Olympiad KVPY Solutions - NS PDF

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ONLINE TEST SERIES - TEST 1 Time : 1 Hr.
for
National Science Olympiad (NSO)

(Based on Science Olympiad Syllabus)
(For Class-IX)
Topics Covered in Various Subjects :
Mental Ability : Verbal Series, Logical sequence, Coding & Decoding of words, Verbal Analogy, Inserting
the missing character, Logical Venn diagram, Verbal Classification, Number, Ranking &
Time sequence test, Alphabet Test
Science : Motion, Cell, Force & Laws of Motion, Tissues, Gravitation, Improvement in food
resources, Thrust & Pressure, Diversity in living organisms
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) There are three sections, 10 questions in section-I (Logical Reasoning), 35 questions in section-II (Science)
and 5 questions in section-III (Achievers Section).
(iii) Section-I & II carry 1 mark and Section-III carries 3 marks.
(iv) There is no negative marking.
SECTION-I (LOGICAL REASONING)

Choose the correct answer :
1. Find the next number for the given sequence. Directions (Q.3 & Q.4) : In each of the questions below,
out of the given four alternatives, one is different from
8, 9, 12, 18, 28, ?
the other. This is your answer.
(1) 43 (2) 35
3. (1) Barometer
(3) 38 (4) 30
(2) Thermometer
2. Find the missing numbers. (3) Diameter
1 _ 3423 _ 534 _ 64 _ 67 (4) Lactometer
(1) 3423 (2) 5352 4. (1) Circle (2) Ellipse
(3) 2455 (4) 5345 (3) Sphere (4) Cube
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Class IX National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - Test 1
5. In a certain code, PERFECTION is written as 8. Which will be the seventh letter to the right of the
NOITCEFREP. How is INSTITUTION coded in that? twelfth letter from the left?
(1) NIOTUTITNSI (2) NOITUTITSNI (1) G (2) F
(3) NOITITUTSNI (4) NOITUTITNSI (3) H (4) S
9. If the first and second digits in the sequence
9 4 25
23485971 are interchanged, also the third and
6. 25 18 16 81 26 64 64 ? 144 fourth digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on,
36 49 36 which digit would be fifth counting to your left?
(1) 19 (2) 23 (1) 4 (2) 7
(3) 24 (4) 31 (3) 9 (4) 3
Directions (Q.7 & Q.8) : If the following alphabets are Directions (Q.10) : Find the missing character from
written in reverse order the given alternatives.
10.
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
7. Which will be the fourth letter to the left of the 7 4 5 9 10 15
fifteenth letter from the right? 15 18 ?
(1) T (2) S (1) 25 (2) 21
(3) R (4) D (3) 35 (4) 29
SECTION-II (SCIENCE)
11. Ajay is walking on a straight road following an unusual which brings the car at rest in 5 minutes, with
pattern. He takes 3 steps backward after every 12 uniform retardation. The force imparted by the sand
steps taken in the forward direction. If each step is to the car is
of 1 m and he walks at the rate of 1 m/second, the
displacement covered in 1 minute will be (1) –60 N (2) –36 N
(1) 36 m (2) 60 m (3) –3600 N (4) –180 N

(3) 48 m (4) 12 m 15. Two blocks A and B of masses 100 kg and 20 kg
12. A boy, sitting in a bus moving with uniform velocity, respectively, separated by a distance of 5 m are
throws a ball vertically upwards. While falling down, kept on a smooth surface. A mass of 60 kg is
the ball will fall then added to the block A. Now, in order to
experience same attractive force as before, the two
(1) Ahead of him
blocks should be separated by a distance of
(2) Back in the boy’s hands
(1) 5 m (2) 2 10 m
(3) Behind him
(4) Randomly in any direction (3) 20 m (4) 2 5 m
13. Two bodies have masses in ratio 2 : 3. If their linear 16. If V1 is the velocity of bullet after firing, V2 is the
momentum are in ratio 5 : 4, the ratio of velocity of gun after firing, m1 is mass of the bullet
and m2 is the mass of the gun then the recoil
magnitudes of their velocities will be
velocity of the gun can be calculated as
(1) 6 : 5 (2) 8 : 15
m1 m1
(3) 5 : 6 (4) 15 : 8 (1) m V1 (2)  m V1
2 2
14. A car of mass 1800 kg is moving with uniform
m1 V1 m2V1
velocity of 36 km/h on a smooth road. After a (3) m  m (4)  m
certain distance, the road is covered with sand 1 2 1
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National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - Test 1 Class IX
17. The given figure describes the velocity-time graph 21. An object is thrown vertically upwards. It reaches
of a moving car. The magnitude of difference in the highest point and comes back to initial point.
displacement travelled by the car between 0 to 10 If upwards direction is taken positive and downward
second and 10 to 30 second is direction is taken negative, the acceleration-time
graph for its motion will be
Y
10 m/s P Q a(m/s2)
g
Velocity
(1)
0 Time (s)
R S T
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 X
time a(m/s2)
(1) 50 m (2) 100 m
(3) 150 m (4) 200 m
(2) 0
18. A rubber ball having mass 2 kg is thrown Time (s)
horizontally with a velocity of 10 m/s over a sandy –g
surface. If it stops after travelling a distance of
20 m, the force of friction between the ball and a(m/s2)
sand is (assume uniform retardation)
5
(1) 5 N (2) N (3) g
2
0
5 –g Time (s)
(3) – N (4) – 5 N
2
a(m/s2)
19. A body undergoing uniform circular motion covers
a distance of 35 m, making 3 1 rounds in
2 minutes. Its average velocity is 2
(4) 0
(1) 17.5 m/min (2) 70 m/min Time (s)
(3) 35 m/min (4) 5 m/min –g

20. The displacement-time graph of an object moving
22. A block of mass 10 kg is dropped from a height
on a straight road is as given below :
4.05 m on a heap of sand. If the sand offers a
uniform deceleration of 300 m/s2 to the block, the
Displacement (m)
c time taken by the block to come to rest inside

b sand will be [Take g = 10 m/s2]
a (1) 0.03 s (2) 4.5 s

(3) 0.9 s (4) 0.3 s
O t1 t2 t3 Time (s) 23. The apparent weight of a stone of mass 1 kg,
The average velocity of the object for the time completely immersed in a liquid is found to be
period 0 to t3 as calculated from the graph is 7.5 N. If the displaced liquid can fill a bottle of
volume 125 cm3 upto its brim, the density of the
cb c
(1) (2) liquid is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
t3  t1 t3
c a abc (1) 2 g/cm3 (2) 0.5 g/cm3
(3) (4)
t3  t 2 t1  t 2  t3 (3) 0.75 g/cm3 (4) 1.25 g/cm3
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24. The velocity-time graph of a body in motion is given R - Contain digestive enzymes which digest the
below. complex food particles into small, simpler
particles.
Velocity (m/s)
S - Contain metabolic gases which help in
20 maintaining buoyancy of the cell
16
Identify the type of vacuoles P, Q, R and S on the
basis of given functions.
0 3 5 7 10
Time (s) P Q R S
(1) Contractile Food Sap Gas
The average velocity of the body in time interval vacuoles vacuoles vacuoles vacuoles
0  10 s is (2) Sap Contractile Food Gas
(1) Zero (2) 18 m/s vacuoles vacuoles vacuoles vacuoles
(3) Gas Sap Contractile Food
(3) 13.2 m/s (4) 20 m/s vacuoles vacuoles vacuoles vacuoles
25. A wooden cubical block of volume 320 cm3 is (4) Food Contractile Gas Sap
vacuoles vacuoles vacuoles vacuoles
partially immersed in a beaker filled with water
initially upto 700 ml mark. If the mark of the water
29. Which of the following is not the correct difference
rises upto 900 ml after immersion, the density of
between Annelids and Arthropods?
the wooden block is
(1) 0.625 g/cm3 (2) 1.2 g/cm3 Character Annelids Arthropods
(3) 1.6 g/cm3 (4) 3.2 g/cm3 (1) Circulation In most of Blood flows
them, blood through large
26. At what depth under the surface of Earth, the flows inside sinuses or
acceleration due to gravity reduces by 80% of its the blood spaces
value at the surface of Earth? vessels
(2) Chitinous Present Absent
1 7 exoskeleton
(1) R (2) R
5 8 (3) Excretory Nephridia Green glands
4 1 organs and
(3) R (4) R Malpighian
5 8
tubules
27. The motion of a planet around sun is described by (4) Coelom True coelom is True coelom is
the path shown below. well reduced into
C developed haemocoel
is replaced by
30. 'A' Cork cambium or Phellogen
S (In young plant) (In old plant)
D B
A
If the shown areas swept by the planet are equal
then Cork/Phellem 'B'
(Outer side) (Inner side)
(1) (Areal Velocity)AB < (Areal Velocity)CD
(2) (Distance)AB = (Distance)CD Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the above flowchart.
(3) (Time)AB = (Time)CD (1) A - Xylem, B - Secondary cortex

(4) (Speed)AB = (Speed)CD
(2) A - Bast, B - Phloem parenchyma
28. P - Store amino acids, sugars, various organic
acids and some proteins. (3) A - Epidermis, B - Phelloderm
Q - Help in the maintenance of water and salt (4) A - Tracheids, B - Phloem fibres
balance in unicellular organisms.
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(1) a(v), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii), e(i)

31. B
A (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(v), e(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii), e(iv)
Cell membrane 35. Raghu wishes to perform mixed cropping in his field.
What criteria should be kept in mind while selecting
plants for mixed cropping?
(a) Both the crops should be tall and should have
same structures of leaves, stems, branching
pattern of stem and flowers.
Processes A and B shown above, respectively, are (b) Both the crop plants should have different water
(1) Osmosis and diffusion requirements.
(2) Crenation and plasmolysis (c) The two crops should have different root pattern.
(3) Deplasmolysis and plasmolysis If one crop has deep penetrating roots the other
should have shallow penetrating roots.
(4) Endocytosis and exocytosis
(d) The two crops should not compete with each
32. Farmer 1 : Wants to grow crops which provide us other for light, nutrients, water, etc.
carbohydrates.
(e) The products and waste materials of one crop
Farmer 2 : Wants to grow crops which provide us should stimulate the growth of others.
proteins.
(f) Both crops should be leguminous plants.
Farmer 3 : Wants to grow crops which are a
source of fats, oils, and fatty acids. (1) (a), (b), (c) and (e) (2) (a), (b) and (f)
Which of the following sets of crops should they (3) (a) and (f) only (4) (b), (c), (d) and (e)
grow? 36. Ribosomes that are present in mitochondria and
Farmer-1 Farmer-2 Farmer-3 chloroplasts have the subunits
(1) Soyabean Rice Lentil (1) 50S and 30S (2) 50S and 40S
(2) Millet Black gram Sesame
(3) 60S and 40S (4) 60S and 30S
(3) Pigeon pea Barley Castor
(4) Chick pea Mustard Wheat 37. Identify A and B in the given diagram.
33. Which of the following sets of crops are grown

during winter? A
(1) Wheat, pea, gram, linseed
Muscle
(2) Muskmelon, watermelon, cucumber, bitter Bone
melon B
(3) Rice, cotton, sugarcane, millet
(4) Gram, pumpkin, sesame, pigeon pea
34. Match the following columns and choose the (1) A : Tendon and B : Ligament
correct option.
(2) A : Ligament and B : Tendon
Column-I Column-II
(3) A : Cartilage and B : Tendon
a. Polysiphonia (i) Tusk-shell
b. Ipomoea batatas (ii) Sandworm (4) A : Cartilage and B : Ligament
c. Musa paradisiaca (iii) Banana 38. Blue revolution led to the increased production of
d. Nereis (iv) Sweet potato (1) Fowl (2) Honey
e. Dentalium (v) Red algae (3) Fish (4) Egg
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39. Which of the following sets of xylem components

43.
are present in majority of gymnosperms?
(1) Vessels, Tracheids, Xylem parenchyma, Xylem
fibres
(2) Vessels, Xylem parenchyma, Xylem fibres
(3) Tracheids, Xylem parenchyma, Xylem fibres A B C
(4) Companion cells, Xylem parenchyma, Xylem

fibres
40. Which of the following groups of animals posseses
the following features?
(a) They are unsegmented and have bilateral D E
symmetry. Normal percentage of given blood corpuscles in
(b) They are triploblastic and have organ system human blood should be
level of organisation.
A B C D E
(c) Their body is covered by firm, non-living,
resistant cuticle. (1) 60-65% 2-3% 6-8% 20-25% 2-3%
(2) 20-35% 0.5-1% 60-65% 2-3% 6-8%
(d) Fertilization is internal and development may be
direct or indirect. (3) 6-8% 2-3% 20-25% 0.5-1% 60-65%
(1) Rhabditis, Ascaris, Wuchereria (4) 2-3% 60-65% 20-25% 6-8% 0.5-1%
(2) Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia, Physalia 44. The epithelium present in the ducts of salivary
(3) Planaria, Fasciola, Taenia solium, Taenia glands, pancreas and sweat glands is
saginata (1) Columnar epithelium
(4) Unio, Mytilus, Pila, Octopus
(2) Stratified squamous epithelium
41. The energy currency of the cell is synthesised in
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(1) Oxysomes (2) Cristae
(4) Ciliated epithelium
(3) Dictyosomes (4) Cisternae
42. Which of the following should a farmer use in order 45. What was the aim of revolution started by
to replenish a soil deficient in nitrogen? V. Kurien?
(1) Potassium sulphate (1) To reduce the use of pesticides

(2) Muriate of potash (2) To increase milk production
(3) Urea (3) To increase production of grains
(4) Triple superphosphate
(4) To control weeds
SECTION-III (ACHIEVERS SECTION)

46. Two identical balls A and B are moving along a 47. A ball of mass 200 g is dropped from a height of
straight line in the same direction such that initial 1.8 m. The ball strikes the ground and rises upto
velocity of A is twice that of B. If after collision, the a height of 1.152 m. If the ball again strikes the
final velocity of B increases by 40% of initial ground and rises upto a height of 0.45 m. Find the
velocity of A, then the final velocity of ball A will ratio of impulse imparted when the ball hits the
(1) Decrease by 60% of its initial value ground first time to that of the second time. (Take
(2) Increase to 60% of its initial value g = 10 m/s2) &  23.04  4.8 
(3) Decrease to 60% of its initial value (1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(4) Increase by 60% of its initial value (3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
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48. Which of the following sets of words should be Here A, B, C and D are
used to replace the underlined terms (wherever
necessary) in the given statements to make them A B C D
correct? (1) Venus flower Aranea Mollusca Rhabditis
basket
(i) Collenchyma tissue is a dead tissue like (2) Fresh water Musca Echinodermata Pheretima
parenchyma. sponge posthuma
(ii) Sclereids are irregularly shaped, highly (3) Bath sponge Mytilus Nematoda Periplaneta
thickened cells with very narrow cavities. (4) Glass rope Metridium Cnidaria Pennatula
(iii) Transverse or end walls between vessel sponge
elements are partially or completely dissolved
50. In an examination, the students were asked to
to form discontinuous channels.
write scientific name of peacock. Different students
(iv) Tendons are strong, inelastic white fibrous
wrote different names. Select the students who
tissues that join skeletal muscles to bones.
wrote the name correctly.
(v) Fibroblasts are the principal cells of the
adipose connective tissue. Aditya – Hemidactylus Girish – Varanus
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) Bharti – Funambulus Hardik – Pavo cristatus
(1) Living Thickened Continuous Inelastic Areolar
Divya – pavo livia Kushagra – Pavo cristatus
(2) Dead Weakened Discontinuous Elastic Areolar
(3) Living Weakened Continuous Fragile Adipose Farida – Pavo cristatus John – Psittacula
(4) Dead Thickened Parallel Tough Skeletal
Indira – Psittacula Lokesh – Funambulus
49. Common name Biological name Phylum
(1) Farida and Kushagra
A Spongilla Porifera
House fly B Arthropoda (2) Divya, Farida, Hardik and Kushagra
Star fish Asterias C (3) Indira and John
Earthworm D Annelida (4) Bharti and Lokesh

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Ph.: 011-47623456
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(For Class-IX)

Mental Ability : Mathematical operations, Alpha-numeric sequence, Puzzle, Non-verbal series, Mirror &
water image, Analytical Reasoning, Arithmetical Reasoning, Direction Sense Test, Sitting
Arrangement, Blood Relation, Non-Verbal Classification, Non-Verbal Analogy
Science : Work, Energy & Power, Why do we fall ill?, Sound, Natural resources, Matter in our
surroundings, Is matter arounds us pure?

Choose the correct answer : 2. If it is given a + b, c – b and a  c, then which
Directions (Q.1 to Q.3) : If ‘+’ denotes ‘greater than’; of the following alternatives is correct?
‘–’ denotes ‘less than’; ‘×’ denotes ‘not greater than’; ‘’ (1) a + b + c (2) a  b – c
denotes ‘not less than’.
(3) b × c – a (4) b  c + a
Now, choose the correct statement in each of the
following questions : 3. The mirror image of FIVE is
1. a – b – c implies FIVE
(1) (2)
(1) b + a – c (2) a – b + c
(3) (4)
(3) b + a  c (4) c  b + a
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Class IX National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - NSO Test-2
4. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. (1) Four (2) Five
E is D’s mother. Then, how is A related to D? (3) Two (4) Three
(1) Daughter (2) Grand-daughter 7. Rekha ranks 8th

from the top and 25th from the
bottom in a class. How many students are there
(3) Grand-mother (4) Niece in the class?
5. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures (1) 31 (2) 32

which will continue the same series as established (3) 34 (4) 33
by the question figures. 8. The water image of FULL is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
? 9. If Shahnawaz is standing 10 m away in the North
from Pankaj, who is standing 10 2 m away in
the South-west from Rajeev. The distance and the
position of Shahnawaz from Rajeev is
(1) 10 m East (2) 10 m West
(1) (2)
(3) 10 2 m West (4) 10 2 m South
1 2 5 4 10 6
10. If of of of x is equal to of of of y ,
5 5 7 5 7 5
(3) (4)
x
then is equal to
y
6. In the series given below,
17 7
(1) (2)
6412287421538621714132 24 12
how many pairs of successive numbers have a 24
(3) (4) 24
difference of 2 each? 13
11. A ball of mass m strikes a vertical wall with speed u. (1) 100 kW (2) 10 kW
It returns back with same speed. The work done (3) 1 kW (4) 0.1 kW
by the ball is
14. If mass and velocity of an object increases by 2
m u and 3 times respectively, then kinetic energy of
(1) (2) object increases by
u m
(1) 9 times (2) 18 times
1
(3) mu 2 (4) Zero
2 3 9
(3) times (4) times
12. A ball is dropped from some height. It rebounds till 2 2
3 15. The quantity transmitted through waves are
of the initial height. The percentage loss in total
4 (1) Energy only
energy is (2) Momentum only
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) Both energy and momentum
(3) 75% (4) 90% (4) Neither energy nor momentum
13. Water is falling at the rate of 100 kg/s on the 16. The speed of sound is least in
blades of turbine from the height of 100 m. The (1) Vacuum (2) Solid
power delivered to the turbine is (g = 10 m/s2) (3) Liquid (4) Gases
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National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - NSO Test-2 Class IX
17. With the increase in temperature of medium, speed 23. C(Water)

of sound A (Ice)
(1) Increases
Volume
(2) Decreases B
(3) Remains same
(4) First increases and then decreases
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
18. In the given figure, an object starts to slide down Temperature (°C)
a frictionless bowl of radius R. The speed of the
Point ‘B’ in the above graph represents
object when it reaches the bottom of the bowl is
[Take g as acceleration due to gravity] (1) Boiling point of water
(2) Maximum density of water
R
Object (3) Minimum pressure
O
(4) Critical temperature
Smooth Bowl
24. Which of the following is the best technique to
separate sugar from its aqueous solution?
(1) 4gR
(1) Evaporation
(2) 2gR
(2) Centrifugation
(3) gR (3) Chromatography
(4) 2gR (4) Crystallisation
25. The state of matter which consists of super
19. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to some
energetic and superexcited particles, in the form of
speed. The energy spent is E. If same car then
extra accelerates to twice its speed, then, extra ionised gas is
energy spent will (1) Gaseous state (2) BEC
(1) E (3) Liquid (4) Plasma
(2) 2E 26. Mass by mass percentage of a 100 g aqueous
sugar solution is 11.0%. How much water is added
(3) 3E
to the solution to make its concentration 5.5%
(4) 4E (w/w)?
20. The work done by centripetal force when object (1) 150 g (2) 50 g
moves on a circular path is (3) 100 g (4) 200 g
(1) 2 J (2) J 27. Which of the following has the highest density?
(3) 0 (4) 1 J (1) Honey (2) Kerosene
21. An echo is heard when minimum distance of the (3) Air (4) Water
sound source from reflecting surface is
28. Which of the following does not have solid as its
approximately
dispersion medium?
(1) 10 m (2) 17 m
(1) Face cream (2) Rubber
(3) 34 m (4) 50 cm
(3) Cheese (4) Jelly
22. If v1 is velocity of sound in moist air and v2 is the
29. Mass of carbon dioxide present in soda-water drink
velocity of sound in dry air, then
is 1/4th of the mass of solvent present. The mass
(1) v1 > v2 (2) v1 < v2 percentage (w/w) of solution is
(1) 25% (2) 20%
1
(3) v1 = v2 (4) v1  v (3) 80% (4) 75%
2
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30. The steps involved in separation of a mixture of 34. Formation of which natural resource is known as
camphor, sand and sodium chloride are as follows: pedogenesis?
I. Sublimation of camphor. (1) Forest
II. Dissolution of mixture in water by stirring. (2) Air
III. Filtration to separate sand and camphor. (3) Soil
IV. Crystallisation of filtrate to obtain sodium (4) Water
chloride.
35. Select the mismatch pair.
The correct sequence of the above steps is (1) Fungal disease - Ringworm
(1) I  II  III  IV (2) Bacterial disease - Kala azar
(2) II  IV  III  I (3) Viral disease - SARS
(3) II  III  IV  I (4) Bacterial disease - Diphtheria
(4) II  IV  I  III 36. A doctor suggested drugs called Rifampicin and
31. Tincture of iodine is Thioacetozone as a prescription to a patient. From
which of the following diseases the patient is
(1) Solution of iodine in water suffering?
(2) Suspension of iodine in alcohol (1) Rabies
(3) Solution of iodine in alcohol (2) Koch’s disease
(4) Colloid of iodine in bromine (3) Enteric fever
32. Simple distillation technique cannot be used to (4) Polio
separate the mixture of
37. Ammonia  ‘X’ ‘Y’
(1) Two miscible liquids with difference in boiling  Nitrite   Nitrate. Identify
point more than 25 K bacteria ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(2) Volatile liquids with difference in boiling point (1) ‘X’ - Nitrobacter and ‘Y’ - Nitrosomonas
more than 25 K
(2) ‘X’ - Pseudomonas and ‘Y’ - Nitrosomonas
(3) Liquids which decompose before their boiling
points (3) ‘X’ - Nitrosomonas and ‘Y’ - Nitrobacter
(4) Liquids which do not decompose at their (4) ‘X’ - Azotobacter and ‘Y’ - Pseudomonas
boiling points
38. Select the incorrect pair.
33. Consider the following graph.
Vaccine Disease
D (1) DPT Diarrhoea
Temperature
B Steam (2) BCG Tuberculosis

C
Water (3) Hib Influenza type-B
A (4) MMR Rubella
Heat 39. AZT is a drug given to the patient suffering from a
The heat absorbed at BC portion of graph is diseases whose causative agent is
(1) Latent heat of fusion (1) Human immuno deficiency virus
(2) Latent heat of sublimation (2) Ascaris lumbricoides
(3) Latent heat of vaporisation (3) Plasmodium
(4) Latent heat of melting (4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-4-
Incomplete (3) ‘P’–Anti-retroviral drugs, ‘Q’–Antigen,

40. Coal   ‘X’ + Haemoglobin ‘Y’
combustion
‘R’–DOTS, ‘S’– Aedes
Reduces oxygen
carrying capacity (4) ‘P’–Interferons, ‘Q’–Antibody, ‘R’–DOTS,
of haemoglobin
‘S’– Culex
Identify X and Y.
43. In the given biogeochemical cycle, ‘X’ is a process
X Y which exclusively occurs in green plants, while ‘Y’
is an important process that occurs in both animals
(1) Carbon monoxide Carboxyhaemoglobin
and plants. ‘X’ and ‘Y’, respectively are
(2) Carbon dioxide Carbaminohaemoglobin
Atmospheric
(3) Carbon monoxide Carbaminohaemoglobin
oxygen
(4) Oxygen Oxyhaemoglobin
41. If 20 mg/L of nutrients helps in the controlled Organic molecules

growth of algae in a pond, then in which of the C6H12O6
following ponds eutrophication would occur?
'X' 'Y'
Amount of nutrients mg/L 
80
70
60 CO2
50
40 H2O
30
20 (1) Photosynthesis and respiration
10 (2) Excretion and circulation
L M O P Q R (3) Respiration and photosynthesis
Ponds 
(4) Photosynthesis and digestion
(1) L, O and P only (2) L, O, P and R
44. Harish visited a farm during his summer vacation
(3) M, Q, O and P (4) L, M and R
and saw patches of barren land. He demonstrated
42. (a) ‘P’ blocks the bacterial cell wall synthetic the various methods of preventing soil erosion.
pathway without affecting the host machinery. Which of the following methods would not be
discussed by him?
(b) Any foreign substance which stimulates the
production of antibodies when introduced into (1) Terracing (2) Scraping
the body is called ‘Q’ . (3) Contour bunds (4) Vegetation cover
(c) AIDS can be diagnosed by ‘R’ and western 45. ‘X’ is a bacterium that causes
blotting. peptic ulcer, who among the
(d) Pathogen Leishmania which causes kala-azar following scientist(s) discovered
this bacterium?
is transmitted by the vector ‘S’ .
(1) Robin Warren and Barry
Identify ‘P’, ‘Q’, ‘R’ and ‘S’ in the above statements.
Marshall
(1) ‘P’– Antibiotics, ‘Q’–Antigen, ‘R’–ELISA,
(2) Edward Jenner
‘S’– Phlebotomus
(2) ‘P’– Vaccines, ‘Q’–Antibody, ‘R’–ELISA, (3) Camillo Golgi and Palade 'X'
‘S’– Glossina (4) Dr. V Kurien
-5-
46. An object of mass M is dropped from height h on 49. A patient is suffering from following symptoms :
the sand floor. If it penetrates distance s in the
 Persistent cough
sand before coming to rest, then average
resistance offered by sand is [Take g as  Loss of weight and weakness
acceleration due to gravity]  Sputum containing blood
Mgh ⎡ h⎤  Chest pain and breathlessness
(1) (2) Mg ⎢1  ⎥
s ⎣ s⎦ Causal agent of this disease is
⎡ h⎤ Mgs (1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(3) Mg ⎢1  ⎥ (4)
⎣ s⎦ h
(2) Salmonella typhi
47. A block of mass 500 g moving with a constant
(3) Rabies virus
velocity of 1 m/s slides from a height of 1 m on a
curved smooth incline as shown in the figure. The (4) Plasmodium
distance covered by it in further 2 s after it reaches 50. A student prepared the chart depicting greenhouse
on the ground will be (Take g = 10 m/s2) effect. The chart prepared by him had few
mistakes. The chart could be correct if few words
are replaced. Which of the following when replaced
would correct the mistakes present in the chart?
1m
(ground)
SUN Solar radiations
(1) 2 m (2) 2 21 m reflected Outgoing ultraviolet
radiations
(3) 13 m (4) 2.3 m
48. Two chemical species A and B combine together

Stratosphere
to form a substance C.

A  B  C
A and B cannot be broken down into simpler
substances by chemical methods, but C can be.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the Greenhouse Effect
above information?
(i) Stratosphere should be replaced by
(i) C is a compound atmosphere.
(ii) A and B are compounds (ii) Ultraviolet radiation should be replaced by
infrared radiation.
(iii) A is an element
(iii) Greenhouse gases should be replaced by
(iv) C is a mixture
ozone.
Now, choose the correct option.
(iv) Sun should be replaced by moon.
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) (v) Solar radiation reflected should be replaced by
(2) (i) and (iii) solar radiation absorbed.
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (1) (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (v)
(4) (iii) and (iv) (3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (iii) only

-6-
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(For Class-IX)

Mental Ability : Spotting out the Embedded figure, Completion of incomplete pattern, Figure matrix
& figure formation, Paper Folding & Paper Cutting, Dices & Cubes, Dot situation
Science : Atoms and molecules, Structure of the atom
1. Which number is opposite 3 in a standard dice (1) 12 (2) 27

given below?
(3) 18 (4) 24
3
3. Count the number of cubes in the given figure.
5
6
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) Cannot be determined
2. A cube painted red on all faces is cut into 64 small
(1) 8 (2) 10
cubes of equal size. How many small cubes are
painted on one face only? (3) 11 (4) 12
-1-
4. Which number is opposite to number 3? 7. Choose a correct option to complete the given figure.
6
2 4
1
?
3 5
(1) 6
(1) (2)
(2) 4
(3) 3
(3) (4)
(4) 1
5. In the given question, a problem figure is given with 8. Choose an answer figure in which problem figure is
dotted lines. From answer figure choose a figure embedded.
which will be obtained after folding problem figure Problem figure:
along dotted line.
Problem figure :
Answer figures:
Answer figures :
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
9. Choose a correct option to complete the given figure.
6. Choose an answer figure in which problem figure is
embedded.
Problem figure:
?
(1) (2)
Answer figures:
(3) (4)
10. Find the missing character in the given pattern.
(1) (2) 25 4 7
64 49 15
256 16 ?
(3) (4) (1) 9 (2) 11

(3) 20 (4) 53
-2-
11. The molecular mass of which of the following 19. If the oxide of an element E is E2O3 then the
compounds is 106 u? phosphate of element E is
(1) Na2SO4 (2) NaHCO3 (1) E2(PO4)3 (2) E3PO4
(3) Na2CO3 (4) NaHSO4 (3) E2PO4 (4) EPO4

20. The amount of sodium hydroxide required to make
12. The number of atoms of phosphorus present in
100 ml of 0.5 M solution is
2 moles of phosphorus molecule are
(1) 1 g (2) 3 g
(1) 12.044 × 1023 (2) 48.088 × 1024
(3) 2 g (4) 4 g
(3) 24.088 × 1023 (4) 48.176 × 1023
21. Which of the given pairs represents isodiaphers?
13. Which of the following has the highest number of 40
(1) 18 Ar and 40
20 Ca
moles?
14
(2) 13
6 C and 7 N
(1) 46 g of H2O (2) 83 g of CO2
35
(3) 112 g of Na (4) 12 g of H2 (3) 17 Cl and 37
17 Cl
238
14. Isotope of which of the following elements is used (4) 92 U and 234
90 Th
in the treatment of goitre?
22. Which of the given pairs of atoms/ions has same
(1) Uranium (2) Iodine electronic configuration?
(3) Cobalt (4) Nickel (1) Ca and K (2) Ne and Na+
15. Which of the following is incorrect? (3) Cl– and K (4) F– and N
(1) The negatively charged ions are called as 23. An atom of an element Y is written as 136 Y. The
anion number of protons, neutrons and electrons present
in the element respectively are
(2) Sodium ion has one unit positive charge
(1) 6, 6, 7 (2) 6, 7, 6
(3) Valency of magnesium is two
(3) 7, 6, 6 (4) 7, 7, 6
(4) Phosphonium ion has two unit positive charge
24. Which of the following pairs does not have the
16. The number of gram atoms present in 48 g of species with same number of valence electrons?
helium is
(1) Ar, K+ (2) N3–, O2–
(1) 4 g atoms
(3) Ne, O2– (4) Ar, Mg
(2) 12 × 6.022 × 1023 atoms 25. Two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’ have same number of
(3) 12 g atoms valence electrons. The number of electrons present
(4) 4 × 6.022 × 1023 atoms in the second last shell of atom A is two times the
number of electrons present in the second shell of
17. Which of the following groups has isoelectronic atom B. A and B respectively are
species?
(1) Aluminium and phosphorus
(1) Mg2+, K+, O2–
(2) Magnesium and calcium
(2) Ne, O2–, F–
(3) Oxygen and sulphur
(3) Na+, Ca2+, N3–
(4) Silicon and carbon
(4) K+, Ca2+, Mg2+
26. If 2.5 g of a gas contains the total number of
18. Which of the following elements does not have any molecules equal to Avogadro's number at STP, then
neutron? the molar mass of the gas is
(1) Protium (2) Deuterium (1) 6.02 × 1023 g/mol (2) 3.01 × 1023 g/mol
(3) Aluminium (4) Tritium (3) 2.5 g/mol (4) 5.0 g/mol
-3-
27. The amount of water that contains the same 34. If 53 g of Na2CO3 is made to react with 60 g of
number of oxygen atoms which are present in CH3COOH, 82 g of CH3COONa, 9 g of H2O and X g
1.32 g carbon dioxide is of CO2 is formed. The value of ‘X’ is
(1) 1.08 g (2) 2.26 g (1) 20 g (2) 22 g
(3) 2.32 g (4) 1.36 g (3) 18 g (4) 44 g
28. The mass of subatomic particle which was 35. 28 g of nitrogen combines with 48 g of oxygen and
discovered by J.J.Thomson is 80 g of oxygen separately to produce two different
oxides P and Q respectively. Identify P and Q
(1) 1.76 × 10–23 kg (2) 1.6 × 10–19 kg
(1) P  N2O2 (2) P  N2O4
(3) 9.1 × 10–31 kg (4) 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Q  N2O4 Q  N2O3
29. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
(3) P  N2O3 (4) P  N2O
atoms?
Q  N2O5 Q  N2O4
(1) These can be divided into subatomic particles
36. Complete the table by identifying A, B and C
(2) These do not contain any chemical bond respectively.
(3) Generally, these can exist independently
Elements Atomic mass (u)
(4) Generally, these are considered as spherical Be A
30. The mass of 6.022 × 1023 molecules of sodium N 14
sulphite is O B
(1) 6.022 × 1023 × 126 g Na 23
(2) 126 g Al C
(3) 6.022 × 1023 + 142 g (1) 9, 16 and 27 (2) 12, 20 and 28
(4) 142 g (3) 12, 14 and 31 (4) 8, 16 and 32
31. An element X forms X2CO3 type carbonate, the 37. Match the following and choose the correct option.
number of oxygen atoms present in one mole of Column-I Column-II
sulphate of ‘X’ will be
a. Phosphorus (i) Diatomic
(1) 24.088 × 1023 (2) 18.066 × 1023
b. Ozone (ii) Octa-atomic
(3) 24.132 × 1024 (4) 6.022 × 1024
c. Fluorine (iii) Tetra-atomic
32. 1.5 g of glucose is dissolved in 75 g of water, the
d. Sulphur (iv) Triatomic
molality of the solution is
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) 0.008 mol/kg (2) 0.11 mol/kg
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) 1.01 mol/kg (4) 0.08 mol/kg
39 19
33. Read the following statements carefully, 38. 19 K and 9 F are the example of
Statement I : Bohr’s model successfully explains (1) Isotones (2) Isodiaphers

the stability of an atom. (3) Isotopes (4) Isobars
Statement II : Bohr discovered that an atom has 39. To which of the following chemical species Bohr’s
a positively charged nucleus. model is applicable?
Now, mark the correct option : (i) He+ (ii) He2+
(1) Both the statements are correct (iii) Be3+ (iv) Li2+
(2) Both the statements are incorrect Now, choose the correct option.
(3) Only statement I is correct (1) Only (ii) and (iv) (2) Only (i) and (iii)
(4) Only statement II is correct (3) (i), (ii), and (iii) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
-4-
40. Match the following : (1) Sodium sulphate

Column-I Column-II (2) Ammonium sulphide
a. H2O (i) 7 : 4 (3) Potassium carbonate
b. N2O (ii) 1 : 8 (4) Ammonium sulphite

35 37
43. If two isotopes of an element ‘E’, 17 E and 17 E are
c. H2O2 (iii) 3 : 4
present in nature in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively.
d. CO (iv) 1 : 16 The average atomic weight of element E is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (1) 35.5 u
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) 37.5 u
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) 36.5 u

(4) 35.2 u
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
44. Which of the given statements is incorrect?
41. Carbon and oxygen combine in the ratio of 3 : 8
by mass to form carbon dioxide. The weight of (1) An electron neither loses energy nor gains
carbon that reacts completely with 12 g of energy if it remains in a particular orbit
oxygen is (2) Neutrons are electrically neutral
(1) 10 g (3) Protium have 1 neutron in its nucleus
(2) 12.5 g (4) Neutrons can penetrate the nuclei and are
(3) 4 g responsible for nuclear reactions
(4) 4.5 g 45. The valency of an element ‘E’ having electronic

configuration x, x3, x2 is
42. The molecular formula of salt formed by the
combination of a polyatomic anion and a (1) 1 (2) 2
polyatomic cation is (3) 3 (4) 4

46. Read the following statements carefully: 48. What will be the total number of molecules if
0.4 g of He and 2 g of Ne are mixed in a
Statement-1: One mole of carbon weighs 12 g.
container? [Molar mass of He and Ne is 4 g/mol
Statement-2: 0.50 moles of nitrogen gas contains and 20 g/mol respectively]
3.011 × 1023 atoms of nitrogen. (1) 12.203 × 1023 (2) 6.214 × 1023
Now choose the correct option. (3) 1.2046 × 1023 (4) 8.723 × 1023
(1) Both the statements are correct 49. Which of the following does not represent 1 mole
(2) Both the statements are incorrect of O3?
(3) Only statement-1 is correct (1) 22.4 dm3 of O3 at STP

(2) 18.066 × 1023 atoms of oxygen
(4) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) 6.022 × 1023 atoms of O3
47. An element E exists in two isotopic forms 35E79
and 35E81 in nature. If the average atomic mass of (4) 1 g molecule of O3
E is 80.006 then the number of neutrons present 50. Which of the following compounds has maximum
in its most abundant isotopes is amount of sodium in it?
(1) 62 (2) 45 (1) Sodium sulphate (2) Sodium sulphide
(3) 44 (4) 46 (3) Sodium sulphite (4) Sodium carbonate

-5-
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(For Class-IX)

Mental Ability : Full Syllabus
Science : Full Syllabus

1. Figures A and B are related in a particular manner.
Establish the same relationship between C and D
by selecting the correct option. +
(3) + (4)
+ ? 2. What is the number of straight lines in the given

figure?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) 13
(2) 9
(3) 15
(1) (2)
(4) 14
-1-
Class IX National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - Test-4
3. Choose the best relation among ‘Girls, Students Directions (Q.6 & Q.7) : In each of the questions below,
and Singer’. out of the given four alternatives, one is different from
the rest. This is your answer.
6. (1) Ring (2) Bracelet
(1) (2) (3) Ornament (4) Bangle

7. (1) Banana (2) Mango
(3) Guava (4) Ginger
8. How many 6’s are there in the given number
series, each of which is immediately preceded by
1 or 5 and immediately followed by 3 or 9?
(3) (4) 2 6 3 7 5 6 9 2 9 6 1 3 4
1 6 3 9 1 5 6 9 2 3 1 6 5
Directions (Q.4 & Q.5) : In each of the following (1) Six (2) Five
questions, a series is given with some missing terms.
(3) Four (4) Three
Find the missing terms.
4. b_ab_aba_b_aba_ 9. 36 3 12 4 33 6
54 24 ?
(1) aaabb
(2) bbbab (1) 99 (2) 65
(3) ababa (3) 105 (4) 85
(4) babaa 10. If ‘20 – 5’ means ‘100’, ‘10  8’ means ‘18’

and ‘12 × 8’ means ‘4’, then ‘100 – 10 × 1000 
5. Z, Y, X, U, T, S, P, O, N, K, ?, ? 1000 + 100 × 10’ is equal to
(1) H, I (2) I, H (1) 0 (2) 1900
(3) H, G (4) J, I (3) 1090 (4) 20
11. A particle moves from A to B in a circular path of 12. A car covers the first half of distance at a speed
radius R covering an angle  as shown in figure. of 40 km/h and second half for distance at a
speed of v km/h. The average speed for the entire
Find the magnitude of displacement
journey is 48 km/h. Then the value of v is
(1) 56 km/h (2) 50 km/h
(3) 60 km/h (4) 58 km/h
R B
 13. A stone is dropped from a height 0.8 m above the
R A upper edge of a window. If the falling stone takes
0.2s to fall across a window which is h m high,
then h is equal to [Take g = 10 ms–2]
(1) 1.6 m
(1) 2R (2) 2Rsin/2 (2) 1.2 m
2R (3) 1.0 m
(3) 2Rcos/2 (4)
sin  /2 (4) 0.8 m
-2-
National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - Test-4 Class IX
14. The tidal wave in the sea are primarily due to (1) Intensity of sound of electric bell will decrease
gravitational field of (2) Intensity of sound of electric bell will increase
(1) Earth on the sun (2) Sun on the earth (3) Intensity of sound of electric bell will remain
(3) Earth on the moon (4) Moon on the earth unchanged
15. The weight of a body at earth’s surface is w. At a (4) Intensity of sound may remain constant or may
depth half way to the center of earth it will be decrease
[Assume uniform mass density of earth] 20. In the sound wave shown below the distance AF is
(1) w/8 (2) w/4 equal to L, then wavelength of the sound wave
(3) w (4) w/2

C D F
16. An artificial satellite of mass m is revolving around A
B E
the earth in a circular orbit of radius d. The work
3 L
done by gravitational force in th of the revolution
4 2
is (1) L (2) L
3
3 4 3
(1) mgd (2) mgd3 (3) L (4) L
4 5 2
3 21. The velocity-time graph of two objects A and B is
(3) mgd 3 (4) Zero
2 shown below. The time after which displacement of
17. A train is accelerating with a constant acceleration both the objects will be same from origin is
of a ms–2 in x-direction. A passenger in the moving
train tosses a coin. The acceleration of the coin A
Velocity (ms )
–1 24
w.r.t. passenger is
8 B
(1) a (2) g
(3) a2  g 2 (4) a – g
O 6
18. The ratio of magnitudes of acceleration of blocks Time (s)
in figure 1 and 2 is [Assume string is massless]
(1) 1 s
16 N
4 kg 2 kg 10 N 10 N 4 kg
16 N (2) 2 s
2 kg
Smooth floor Smooth floor (3) 3 s
Figure 1 Figure 2 (4) 4 s
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 13 22. A particle is moving along x-axis and force(F) is

applied on the particle as shown below. The net
(3) 13 : 3 (4) 1 : 2 work done by the force(F) is
19. An electric bell is placed in a jar as shown
below. If the quantity of air in jar is increased
continuously by using air pump, then F
90° Displacement
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
Air (3) Zero

pump
(4) Negative or zero
-3-
23. Boiling of water occurs 27. The final concentration of 300 g of 20% (w/w)
(1) Between 50°C to 120°C aqueous salt solution, when 30 g of this solution
is leaked out, will be
(2) At 100°C
(1) 11.11% (2) 22.22%
(3) Between 130°C to 150°C
(3) 20% (4) 14.28%
(4) Always below 100°C
28. The size of particles in a mixture is lying between
24. Consider the given figure and the condition given 1 nm to 1000 nm (in diameter). Which of the
below.
following properties is not exhibited by this
X mixture?
A B
(1) Scatter a beam of light
State of matter State of matter
(2) Show zig-zig motion of particles
State-A has definite shape and definite volume (3) Particles of this mixture settle down when left
while state-B do not have definite shape but has
undisturbed
fixed volume. X is the process to convert state-A
into state-B. States A, B and the process X are (4) It cannot be separated by filtration through
ordinary filter paper
(1) A = Solid (2) A = Liquid
B = Gas B = Gas 29. Which of the given polymers is a natural polymer?
X = Sublimation X = Vaporisation
(1) Nylon (2) Rayon
(3) A = Solid (4) A = Solid
B = Liquid B = Liquid (3) Polyester (4) Protein
X = Freezing X = Fusion 30. The mass of carbon in 80 g methane is
25. A white coloured, odourless and tasteless (1) 40 g (2) 20 g
semi-solid, generally used to make candles,
(3) 50 g (4) 60 g
vaseline etc. is
31. The monomer unit of teflon is
(1) Bitumen (2) Petrol
(3) Paraffin wax (4) Coke (1) Trifluoroethane (2) Tetrafluoroethyne
26. Consider the following table (3) Trifluoroethyne (4) Tetrafluoroethene
32. Rutherford, in his -particles scattering experiment

Substances Properties
observed that most of the -particles passed
X Cannot be broken down through gold foil undeflected. The conclusion of this
into simpler substances observation is
Y Constituents are present (1) Most of the space inside the atom is empty
in a fixed proportion by weight
(2) Large space of an atom is occupied by
Z Uniform composition positively charged particles
throughout its mass
(3) -particles have very less positive charge
Substances X, Y and Z are (4) The entire mass of an atom resides in the
(1) X = Element (2) X = Compound nucleus
Y = Homogeneous Y = Homogeneous 33. The mass of the charged particle that is the
mixture mixture constituent of the cathode rays, is
Z = Heterogeneous Z = Heterogeneous
(1) 1.6 × 10–19 g
mixture mixture
(3) X = Element (4) X = Element (2) 1.6 × 10–27 kg
Y = Homogeneous Y = Compound (3) Nearly same as hydrogen atom
mixture Z = Homogeneous 1
Z = Compound mixture (4) th of that of hydrogen atom
1837
-4-
34. The group of new cells given off by cork cambium 40. How many of the following are bacterial diseases
on its inner side is called of cattle?
(1) Phellogen (2) Phellem Cowpox, Dermatitis, Rinderpest, Mastitis,
Salmonellosis, Aspergillosis, Rabies, Ringworm.
(3) Cork (4) Phelloderm
(1) Two (2) Three
35. All of the following combinations of crops are used
for mixed cropping, except (3) Four (4) Five
(1) Wheat + Maize 41. Tissue of pancreatic lobules is an example of
(2) Groundnut + Sunflower (1) Cartilage (2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Wheat + Mustard (3) Unstriated muscle (4) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Barley + Chickpea 42. Any foreign substance in the body which stimulates
the production of antibodies is called
36. Statement I : Down’s syndrome is an acquired
disease. (1) Pathogen (2) Vaccine
Statement II : Acquired diseases are those (3) Vector (4) Antigen

diseases which are present since birth. 43. The cell organelle which is involved in the formation
(1) Both the statements are correct and statement II of cellular scavenger of the cell is
is the correct explanation of statement I (1) Peroxisome (2) Lysosome
(2) Both the statements are correct but statement II (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Centrosome
is not the correct explanation of statement I 44.  Simplest seed bearing plant.
(3) Only statement I is correct  Seeds are not enclosed within the fruits.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect Which of the following plants has the
characteristics given above?
37.
Centromere
(1) (2)
Which of the following is not a component of the

structure depicted above?
(1) Ribonucleic acid (2) Protein
(3) (4)
(3) Deoxyribonucleic acid (4) Gene
38. The member of Protista which has mixotrophic
mode of nutrition is
(1) Paramecium (2) Euglena 45. The bacteria which converts nitrates into gaseous
(3) Anabaena (4) Yeast nitrogen is
39. Maximum percentage of total world’s fresh water is (1) Rhizobium
in the form of (2) Nitrobacter
(1) Lakes and rivers (2) Ground water (3) Pseudomonas
(3) Ice and snow (4) Oceans (4) Nitrosomonas
-5-

46. The weight of jar filled with water is 70 N. If a body 49. (a) ______ are cold blooded animals.
of volume 1000 cm3 is immersed completely in
(b) In sponges water exit through ______.
water contained in jar as shown below, then the
weight of jar after immersion is (c) Coelenterates show ______ level of organisation.
(d) ______ cells are responsible for excretion in

flat worms.
Select the correct set of words from the following

to fill the above blanks.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Fishes Osculum Cellular Mast
(1) 70 N (2) 80 N (2) Amphibians Spongocoel Tissue Adipose
(3) 60 N (4) 40 N (3) Birds Ostia Organ Cnidoblast
(4) Reptiles Osculum Tissue Flame
47. The velocity-time graph of a block of mass 200 g
sliding on a concrete floor under the action of 4 N 50. Which of the following differences between smooth,
force is shown below. The acceleration of the block skeletal and cardiac muscles are incorrect?
and the magnitude of frictional force of the floor on
Smooth Skeletal Cardiac
the block respectively are Muscle Muscle Muscle
Fibres have Fibres have Fibres have
(a)
Velocity (ms–1)
blunt ends broad ends pointed ends

80 Striations are Striations are Faint striations
(b)
absent absent are present
30
Uninucleated Multinucleated Uninucleated
(c) muscle fibre muscle fibre muscle fibre
0 3 8
Time (s) Voluntary Involuntary Involuntary
(d)
in nature in nature in nature
(1) 0 m–2, 2 N (2) 10 ms–2, 4 N
Cells are Cells are Cells are
(3) 10 ms–2, 2 N (4) 5 ms–2, 2N (e) spindle cylindrical cylindrical
shaped in shape in shape
48. 48. The electronic configuration of an atom ZX is
x, x3, x – 1, then the element whose symbol is (1) (a), (b), (d) and (e)
Z+2Y, is identified as (2) (b) and (d) only

(1) P (2) Mg (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) Si (4) Al (4) (c) and (e)

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Mental Ability : Full Syllabus
Science : Full Syllabus

Choose the correct answer : 3. A1, E25, I81, O225, ?
Directions (Q.1 to Q.3):- In each of the following (1) T484 (2) U421
questions choose a correct option to complete the given
(3) T441 (4) U441
series.
4. Which term is wrong in the following series?
1. 2, 10, 30, 68, 130, 222, ?
3, 6, 11, 17, 27, 38
(1) 332 (2) 350
(3) 336 (4) 344 (1) 11
2. AXE, BWF, CVG, ? (2) 17
(1) DUH (2) DUQ (3) 38

(3) DHU (4) DHQ (4) 27
-1-
5. If ‘PAPER’ is coded as ‘RCRGT’, then ‘TEACHER’ 8. The number which will replaces ? in the following
is coded as pattern is
(1) VGCEJGT (2) VGCJEGT 131, 139, 151, 163, 173, ?
(3) VGCEJTG (4) VCGEJGT (1) 181 (2) 191

6. Shalu starts walking from point A and moves (3) 179 (4) 189
towards east. After going 10 m she takes left turn.
9. Choose the odd one, out of the following options.
Now she moves 45 m and stops after turning to her
right. Now Shalu is facing towards (1) Shirt
(1) North (2) West (2) Bangles
(3) East (4) South (3) Necklace
7. Complete the following pattern of the figures. (4) Trousers
4 7 7
10. 23 : :: 16 : :: 56 : :: 27 : ?
? 3 2 6
7
(1)
5
7
(1) (2) (2)
3
8
(3)
3
(3) (4) 8
(4)
5
11. Which one of the following is not the unit of work 14. A raft of wood of mass 120 kg and density
done? 600 kg/m3 floats in water. How much mass can be
(1) joule (2) watt-second put on the raft to make it just sink?
watt (1) 120 kg (2) 200 kg

(3) (4) newton-meter
second (3) 80 kg (4) 40 kg
12. The weight of a person on the surface of moon is
15. A block of mass 4 kg slides down from rest from
1
about th of that on earth. He can jump upto a the top of the fixed curve as shown. If the velocity
6
height of 0.6 m on surface of earth. He can jump at bottom is 6 ms–1, then work done by friction is
upto height _____ on the surface of moon. [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 3.6 m (2) 0.6 m A

4k
g
(3) 0.1 m (4) 0.3 m

13. Two balls having volumes as 100 cm3 and 150 cm3 2m
are immersed completely in a liquid at a depth of 6 ms–1
4 kg
3 m and 2 m respectively. The ratio of buoyancy
acting on them is B
(1) –8 J (2) 8 J
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 2 : 3 (3) 4 J (4) –4 J
-2-
G 20. The possible acceleration-time graph corresponding

16. The unit of is [symbols have their usual to the velocity-time graph given below is
g
meanings]
(1) kg/m (2) kg/m2
Velocity
(3) m2/kg (4) mkg
17. Three masses m, 2m and 4m are placed along the
t1 t2 Time
x-axis as shown below. The magnitude of net
gravitational force on mass 2m will be
Acceleration
Acceleration
m 2m 4m
d 2d (1) (2)
(1) Zero t1 t2 Time t1 t2 Time
4Gm 2
Acceleration
(2)
d2
Acceleration
Gm 2 t1 t2
(3)
d2 (3) Time (4)
t1 t2 Time
2Gm 2
(4)
d2 21. The displacement-time graph of a disturbance
18. The velocity-time graph of a particle starting from travelling with the velocity 1500 ms–1 is shown
the origin from rest is shown below. The below. The wavelength of the disturbance is
displacement of the particle is maximum at time
Displacement (m)
instant
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Velocity
t5 Time (ms)
t1 t2 t3 t4 t
(1) 0.6 m (2) 0.7 m
(1) t 1 (2) t 2 (3) 7 m (4) 6 m
(3) t 4 (4) t 5 22. When we change a low pitch sound to a high
19. A particle is moving along a semicircular path of pitch sound we must increase its
radius R from A to B with constant speed v. The (1) Amplitude
average velocity of the particle from A to B is
(2) Frequency
(3) Velocity
(4) Wavelength
23. Boiling of a liquid takes place when
(1) Vapour pressure of liquid becomes greater than
A B
R the atmospheric pressure
(2) Vapour pressure of liquid becomes equal to the
v 2v atmospheric pressure
(1) (2)
  (3) Atmospheric pressure is more than the vapour
pressure of liquid
v v
(3) (4)
2 2 (4) Vapour pressure of liquid becomes 100 atm
-3-
24. Consider the following 31. The molecular mass of HNO3 is
Gas (1) 63 g (2) 63 u

(3) 96 g (4) 96 u
Co oce
Y’
nd
32. Isobars have
s‘
Pr
Z’
en s ‘X
Pr ces
s‘
sa
(1) Same number of neutrons(n)
es
o
tio
s
Pr
oc
n
(2) Same number of protons(p)
’
Solidification
Solid Liquid (3) Same (n + p) value
Fusion
(4) Same (n – p) value
Process ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
33. If the electronic configuration of an element is
(1) Sublimation and vaporisation
x, x3, x2 then its atomic number is
(2) Evaporation and vaporisation (1) 12 (2) 10
(3) Desublimation and vaporisation (3) 11 (4) 14
(4) Vaporisation and sublimation 34. The chemical that makes cork impervious to gases
25. Which of the following is equal to 0°C? and water is
(1) 373 K (2) 273 K (1) Lignin (2) Suberin
(3) 333 K (4) 0 K (3) Pectin (4) Cutin
26. Find the incorrect match. 35. All of the following poultry diseases are caused by
the microorganisms other than protozoa, except
(1) Volume = m3 (2) Pressure = Pa
(1) Fowl cholera (2) Coccidiosis
(3) Length = metre (4) Mass = kg/m3
(3) Aspergillosis (4) Ranikhet
27. Consider the following
36. Statement I : Making anti-viral drugs is harder than
Heat
Fe  S  A making anti-bacterial drugs.
Statement II : Viruses lack cellular structure and
Fe  S  B
do not have their own metabolic machinery.
A and B respectively are
(1) Only statement I is correct
(1) Compound and alloy
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Mixture and compound
(3) Both the statements are correct and statement II
(3) Compound and element is the correct explanation of statement I
(4) Compound and mixture (4) Both the statements are correct but statement
28. Which of the following is not produced during the II is not the correct explanation of statement I
neutralisation reaction?
37. Function of the component which is labelled as
(1) Salt (2) Water ‘A’ in the figure depicted below is
(3) Energy (4) Acid A
29. All of the following mixtures cannot be separated
using sublimation, except
(1) Ammonium chloride and naphthalene
(2) Camphor and naphthalene
(3) Camphor and sodium chloride
(4) Naphthalene and iodine
30. The mass by mass concentration of a solution
prepared by dissolving 40 g of sugar in 150 g of (1) Biosynthesis of cholestrol
water is
(2) To control all the metabolic activities
(1) 21.05% (2) 42.05% (3) To synthesize adenosine triphosphate
(3) 26.66% (4) 13.46% (4) To manufacture glucose
-4-
38. In which of the following plants, seeds have only 42. The vaccine Hib is given to the children to protect
one cotyledon? them from the disease
(1) Pisum sativum (2) Solanum tuberosum (1) Influenza type B (2) Pertussis
(3) Ficus benghalensis (4) Cocos nucifera (3) Hepatitis B (4) Rubella
39. Amongst following, the factor that influence soil 43. The cell organelle which contains the enzyme
erosion is responsible for decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
(1) Wind breaks (2) Monitored grazing is
(3) Terracing (4) Scraping (1) Peroxisome (2) Lysosome
40. How many of the following insect pests are borer (3) Ribosome (4) Centrosome
insects?
44. Which of the animals given in the options has the
characteristics given below?
Locust, Grasshopper, Sugarcane borer, Grain
weevil, Aphid, Leaf hopper.  Larval form has bilateral symmetry but adult
has radial symmetry.
(1) Three (2) Four
 Ambulacral system helps in locomotion.
(3) Two (4) Five
(1) Octopus
41. Match the following columns and select the correct
option. (2) Antedon
Column I Column II (3) Hippocampus
a. Serotonin (i) Vasoconstrictor (4) Balanoglossus
b. Heparin (ii) Protein fibre 45. Blue-green algae are capable of converting
c. Collagen (iii) Anticoagulant (1) Ammonia into atmospheric nitrogen
d. Histamine (iv) Vasodialator (2) Amino acids into atmospheric nitrogen
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (3) Nitrates into ammonium ions
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) Atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia

46. A man of weight w is in an elevator of weight w. The 47. A rope of mass 50 kg and length 25 m is
elevator accelerates vertically up at a rate a and at pulled by the force of 100 N on a smooth horizontal
a certain instant has a speed v. The rate of floor as shown below. Find the tension T at a
expenditure of energy of elevator at that instant is distance 10 m from application of force. [Assuming
the uniform mass density of rope]
⎛ a⎞
(1) 2w ⎜ 1  ⎟ v
⎝ g ⎠ T 100 N
⎛ a⎞ 25 m
(2) w ⎜ 1  ⎟ v 10 m
⎝ g ⎠
(1) 20 N (2) 15 N
w⎛ a⎞
⎜1  ⎟ v
(3) (3) 30 N (4) 60 N
2⎝ g⎠
48. How many moles are there in 96 g of water?
⎛ a⎞ (1) 5.23 mol (2) 5.33 mol
(4) 2w ⎜ 1  ⎟ v
⎝ g ⎠
(3) 8.23 mol (4) 16.23 mol
-5-
49. Which of the following differences are incorrect? 50. Pathogen Vector Disease
Blood Lymph Wuchereria C Filariasis
Transparent and
(a) Opaque and viscous
thinner
- Aedes D
(b) Erythrocytes are absent Erythrocytes are present A Phlebotomus Kala-azar
(c) WBCs count is about WBCs count is
500/mm3 6000-9000/mm3 Sleeping
B Glossina
sickness
Composition depends
(d) on the surrounding Uniform composition
tissues
Select the option which is correct for A, B, C and D.
(e) Platelets are absent Platelets are present
A B C D
(1) (a), (b), (c) & (e)
(1) Leishmania Trypanosoma Culex Dengue
(2) (b), (c) & (d) only (2) Plasmodium Leishmania Anopheles Malaria
(3) (b), (c), (d) & (e) (3) Trypanosoma Leishmania Sand fly Rabies
(4) Helicobacter Trypanosoma Culex Dengue
(4) (b), (c) & (e) only

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(For Class-IX)

Mental Ability : Complete Syllabus
Science : Complete Syllabus
Choose the correct answer : Directions (Q.2 and Q.3):- Read the given information
1. The value of ‘Y’ in the following pattern is carefully and answer the following questions.
144 196 256 O

N7
L 5 M6
484 Y 324 1 I 2 3 J4
A B C DE FGH
576 676 784 2. 1, B, C, I, 2, D, E, ?, ?
(1) 441 (2) 400 (1) J, 3 (2) F, 3
(3) 469 (4) 468 (3) 3, J (4) J, F
-1-
3. Which of the following is odd one out of the given 8. In the following question choose an answer figure
four options? which has same relation with figure (c) as figure (a)
(1) N52 (2) 6JF and (b) have in problem figures.
(3) 7M3 (4) 1IB Problem Figures
4. Complete the following pattern of the figures.

?
? (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer Figures
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
5. Shalini is facing towards west. If she turns by 45º
clockwise three times and after that turns by 135º
anticlockwise two times and then she starts 9. Choose the odd one.
walking. In which direction is she walking?
(1) South west (2) South east (1) M (2) W
(3) North (4) South

6. If MOR = 46 and PMTE = 54 , then DISK=? (3) E (4) A
(1) 43 (2) 53
10. Choose the correct option to complete the following
(3) 73 (4) 63 pattern of letters.
7. 25 : 49 :: 16 : 7 :: 33 : 216 :: 37 : ? a_cdpb_d_qc_a__dab_
(1) 100000 (1) b a c a b q c
(2) 10000 (2) b c a d b r c
(3) 100 (3) b c d a b r c
(4) 1000 (4) b d c a c r b
11. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius R.
Acceleration (ms–2)
The magnitude of displacement of the particle after

covering one-fourth of the circle is a
(1) 2R (2) 2R
R O Time (s)
(3) (4) 2R
2 (1) Moving with constant velocity
12. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle (2) Moving with increasing velocity
starting from rest and moving in straight line is (3) Moving with decreasing velocity
given below. It can be inferred that the object is (4) At rest
-2-
13. The displacement-time graph of a particle moving 15. A block of mass 4 kg is sliding on the rough
in a straight line is given below. Choose the correct horizontal surface which provides the constant
velocity-time graph corresponding to the given frictional force of 2 N. If the acceleration of the
displacement-time graph. block is 2 ms–2, then the magnitude of applied
Displacement (m) force is
(1) 8 N (2) 10 N
d
(3) 2 N (4) 6 N
16. Velocity-time graph of a 20 g block, sliding on a
O concrete floor is shown below. The retardation and
T/2 T Time (s)
magnitude of frictional force of the floor acting on
Velocity (ms–1)
the block respectively are

2d/T
30
Velocity (ms–1)
(1) T/2 T
O Time (s)
20
–2d/T 10
0 2 4 6 Time (s)
2d/T (1) 2.5 ms–2, 1 N (2) 2.5 ms–2, 0.1 N
Velocity (ms–1)
(3) 5 ms–2, 0.1 N (4) 5 ms–2, 1 N

(2) O
T/2 T Time (s) 17. A particle of mass m is thrown vertically upward
with velocity v. The velocity and acceleration at the
highest point is [Take g as acceleration due to
gravity and upward as positive direction]
(1) 0, 0 (2) –v, 0
Velocity (ms–1)
d/T
(3) –v, g (4) 0, –g
(3) 18. An object is placed one by one in three liquids of

O
T/2 T Time (s) 2 1 4
different densities. The object floats with , ,
3 2 5
parts of its total volume outside the liquid surface
Velocity (ms–1)
in liquid densities of 1, 2, 3 respectively. Which

d/T of the following relation is correct?
T/2 T (1) 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 3 > 2 > 1

(4) O Time (s)
(3) 2 < 1 < 3 (4) 3 < 1 < 2
–d/T 19. A particle is thrown vertically upward with initial

velocity v from the height h above the ground. What
will be the height of the particle from the ground
14. A book is placed on the table at rest. According to
when its velocity becomes twice of its initial
Newton’s third law of motion action and reaction
velocity? [Take g as acceleration due to gravity]
(1) Always act on different bodies and in opposite
directions 3 v2 1 v2
(1) h – (2) h –
2 g 2 g
(2) Always act on the same body
(3) Have same magnitude and direction 1 v2 3 v2
(3) h  (4) h 
(4) Act on either body parallel to each other 2 g 2 g
-3-
20. The given graph shows the displacement-time 25. The pair of elements that become liquid at a
relation for a disturbance travelling with a velocity temperature slightly above room temperature is
of 500 ms–1. The wavelength of the disturbance is
(1) Mercury and bromine
(2) Sodium and lead
Displacement (m)
(3) Gallium and caesium

O
0.5 Time (ms) (4) Zinc and mercury
26. Which of the following is not an application of
centrifugation process?
(1) In diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine
1
(1) 2 m (2) m tests
2
(2) In separation of drugs from blood
(3) 1 m (4) 4 m
21. A shell leaves the barrel of a gun at a speed of (3) In dairies and home to separate butter from
800 ms–1. The barrel is 2.0 m long. The average cream
acceleration of the shell is (4) In washing machines to squeeze out water
(1) 1.6 × 104 ms–2 (2) 1.6 × 103 ms–2 from wet clothes
(3) 1.6 ms–2 (4) 1.6 × 102 kms–2 27. 40 g of CuSO4 (Copper sulphate) is dissolved in
22. A monkey of mass m clings to light rope slung 360 g of water. The concentration, in terms of mass
over a fixed smooth pulley. The opposite end of by mass percentage, of the solution is
the rope is tied to weight of mass M lying on a
(1) 11.1% (2) 10.0%
smooth horizontal floor as shown in the figure
below. The acceleration of mass M when the (3) 12.5% (4) 10.5%
monkey moves upward with acceleration b is [Take 28. Match the following and choose the correct option
g as acceleration due to gravity]
Column-I Column-II
M
a. Argon (i) Octa-atomic
b. Sulphur (ii) Tetra-atomic
c. Phosphorus (iii) Monoatomic
b
d. Ozone (iv) Triatomic
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
Mb  Mg mb  mg (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) (2)
m M (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
mb Mg  mb (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) (4)
M M
29. The number of hydrogen atoms in one molecule of
23. Which of the following sublime on heating?
aluminium hydroxide is
(1) Ammonium chloride (2) Ammonia (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Water (4) Sodium chloride (3) 1 (4) 4
24. The physical state of water at the temperatures 30. How many moles are there in 33 gram of
below 273 K and above 373 K respectively are ammonium sulphate?
(1) Solid and gas (1) 0.50 moles
(2) Solid and liquid (2) 0.29 moles
(3) Liquid and gas (3) 0.33 moles
(4) Liquid and solid (4) 0.25 moles
-4-
31. The correct schematic atomic structure of 37. Regarding the disease typhoid, which of the
chlorine is following statements are correct?
a. Genus of the causal agent of this disease is
Salmonella.
(1) (2) b. Portal of entry of this disease is respiratory
tract.
c. TAB vaccine provides immunity against this
disease.
d. Eruption of rose spots or rashes on the upper
(3) (4) abdomen is one of the symptoms of this
disease.
(1) a, c and d (2) a and c
32. An atom has 11 protons and 12 neutrons
(3) a and d (4) a, b and c
respectively in its nucleus. Its valency and mass
number respectively are 38. Select the incorrect match.
(1) 2 and 12 (1) Viral disease of cattle – Rinderpest
(2) 1 and 12 (2) Protozoan disease of poultry – Coccidiosis
(3) 2 and 23 (3) Bacterial disease of cattle – Aspergillosis
(4) 1 and 23 (4) Fungal disease of cattle – Ringworm
33. Which of the following is not a postulate of Dalton’s 39. All of the following elements of xylem conduct
atomic theory? water, except
(1) Atoms combine in the ratio of small whole
(1) Xylem parenchyma (2) Xylem fibres
numbers to form compounds
(3) Vessels (4) Tracheids
(2) Atoms of different elements have different
masses and chemical properties 40. ‘X’ is a disease in which pathogen is spread by the
vector ‘Y’. Quinine is used for the treatment of X.
(3) Atoms are indivisible particles
Here ‘Y’ is _________.
(4) Atoms of same element may have different
masses and physical properties (1) Anopheles
34. In fungi, reserve food material is stored in the form (2) Plasmodium
of (3) Malaria
(1) Starch and Chitin (2) Glucose and Starch (4) Aedes
(3) Chitin and Cellulose (4) Oil and Glycogen 41. Hypothetical representation of a type of cropping
35. The disease caused by drinking water contaminated pattern is shown below.
with mercury is + +
+ +
(1) Plumbism
(2) Minamata disease + +
+ +
(3) Itai-itai disease
(4) Black foot disease
36. A membrane cell organelle which is generally found Which of the following crop combinations is not
to be connected with nuclear membrane is applicable for that cropping pattern?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (1) Wheat + Gram
(2) Lysosome (2) Bajra + Lobia
(3) Golgi body (3) Cotton + Mustard
(4) Centriole (4) Soyabean + Maize
-5-
42. Statement-1 : Nitrogen present in the air is a raw (4) Monera
material for photosynthesis.

Bacteria Eubacteria
Statement-2 : Air currents help in dispersal of
spores and seeds.
Mycoplasma Cyanobacteria Archaebacteria Blue-green
(1) Both the statements are correct algae
(2) Both the statements are incorrect 44. Select the correct information which is associated
(3) Only statement-1 is correct with the blood corpuscle depicted in the figure.
(4) Only statement-2 is correct Nucleus
43. Which of the following flow charts for the

classification of monerans is correct?
(1) Monera
Cytoplasm
Archaebacteria Eubacteria (1) Count increases during worm infection

(2) Contains haemoglobin
Cyanobacteria Mycoplasma Bacteria Blue-green
algae (3) Releases histamine
Monera
(2) (4) Releases chemicals responsible for blood
coagulation
Archaebacteria Eubacteria
45. The vacuole which is responsible for the process of
osmoregulation in Paramoecium is
Bacteria Cyanobacteria Mycoplasma
(3) Monera (1) Sap vacuole

(2) Food vacuole
Cyanobacteria Eubacteria
(3) Gas vacuole
Mycoplasma Blue-green Archaebacteria Bacteria

(4) Contractile vacuole
algae

46. A wooden block of mass M kg lies on a rough
⎡ 4 3 ⎤
horizontal wooden table. A bullet of mass m kg hits
⎡ 4 3 ⎤ ⎢   3 R ⎥
the block with velocity u after which the bullet and (1) mg ⎢  R – 1⎥ (2) g ⎢ – 1⎥
⎣ 3 ⎦ ⎢ g ⎥
block moves a distance of S m across the table ⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
before stopping. The average retardation provided
⎡4 3 ⎤ ⎡4 3 ⎤
⎢ 3 R  ⎥ ⎢ 3 R  ⎥
by the floor is
(3) g ⎢ – 1⎥ (4) g ⎢  1⎥
mu (M  m )u ⎢ m ⎥ ⎢ m ⎥
(1)
2(M  m )S
ms–2 (2)
2Sm
ms–2 ⎣⎢ ⎦⎥ ⎣⎢ ⎦⎥
48. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct option.
M 2u 2 m 2u 2 Statement I : A molecule shows all the properties
(3) ms–2 (4) ms–2
2S 2(M  m )2 S of the substance.
Statement II : Mass of 1 mole of a substance is
47. A spherical rubber ball with a mass m and a radius called its molar mass.
R is submerged into water to a depth h and (1) Only statement I is correct
released. The acceleration of the ball after the (2) Only statement II is correct
release is [Given that the density of water is  and (3) Both the statements are correct
neglecting the resistance of water and air]
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
-6-
49. Some features regarding muscular tissue are given 50. (i) are (ii) animals. Their skin is dry, rough
below :
and without (iii) . Breathing occurs through
I. Voluntary in action.
(iv) . Most of (i) have (v) heart.
II. Striations are absent.
III. Fibres have pointed ends. Select the correct set of words to fill the blanks.
IV. Present in form of network.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
V. Uninucleated muscle fibre.
VI. They are attached to bones.
(1) Reptiles Cold- Glands Lungs Three-
Categorise the given features w.r.t., smooth, blooded chambered
skeletal and cardiac muscles and choose the (2) Birds Warm Hairs Lungs Three-
correct option. blooded chambered
Smooth Skeletal Cardiac (3) Mammals Warm Feathers Skin Four-

muscle muscle muscle blooded chambered
(1) II, IV I, III V, VI (4) Amphi- Warm Hairs Gills Two-

bians blooded chambered
(2) III, VI II, IV I, V
(3) II, III, V I, VI IV, V
(4) III, V II, VI I, IV, V

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(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS
1. (1) 11. (1) 21. (2) 31. (4) 41. (1)
2. (3) 12. (2) 22. (1) 32. (2) 42. (3)
3. (3) 13. (4) 23. (1) 33. (1) 43. (2)
4. (4) 14. (1) 24. (3) 34. (1) 44. (3)
5. (2) 15. (2) 25. (1) 35. (4) 45. (2)
6. (4) 16. (2) 26. (3) 36. (1) 46. (3)
7. (2) 17. (2) 27. (3) 37. (1) 47. (1)
8. (3) 18. (4) 28. (2) 38. (3) 48. (1)
9. (1) 19. (4) 29. (2) 39. (3) 49. (2)
10. (4) 20. (2) 30. (3) 40. (1) 50. (1)
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for

(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS & HINTS
1. Answer (1)
8 9 12 18 28 43
+1 +3 +6 +10 +15
+2 +3 +4 +5
2. Answer (3)
1234 / 2345 / 3456 / 4567
3. Answer (3)
4. Answer (4)
5. Answer (2)
6. Answer (4)
3 + 4 + 6 + 5 = 18, then
5 + 12 + 6 + 8 = 31
7. Answer (2)
8. Answer (3)
9. Answer (1)
The new sequence becomes 32849517.
Counting from right to left, the fifth digit is 4.
-2-
Answers & Hints - National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - Test 1 Class IX
10. Answer (4)
a b c = (a + b) + 4
c
11. Answer (1)

Displacement in 12 s = 12 m
In next 3 s = –3
So, net displacement in [12 + 3 = 15 s] = 12 – 3 = 9 m
 Net displacement in [ 15 × 4 = 60 s] = 9 × 4 = 36 m
12. Answer (2)
13. Answer (4)
p = mv
p1 m1 v1
= 
p2 m2 v 2
v1 p1 m2
 = 
v2 p2 m1
5 3 15
=  =
4 2 8
14. Answer (1)
36  5
u = 36 km/h = = 10 m/s
18
t = 5 min = (5 × 60) s
v=0
Using, v = u + at
0 = 10 + a (5 × 60)
1
a=  m/s2
30
 Force imparted = ma
1
= – 1800 ×
30
= – 60 N
15. Answer (2)
100 kg
20 kg
5m
-3-
Class IX Answers & Hints - National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - Test 1
Gm1m2 G 100  20
F= = … (i)
r12 55
Now, m1 = 100 + 60 = 160 kg

Let the desired new separation be r2
As force remains same,
From (i),
G 100  20 G  160  20
F = =
55 r22
160  25
r22 = = 40
100
r2 = 2 10 m
16. Answer (2)

17. Answer (2)
S1 = Area  PRO
1
= 10 × 10 m = 50 m
2
S2 = Area PQRS + area QST.

= 10 × (20 – 10) + × (30 – 20) × 10
2
= 100 + 50 = 150
 S2 – S1 = 150 – 50 = 100 m
18. Answer (4)
v2 – u2 = 2as
 v2 = u2 + 2as
 02 = 102 + 2 × a × 20
 100 + 40a = 0
5
 a= – m/s2
2
5
 F =m × a = 2 × – =–5N
2
19. Answer (4)
Total displacement
Average velocity =
Total time
Distance = 35  = Number of rotations × 2r
35  = n × 2r
35
 nr =
2
-4-
7
As n = ,r=5m
2
In making three and a half rounds, its displacement = 2r = diameter = 10 m
10
Average velocity = = 5 m/minute
2
20. Answer (2)
Total displacement = Final position – Initial position
=c=0
= c
c
Average velocity =
t3
21. Answer (2)
As acceleration due to gravity remains constant throughout the motion = – 9.8 m/s2.
 The correct graph is (2)
22. Answer (1)
u=0
s = 4.05 m
Using, v2 – u2 = 2as
v2 = 2 × 10 × 4.5
= 81
v = 9 ms
Now, as it reaches the surface of sand
u = 9 m/s, v = 0, a = 300 m/s2
Using, v = u + at
0 = 9 – 300t
t = 0.03 s
23. Answer (1)
Weight in air = 10 N
Apparent weight in liquid = 7.5 N
Loss in weight = 2.5 N
 Weight of displaced liquid = 2.5 N
2.5
Mass = = 0.25 kg
10
= 250 g
Volume it occupies = 125 cm3
250
Density = = 2 g/cm3
125
24. Answer (3)
Total displacement
Average velocity =
Total time
Area under v-t curve = displacement
-5-
⎡1 1 ⎤
= 2  ⎢  3  20   2   20  16  ⎥
⎣2 2 ⎦
= (2  66) = 132 m
132
Average velocity =  13.2 m/s
10
25. Answer (1)
The volume of water displaced by the cube,
Vc = 900 ml  700 ml = 200 ml = 200 cm3
Volume of cube, Vc = 320 cm3
Weight of the block = Weight of fluid displaced by it
Vc c g = Vc c g
200 1
c =
320
c = 0.625 g/cm3
26. Answer (3)
80 20 g
g = g  g g
100 100 5
⎛ d⎞
Using, g = g ⎜ 1  ⎟
⎝ R⎠
g ⎛ d⎞
 g ⎜1 ⎟
5 ⎝ R⎠
d 1 4
 1 
R 5 5
4
d= R
5
27. Answer (3)
28. Answer (2)
29. Answer (2)
30. Answer (3)
31. Answer (4)
Cereal crops provide carbohydrates, pulses provide proteins and oil seed crops provide fats, oils and fatty acids.
32. Answer (2)
33. Answer (1)
34. Answer (1)
35. Answer (4)
36. Answer (1)
70S ribosomes are present in mitochondria and chloroplast.
-6-
37. Answer (1)

38. Answer (3)
39. Answer (3)
Xylem vessels are not found in majority of gymnosperms.
40. Answer (1)
These features are present in nemathelminthes.
41. Answer (1)
42. Answer (3)
43. Answer (2)
44. Answer (3)
45. Answer (2)

46. Answer (3)
Initially uA = 2uB
40
After collision, v B  uB  u
100 A
uA uB
40 A B
= uB   2uB
100 m m
180
vB = u
100 B
By conservation of momentum,
muA + muB = mvA + mvB
m(2uB + uB) = m(vA + 1.8 uB)
3uB – 1.8uB = vA
vA = 1.2 uB = 0.6 uA
So, velocity of A reduces to 60% of its initial value.
47. Answer (1)
When ball is dropped, it reaches the ground with velocity,
v2 = 2 as
= 2 10  1.8
v = 6 m/s
Now, it rises upto height 1.152 m, so it retains the speed given by,
0  u 2  2 10  1.152  23.04 ⇒ u  23.04
⇒ u = 4.8 m/s
 Impulse imparted = m(v  u)

200
=  4.8  6  =  0.24 kg m/s
1000
-7-
The ball again rebounds to reach a height 0.45 m. The speed retained by it this time will be,
0  u2 = 2 10  0.45
u = 3 m/s
 Impulse imparted = m(v  u)
200
=  3  4.8 
1000
=  0.36 kg m/s
Hence, the ratio will be
0.24
=  2:3
0.36
48. Answer (1)
49. Answer (2)
50. Answer (1)

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(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS
1. (4) 11. (4) 21. (2) 31. (3) 41. (1)
2. (1) 12. (1) 22. (1) 32. (3) 42. (1)
3. (4) 13. (1) 23. (2) 33. (3) 43. (1)
4. (2) 14. (2) 24. (4) 34. (3) 44. (2)
5. (3) 15. (3) 25. (4) 35. (2) 45. (1)
6. (2) 16. (1) 26. (3) 36. (2) 46. (3)
7. (2) 17. (1) 27. (1) 37. (3) 47. (2)
8. (4) 18. (4) 28. (1) 38. (1) 48. (2)
9. (2) 19. (3) 29. (2) 39. (1) 49. (1)
10. (4) 20. (3) 30. (3) 40. (1) 50. (3)
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(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS & HINTS
1. Answer (4)
a – b – c means a < b < c
and c  b + a means c  b  a (or c > b > a)
2. Answer (1)
If a + b means a > b;
c – b means c < b;
a  c means a  c
So, we can say that a > b > c and a + b + c also means a > b > c.
3. Answer (4)
4. Answer (2)
A B C D E
Sister Mother Father Mother
Grand-daughter
5. Answer (3)
All elements of each figure are inverted 180° and shifted in order from last element to first element, first to
second, second to third and so on.
6. Answer (2)
6 4 1 2 2 8 7 4 2 1 5 3 8 6 2 1 7 1 4 1 3 2
7. Answer (2)
Total number of students in the class
-2-
Answers & Hints - National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - NSO Test-2 Class IX
= (Position of student from upward/right + Position of student from downward/left) – 1

So, total number of students = 8 + 25 – 1 = 32
8. Answer (4)
9. Answer (2)
10. Answer (4)
1 2 5 4 10 6
  x    y
5 5 7 5 7 5
 x = 24 y
x
  24
y
11. Answer (4)
12. Answer (1)
Let the total height be h
Initial PE = mgh
3 3
of initial height = h
4 4
3mgh
Final PE =
4
3
Loss in energy = mgh  mgh
4
mgh
=
4
mgh
% loss in energy =  100  25%
4  mgh
13. Answer (1)
Energy
Power =
time
mgh
P 
t
m
P  gh
t
P = 100 × 10 × 100
= 100 kW
14. Answer (2)
1
KEi  mv 2
2
1
KEf  m1v12
2
Now, m1 = 2m
v1 = 3v
1
KEf   2m  9v 2
2
-3-
Class IX Answers & Hints - National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - NSO Test-2
1
= 29 mv 2
2
= 18 KEi
15. Answer (3)
16. Answer (1)
17. Answer (1)
18. Answer (4)
By conservation of energy,
1
mgR = mv 2
2
 v  2gR
19. Answer (3)
1
E  mu 2
2
If u1 = 2u
1 1
E'  mu12   m  4u 2  4E
2 2
Extra energy = 4E – E = 3E
20. Answer (3)
21. Answer (2)
22. Answer (1)
23. Answer (2)
Water has maximum density at 4°C.
24. Answer (4)
25. Answer (4)
26. Answer (3)
Let x g water is added to the 11% sugar solution to make its concentration 5.5%
Mass of solute
mass % = Mass of solution
11
5.5 =  100
(100  x)
100 + x = 200
x = 200 – 100
= 100 g
27. Answer (1)
28. Answer (1)
29. Answer (2)
-4-
Let the mass of solvent be ‘x’ g.

1 x
So, mass of solute = x  g
4 4
Mass of solute
Mass percentage =  100
Mass of solution
x
= 4  100
x
x
4
= 20%
30. Answer (3)
31. Answer (3)
32. Answer (3)
33. Answer (3)
34. Answer (3)
35. Answer (2)
36. Answer (2)
37. Answer (3)
38. Answer (1)
39. Answer (1)
40. Answer (1)
41. Answer (1)
42. Answer (1)
43. Answer (1)
44. Answer (2)
Scraping is one of the factor responsible for soil erosion.
45. Answer (1)
Peptic ulcer is caused by Helicobacter pylori.

46. Answer (3)
KE before striking sand = Mgh
Let F be average retardation = (F – Mg)s = Mgh
⎡ h⎤
 F  Mg ⎢1  ⎥
⎣ s⎦
47. Answer (2)
1
Initial energy = mu 2  mgh
2
-5-
1
 0.5  1  0.5  10  2
2
=
2
= 5.25 J
1
Final energy = mv 2  5.25
2
= v2 = 21
v= 21
Distance = v  t
= 2 21 m
48. Answer (2)

49. Answer (1)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the causal agent of tuberculosis (Koch’s disease).
50. Answer (3)

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(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS
1. (2) 11. (3) 21. (4) 31. (1) 41. (4)
2. (4) 12. (4) 22. (2) 32. (2) 42. (4)
3. (2) 13. (4) 23. (2) 33. (3) 43. (1)
4. (2) 14. (2) 24. (4) 34. (2) 44. (3)
5. (1) 15. (4) 25. (4) 35. (3) 45. (4)
6. (2) 16. (3) 26. (3) 36. (1) 46. (3)
7. (1) 17. (2) 27. (1) 37. (3) 47. (4)
8. (3) 18. (1) 28. (3) 38. (2) 48. (3)
9. (3) 19. (4) 29. (3) 39. (4) 49. (3)
10. (3) 20. (3) 30. (2) 40. (3) 50. (2)
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(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS & HINTS
1. Answer (2)
For a standard dice, sum of number of opposite faces is 7.
So, we get 7 – 3 = 4.
2. Answer (4)
Out of these 64 small cubes, the cubes having only one side painted are those which lie at the centre of each
face of the big cube. Since, there are 6 faces of a cube, therefore, 24 small cubes are painted on one face
only.
3. Answer (2)
Number of cubes in columns of 3 cubes = 1 × 3 = 3
Number of cubes in columns of 2 cubes = 2 × 2 = 4
Number of cubes in columns of 1 cube = 3 × 1 = 3
Total number of cubes = 3 + 4 + 3 = 10
4. Answer (2)
When we fold given shape in the form of a dice, then we get number 4 opposite to number 3.
5. Answer (1)
6. Answer (2)
7. Answer (1)
8. Answer (3)
9. Answer (3)
-2-
10. Answer (3)
25  4 = 5 + 2 = 7;
64  49 = 8 + 7 = 15;
256  16 = 16 + 4 = 20
11. Answer (3)
12. Answer (4)
13. Answer (4)
14. Answer (2)

15. Answer (4)
16. Answer (3)
Mass of element (in grams)

Number of gram atoms =
Atomic mass of the element
48
= = 12 g atoms
4
17. Answer (2)
18. Answer (1)
19. Answer (4)
The valency of E is 3
20. Answer (3)
Number of moles of NaOH

Molarity   1000
Volume of solution (mL)
n  1000
0.5 =
100
0.05 = n
1 mol of NaOH weighs = 40 g
0.05 mol of NaOH weighs = 40 × 0.05 = 2 g
21. Answer (4)
Isodiaphers have same (n – p) value
22. Answer (2)
23. Answer (2)
24. Answer (4)
Hint: Ar has 18 electrons while Mg2+ has 10 electrons.
25. Answer (4)
-3-
26. Answer (3)

1 mole of a gas contains = particles equal to Avogadro's number
 Mass of 1 mol of a gas = Molar mass = 2.5 g
27. Answer (1)
Number of oxygen atoms in 1.32 g CO2
1.32
= × NA × 2
44
= 0.06 NA atoms
Molar mass of water = 18 g/mol
As, NA oxygen atoms are present in 18 g water
18  0.06 N A
0.06 NA atoms will be present in = 1.08 g
NA
28. Answer (3)
29. Answer (3)
30. Answer (2)
1 mole of Na2SO3 contains = 6.022 × 1023 molecules
Hence mass of 1 mole or 6.022 × 1023 molecules of Na2SO3
 46 + 32 + 48 = 126 g
31. Answer (1)
X forms X2CO3 type carbonate hence the charge on X will be +1,
So the chemical formula of its sulphate = X2SO4
Hence the number of oxygen atoms present in 1 mole of
X2SO4 = 4 × 6.022 × 1023
= 24.088 × 1023 atoms
32. Answer (2)
Moles of solute
Molality =  1000
mass of solvent(g)
1.5
180  1000  0.11 mol/kg
=
75
33. Answer (3)
34. Answer (2)
Na2CO3  2CH3COOH 

 2 CH3COONa CO2  H2O
53 g 60 g 82 g xg 9g
According to law of mass conservation:

53 g + 60 g = 82 g + x g + 9 g
113 g = 91 g + x g
x g = 22 g
35. Answer (3)
36. Answer (1)
37. Answer (3)
-4-
38. Answer (2)

Isodiaphers have the same (n-p) value.
39. Answer (4)
40. Answer (3)
Atomic mass of C = 12 u, H = 1 u, N = 14 u and O = 16 u
41. Answer (4)
42. Answer (4)
43. Answer (1)
35  3x  37  x 142x
Average atomic mass = =  35.5 u
4x 4x
44. Answer (3)
45. Answer (4)

46. Answer (3)
47. Answer (4)
Let the % of 79 81
35E and 35E are x% and (100 – x)% respectively.
79x  81(100  x)
80.006 
100
x = 49.7%
(100– x) = 50.3%
So, 81
35E is the most abundant isotope of E and number of neutrons present in it are 46.
48. Answer (3)
0.4 g
nHe   0.1mole
4 g/mol
2g
nNe   0.1mole
20 g/mol
Total number of molecules
= (0.1 + 0.1) NA
= 0.2 × 6.022 × 1023
= 1.2044 × 1023
49. Answer (3)
50. Answer (2)
46
% of Na in Na2SO4 =  100  32.4%
142
46
% of Na in Na2S =  100  59.0%
78
46
% of Na in Na2SO3 =  100  36.5%
126
46
% of Na in Na2CO3 =  100  43.4%
106

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(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS
1. (4) 11. (2) 21. (4) 31. (4) 41. (2)
2. (4) 12. (3) 22. (2) 32. (1) 42. (4)
3. (1) 13. (3) 23. (2) 33. (4) 43. (3)
4. (3) 14. (4) 24. (4) 34. (4) 44. (2)
5. (4) 15. (4) 25. (3) 35. (1) 45. (3)
6. (3) 16. (4) 26. (4) 36. (4) 46. (2)
7. (4) 17. (2) 27. (3) 37. (1) 47. (3)
8. (4) 18. (1) 28. (3) 38. (2) 48. (4)
9. (1) 19. (2) 29. (4) 39. (3) 49. (4)
10. (1) 20. (3) 30. (4) 40. (1) 50. (3)
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(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS & HINTS
1. Answer (4)
The figure rotates 90° anti-clockwise and its dark inverted image is placed over it.
2. Answer (4)
a b
k l
i j
d m g c
h
n o
f e
Straight lines are ad, df, fe, ec, cb, ba, dh, gc, no, nk, ol, im, mj, kl.
3. Answer (1)
Girls Students
Singer
Some girls are students.

Some students are singer.
Some singers are girls.
-2-
Answers & Hints - National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - Test-4 Class IX
4. Answer (3)
baa/bba/baa/bba/baa
5. Answer (4)
3 3 3
(Z  Y  X)   (U  T  S)   (P  O  N)   (K  J  I)
6. Answer (3)
7. Answer (4)
8. Answer (4)
2 6 3 7 5 6 9 2 9 6 1 3 4 1 6 3 9 1 5 6 9 2 3 1 6 5
9. Answer (1)
We have,
36  3 12  4
 54;  24
2 2
33  6
So, missing number = = 99
2
10. Answer (1)
Given that,
20 – 5 = 100, but actually 20 × 5 = 100. So, ‘–’ means ‘×’.
10  8 = 18, but actually 10 + 8 = 18. So, ‘’ means ‘+’.
12 × 8 = 4, but actually 12 – 8 = 4. So, ‘×’ means ‘–’.
Putting the correct signs, we have
100 × 10 – 1000 + 1000  100 – 10 = 1000 – 1000 + 10 – 10 = 0
11. Answer (2) B
Displacement is shown by the dotted line in OCB.
R C
BC = Rsin/2
90°
AB = 2BC = 2Rsin/2  /2
/2
12. Answer (3) O A
40 km/h v km/h
A B
d
v avg 
d d

2  40 2v
2  40  v
48 
40  v
-3-
Class IX Answers & Hints - National Science Olympiad (NSO) Online Test Series - Test-4
2  20v
24 
40  v
12(40 + v) = 20v
480 + 12v = 20v
480 = 8v
v = 60 km/h
13. Answer (3)
A
We know that
For BC 0.8 m
B
v B2  0  2  g  0.8
h
v B2  2  10  0.8
C
v B  16
v B ⇒ 4 ms1
1 2
h  vBt  gt
2
1
 h  4  0.2   10  0.2  0.2
2
 h = 0.8 + 0.2
 h=1m
14. Answer (4)
15. Answer (4)
⎛ d⎞
g '  g ⎜1  ⎟
⎝ R⎠
⎛ R⎞
 g ⎜1  ⎟
⎝ 2R ⎠
g
g' 
2
wg w
w'  
2 2
16. Answer (4)
The work done by gravitation force is zero as force is always perpendicular to the displacement.
17. Answer (2)
18. Answer (1)
6
a1   1 ms 2
6
6
a2   1 ms 2
6
-4-
19. Answer (2)

Intensity of sound is directly proportional to density of air in the Jar.
20. Answer (3)
 5
AE =  AF     
4 4
5
L
4
4
 L
5
21. Answer (4)
When displacement are equal the area under the velocity-time graph of a particle should be equal
1
8t   aB t 2
2
24
aB   4ms 2
6
1
8t   4  t2
2
8  2t
t4s
22. Answer (2)
The angle between the force and displacement is greater than 90°, So work done by force is –ve.
23. Answer (2)
24. Answer (4)
25. Answer (3)
26. Answer (4)
27. Answer (3)
28. Answer (3)
29. Answer (4)
30. Answer (4)
31. Answer (4)
32. Answer (1)
33. Answer (4)
34. Answer (4)
35. Answer (1)
36. Answer (4)
37. Answer (1)
The depicted diagram is of chromosome.
38. Answer (2)
39. Answer (3)
40. Answer (1)
Salmonellosis and mastitis are bacterial diseases of cattle.
-5-
41. Answer (2)

42. Answer (4)
43. Answer (3)
44. Answer (2)
The given characteristics are of gymnosperms.
45. Answer (3)

46. Answer (2)
R w
R = w = 70 N
B = Buoyancy work in upward direction on the

body and downward direction for the Jar
B   v  g
3 –6
B B = 10 × 1000 × 10 × 10
B = 10 N
R w
R=w+B
R = 70 N + 10 N
R = 80 N
47. Answer (3)
ma = F – frictional force
Frictional force = F – ma
a = slope of velocity time graph
80
a  10 ms 2
8
Frictional force = 4 – 200 × 10–3 × 10
=4–2=2N
48. Answer (4)
As electronic configuration of ZX = x, x3, x – 1 and x = 2 (Bohr Bury Scheme)
So, Z = 2 + 8 + 1 = 11
So, Z + 2 = 13
Element Y is Al with atomic number 13.
49. Answer (4)
50. Answer (3)

-6-
CODE-A

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(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS
1. (2) 11. (3) 21. (4) 31. (2) 41. (3)
2. (1) 12. (1) 22. (2) 32. (3) 42. (1)
3. (4) 13. (4) 23. (2) 33. (4) 43. (1)
4. (2) 14. (3) 24. (4) 34. (2) 44. (2)
5. (1) 15. (1) 25. (2) 35. (2) 45. (4)
6. (3) 16. (3) 26. (4) 36. (3) 46. (1)
7. (2) 17. (1) 27. (4) 37. (2) 47. (4)
8. (1) 18. (3) 28. (4) 38. (4) 48. (2)
9. (4) 19. (2) 29. (3) 39. (4) 49. (3)
10. (3) 20. (3) 30. (1) 40. (3) 50. (1)
-1-
CODE-A

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for

(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS & HINTS

1. Answer (2)
13+1, 23+2, 33+3, 43+4 and so on.
2. Answer (1)
3. Answer (4)
Series of vowels and square of their positions.
4. Answer (2)
Pattern is 12+2, 22+2, 32+2, 42+2 and so on. Hence, 17 is wrong term because it is written as 42 + 1.
5. Answer (1)
Letter is coded to a next letter which is second from it.
6. Answer (3)
7. Answer (2)
8. Answer (1)
Series of alternative prime numbers.

9. Answer (4)
10. Answer (3)
ab = b+1
a+1
-2-
11. Answer (3)
12. Answer (1)
mgh = mg'h'
g
gh  h'
6
h' = 6h
h' = 6 × 0.6 = 3.6 m
13. Answer (4)
B1 = Buoyancy on ball (1) = v1g
B2 = Buoyancy on ball (2) = v2g
v1g B1

v 2 g B2
B1 v1 100 2
  
B2 v 2 150 3
14. Answer (3)
(M + m)g = Buoyancy =   v  g
 = Density of water = 1000 kg/m3
M = mass of raft
m = mass to be put on raft
v = volume of raft
120 3
v m
600
120
(120  m )g  1000  g
600
(120  m )  0.2  1000  200

m = 80 kg
15. Answer (1)
Change in KE = wg + wf
1
 4  36  4  10  2  w f
2
72 = 80 + wf
wf = – 8 J
16. Answer (3)
GM G r2
g 2
 m2/kg
r g M
-3-
17. Answer (1)
F1 F2
Gm2m
F1 
d2
2Gm 2
F1 
d2
G 4m2m Gm 2
F2  8
(2d )2 4d 2
2Gm 2
F2 
d2
 F1 – F2 = 0
18. Answer (3)
The velocity will be positive till t4 so the displacement will increase and it will decrease after t4
19. Answer (2)
Displacement
v avg 
Total time
2R 2
  v
R 
v
20. Answer (3)

21. Answer (4)
  VT
  1500  4  10 3
  6000  10 3  6 m
22. Answer (2)
23. Answer (2)
24. Answer (4)
25. Answer (2)
26. Answer (4)
27. Answer (4)
28. Answer (4)
29. Answer (3)
30. Answer (1)
Mass of solute 100

Mass by mass concentration =
Massof solution
40  100 4000
 
150  40  190 = 21.05%
-4-
31. Answer (2)

HNO3 = 1 + 14 + 48 = 63 u
32. Answer (3)
33. Answer (4)
x, x3, x2 i.e. 2, 23, 22 or 14 e–
34. Answer (2)
35. Answer (2)
36. Answer (3)
37. Answer (2)
‘A’ is genetic material (circular DNA) of bacteria.
38. Answer (4)
Cocos nucifera (coconut) belongs to the class monocotyledonae.
39. Answer (4)
40. Answer (3)
41. Answer (3)
42. Answer (1)
43. Answer (1)
44. Answer (2)
The given characteristics belong to the members of echinodermata.
45. Answer (4)

46. Answer (1)
T
2w
m
wa g
w
2ma = T – 2w
2w
a  T  2w
g
2w
T  a  2w
g
⎛a ⎞
T  2w ⎜  1⎟
⎝g ⎠
The rate of expenditure of energy is
-5-
⎛ a⎞
P  Tv  2w ⎜ 1  ⎟ v
⎝ g⎠
47. Answer (4)

a
F
F = ma
F 100
a   2 ms 2
m 50
a
m' T
50
m'   15
25
m '  30 kg
T  m ' a
T  30  2  60N
48. Answer (2)
1 mole of water weighs = 18 g
x mole of water weighs = 18 g × x = 96 g
96
or x = = 5.33 mol
18
49. Answer (3)

50. Answer (1)

-6-
CODE-A

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for

(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS
1. (2) 11. (4) 21. (4) 31. (2) 41. (3)
2. (3) 12. (2) 22. (2) 32. (4) 42. (4)
3. (4) 13. (1) 23. (1) 33. (4) 43. (2)
4. (2) 14. (1) 24. (1) 34. (4) 44. (1)
5. (2) 15. (2) 25. (3) 35. (2) 45. (4)
6. (1) 16. (3) 26. (2) 36. (1) 46. (4)
7. (4) 17. (4) 27. (2) 37. (1) 47. (3)
8. (1) 18. (3) 28. (3) 38. (3) 48. (3)
9. (4) 19. (1) 29. (2) 39. (2) 49. (3)
10. (2) 20. (3) 30. (4) 40. (1) 50. (1)
-1-
CODE-A

Ph.: 011-47623456

for

(For Class-IX)
ANSWERS & HINTS

1. Answer (2)
Series of alternative squares starting from 12.
2. Answer (3)
3. Answer (4)
4. Answer (2)
5. Answer (2)
The total turn taken by Shalini = (2 × 135º ) anticlockwise – (3 × 45º) clockwise = 135º anticlockwise, therefore
she starts walking towards south east.
6. Answer (1)
Word is coded as the sum of the position of letters in alphabetical order.
DISK will be coded as 4 + 9 + 19 + 11 = 43.
7. Answer (4)
ab : (a + b)a
8. Answer (1)
9. Answer (4)
All letters consists of 4 line segments other than ‘A’
10. Answer (2)
a b c d \ p \ b c d a \ q \ c d a b \ r\ d a b c
-2-
11. Answer (4)
A
R
B
R
Displacement = AB = R2  R2  2 R
12. Answer (2)

Constant acceleration means increasing velocity.
13. Answer (1)
Velocity is slope of displacement-time graph.
14. Answer (1)
Action and reaction do not act on same body.
15. Answer (2)
a
m F
Frictional force
ma = F – frictional force
 8=F–2
 F=8+2
 F = 10 N
16. Answer (3)
Retardation = Slope of velocity-time graph
30
= –  –5 ms–2
6
= 5 ms–2
Friction force = ma
= 5 × 20 × 10–3
= 100 × 10–3
= 0.1 N
17. Answer (4)
The velocity at highest point is 0 and acceleration is g downward.
18. Answer (3)
Higher the density of fluid, the higher is volume of object outside fluid.
-3-
19. Answer (1)

TE = Total energy
TEA = TEB
1 1
 mgh + mv2 = mgh+ m(2v)2
2 2 vA = v
1 A
 mgh + mv2 – 2mv2 = mgh
2
h B = vB = 2v
3
 mgh – mv2 = mgh h
2
3 v2
 h–  h
2 g
20. Answer (3)
Time period = 2.5 – 0.5 = 2.0 × 10–3 s
Velocity = 500 ms–1
 = velocity × time period
  = 500 × 20 × 10–3
 =1m
21. Answer (4)
v2 – u2 = 2as
u=0
v = 800
800 × 800 = 2 × a × 2
 800 × 200 = a
 160000 ms–2 = a
a = 1.6 × 105 ms–2
a = 1.6 × 102 kms–2
22. Answer (2)
T
mg
mb = T – mg (T is tension in string)
T = mb + mg
aM
M
T
-4-
MaM = mb + mg
mb  mg
aM 
M
23. Answer (1)
24. Answer (1)
25. Answer (3)
26. Answer (2)
27. Answer (2)
Mass of solute 40
Concentration (mass by mass percent) =  100   100
Massof solution  40  360 
40
  100 = 10%
400
28. Answer (3)
29. Answer (2)
Chemical formula of aluminium hydroxide is Al(OH)3
30. Answer (4)
Given mass 33
Number of moles =  = 0.25 mol
Molar mass 132
31. Answer (2)
Atomic number of chlorine is 17
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7.
32. Answer (4)
33. Answer (4)
34. Answer (4)
35. Answer (2)
36. Answer (1)
37. Answer (1)
38. Answer (3)
39. Answer (2)
40. Answer (1)
41. Answer (3)
Cropping pattern shown in the figure is inter-cropping.
42. Answer (4)
43. Answer (2)
Bacteria, cyanobacteria and Mycoplasma are eubacteria.
44. Answer (1)
The blood corpuscle depicted in the figure is eosinophil.
45. Answer (4)
-5-
46. Answer (4)
(M + m)
m
M
Momentum of the system is always conserved.

mu = (m + M)v
mu
 v
M m
v f2 – v in2  2aS
2
⎛ mu ⎞
 0–⎜ ⎟  2aS
⎝M m⎠
m 2u 2
 a–
(M  m )2 2S
m 2u 2
 a (retardation)
2(M  m)2 S
47. Answer (3)
Buoyancy
v=
Acceleration
u=0
Weight
Buoyancy–weight
a
Mass
4
 R 3  g – mg
 a 3
m
⎡ 4 ⎤
g ⎢  R 3 – m ⎥
 a ⎣ 3 ⎦
m
48. Answer (3)
49. Answer (3)
50. Answer (1)
Skin of reptiles is dry, rough and without glands.

-6-

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CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

National Science Olympiad (NSO)

SECTION-I (LOGICAL REASONING)

(3) 24 (4) 31 (3) 9 (4) 3

(1) 36 m (2) 60 m (3) –3600 N (4) –180 N

(3) 35 m/min (4) 5 m/min –g

c time taken by the block to come to rest inside

a (1) 0.03 s (2) 4.5 s

(3) (Time)AB = (Time)CD (1) A - Xylem, B - Secondary cortex

(1) a(v), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii), e(i)

33. Which of the following sets of crops are grown

d. Nereis (iv) Sweet potato (1) Fowl (2) Honey

e. Dentalium (v) Red algae (3) Fish (4) Egg

39. Which of the following sets of xylem components

(4) Companion cells, Xylem parenchyma, Xylem

(1) Potassium sulphate (1) To reduce the use of pesticides

SECTION-III (ACHIEVERS SECTION)

Star fish Asterias C (3) Indira and John

Earthworm D Annelida (4) Bharti and Lokesh

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

National Science Olympiad (NSO)

Topics Covered in Various Subjects :

SECTION-I (LOGICAL REASONING)

(1) Daughter (2) Grand-daughter 7. Rekha ranks 8th

5. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures (1) 31 (2) 32

17. With the increase in temperature of medium, speed 23. C(Water)

B Steam (2) BCG Tuberculosis

(4) Latent heat of melting (4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Incomplete (3) ‘P’–Anti-retroviral drugs, ‘Q’–Antigen,

41. If 20 mg/L of nutrients helps in the controlled Organic molecules

following ponds eutrophication would occur?

SECTION-III (ACHIEVERS SECTION)

48. Two chemical species A and B combine together

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

National Science Olympiad (NSO)

Topics Covered in Various Subjects :

SECTION-I (LOGICAL REASONING)

1. Which number is opposite 3 in a standard dice (1) 12 (2) 27

10. Find the missing character in the given pattern.

(3) (4) (1) 9 (2) 11

(3) Na2CO3 (4) NaHSO4 (3) E2PO4 (4) EPO4

(3) 2.32 g (4) 1.36 g (3) 18 g (4) 44 g

(4) 142 g (3) 12, 14 and 31 (4) 8, 16 and 32

Statement I : Bohr’s model successfully explains (1) Isotones (2) Isodiaphers

40. Match the following : (1) Sodium sulphate

b. N2O (ii) 1 : 8 (4) Ammonium sulphite

(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) 36.5 u

(4) 4.5 g 45. The valency of an element ‘E’ having electronic

SECTION-III (ACHIEVERS SECTION)

(3) Only statement-1 is correct (1) 22.4 dm3 of O3 at STP

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

National Science Olympiad (NSO)

Topics Covered in Various Subjects :

SECTION-I (LOGICAL REASONING)

+ ? 2. What is the number of straight lines in the given

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) 13

(1) (2) (3) Ornament (4) Bangle

(2) bbbab (1) 99 (2) 65

(3) ababa (3) 105 (4) 85

(4) babaa 10. If ‘20 – 5’ means ‘100’, ‘10  8’ means ‘18’

(1) H, I (2) I, H (1) 0 (2) 1900

(3) H, G (4) J, I (3) 1090 (4) 20