field for 1 3/4
cycles, what is the mode of operation?
A-23. Mode 2.

Q-24. Debunching of the electron bunches in the higher modes of a reflex klystron has what effect
on output power?
A-24. Power is reduced.

Q-25. What limits the tuning range around the center frequency of a reflex klystron in a particular
mode of operation?
A-25. The half-power points of the mode.

Q-26. What is the primary use of the twt?

A-26. Voltage amplification.

Q-27. The magnet surrounding the body of a twt serves what purpose?
A-27. Used to focus the electrons into a tight beam.

Q-28. How are the input and output directional couplers in a twt connected to the helix?
A-28. The directional couplers are not physically connected to the helix.

Q-29. What relationship must exist between the electron beam and the traveling wave for bunching
to occur in the electron beam of a twt?
A-29. The traveling wave must have a forward velocity equal to or less than the speed of the
electrons in the beam.

Q-30. What structure in the twt delays the forward progress of the traveling wave?
A-30. The helix.

Q-31. The folded waveguide in a bwo serves the same purpose as what component in a twt?
A-31. Helix.

Q-32. What serves as a grid in a magnetron?

A-32. A magnetic field.

Q-33. A cylindrical copper block with resonant cavities around the circumference is used as what
component of a magnetron?
A-33. Anode or plate.

Q-34. What controls the output frequency of a magnetron?

A-34. The resonant cavities.

Q-35. What element in the magnetron causes the curved path of electron flow?
A-35. The permanent magnet.

Q-36. What is the term used to identify the amount of field strength required to cause the electrons
to just miss the plate and return to the filament in a circular orbit?
A-36. The critical value of field strength.

Q-37. A magnetron will produce oscillations when the electrons follow what type of path?
A-37. Circular.

Q-38. What is the primary difference in construction between the basic magnetron and the
negative resistance magnetron?
A-38. The negative-resistance magnetron has a split plate.

Q-39. What starts the oscillations in a negative-resistance magnetron?

A-39. The application of the proper magnetic field.

Q-40. Why is the negative-resistance magnetron often operated with reduced filament voltage?
A-40. To reduce the effects of filament bombardment.

Q-41. What type of electron-resonance anode block does not require strapping?
A-41. Rising-sun block.

Q-42. Without strapping, the resonant cavities of a hole-and-slot anode are connected in what
manner?
A-42. Series.
Q-43. What are the electrons called that give up energy to the ac field in a magnetron?
A-43. Working electrons.

Q-44. Why is the pi mode the most commonly used magnetron mode of operation?
A-44. Greater power output.

Q-45. What two methods are used to couple energy into and out of magnetrons?
A-45. Loops and slots.

Q-46. Magnetron tuning by altering the surface-to-volume ratio of the hole portion of a hole-and-
slot cavity is what type of tuning?
A-46. Inductive.

Q-47. Capacitive tuning by inserting a ring into the cavity slot of a magnetron is accomplished by
what type of tuning mechanism?
A-47. A cookie-cutter tuner.

Q-48. Name the procedure used to reduce excessive arcing in a magnetron?

A-48. Baking in.

Q-49. What causes the negative-resistance property of tunnel diodes?

A-49. The tunneling action.

Q-50. What determines the frequency of a tunnel-diode oscillator?

A-50. The tuned circuit or cavity frequency.

Q-51. Why is the tunnel diode loosely coupled to the cavity in a tunnel-diode oscillator?
A-51. To increase the stability.

Q-52. What is the purpose of the circulator in a tunnel-diode amplifier?

A-52. Prevent feedback to the tuned input circuit.

Q-53. What limits the usefulness of high-gain, tunnel-diode frequency converters?

A-53. Stability problems.

Q-54. The varactor is a pn junction that acts as what type of electronic device?
A-54. Variable capacitor.

Q-55. The underlying principle of operation of the parametric amplifier is based on what property?
A-55. Reactance.

Q-56. What is the most important feature of the parametric amplifier?

A-56. The low-noise characteristic.

Q-57. How is amplification achieved in the circuit shown in figure 2-43?

A-57. By varying the amount of capacitance in the circuit.
Q-58. What is the purpose of the pump in a parametric amplifier?
A-58. Supplies the electrical energy required to vary the capacitance.

Q-59. The pump signal frequency must be of what value when compared to the input signal of a
simple parametric amplifier?
A-59. Exactly double the input frequency.

Q-60. What is the primary difference between the pump signal of a simple parametric amplifier and
the pump signal of a nondegenerative parametric amplifier?
A-60. The pump signal of a nondegenerative parametric amplifier is higher than twice the input
signal.

Q-61. In a nondegenerative parametric amplifier the difference between the input frequency and
the pump frequency is called what?
A-61. Idler- or lower-sideband frequency.

Q-62. What is the output frequency of an upper-sideband parametric-frequency converter?

A-62. The sum of the input frequency and the pump frequency.

Q-63. What is the primary advantage of bulk-effect devices over normal pn-junction
semiconductors?
A-63. Larger microwave power outputs.

Q-64. What happens to the electrons of a gallium-arsenide semiconductor when they move from
the normal low-energy conduction band to the high-energy conduction band?
A-64. The electrons become immobile.

Q-65. The point on the current curve of a gallium-arsenide semiconductor at which it begins to
exhibit negative resistance is called what?
A-65. Threshold.

Q-66. The domain in a gallium-arsenide semiconductor has what type of electrical field when
compared to the other regions across the body of a semiconductor?
A-66. A field of much greater intensity.

Q-67. What characteristic of a gunn oscillator is inversely proportional to the transit time of the
domain across the semiconductor?
A-67. The frequency.

Q-68. What is the junction arrangement of the original avalanche transit-time diode?
A-68. Pnin.

Q-69. What causes dc bias energy to be absorbed by avalanche electrons and given up to the
microwave field applied to an avalanche transit-time diode?
A-69. The negative-resistance property.
Q-70. During the manufacture of a point-contact diode, what is the purpose of passing a relatively
large current from the catwhisker to the silicon crystal?
A-70. To form a small region of p-type material.

Q-71. What is the capacitive reactance across a point-contact diode as compared to a normal
junction diode?
A-71. Lower.

Q-72. What are the most important advantages of the Schottky barrier diode?
A-72. Lower forward resistance and low noise.

Q-73. At frequencies above 100 megahertz, the intrinsic (i) region causes a pin diode to act as
what?
A-73. Variable resistance.

Q-74. The pin diode is primarily used for what purpose?

A-74. A switching device.

MICROWAVE ANTENNAS
Q-1. Microwave antennas and low-frequency antennas are similar in what ways?
A-1. Operating principles and electrical characteristics.

Q-2. What term is used to express the efficiency of an antenna?

A-2. Power gain or power ratio.

Q-3. What term is used to express the measurement of the degree of mismatch between a line
and its load?
A-3. Standing-wave ratio (swr).

Q-4. What type of antenna radiates in and receives energy from all directions at once?
A-4. Omnidirectional.

Q-5. What is the term that is used to describe narrowness in the radiated beam of an antenna?
A-5. Antenna directivity.

Q-6. What characteristic allows the same antenna to both transmit and receive?
A-6. Reciprocity.

Q-7. What type of reflector is most often used in directive antennas?

A-7. Parabolic.

Q-8. Microwaves can be focused and reflected in the same way as what other type of waves?
A-8. Light waves.

Q-9. How many major lobes are radiated by a parabolic reflector?

A-9. One.

Q-10. A horizontally truncated paraboloid antenna is used for what purpose?

A-10. Determine elevation.

Q-11. The beam from a horizontally positioned cylindrical paraboloid is narrow in what plane?
A-11. Vertical.

Q-12. What is the purpose of a collimating lens?

A-12. Forces the radial segments of a wavefront into parallel paths.

Q-13. How does a waveguide-type lens focus spherical wavefront microwave energy?
A-13. Some wavefronts are accelerated so that all wavefronts exit the lens at the same time.

Q-14. What type of lens decelerates a portion of a spherical wavefront?

A-14. Delay lens.

Q-15. What is a set of antenna elements called?

A-15. Antenna Array.

Q-16. What type of antenna has all elements connected to the same energy source?
A-16. Driven Array.

Q-17. What determines the beam elevation angle of an antenna that is electronically scanned in
elevation?
A-17. Frequency or phase of radiated energy.

Q-18. What is the polarization of the energy radiated by a vertical slot?

A-18. Horizontal.
NEETS 12
AMPLITUDE MODULATION

Q-1. What is modulation?

A-1. Modulation is the impressing of intelligence on a transmission medium.

Q-2. What is a transmission medium?

A-2. May be anything that transmits information, such as light, smoke, sound, wire lines, or radio-
frequency waves.

Q-3. What is heterodyning?

A-3. Mixing two frequencies across a nonlinear impedance.

Q-4. What is demodulation?

A-4. The process of recovering intelligence from a modulated carrier.

Q-5. What waveform is the basis of all complex waveforms?

A-5. The sine wave.

Q-6. What is the purpose of using vectors?

A-6. To represent quantities that have both magnitude and direction.

Q-7. What is the trigonometric ratio for the sine of an angle?

A-7. Sine ! = opposite side ÷ hypotenuse.

Q-8. What is the mathematical formula for computing the output voltage from a moving coil in a
magnetic field?

Q-9. What is the instantaneous amplitude of a sine wave?

A-9. The value at any given point on the sine wave.

Q-10. What term describes how much of a cycle has been completed?
A-10. Phase or phase angle.

Q-11. What determines the frequency of a sine wave?

A-11. The rate at which the vector which is generating the sine wave is rotating.

Q-12. What is the period of a cycle?

A-12. The elapsed time from the beginning of cycle to its completion.

Q-13. How do you calculate the wavelength of a sine wave?

A-13. Wavelength = rate of travel x period.

Q-14. Define the heterodyne principle.

A-14. Process of combining two signal frequencies in a nonlinear device.

Q-15. What is a nonlinear impedance?

A-15. An impedance in which the resulting current is not proportional to the applied voltage.

Q-16. What is spectrum analysis?

A-16. The display of electromagnetic energy that is arranged according to wavelength or
frequency.

Q-17. What two conditions are necessary for heterodyning to take place?
A-17. At least two different frequencies applied to a nonlinear impedance.

Q-18. What is amplitude modulation?

A-18. Any method of modulating an electromagnetic carrier frequency by varying its amplitude in
accordance with the intelligence.

Q-19. What are the three requirements for cw transmission?

A-19. A method of generating oscillations, a method of turning the oscillations on and off (keying),
and an antenna to radiate the energy.

Q-20. Name two methods of oscillator keying.

A-20. Plate keying and cathode keying.

Q-21. State the method used to increase the speed of keying in a cw transmitter.
A-21. Machine keying.

Q-22. Name three advantages of cw transmission.

A-22. A high degree of clarity even under severe noise conditions, long-range operation, and
narrow bandwidth.

Q-23. Name a disadvantage of a single-stage cw transmitter.

A-23. Antenna-to-ground capacitance can cause the oscillator frequency to vary.

Q-24. What is the purpose of the power-amplifier stage in a master oscillator power amplifier cw
transmitter?
A-24. To isolate the oscillator from the antenna and increase the amplitude of the rf oscillations to
the required output level.

Q-25. What is the purpose of frequency-multiplier stages in a VHF transmitter?

A-25. To raise the low frequency of a stable oscillator to the vhf range.

Q-26. What is a microphone?

A-26. An energy converter that changes sound energy into electrical energy.

Q-27. What special electromechanical effect is the basis for carbon microphone operation?
A-27. The changing resistance of carbon granules as pressure is applied to them.
Q-28. What is a major disadvantage of a carbon microphone?
A-28. Background hiss resulting from random changes in the resistance between individual
carbon granules.

Q-29. What property of a crystalline material is used in a crystal microphone?

A-29. The piezoelectric effect.

Q-30. What is the difference between a dynamic microphone and a magnetic microphone?
A-30. A dynamic microphone has a moving coil and the magnetic microphone has a moving
armature.

Q-31. What are the two major sections of a typical AM transmitter?

A-31. Rf and af units.

Q-32. When 100 kilohertz and 5 kilohertz are heterodyned, what frequencies are present?
A-32. 100 kilohertz, 5 kilohertz, 95 kilohertz, and 105 kilohertz.

Q-33. What is the upper sideband of an AM transmission?

A-33. All of the sum frequencies above the carrier.

Q-34. Where is the intelligence in an AM transmission located?

A-34. The intelligence is contained in the spacing between the carrier and sideband frequencies

Q-35. What determines the bandwidth of an AM transmission?

A-35. The highest modulating frequency.

Q-36. What is percent of modulation?

A-36. The depth or degree of modulation.

Q-37. With a single modulating tone, what is the amplitude of the sideband frequencies at 100-
percent modulation?
A-37. One-half the amplitude of the carrier.

Q-38. What is the formula for percent of modulation?

Q-39. What is high-level modulation?

A-39. Modulation produced in the plate circuit of the last radio stage of the system.

Q-40. For what class of operation is the final rf power amplifier of a plate-modulator circuit biased?
A-40. Class C.

Q-41. The modulator is required to be what kind of a circuit stage in a plate modulator?
A-41. Power amplifier.
Q-42. How much must the fpa plate current vary to produce 100-percent modulation in a plate
modulator?
A-42. Between 0 and nearly two times its unmodulated value.

Q-43. The collector-injection modulator is similar to what type of tube modulator?

A-43. Plate modulator.

Q-44. When is a control-grid modulator used?

A-44. In cases when the use of a minimum of af modulator power is desired.

Q-45. What type of modulator is the cathode modulator (low- or high-level)?

A-45. Low-level.

Q-46. What causes the change in collector current in an emitter-injection modulator?

A-46. Gain is varied by changing the voltage on the emitter.

ANGLE AND PULSE MODULATION

Q-1. What are the two types of angle modulation?
A-1. Frequency and phase.

Q-2. Name the modulation system in which the frequency alternates between two discrete values
in response to the opening and closing of a key?
A-2. Frequency-shift keying.

Q-3. What is the primary advantage of an fsk transmission system?

A-3. Resistance to noise interference.

Q-4. What characteristic of a carrier wave is varied in frequency modulation?

A-4. Instantaneous frequency.

Q-5. How is the degree of modulation expressed in an fm system?

A-5. As the ratio of the frequency deviation to the maximum frequency deviation allowable.

Q-6. What two values may be used to determine the bandwidth of an fm wave?
A-6. The number of significant sidebands and the modulating frequency.

Q-7. How does the reactance-tube modulator impress intelligence onto an rf carrier?
A-7. By changing the reactance of an oscillator circuit in consonance with the modulating voltage.

Q-8. What characteristic of a transistor is varied in a semiconductor-reactance modulator?

A-8. Collector-to-emitter capacitance.

Q-9. What circuit section is required in the output of a multivibrator modulator to eliminate
unwanted output frequencies?
A-9. An LCR filter.

Q-10. What characteristic of a varactor is used in an fm modulator?

A-10. Capacitance.

Q-11. What type of modulation depends on the carrier-wave phase shift?

A-11. Phase.

Q-12. What components may be used to build a basic phase modulator?

A-12. A phase-shift network such as a variable resistor and capacitor in series.

Q-13. Phase-shift keying is similar to what other two types of modulation?

A-13. Cw and frequency-shift keying.

Q-14. Overmodulating an rf carrier in amplitude modulation produces a waveform which is similar

to what modulated waveform?
A-14. Pulse modulation.

Q-15. What is prt?

A-15. Pulse-repetition time.

Q-16. What is nonpulse time?

A-16. Rest time.

Q-17. What is average power in a pulsed system?

A-17. Peak power during a pulse averaged over pulse time plus rest time.

Q-18. What is the primary component for a spark-gap modulator?

A-18. Either a fixed spark gap that uses a trigger pulse to ionize the air between the contacts, or a
rotary gap that is similar to a mechanical switch.

Q-19. What are the basic components of a thyratron modulator?

A-19. Power source, a circuit for storing energy, a circuit for discharging the storage circuit, and a
pulse transformer.

Q-20. What action is necessary to impress intelligence on the pulse train in pulse modulation?
A-20. Some characteristic of the pulses has to be varied.

Q-21. To ensure the accuracy of a transmission, what is the minimum number of times a
modulating wave should be sampled in pulse modulation?
A-21. 2.5 times the highest modulating frequency.

Q-22. What, if any, noise susceptibility advantage exists for pulse-amplitude modulation over
analog amplitude modulation?
A-22. Both are susceptible to noise and interference.
Q-23. What characteristics of a pulse can be changed in pulse-time modulation?
A-23. The time duration of the pulses or the time of occurrence of the pulses.

Q-24. Which edges of the pulse can be modulated in pulse-duration modulation?

A-24. Either, or both at the same time.

Q-25. What is the main disadvantage of pulse-position modulation?

A-25. It requires synchronization between the transmitter and receiver.

Q-26. What is pulse-frequency modulation?

A-26. A method of pulse modulation in which a modulating wave is used to frequency modulate a
pulse-generating circuit.

Q-27. Pulse-code modulation requires the use of approximations of value that are obtained by
what process?
A-27. Quantization.

Q-28. If a modulating wave is sampled 10 times per cycle with a 5-element binary code, how many
bits of information are required to transmit the signal?
A-28. 50.

Q-29. What is the primary advantage of pulse-modulation systems?

A-29. Low susceptibility to noise.

DEMODULATION

Q-1. What is demodulation?

A-1. Re-creating original modulating frequencies (intelligence) from radio frequencies.

Q-2. What is a demodulator?

A-2. Circuit in which intelligence restoration is achieved.

Q-3. What is the simplest form of cw detector?

A-3. A circuit that can detect the presence or absence of rf energy.

Q-4. What are the essential components of a cw receiver system?

A-4. An antenna, tank circuit for tuning, rectifier for detection, filter to give constant output, and an
indicator device.

Q-5. What principle is used to help distinguish between two cw signals that are close in frequency?
A-5. Heterodyning.

Q-6. How does heterodyning distinguish between cw signals?

A-6. By giving a different beat frequency for each signal.

Q-7. What simple, one-transistor detector circuit uses the heterodyne principle?
A-7. Regenerative detector.

Q-8. What three functions does the transistor in a regenerative detector serve?
A-8. Oscillator, mixer, and detector.

Q-9. What are the three requirements for an AM demodulator?

A-9. (1) Sensitive to the type of modulation applied, (2) nonlinear, and (3) provide filtering.

Q-10. What does the simplest diode detector use to reproduce the modulating frequency?
A-10. The modulation envelope.

Q-11. What is the function of the diode in a series-diode detector?

A-11. Rectifies the rf pulses in the received signal.

Q-13. How does the current-diode detector differ from the voltage-diode detector?
A-13. The current-diode detector is in parallel with the input and load.

Q-14. Under what circuit conditions would the shunt detector be used?
A-14. When the input voltage variations are too small to give a usable output from a series
detector.

Q-15. Which junction of the transistor in the common-emitter detector detects the modulation
envelope?
A-15. Emitter-base junction.

Q-17. How is the output signal developed in the common-emitter detector?

A-17. By the collector current flow through R4.

Q-18. Which junction acts as the detector in a common-base detector?

A-18. Emitter-base junction.

Q-19. To what circuit arrangement is a common-base detector equivalent?

A-19. A diode detector followed by a stage of audio amplification.

Q-21. What is the simplest form of fm detector?

A-21. Slope detector.

Q-22. What is the function of an fm detector?

A-22. Converting frequency variations of received fm signals to amplitude variations.

Q-23. What type of tank circuit is used in the Foster-Seeley discriminator?

A-23. A double-tuned tank circuit.

Q-24. What is the purpose of CR1 and CR2 in the Foster-Seeley discriminator?
A-24. Rectify the rf voltage from the discriminator.
Q-25. What type of impedance does the tank circuit have above resonance?
A-25. Inductive.

Q-26. What is the primary advantage of a ratio detector?

A-26. Suppresses amplitude noise without limiter stages.

Q-28. What circuit functions does the tube in a gated-beam detector serve?
A-28. Limits, detects, and amplifies.

Q-29. What condition must exist on both the limiter and quadrature grids for current to flow in a
gated-beam detector?
A-29. Both grids must be positively biased.

Q-30. Name two advantages of the gated-beam detector.

A-30. Extreme simplicity, few components, and ease of adjustment.

Q-31. Where is the intelligence contained in a phase-modulated signal?

A-31. In the amount and rate of phase shift of the carrier wave.

Q-32. Why can phase-modulated signals be detected by fm detectors?

A-32. Because of the incidental frequency shift that is caused while phase-shifting a carrier wave
that is similar to fm modulation.

Q-33. How is a quadrature detector changed when used for phase demodulation?
A-33. The quadrature grid signal is excited by a reference from the transmitter.

Q-34. In its simplest form, what functions must a radar detector be capable of performing?
A-34. Detecting the presence of rf energy.

Q-35. What characteristic of a pulse does a peak detector sample?

A-35. Pulse amplitude or pulse duration.

Q-36. What is the time constant of the resistor and capacitor in a peak detector for pam?
A-36. At least 10 times the interpulse period.

Q-37. How can a peak detector for pam be modified to detect pdm?
A-37. By making the time constant for charging the capacitor at least 10 times the maximum
received pulse width.

Q-38. How does a low-pass filter detect pdm?

A-38. By averaging the value of the pulses over the period of the pulse-repetition rate.

Q-39. How is conversion used in pulse demodulation?

A-39. Ppm, pfm, and pcm are converted to either pdm or pam for demodulation.

Q-40. What is the discharge rate for the capacitor in a pcm converter?
A-40. It will discharge to one-half its value between pulses.
NEETS 24

Q1. Define fiber optics.

A1. Fiber optics is the branch of optical technology concerned with the transmission of radiant
power (light energy) through fibers.

Q2. Describe the basic functions of a fiber optic data link.

A2. The basic functions of a fiber optic data link are to convert an electrical input signal to an
optical signal, send the optical signal over an optical fiber, and convert the optical signal back to an
electrical signal.

Q3. List the three parts of a fiber optic data link.

A3. Transmitter, optical fiber, and receiver.

Q4. What mechanisms in the fiber waveguides weaken and distort the optical signal?
A4. Scattering, absorption, and dispersion.

Q5. What effect does noise have on the fiber optic signal?
A5. Noise obscures or reduces the quality of the signal.

Q6. Define loss.

A6. Loss is the decrease in the amount of light reaching the end of the fiber.

Q7. In 1969, what did several scientists conclude about optical fiber loss?
A7. Impurities in the fiber material caused the signal loss in optical fibers. The basic fiber material
did not prevent the light signal from reaching the end of the fiber.

Q8. How can loss be reduced during construction (or fabrication) of optical fibers?
A8. By removing the impurities from optical fiber.

Q9. What are the two basic types of optical fibers?

A9. Multimode and single mode fibers.

Q10. Which type of optical fiber (multimode or single mode) tends to have lower loss and produces
less signal distortion?
A10. Single mode fiber.

Q11. What optical fiber properties reduce connection loss in short-distance systems?
A11. Larger fiber core and higher fiber numerical aperture (NA).

Q12. In fiber optic systems, designers consider what trade-offs?

A12. Trade-offs in fiber properties, types of connections, optical sources, and detector types in
military and subscriber-loop applications.

Q13. List seven advantages of fiber optics over electrical systems.

A13. Advantages of fiber optics are improved system performance, immunity to electrical noise,
signal security, electrical isolation, reduced size and weight, environmental protection, and overall
system economy.

Q1. Quantum physics successfully explained the photoelectric effect in terms of fundamental
particles of energy called quanta. What are the fundamental particles of energy (quanta) known as
when referring to light energy?
A1. Photons.

Q2. What type of wave motion is represented by the motion of water?

A2. Transverse-wave motion.

Q3. When light waves encounter any substance, what four things can happen?
A3. Light waves are either transmitted, refracted, reflected, or absorbed.

Q4. A substance that transmits almost all of the light waves falling upon it is known as what type of
substance?
A4. Transparent.

Q5. A substance that is unable to transmit any light waves is known as what type of substance?
A5. Opaque.

Q6. What is the law of reflection?

A6. The law of reflection states that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

Q7. When a wave is reflected from a surface, energy is reflected. When is the reflection of energy
the greatest?
A7. When the wave is nearly parallel to the reflecting surface.

Q8. When is the reflection energy the least?

A8. When the wave is perpendicular to the reflecting surface.

Q9. Light waves obey what law?

A9. The law of reflection.

Q10. A refracted wave occurs when a wave passes from one medium into another medium. What
determines the angle of refraction?
A10. Depends on the bending caused by the velocity difference of the wave traveling through
different mediums.

Q11. A light wave enters a sheet of glass at a perfect right angle to the surface. Is the majority of
the wave reflected, refracted, transmitted, or absorbed?
A11. Transmitted.
Q12. When light strikes a piece of white paper, the light is reflected in all directions. What do we
call this scattering of light?
A12. Diffusion.

Q13. Two methods describe how light propagates along an optical fiber. These methods define
two theories of light propagation. What do we call these two theories?
A13. The ray theory and the mode theory.

Q14. What is the basic optical-material property relevant to optical fiber light transmission?
A14. The index of refraction.

Q15. The index of refraction measures the speed of light in an optical fiber. Will light travel faster in
an optically dense material or in one that is less dense?
A15. Light will travel faster in an optical material that is less dense.

Q16. Assume light is traveling through glass, what happens when this light strikes the glass-air
boundary?
A16. Part of the light ray is reflected back into the glass and part of the light ray is refracted (bent)
as it enters the air.

Q17. What condition causes a light ray to be totally reflected back into its medium of propagation?
A17. Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of refraction approaches 90 degrees. This
condition occurs when the angle of incidence increases to the point where no refraction is
possible.

Q18. What name is given to the angle where total internal reflection occurs?
A18. Critical angle of incidence.

Q19. List the three parts of an optical fiber.

A19. Core, cladding, and coating or buffer.

Q20. Which fiber material, core or cladding, has a higher index of refraction?
A20. Core.

Q21. Light transmission along an optical fiber is described by two theories. Which theory is used to
approximate the light acceptance and guiding properties of an optical fiber?
A21. The ray theory.

Q22. Meridional rays are classified as either bound or unbound rays. Bound rays propagate
through the fiber according to what property?
A22. Total internal reflection.

Q23. A light ray incident on the optical fiber core is propagated along the fiber. Is the angle of
incidence of the light ray entering the fiber larger or smaller than the acceptance angle (ÿa)
A23. Smaller.
Q24. What fiber property does numerical aperture (NA) measure?
A24. NA measures the light-gathering ability of an optical fiber.

Q25. Skew rays and meridional rays define different acceptance angles. Which acceptance angle
is larger, the skew ray angle or the meridional ray angle?
A25. Skew ray angle.

Q26. The mode theory uses electromagnetic wave behavior to describe the propagation of the
light along the fiber. What is a set of guided electromagnetic waves called?
A26. Modes of the fiber.

Q27. A light wave can be represented as a plane wave. What three properties of light propagation
describe a plane wave?
A27. Direction, amplitude, and wavelength of propagation.

Q28. A wavefront undergoes a phase change as it travels along the fiber. If the wavefront
transverses the fiber twice and is reflected twice and the total phase change is equal to 1/2 , will
the wavefront disappear? If yes, why?
A28. Yes, the wavefront will disappear because the total amount of phase collected must be an
integer multiple of 2 . (If the propagating wavefronts are out of phase, they will disappear. The
wavefronts that are in phase interfere with the wavefronts out of phase. This type of interference
is called destructive interference.)

Q29. Modes that are bound at one wavelength may not exist at longer wavelengths. What is the
wavelength at which a mode ceases to be bound called?
A29. Cutoff wavelength.

Q30. What type of optical fiber operates below the cutoff wavelength?
A30. Multimode fiber.

Q31. Low-order and high-order modes propagate along an optical fiber. How are modes
determined to be low-order or high-order modes?
A31. The order of a mode is indicated by the number of field maxima within the core of the fiber.
The order of a mode is also determined by the angle that the wavefront makes with the axis of the
fiber.

Q32. As the core and cladding modes travel along the fiber, mode coupling occurs. What is mode
coupling?
A32. Mode coupling is the exchange of power between two modes.

Q33. The fiber's normalized frequency (V) determines how many modes a fiber can support. As
the value of V increases, will the number of modes supported by the fiber increase or decrease?
A33. Increase.

Q34. The value of the normalized frequency parameter (V) relates the core size with mode
propagation. When single mode fibers propagate only the fundamental mode, what is the value of
V?

Q35. The number of modes propagated in a multimode fiber depends on core size and numerical
aperture (NA). If the core size and the NA decrease, will the number of modes propagated
increase or decrease?
A35. Decrease.

Q36. Modal dispersion affects the bandwidth of multimode systems. It is essential to adjust what
three fiber properties to maximize system bandwidth?
A36. Core diameter, NA, and index profile properties.

Q37. Attenuation is mainly a result of what three properties?

A37. Light absorption, scattering, and bending losses.

Q38. Define attenuation.

A38. Attenuation is the loss of optical power as light travels along the fiber.

Q39. What are the main causes of absorption in optical fiber?

A39. Intrinsic and extrinsic material properties.

Q40. Silica (pure glass) fibers are used because of their low intrinsic material absorption at the
wavelengths of operation. This wavelength of operation is between two intrinsic absorption
regions. What are these two regions called? What are the wavelengths of operation for these two
regions?
A40. Ultraviolet absorption region (below 400 nm) and infrared absorption region (above 2000 nm).

Q41. Extrinsic (OH_) absorption peaks define three regions or windows of preferred operation. List
the three windows of operation.
A41. The first, second, and third windows of operation are 850 nm, 1300 nm, and 1550 nm,
respectively.

Q42. What is the main loss mechanism between the ultraviolet and infrared absorption regions?
A42. Rayleigh scattering.

Q43. Scattering losses are caused by the interaction of light with density fluctuations within a fiber.
What are the two scattering mechanisms called when the size of the density fluctuations is
(a) greater than and (b) less than one-tenth of the operating wavelength?
A43. (a) Mie scattering; (b) Rayleigh scattering.

Q44. Microbend loss is caused by microscopic bends of the fiber axis. List three sources of
microbend loss.
A44. Uneven coating applications, improper cabling procedures, and external force.

Q45. How is fiber sensitivity to bending losses reduced?

A45. Fiber sensitivity to bending losses can be reduced if the refractive index of the core is
increased and/or if the overall diameter of the fiber increases.

Q46. Name the two types of intramodal, or chromatic, dispersion.

A46. Material dispersion and waveguide dispersion.

Q47. Which dispersion mechanism (material or waveguide) is a function of the size of the fiber's
core relative to the wavelength of operation?
A47. Waveguide dispersion.

Q48. Modes of a light pulse that enter the fiber at one time exit the fiber at different times. This
condition causes the light pulse to spread. What is this condition called?
A48. Modal dispersion.

Q1. Describe the term "refractive index profile."

A1. Refractive index profile describes the value of refractive index as a function of radial distance
at any fiber diameter.

Q2. The refractive index of a fiber core is uniform and undergoes an abrupt change at the core
cladding boundary. Is this fiber a step-index or graded-index fiber?
A2. Step-index.

Q3. Multimode optical fibers can have a step-index or graded-index refractive index profile. Which
fiber, multimode step-index or multimode graded-index fiber, usually performs better?
A3. Multimode graded-index fiber.

Q4. List the standard core sizes for multimode step-index, multimode graded-index, and single
mode fibers.
A4. Multimode step-index fibers: 50 m and 100 m. Multimode graded-index fibers: 50 m, 62.5
m, 85 m, and 100 m. Single mode fibers: between 8 m and 10 m.

Q5. Multimode step-index fibers have a core and cladding of constant refractive index n1 and n2,
respectively. Which refractive index, the core or cladding, is lower?
A5. Cladding.

Q6. In multimode step-index fibers, the majority of light propagates in the fiber core for what
reason?
A6. Most modes in multimode step-index fibers propagate far from cutoff.

Q7. Multimode step-index fibers have relatively large core diameters and large numerical
apertures.These provide what benefit?
A7. Make it easier to couple light from a light-emitting diode (LED) into the fiber.

Q8. The profile parameter ( ) determines the shape of the multimode graded-index core's
refractive index profile. As the value of the increases, how does the core's profile change?
A8. From a triangular shape to step.

Q9. Light propagates in multimode graded-index fibers according to refraction and total internal
reflection. When does total internal reflection occur?
A9. When the angle of incidence becomes larger than the critical angle of incidence.

Q10. What four fiber properties determine the number of modes propagating in a multimode
graded index fiber?
A10. Numerical aperture (NA), relative refractive index difference ( ), profile parameter ( ), and
normalized frequency (V).

Q11. Light travels faster in a material with a lower refractive index. Therefore, light rays that travel
a longer distance in a lower refractive index travel at a greater average velocity. What effect does
this have on multimode graded-index fiber modal dispersion and bandwidth?
A11. Decreases the time difference between light rays, which reduces modal dispersion and
increases fiber bandwidth.

Q12. What multimode graded-index fiber offers the best overall performance for most
applications?
A12. 62.5/125 m multimode graded-index fiber.

Q13. What are the most distinguishing characteristics of a multimode graded-index fiber?
A13. Source-to-fiber coupling efficiency and insensitivity to microbending and macrobending
losses.

Q14. How are source-to-fiber coupling and microbending and macrobending losses affected by
changes in core diameter and ?
A14. Coupling efficiency increases with both core diameter and , while bending losses increase
directly with core diameter and inversely with

Q15. While coupled power and bending loss favor a high , which value, smaller or larger,
improves fiber bandwidth?
A15. Smaller.

Q16. What are the two basic types of single mode step-index fibers?
A16. Matched-clad and depressed-clad.

Q17. Which fiber cladding, matched or depressed, consists of two regions?

A17. Depressed.

Q18. In single mode operation, the value of the normalized frequency (V) should remain near the
2.405 level. If the value of V is less than 1, do single mode fibers carry a majority of the power in
the core or cladding material?
A18. Cladding material.
Q19. What happens to the fundamental mode as the operating wavelength becomes longer than
the single mode cutoff wavelength?
A19. The fundamental mode becomes increasingly lossy.

Q20. Give two reasons why the value of the normalized frequency (V) is varied in single mode step
index fibers?
A20. To increase performance and reduce losses caused by bending and splicing.

Q21. Give two reasons why optical fiber manufacturers depart from the traditional circular core and
cladding, low-loss glass fiber design?
A21. To increase performance and reduce cost.

Q22. What five characteristics do applications using plastic clad silica (PCS) and all-plastic fibers
typically have?
A22. High NA, low bandwidth, tight bend radius, short length, and low cost.

Q23. List the types of materials used in fabricating low-loss, long wavelength optical fibers.
A23. Heavy-metal fluorides, chalcogenide glasses, and crystalline materials.

Q24. What are the two methods used by fiber manufacturers to fabricate multimode and single
mode glass fibers?
A24. Vapor phase oxidation and direct-melt process.

Q25. Which method, vapor phase oxidation or direct-melt process, transforms deposited material
into a solid glass preform by heating the porous material without melting?
A25. Vapor phase oxidation.

Q26. List three benefits that properly cabled optical fibers provide.
A26.
a. Protect optical fibers from damage or breakage during installation and over the fiber's
lifetime.
b. Provide stable fiber transmission characteristics compared with uncabled fibers.
c. Maintain the physical integrity of the optical fiber.

Q27. In addition to a primary coating, manufacturers add a layer of buffer material for what
reasons?
A27. To provide additional mechanical protection and preserve the fiber's inherent strength.

Q28. List the three techniques used by manufacturers to buffer optical fibers.
A28. Tight-buffered, loose-tube, and gel-filled loose-tube.

Q29. List seven properties cable jackets should have.

A29. Low smoke generation, low toxicity, low halogen content, flame retardance, fluid resistance,
high abrasion resistance, and stable performance over temperature.

Q30. List the three types of cable designs being considered by the Navy.
A30. Optical fiber cable component (OFCC), stranded, and ribbon cables designs.

Q31. Describe an optical fiber cable component (OFCC).

A31. OFCCs are tight-buffer fiber surrounded by arimid yarn and a low-halogen outer jacket.

Q32. Two layers of arimid yarn strength members encase the OFCC units. Why are these strength
members stranded in opposing directions?
A32. To minimize microbending of the fibers.

Q33. Why do cable manufacturers introduce a controlled twist to the stacked ribbons during the
cabling process?
A33. To minimize fiber stress when the cable is bent.

Q34. OFCC, stranded, and ribbon cables have different fiber capacities. What is the approximate
number of fibers that each cable can accommodate in a 0.5-inch cable?
A34. OFCC (12 fibers), stranded (48 fibers), ribbon (204 fibers).

Q35. Which fiber optic cable (OFCC, stranded, or ribbon) has the worst bend performance?
A35. Ribbon.

Q1. Which fiber optic component (splice, connector, or coupler) makes a permanent connection in
a distributed system?
A1. Splice.

Q2. What are the main causes of coupling loss?

A2. Poor fiber end preparation and poor fiber alignment.

Q3. Define the loss in optical power through a connection.

Q4. Fiber-to-fiber coupling loss is affected by intrinsic and extrinsic coupling losses. Can intrinsic
coupling losses be limited by limiting fiber mismatches?
A4. Yes.

Q5. In fiber-to-fiber connections, Fresnel reflection is one source of coupling losses. Light is
reflected back into the source fiber and is lost. What causes Fresnel reflection?
A5. A step change in refractive index that occurs at fiber joints, caused by fiber separation.

Q6. Reduction of Fresnel reflection is possible by reducing the step change in the refractive index
at the fiber interface. What material reduces the step change in refractive index at a fiber
interface?
A6. Index matching gel.
Q7. List the three basic errors that occur during fiber alignment.
A7. Fiber separation (longitudinal misalignment), lateral misalignment, and angular misalignment.

Q8. When the axes of two connected fibers are no longer in parallel, the two connected fibers are
in what kind of misalignment?
A8. Angular misalignment.

Q9. How does index matching gel affect the amount of coupling loss caused by (a) fiber
separation,(b) lateral misalignment, and (c) angular misalignment?
A9. (a) Reduces coupling loss, (b) does not change coupling loss, and (c) increases coupling loss.

Q10. Which are more sensitive to alignment errors, single mode or multimode fibers?
A10. Single mode.

Q11. Quality fiber-end preparation is essential for proper system operation. What properties must
an optical fiber-end face have to ensure proper fiber connection?
A11. Be flat, smooth, and perpendicular to the fiber axis.

Q12. What is the basic fiber cleaving technique for preparing optical fibers for coupling?
A12. Score-and-break.

Q13. Using a standard microscope to inspect a fiber-end face, you observe that all parts of the
fiber end face are in focus at the same time. Is the fiber-end face flat, concave, or convex?
A13. Flat.

Q14. List six types of fiber mismatches.

A14. Core diameter mismatch, cladding diameter mismatch, core ellipticity, core and cladding
concentricity differences, NA mismatch, and refractive index profile differences.

Q15. Does coupling loss from refractive index profile difference result when the receiving fiber has
a larger profile parameter ( ) than the transmitting fiber?
A15. No.

Q16. Define a fiber optic splice.

A16. A permanent fiber joint whose purpose is to establish an optical connection between two
individual optical fibers.

Q17. Fiber splicing is divided into two broad categories that describe the techniques used for fiber
splicing. What are they?
A17. Mechanical and fusion splicing.

Q18. Describe a transparent adhesive.

A18. An epoxy resin that seals mechanical splices and provides index matching between the
connected fibers.
Q19. The Navy recommends using the rotary splice for what two reasons?
A19. It is a low-loss mechanical splice that provides stable environmental and mechanical
performance in the Navy environment, and it requires only a small amount of training.

Q20. What fiber property directly affects splice loss in fusion splicing?
A20. The angles and quality of the two fiber-end faces.

Q21. List two reasons why fusion splicing is one of the most popular splicing techniques in
commercial applications.
A21. The small size of the fusion splice and the development of automated fusion-splicing
machines.

Q22. What is a short discharge of electric current that prepares the fiber ends for fusion called?
A22. Prefusion.

Q23. Do small core distortions formed by arc fusion's self-alignment mechanism have more of an
affect on light propagating through multimode or single mode fibers?
A23. Single mode fibers.

Q24. What connection properties result in fiber optic connector coupling loss?
A24. Poor fiber alignment and end preparation, fiber mismatches, and Fresnel reflection.

Q25. Which is the more critical parameter in maintaining total insertion loss below the required
level, fiber alignment or fiber mismatch?
A25. Fiber alignment.

Q26. Fiber optic connectors can reduce system performance by increasing what two types of
noise?
A26. Modal and reflection.

Q27. Which type of fiber optic connector (butt-jointed or expanded beam) brings the prepared ends
of two optical fibers into close contact?
A27. Butt-jointed connectors.

Q28. Is coupling loss from fiber separation and lateral misalignment more critical in expanded-
beam or butt-jointed connectors?
A28. Butt-jointed connectors.

Q29. Is coupling loss from angular misalignment more critical in expanded beam or butt-jointed
connectors?
A29. Expanded beam connectors.

Q30. The Navy classifies fiber optic connectors in what two ways?
A30. Light-duty and heavy-duty connectors.

Q31. What is the difference between passive and active fiber optic couplers?
A31. Passive couplers redistribute optical signals without optical-to-electrical conversion.

Q32. Which type of optical splitter (Y-coupler or T-coupler) splits only a small amount of power
from the input fiber to one of the output fibers?
A32. T-coupler.

Q33. Describe a directional coupler.

A33. A fiber optic coupler that prevents the transfer of power between input fibers.

Q1. List the fiber geometrical measurements performed in the laboratory.

A1. Cladding diameter, core diameter, numerical aperture, and mode field diameter.

Q2. End users measure the total attenuation of a fiber at the operating wavelength ( ). Write the
equation for total attenuation (A), between an arbitrary point X and point Y located on an optical
fiber.

Q3. Will an optical fiber's attenuation coefficient vary with changes in wavelength?
A3. Yes.

Q4. What two properties of the launch condition may affect multimode fiber attenuation
measurements?
A4. Launch spot size and angular distribution.

Q5. Does underfilling a multimode optical fiber excite mainly high-order or low-order modes?
A5. Low-order modes.

Q6. Multimode optical fiber launch conditions are typically characterized as being overfilled or
underfilled. Which of these optical launch conditions exists if the launch spot size and angular
distribution are larger than that of the fiber core?
A6. Overfilled.

Q7. A mode filter is a device that attenuates specific modes propagating in the core of an optical
fiber. What mode propagating along single mode fibers do mode filters eliminate?
A7. Second-order mode.

Q8. What are the two most common types of mode filters?
A8. Free-form loop and mandrel wrap.

Q9. The cutoff wavelength of matched-clad and depressed-clad single mode fibers varies
according to the fiber's radius of curvature and length. The cutoff wavelength of which single mode
fiber type is more sensitive to length?
A9. Depressed-clad.
Q10. Will the cutoff wavelength of uncabled fibers ( cf) generally have a value higher or lower
than the cutoff wavelength of cabled fibers ( cc)?
A10. Higher.

Q11. Describe the -3 decibel (dB) optical power frequency (f3dB).

A11. The -3 decibel (dB) is the lowest frequency at which the magnitude of the fiber frequency
response has decreased to one half its zero-frequency value.

Q12. Delay differences between the source wavelengths occur as the optical signal propagates
along the fiber. What is this called?
A12. Differential group delay ( )

Q13. What determines the range of wavelengths over which meaningful data is obtained for
calculating the chromatic dispersion?
A13. The wavelength range of the optical source(s) used.

Q14. Why do end users perform fiber geometry measurements in the laboratory?
A14. To reduce system attenuation and coupling loss resulting from poor fiber fabrication.

Q15. Define cladding diameter.

A15. The cladding diameter is the average diameter of the cladding.

Q16. Explain the difference between multimode and single mode core-cladding concentricity
errors.
A16. Multimode core-cladding concentricity error is the distance between the core and cladding
centers expressed as a percentage of core diameter while the single mode core-cladding
concentricity error is just the distance between the core and cladding centers.

Q17. Near-field power distributions describe the emitted power per unit area in the near-field
region. Describe the near-field region.
A17. The near-field region is the region close to the fiber-end face.

Q18. How is the core diameter defined?

A18. The core diameter is defined as the diameter at which the near-field intensity is 2.5 percent of
the maximum intensity.

Q19. Far-field power distributions describe the emitted power per unit area as a function of angle ÿ
in the far-field region. Describe the far-field region.
A19. The far-field region is the region far from the fiber-end face.

Q20. Will fiber coupling loss generally increase or decrease if the mode field diameter of a single
mode fiber is decreased?
A20. Increase.

Q21. In multimode fibers, how do fiber joints increase fiber attenuation following the joint?
A21. By disturbing the fiber's mode power distribution (MPD).

Q22. List two effects that reflections can have on a fiber optic data link.
A22. Reduce the stability of the system source and increase the signal noise present at the optical
detector.

Q23. Reflectance is given as what ratio?

A23. The ratio of reflected optical power to incident optical power.

Q24. Does return loss include power that is transmitted, absorbed, and/or scattered?
A24. No.

Q25. Is it essential for end users to remeasure optical fiber geometrical properties after installation
in the field?
A25. No.

Q26. When is an OTDR recommended for conducting field measurements on installed optical
fibers or links?
A26. When installed optical fiber cables or links are 50 meters or more in length.

Q27. An OTDR measures the fraction of light that is reflected back from the fiber or link under
test.What causes light to be reflected back into the OTDR?
A27. Rayleigh scattering and Fresnel reflection.

Q28. List the types of fiber optic components considered part of a fiber optic cable plant.
A28. Optical fiber cables, connectors, splices, mounting panels, jumper cables, and other passive
components.

Q29. What is a temporary or permanent local deviation of the OTDR signal in the upward or
downward direction called?
A29. A point defect.

Q30. Why is a dead-zone fiber placed between the test fiber and OTDR when conducting
attenuation measurements?
A30. To reduce the effect of the initial reflection at the OTDR.

Q31. The amount of backscattered optical power at each point depends on what two properties?
A31. Forward optical power and backscatter capture coefficient.

Q32. How can test personnel eliminate the effects of backscatter variations?
A32. By performing the OTDR attenuation measurements in each direction along the test fiber.

Q33. If the length of the fiber point defect changes with pulse duration, is the OTDR signal
deviation a point defect or a region of high fiber attenuation?
A33. A point defect.
Q34. Give the type of fault (reflective or nonreflective) normally produced by: (a) fiber breaks,
(b)fiber cracks, and (c) fiber microbends.
A34. (a) Reflective, (b) nonreflective, and (c) nonreflective.

Q35. Explain how a point defect may exhibit an apparent gain.

A35. A point defect may exhibit apparent gain because the backscatter coefficient of the fiber
present before the point defect is higher than that of the fiber present after.

Q36. A point defect exhibiting an apparent gain in one direction will exhibit what, when measured
in the opposite direction?
A36. An exaggerated loss.

Q37. When is an optical power meter measurement recommended for conducting field
measurements on installed optical fiber cables or cable plants?
A37. When an installed optical fiber cable or cable plant is less than 50 meters in length.

Q38. If an installed optical fiber cable does not have connectors or terminations on both ends, how
should the cable be tested?
A38. With an OTDR unless it is less than 50 meters in length. If it is less than 50 meters in length,
continuity should be verified with a flashlight.

Q1. What are the three parts of a fiber optic transmitter?

A1. Interface circuit, source drive circuit, and an optical source.

Q2. Which part of a fiber optic transmitter converts the processed electrical signal to an optical
signal?
A2. The optical source.

Q3. LEDs operating at 850 nm provide sufficient optical power for short-distance, low-bandwidth
multimode systems. List three conditions that prevent the use of LEDs in longer distance, higher
bandwidth multimode systems.
A3. Multimode fiber dispersion, the relatively high fiber attenuation, and the LED's relatively low
optical output power

Q4. Why can multimode graded-index fiber 1300-nm systems using LEDs operate over longer
distances and at higher bandwidths than 850-nm systems?
A4. Longer distances and higher bandwidths are possible because fiber material losses and
dispersion are significantly reduced at the 1300-nm region.

Q5. Semiconductor LEDs emit incoherent light. Define incoherent light.

A5. Light waves that lack a fixed-phase relationship.

Q6. Which semiconductor sources (LD or LED) emit more focused light and are capable of
launching sufficient optical power into both single mode and multimode fibers?
A6. LDs.
Q7. The amount of optical power coupled into an optical fiber depends on what four factors?
A7. (1) The angles over which the light is emitted. (2) The size of the source's light-emitting area
relative to the fiber core size. (3) The alignment of the source and fiber. (4) The coupling
characteristics of the fiber (such as the NA and the refractive index profile).

Q8. What are the two most common semiconductor materials used in electronic and electro-optic
devices?
A8. Silicon and gallium arsenide.

Q9. What is a laser?

A9. A laser is a device that produces optical radiation using stimulated emission rather than
spontaneous emission.

Q10. .Describe stimulated emission.

A10. A photon initially produced by spontaneous emission in the active region interacts with the
laser
material to produce additional photons.

Q11. What are the three basic LED types?

A11. Surface-emitting LEDs (SLEDs), edge-emitting LEDs (ELEDs), and superluminescent diodes
(SLDs).

Q12. Which types of LEDs are the preferred optical sources for short-distance, low-data-rate fiber
optic systems?
A12. SLEDs and ELEDs.

Q13. What are facets?

A13. Cut or polished surfaces at each end of the narrow active region of an ELED.

Q14. What is lowest current at which stimulated emission exceeds spontaneous emission in a
semiconductor laser called?
A14. Threshold current.

Q15. Describe the output of a laser diode.

A15. The LD's output has a narrow spectral width and small output beam angle.

Q16. Which type of optical source usually lacks reflective facets and in some cases are designed
to suppress reflections back into the active region?
A16. LED.

Q17. Which type of optical source tends to operate at higher drive currents to produce light?
A17. Laser.

Q18. Are the effects of temperature changes on LDs more or less significant than for LEDs?
A18. More.
Q19. Specify the mechanism that SLDs lack that is required by laser diodes to achieve lasing.
A19. SLDs have no built-in optical feedback mechanism.

Q20. How does the source drive circuit intensity modulate the source?
A20. By varying the current through the source.

Q21. What is a prebias?

A21. A current applied in the laser off state just less than the threshold current.

Q22. Is the drive circuitry generally more complex for an LED or a laser diode? Why?
A22. For a laser diode. The laser diode transmitter generally contains output power control circuitry
and may contain a TE cooler and some circuitry associated with the TE cooler.

Q23. What are the two types of output interfaces for fiber optic transmitters?
A23. Optical connectors and optical fiber pigtails.

Q24. List five common fiber optic transmitter packages.

A24. TO can, DIP, butterfly lead microcircuits, circuit cards, and stand-alone optical fiber
converters.

Q25. What type of source is typically used in low-data-rate digital applications?

A25. LED.

Q26. Why would a laser diode be used in a low-data-rate digital application?

A26. When extremely high transmitter output powers are required.

Q27. What type of source is generally used in high-data-rate digital applications?

A27. Laser diode.

Q28. Why are LEDs preferred over laser diodes for low- and moderate-frequency analog
applications?
A28. LEDs require less complex circuitry than lasers.

Q1. What is a fiber optic receiver?

A1. An electro-optic device that accepts optical signals from an optical fiber and converts them into
electrical signals.

Q2. Which part of the receiver amplifies the electrical signal to a level suitable for further signal
processing?
A2. Amplifier.

Q3. Which performance parameter is the minimum amount of optical power required to achieve a
specific bit-error rate (BER) in digital systems or a given signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) in analog
systems?
A3. Receiver sensitivity.

Q4. Define receiver dynamic range.

A4. The range of optical power levels over which the receiver operates within the specified values.
It usually is described by the ratio of the maximum input power to the sensitivity.

Q5. Describe the operation of an optical detector.

A5. It is a transducer that converts an optical signal into an electrical signal. It does this by
generating an electrical current proportional to the intensity of incident optical radiation.

Q6. For efficient operation, should a detector have a high or low responsivity at the operating
wavelength?
A6. High.

Q7. List the two principal optical detectors used in fiber optic systems.
A7. The semiconductor positive-intrinsic-negative (PIN) photodiode and avalanche photodiode
(APD).

Q8. What are the four most common materials used in semiconductor detector fabrication?
A8. Silicon, gallium arsenide, germanium, and indium phosphide.

Q9. What is a photocurrent?

A9. The current produced when photons are incident on the detector active area.

Q10. Define responsivity.

A10. The ratio of the optical detector's output photocurrent in amperes to the incident optical power
in watts.

Q11. How are PIN photodiodes usually biased?

A11. Reverse-biased

Q12. What is the dark current?

A12. The leakage current that continues to flow through a photodetector when there is no incident
light.

Q13. Will dark current increase or decrease as the temperature of the photodiode increases?
A13. Increase.

Q14. Should the capacitance of the photodetector be kept small or large to prevent the RC time
constant from limiting the response time?
A14. Small.

Q15. Trade-offs between competing effects are necessary for high speed response. Which
competing effect (fast transit time, low capacitance, or high quantum efficiency) requires a thin
active area?
A15. Fast transit time.
Q16. Why is detector saturation not generally a problem in fiber optic communications systems?
A16. Because fiber optic communications systems operate at low optical power levels.

Q17. Describe avalanche multiplication.

A17. The electrons initially generated by the incident photons accelerate as they move through the
APD active region. As these electrons collide with electrons in the semiconductor material, they
cause a fraction of them to become part of the photocurrent.

Q18. How can the gain of an APD be increased?

A18. By increasing the reverse-bias voltage.

Q19. Which amplifier stage (the preamplifier or the postamplifier) is a dominant contributor of noise
and significantly influences the sensitivity of the receiver?
A19. The preamplifier.

Q20. List the key operational parameters used to define receiver performance.
A20. Receiver sensitivity, bandwidth, and dynamic range.

Q21. List the main types of receiver noise.

A21. Thermal noise, dark current noise, and quantum noise.

Q22. What is the main factor that determines receiver sensitivity?

A22. Noise.

Q23. For a reduction in thermal noise, should the value of the detector's load resistor be increased
or decreased?
A23. Increased.

Q24. What are two types of noise that manifest themselves as shot noise?
A24. Dark current and quantum noises.

Q25. What are the two basic types of preamplifiers used in fiber optic receivers?
A25. The high-impedance amplifier and the transimpedance amplifier.

Q26. Which preamplifier design (high-impedance or transimpedance) provides improvements in

bandwidth and greater dynamic range with some degradation in sensitivity from an increase in
noise?
A26. Transimpedance.

Q27. For what types of applications are APDs generally used?

A27. For high-data-rate applications and for low- or moderate-data-rate applications where
receivers with extremely low sensitivities are required.

Q28. Why is a low-pass filter generally part of a digital fiber optic receiver?
A28. To smooth the amplified signal to remove some of the high frequency noise before the signal
is further processed.

Q1. List four system topologies that can be constructed using point-to-point fiber optic links.
A1. Linear bus, ring, star, and tree topologies.

Q2. Which topology (linear bus, ring, star, or tree) consists of equipments attached to one another
in a closed loop?
A2. Ring.

Q3. Which topology (bus, ring, star, or tree) has a center hub interconnecting the equipments?
A3. Star.

Q4. Define modulation.

A4. The process of varying one or more characteristics of an optical signal to encode and convey
information.

Q5. What is a digital signal?

A5. A discontinuous signal that changes from one state to another in discrete steps.

Q6. In NRZ code, does the presence of a high-light level in the bit duration represent a binary 1 or
a binary 0?
A6. Binary 1.

Q7. How can the loss of timing occur in NRZ line coding?
A7. If long strings of 1s or 0s are present causing a lack of level transitions.

Q8. How is a binary 1 encoded in RZ line coding?

A8. A half-period optical pulse present in the first half of the bit duration.

Q9. In Manchester encoding, does a low-to-high light level transition occurring in the middle of the
bit duration represent a binary 1 or a binary 0?
A9. Binary 0.

Q10. What is an analog signal?

A10. A continuous signal that varies in a direct proportion to the instantaneous value of a physical
variable.

Q11. What type of modulation do most analog fiber optic communications systems use?
A11. Intensity modulation.

Q12. Why has the transmission of video using analog techniques been very popular, especially for
shorter distances?
A12. Because cost can be minimized and complex multiplexing and timing equipment is
unnecessary.

Q13. Why is it generally only necessary to refer to point-to-point data links when discussing the
process of fiber optic system design?
A13. Because fiber optic systems that incorporate complex architectures can be simplified into a
collection of point-to-point data links before beginning the design process.

Q14. List five system design parameters considered when system designers choose the system
operational wavelength and link components.
A14. Launch power, connection losses, bandwidth, cost, and reliability.

Q15. What two analyses are performed to determine if a link design is viable?
A15. Power budget and risetime budget.

Q16. Optical fibers or cables should never be bent at a radius of curvature smaller than a certain
value. Identify this radius of curvature.
A16. Minimum bend radius.

Q17. List five precautions to take when installing fiber optic systems on board naval ships.
A17.
a. Never bend an optical fiber or cable at a radius of curvature less than the minimum bend
radius.
b. Never pull fiber optic cables tight or fasten them over or through sharp corners or cutting
edges.
c. Always clean fiber optic connectors before mating.
d. Do not kink or crush fiber optic cable during installation of the hardware.
e. Allow only trained, authorized personnel to install or repair fiber optic systems.