Ans and Exp For CSAT Test-1 27th Jan 19

Answer Key & Exp for CSAT Test-1 held on 27th Jan’ 2019
Directions for the following eight (8) items: Read the following six passages and
answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based
on the passages only.
PASSAGE – 1
Urbanisation is now a global phenomenon and presents its own set of challenges as well
as opportunities. It is estimated that an additional 2.5 billion people will live in the world’s
cities by 2050, and hence it is critical that cities and their suburbs as well as large towns
start preparing now to provide sustainable living conditions to their future citizens. Over
the next 40 years, as historic urban migration leads to as much as 150% more energy
being consumed, the world needs to cut carbon dioxide emissions to half to mitigate the
climate change. This means that we need to rapidly transition to a world at least three
times more energy-efficient.
The outlook is no different for India, where millions are already migrating to cities and
towns in search of employment and better living standards. In fact, India has more than
50% of its population below the age of 25 and it is expected that, by 2020, the average
age of an Indian will be 29 years.
It is, therefore, imperative that the world’s largest democracy creates adequate
opportunities for gainful employment for its aspirational youth that is backed by
technologically-robust and efficient infrastructure. The decision to create 100 citizen-
friendly Smart Cities is a visionary step in that direction. Already, work has begun in right
earnest for some of these modern-day cities.
1. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

(1) As we plan to develop urban cities the pressure on the energy grid is expected
to increase.
(2) Energy consumption will require radical adaptation to meet the demographic
and economic growth.
(3) Smart cities are an engine for job creation and economic growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The passage clearly mentions that as more and more people migrate to cities and as
cities and towns develop, the consumption of energy is expected to go up by atleast
150%. Thus, the pressure on the energy grid will definitely increase. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
The passage also states that the world will need to migrate to a system that is thrice as
Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 1

efficient to be sustainable with the expected energy requirements. Thus, energy
consumption will need to adapt. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The passage mentions that Smart cities are a way to ensure that there is enough
employment for youth along with good infrastructure. Hence, smart cities can be
considered an engine for job creation and economic growth. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option (d).
PASSAGE – 2
While the uptick in global growth is an opportunity, unfortunately, so far, India hasn’t been
able to take advantage of it, not only because the currency has been strong but also
because there’s inadequate infrastructure and India’s wages are uncompetitive. Reforms
in the area of labour, critical for growth, remain slow as are reforms related to land. While
a stable interest rate regime no doubt helps, businessmen invest if they are confident of
the demand outlook. In the current context, consumer demand, while growing at a
reasonable pace, isn’t exactly surging because not enough jobs are being created. The
government’s rural push should boost rural incomes in 2018-19 and a third consecutive
good monsoon would also help. But with the real estate and construction sectors in a
slump, and urban India not generating that much employment, it’s hard to see
consumption grow at a very fast pace. Also unless labour productivity improves and
production becomes more efficient, growth cannot sustain at 8%-plus.
2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) An increasing number of skilled workers raises the potential growth of India’s
economy.
(b) Monsoon has a major influence on rural demand in India.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
According to the passage, labour productivity has to go up for India to grow at least at 8%.
So, if the number of skilled workers goes up, the chances of productivity going up, and
consequently the chances of the growth potential of the Indian economy improving
become higher. Hence, statement (a) can be inferred.
In the context of rural income and consumer demand, the passage mentions that a third
consecutive good monsoon should help the situation. Hence, it is clearly inferred that
monsoon has a major influence on rural demand in India. Hence, statement (b) can be
inferred.
Hence, the correct answer is option (c).
3. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

(a) A weak Rupee may help the Indian economy grow.
(b) India needs to introduce reforms relating to land and labour.
(c) Both a and b

(d) Neither a nor b
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
One of the reasons why India has been unable to take advantage of the global growth is
the “strong” Indian rupee, according to the passage. Hence, statement (a) can be
concluded.
The passage mentions that reforms related to land and labour are slow, which implies that
they are already implemented. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded.
Hence, the correct answer is option (a).
PASSAGE – 3
Economic development is often conceived of as increasing output per person.

Development is also conceived of, more broadly, as building individuals’ capabilities, and
directly enhancing their welfare. The missing link in these concepts is often a focus on the
process of creating jobs in which workers are more productive, so that they earn more,
and the economy as a whole can afford to keep enhancing human capabilities. And, of
course, higher output per worker also depends on having more and better jobs in the
economy, which requires someone to create these jobs in a sustainable manner. Put this
way, it is trivial to say that development means creating good jobs, where workers can
increase their income (and ultimately have more satisfaction and less drudgery, at least
for many). Economists are understanding this process in great depth now, and
policymakers can leverage this knowledge in designing Coastal Economic Zones (CEZs)
as well as other drivers of growth.

(1) A worker lower in the hierarchy is undervalued.
(2) Productivity is important to the continued economic development of the world.
(3) A country must focus on creating jobs conducive to high levels of employee
job satisfaction.
Which of the statements given above can be correctly concluded?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The passage does mention that development includes improving the capabilities of
individuals. However, it does not compare the relative value of people in a hierarchy within
a society or organisation. Hence, statement 1 cannot be concluded.
The passage says that in order to enhance human capabilities, the economy needs to
create jobs that are more productive so that the workers can earn more which will directly
benefit the economy itself. This makes both statements 2 and 3 valid conclusions.

PASSAGE – 4
The Taj Mahal in Agra is one of the most beautiful monuments on Earth. It was built by the
Mughal ruler Shah Jahan in memory of his deceased wife Mumtaz Mahal. Recently, there
have been concerns over the condition of the Taj. NEERI submitted regarding sulphur
dioxide emission control measures at Mathura Refinery and suggested the use of natural
gas, setting up of hydrocracking unit, improved sulphur recovery unit, biochemical sulphur
recovery and the setting up of green belt around the Taj. It also suggested the shifting of
polluting industries outside the Taj Trapezium Zone. The report also examined in detail
the decay mechanism and status of The Taj marble. It stated that the deterioration occurs
in two modes. In the process crusts are formed. The crusts are formed due to sulphur
dioxide, but the cumulative effects of all pollutants are more damaging. It was observed
that trace metals present in fly ash and suspended particulate matter, as catalyst for
oxidation of sulphur dioxide, and in turn enhance degradation of marble calcite to gypsum.
As a result of the report, the Court passed an order to shut the foundries in the Taj
Trapezium Zone.
5. The passage is trying to:

(a) draw attention to the deterioration of important geographical monuments in the
country.
(b) attribute reasons for the vitiation of the Taj Mahal.
(c) only understand the scientific process behind the decay in the marble of the
Taj Mahal.
(d) discuss the issue of air pollution around the Taj Mahal.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Statement (a) goes far beyond the scope of the passage by generalizing the discussion
w.r.t. important geographical monuments in the country. Hence, statement (a) is invalid.
The passage only concerns itself with the deterioration in the condition of the Taj Mahal
due to various polluting factors around it and then touches upon efforts taken to contain
this deterioration. This is best described in statement (b).
The scientific process that explains this decay is treated as one aspect of the overall
deterioration but not the only aspect. Hence, statement (c) is invalid.
As explained, the passage tries to discuss the reasons behind the air pollution that is
deteriorating the condition of the Taj Mahal. Hence, statement (d) is not valid.
Hence, the correct answer is option (b).
PASSAGE – 5
The Great Pacific Garbage Patch—an 80,000 tonne flotilla of plastic jetsam drifting in the
ocean—has now been estimated to be bigger than France, Germany and Spain combined.
Humans have dumped enough bottles, bags, containers, fishing nets and microparticles

into the ocean for the resulting waste hulk to span over 1.6 million square kilometres,
researchers based in the Netherlands, whose findings were published in the journal,
Scientific Reports, say. This is 16 times the previous estimate of the area covered by the
waste patch. As per the researchers mapping effort, this particular instance of plastic
pollution is increasing exponentially, at a much faster beat than earlier. Marine life now
faces a dual threat to life—large animals risk getting caught in the larger debris, especially
fishing nets, which make up 90% of the Patch while microplastics (less than 5 mm in size)
enter the food chain via fish eaten by larger predators, with toxins getting passed along the
chain.
It is poor consolation, but the fact that the bulk is larger debris means it is easier to remove
most of the waste from the ocean. However, there is no salvage for plastic that would
have sunk to the ocean-floor from the Patch. The Patch, however, is just a symptom—
albeit the most pronounced one—of the larger plastic waste problem the planet faces.
Global plastic production stood at 322 million tonnes in 2015 alone, as per data from the
International Organization for Standardization. While most of the waste plastic
accumulates terrestrially or is burnt, passing on the pollution to air, nearly 20 million
tonnes of plastic enters the oceans every year.

(1) It is necessary to invest in waste management infrastructure, especially in
those countries with rapidly developing economies.
(2) It is mainly human activities that are responsible for a major decline of the
world’s biological diversity.
(3) Some of the compounds found in plastic have been found to alter hormones
or have other potential human health effects.
Which of the statements given above can be assumed to be correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Though the passage touches upon some aspects of waste management, especially in the
context of plastic waste and marine waste, it does not compare the waste management
infrastructure of developing and developed countries. Hence, statement 1 cannot be
assumed.
The passage mentions that humans have dumped large debris into the ocean which
directly impacts larger species. Also, microparticles dumped by humans end up affecting
the entire food chain in terms of marine biodiversity. Hence, it is a safe assumption that
mainly human activities have affected and reduced the world’s biological diversity. Hence,
statement 2 can be assumed.
The impact of plastic on human health is not discussed in the passage. Hence, statement
3 cannot be assumed.

(a) The global distribution of plastics is a result of the fragmentation and
transportation by wind and currents to the aquatic environment.
(b) Ocean garbage in the form of plastic also leads to invasion of non-indigenous
species and organisms in naturally occurring marine colonies.
(c) Plastic waste in the oceans also threatens the life of birds and other beings
that depend on the oceanic life-forms for their food requirements.
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The passage mentions that nearly 20 million tonnes of plastic enters the oceans every
year through human actions. Hence, the global distribution of plastic cannot be attributed
to the wind and currents. Hence, statement (a) cannot be concluded.
The correlation between ocean garbage and non-indigenous species in marine colonies is
not discussed in the passage. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded.
The passage clearly mentions that micro-plastics affect all organisms in the small-fish-to-
large-fish food chain. Hence, statement (c) can be concluded.
PASSAGE–6
India has been the largest importer of defence equipment for several years. It spends
about 2.5% of GDP on defence, slightly above the world average for such expenditure.
Yet, the army is short of men, especially officers, and of material.
The army’s testimony before the parliamentary panel on defence and the panel’s own
recommendations, ranging from making a five- year stint in the armed forces mandatory
for would-be civil servants to invoking the intervention of the Prime Minister’s Office, are
tinged with a sense of desperation, but lack a systemic approach.
Action is required on multiple fronts. At 2.5% of GDP, defence spending is 2.5 times what
the government spends on healthcare and 23% of the Centre’s tax collections. It is neither
feasible nor desirable to step up the defence outlay. The goal should be to get more bang
out of every defence buck. To raise the share of spending on the equipment needed for
modern war fighting, it is necessary to rationalise manpower costs. This can go two ways.
Defence pensions should go the way of civil service pensions, and be linked to
contributions made while in service rather than to a defined benefit.
8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) If India is looking at self-reliance through manufacturing in any defence sector,
the government needs to invest much more than usual to achieve it.
(b) Heavy military spending in India has been detrimental to its citizens.
(c) Balanced expenditure on growth and defence will sustain India and ensure its
continued growth and advancement.

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Although the passage says that the Indian government is the largest importer of defence
equipment, it criticizes defence spending in general. It definitely does not advocate greater
defence spending in order to make defence a self-reliant sector. Hence, statement (a)
cannot be inferred.
The passage mentions that the defence outlay is 2.5 times the healthcare outlay.
However, it does not claim that the healthcare outlay is inadequate to meet healthcare
requirements. Hence, there is no evidence to show the detrimental effect. Hence,
statement (b) cannot be inferred.
The passage calls for the need to balance defence expenditure by rationalising manpower
costs. But it does not talk about balanced expenditure growth and defence. Hence,
statement (c) cannot be inferred.
9. Consider the following statements:

(1) Only Governors use a beacon and Ram uses a beacon. Thus, Ram is a
Governor.
(2) All Governors use a beacon and Ram does not use a beacon. Thus, Ram is not
a Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are logically consistent?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)

(1) All pens are blue. All pencils are blue. Thus, all pens are pencils.
(2) No pen is a pencil. All pens are blue. Thus, no pencil is blue.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
11. In UPSC Mains 2018 examination, 52% students failed in compulsory Hindi paper
and 42% in compulsory English. If 17% failed in both the subjects, what percentage
of students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 38%
(b) 33%

(c) 23%
(d) 18%
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Total percent of failed students = 52+42-17=77
Formula: n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A∩B)
Therefore, percentage of passed students = 100-77=23%.
12. A work to dig up a pond on community land was planned by Karur Gram Sabha
under the MGNREGA scheme. The work was done by certain number of workers in
60 days. If there were 8 more workers, it could have been completed in 10 days
less. How many workers were there in the beginning?
(a) 70
(b) 55
(c) 45
(d) 40
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Lets assume that there were x workers.
From the question; 60x = 50(x+8)
 60x = 50x + 400
 10x = 400
Therefore, x = 40
13. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Dassault Aviation came into a business
partnership. HAL contributes 1/4 of the capital for 15 months and Dassault received
2/3 of the profit. Find for how long Dassault’s money was used?
(a) 6 months
(b) 8 months
(c) 10 months
(d) 12 months
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
HAL’s Profit: Dassault’s Profit
(1/3)/(2/3) = 1:2
Therefore, HAL’s equivalent capital/Dassault’s equivalent capital = 1/2
 (x/4 * 15)/(3x/4 * n) = 1/2
 15/3n = 1/2
 n = 10 months
14. The average age of a constitutional bench of 5 judges of the Supreme Court of India
is 58. If a judge aged 60 recuses himself from the case due to conflict of interest and

a new judge aged 55 comes to the bench, then the average age of the new bench is
–
(a) 57
(b) 56
(c) 55
(d) 54
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Total age of the old bench = 58 * 5 = 290
Total age of new bench = (290-60) + 55 = 285
Average age of the new bench = 285/5 = 57
15. The monthly income of two ASHA workers is in the ratio 2:3 and their monthly
expenses are in the ratio 5:9. If each of them saves Rs. 6000 per month, then their
monthly incomes are –
(a) Rs. 15000: Rs. 22500
(b) Rs. 12000: Rs. 18000
(c) Rs. 16000: Rs. 24000
(d) Rs. 14000: Rs. 21000
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Let their monthly incomes be 2x and 3x, while monthly expenses be 5y and 9y
Therefore, 2x - 5y = 6000………(i) and
3x – 9y = 6000……….(ii)
Multiplying the equations by 3 and 2 respectively and subtracting eq. (ii) from (i)
We get, 3y = 6000, therefore, y = 2000
Putting the value of y in eq. (i)
2x = 6000 + 5 * 2000
 2x = 16000, therefore x = 8000
Therefore, monthly incomes
 2x = 2 * 8000 = Rs. 16000
 3x = 3 * 8000 = Rs. 24000
16. During its trial run, Train 18 crossed Agra station’s platform in 1 minute. Train 18
was running at a speed of 90 km/hr and length of the train and the platform was
same. Find the length of the train (in metres) –
(a) 500
(b) 750
(c) 600
(d) 900
Answer: (b)
Explanation:

Let the train be x metres long
Therefore, Platform = x metres
Speed of the train per second = 90 * (5/18) = 25m/s
 2x = 60 * 25
 x = (60 * 25)/2 = 750 metres.
Directions: Answer the following questions (Q. No. 17 to 20) based on the bar diagram
given below:
Population of two states

(in lakhs) over the years
120
100
80
60
40
20
0
2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
State A State B
17. Approximately, what is the average population of State A for all the given years?
(a) 65 lakhs
(b) 50 lakhs
(c) 48 lakhs
(d) 58 lakhs
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Total population of State A = 40+45+60+50+70+65+80 = 410 lakhs
Average population of State A = Total population of State A / Number of Years
By substituting the values in the formula, 410/ 7 = 58.7
Therefore, the approximate average population of State A is 58 lakhs.
18. What is the ratio of the total population of State A for the years 2001, 2002 and 2003
together to the population of State B for 2005, 2006 and 2007 together?
(a) 29:53
(b) 54:29
(c) 27:56
(d) 56:27

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
As we need to find ratio, State A (2001 + 2002 + 2003) : State B (2005 + 2006 + 2007)
By substituting the values in the above formula, (40 + 45 + 60) : (80+ 85 +100)
(Substituting the values in the formulas)
By simplification, = 145:265 = 29:53
Therefore the ratio of number of people in the state A (2001 + 2002 + 2003) to the number
of people in the state B( 2005 + 2006+ 2007) is 29 : 53.
19. What is the percentage rise in population of State B from the year 2003 to 2004?
(a) 15.66%
(b) 16.66%
(c) 16%
(d) 17.33%
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
As we need to find the percentage rise in the population, we use Percentage Increase =
[(final – Initial) /Initial] x 100
=Difference/Initial x 100
Percentage Increase = (Population of state B during 2004 – 2003/ 2003) x 100
By substituting the values in the formulas,
= [(70 – 60)/60 x 100] =10/60 x 100
= 1/6 x 100
= 16.66%
Therefore, there has been a rise in 16.66% of the population during the year 2003 and
2004 in State B.
20. For which State and in which year, the percent rise in population from the previous
year was the highest?
(a) State B – 2003
(b) State B – 2002
(c) State A – 2004
(d) State A – 2005
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Percent rise = Difference/Initial x 100
For State B in 2003 = (60 – 40)/40 x 100
= 20/40 x 100 = 50%.
21. Severe floods have affected the south Indian state of Kerala. For National Disaster
Response Force mobilisation, there are six roads leading to the Wayanad district
affected by heavy rains. The roads may be indicated by digits 1, 2, 3 and alphabets

A, B, C. When there are floods; A, 1 and 2 will be affected. When there is storm,
road B is blocked. When road 1 is blocked, C is also blocked. At a time, when there
are floods and a storm also blows, which road(s) can be used?
(a) 3 only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
When there are floods; roads A, 1 and 2 will be affected. When there is storm, road B is
blocked.
When there are both floods and storm: Roads A, B and 1, 2 cannot be used.
Also, When road 1 is blocked, C is also blocked.
Thus, in the condition when there are floods and a storm also blows, only road 3 can be
used by National Disaster Response Force for mobilisation in the Wayanad district of
Kerala.
22. After declaration of Sadiya-Dhubri stretch in Brahmaputra river as a National

Waterway, Assam Tourism Department decides to do a survey of landscape
surrounding the stretch of the river. A boat of Assam Tourism Department has a
speed of 5 km/hr in still water; crosses Brahmaputra river of width 30 km in Sadiya-
Dhubri stretch along the shortest possible path in 15 hours. The speed of the river
is?
(a) 3 km/hr
(b) 4 km/hr
(c) 2 km/hr
(d) 6 km/hr
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Speed of the boat in river of width 30 km in Sadiya-Dhubri stretch = Distance/Time Taken
= 30/15 = 2 km/hr
Speed of the boat in still water is = 5 km/hr
As the river Brahmaputra's water is opposing the boat, speed of the river = 5-2 = 3 km/hr
23. A rathole mine operating illegally was flooded by water from the adjacent Lytein river
in Meghalaya. To rescue people trapped inside the mine, pumping out of water is
necessary. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can pump out all of the water from the rat
hole mine in 7 days, then how many extra pumps will be required to pump out all of
the water from the rat hole mine in 5 days?
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 21
(d) 6

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
15 pumps of equal capacity can pump out all of the water from a rat hole mine in
Meghalaya in 7 days.
In order to pump out all of the water from a rat hole mine in one day, it will take 15 * 7 =
105 days.
Hence, in order to pump out all of the water from a rat hole in 5 days, it takes = 105/5 = 21
pumps.
Extra pumps = 21-16 = 5.
24. A and B are senior citizens; decided to adopt healthy lifestyle practices after
retirement, to keep diseases like Obesity and Diabetes at bay. Next morning, A and
B started walking around a rectangular park. They started at 7 a.m. from the same
point in opposite directions. A and B walked at a speed of 4 rounds per hour and 6
rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 7
a.m. and before 8 a.m.?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 12
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Relative speed of A & B = (4+6) rounds per hour = 10 rounds per hour
Time taken by A & B to cross each other = 1/10 hours = 60/10 minutes = 6 mins
Thus, after every 6 minutes, they will meet each other.
Hence, in 1 hour i.e. 60 mins, they will meet/cross each other 60/6 = 10 times
25. Appointments are to be made to the Higher Judiciary in India, one to the office of
Chief Justice of India and two to the Judges of the Supreme Courts. Among the six
candidates selected by the Collegium of Judges, only two are approved as eligible
by the Government of India for the office of Chief Justice of India while all are
eligible for appointment as the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The number of
possible combination of appointees is?
(a) 4
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 12
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Out of the appointments of the 2 Judges of the Supreme Court, one can be appointed in
2C1 = 2 ways.

Out of the remaining 5 Judges identified by the Collegium, 2 Judges to the Supreme Court
can be appointed in 5C2 ways = (5 x 4)/2 = 10 ways
Hence, number of possible combination of appointees = 2 x 10 = 20 ways.
Directions for the following five (5) items:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your
answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE – 1
Britain is a world leader on the environment and has played a pivotal role in the European
Union on this issue Yet the impact that leaving the EU would have on the UK’s
environmental standards rarely features in discussions. The evidence so far is clear:
families in Britain, rivers and beaches would pay the price if UK voted to leave.
In 1995, the UK was dirty man of Europe. Some 83% of the household waste went to
landfill and just 7% was recycled or composted. By 2014, thanks to a series of EU
directives, the UK’s recycling rate had reached 45%. The UK currently recycles 90% of
construction materials, well ahead of other countries. Renewable energy capacity is
growing, thanks to national targets set by the EU Renewable Energy Directive. EU
environmental legislation allows the phasing out of inefficient light bulbs on an EU- wide
basis. Such strong regulations allow monitoring of environmental standards and tracking
deviations. All this progress is at risk if the UK votes to leave. Anyone who thinks the
environment will be better off if UK left the EU should take a long hard look at the Tory
record. The Tories have talked green but acted blue.
The Chinese and Indian governments have invited the European Commission to help them
to clean up their water and air. The EU now has global expertise in the environment. The
evidence is clear. As an EU member, UK has more influence globally. UK’s voice in the
Paris climate change talks was amplified because it is a part of a club of 28 countries.
Leaving would mean implementing EU environment law without a seat at the table and a
vote in decisions. When the UK can lead from the inside, why would it walk away?
Ensuring the UK has a cleaner, greener future relies on the EU membership. Anyone who
argues otherwise will be on the wrong side of history.
26. Which of the following is true in regard to UK’s exit from the EU?
(a) The EU is more dependent on UK and might lose credibility if UK exits.
(b) UK is dependent on the EU to effectively tackle the environmental challenges
it has been facing and shouldn’t exit.
(c) The EU & the UK are interdependent and both will have be impacted equally if
UK leaves the EU.
(d) The EU doesn’t lose with UK’s exit, since it still has the support of 27 countries
which jointly form the EU.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:

Though the passage mentions that the global influence of both, the UK and EU, increases
if the UK is part of the EU, it seems to indicate overall that it is the UK that stands to lose
more if it exits from the EU. It clearly mentions that UK’s progress on the environmental
issue is at risk if it leaves the EU. It also indicates that the EU gains from the UK being a
member. Hence, statements (a), (c) and (d) become false.
The passage does not state that the EU is more dependent on UK. The passage says that
ensuring a clean and green future for the UK is dependent on EU membership. This
validates statement (b).
PASSAGE–2
Untreated sewage and industrial waste are dumped into the waters without remorse.
Reduced flow and rampant underground water withdrawals affect millions of people who
depend on the river’s water. Further, floods and droughts, which endanger lives and cause
serious damage to crops, livestock and infrastructure, are a common phenomenon in the
river basin. There is now clear evidence that climate change is already affecting the
Himalayan ice cover. However, all is not lost yet. Recent initiatives by the Indian
government such as including ‘River Development’ and ‘Ganga Rejuvenation’ to the
portfolio of the Minister of Water Resources, and the establishment of the National Ganga
River Basin Authority and the National Mission for Clean Ganga, show a commitment to
address some of these pressing concerns with special attention given to pollution control.
The Ganga is a complex transboundary basin which flows across different jurisdictions.
Therefore, a basin-scale approach would help manage the water resources better. This
would require close coordination with all the countries sharing the Ganga, such as Nepal
and Bangladesh, so that the interests of both upstream and downstream users are taken
into consideration. The existing treaties on “sharing water resources” could be
renegotiated as “shared management of water resources.”
27. Which of the following can be concluded from the above passage?
(a) Deteriorating water quality in the Ganga is a major threat to riverine
ecosystems and to people whose livelihoods depend on water.
(b) Urban waste offers a significant nutrient resource for farming, if safely treated
and applied.
(c) Recent initiatives by the Indian government were unsuccessful in addressing
the issue of water pollution.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The passage mentions that dumping of untreated sewage and industrial waste have
reduced the flow of the Ganga, caused floods and droughts endangered lives and caused
damage to crops, livestock and infrastructure. Thus, the deteriorating water quality is a
risk to the riverine ecosystem and the people dependent on it. Hence, statement (a) can
be concluded.

Urban waste has not been discussed in the passage. Hence, statement (b) cannot be
concluded. The passage just shows the Government has realized the seriousness of
cleaning up the Ganga and has taken steps to do so. It does not discuss the success or
failure of such steps. Hence, statement (c) cannot be concluded.
28. Which of the following recommendations does the author put forth for better
management of the water of the river Ganga?
(a) The development of cleanliness plans which can be implemented at a national
level.
(b) An accommodating approach among the countries that share the Ganga.
(c) Preventing the dumping of untreated sewage and industrial waste in the river
basin.
(d) Counteracting the effects of climate change and global warming, so as to
prevent the melting of the Himalayan peaks.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The passage mentions that better management of the water resources of the Ganga
would require a basin-scale approach and that would need a lot of co-ordination between
the countries that share the Ganga. This is not possible without an accommodating
approach between these countries. Hence, statement (b) is the most suitable
recommendation.
Statement (c) is a valid plan to clean up the Ganga, rather than manage its resources.
Hence, statement (c) is not the most suitable recommendation.
Implementation of cleanliness plans at a national level will not help manage the water
resources of the Ganga. Hence, statement (a) is also not a suitable recommendation.
Statement (d) (while possible factually true) is not discussed in the passage.
PASSAGE–3
In a significant step for higher education in the country, the government has unveiled its
plan for granting more autonomy to better performing central, state and private
universities. Accordingly, the University Grants Commission is giving 60 institutions
special status that will allow them to start new courses, offer competitive salaries and set
up off-campus centres without approvals. They will also be able to hire foreign faculty,
enrol foreign students, provide incentive-based emoluments to faculty, enter into
academic collaborations and run distance learning programmes. All of this is welcome as
universities in India are tied down in excessive red tape and restrictive regulations. Myriad
restrictions placed on them have resulted in poor quality as reflected every year in global
university rankings – no Indian varsity makes it into the top 250, shocking for a country of
India’s size.
Higher education in India has been treated, for far too long, as a tool to disburse political
patronage rather than to educate, equip young people for today’s high skilled jobs and

pursue high-end research. Meaningful autonomy can change this by getting universities to
think for themselves and compete to attract the best talents for students, faculty and
administration.
29. Which of the following can be critically inferred from the passage?
(a) The government aims at stimulating economic growth and inward investment
by removing red tape from universities.
(b) Sheer volume of bureaucratic requirements in universities make it exceedingly
difficult for them to focus on their core mission to educate.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Removal of red-tape has been mentioned in the context of improving the quality of
universities, thereby enabling them to give a high quality of education and equip students
to tackle high skill- based jobs. However, its link w.r.t. economic growth has not been
provided. Hence, statement (a) cannot be inferred.
The passage mentions that universities in India are stuck in too much bureaucracy and
regulations, and that these regulations have resulted in poor quality. Thus, it can be
clearly inferred that the volume of bureaucratic requirements makes it difficult for
universities to focus on quality. Hence, statement (b) can be inferred.

(1) The bureaucracy has robbed teachers and principals of the opportunity to be
creative and innovative.
(2) Autonomy will receive further credence if universities are given the freedom to
select their own heads through a transparent process.
(3) The ultimate aim of government should be to give universities the freedom to
compete and collaborate among themselves.
Which of the statements given above can be assumed using the code given below?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The passage makes no mention of creativity being stifled. Hence, statement 1 cannot be
assumed.
Similarly, the passage makes no mention of choosing the head of a university. Hence,
statement 2 cannot be assumed.
The third sentence of the first paragraph mentions the need to encourage collaborations
while last sentence of the passage mentions the need for universities to compete. Hence,

statement 3 is correct.
Directions for the following 4 items (Q.31-Q.34):

Consider the following information and answer the four items that follow:
There are five persons in a family living in National Capital Territory of Delhi - A, B, C, D
and E. The family has one IAS Officer, one IPS Officer and one Engineer. A and D are
unmarried college students. E is a man married to one of the group members. B is the
brother of A and is neither an IAS Officer nor an Engineer. C is not an IAS Officer.
31. Who is the IAS Officer?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
Answer: (d)
32. Who is the Engineer?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer: (c)
33. Who is the IPS Officer?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
Answer: (b)
34. Which of the following is definitely a male?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
Answer: (b)
Explanations for Q31 to Q34.:
As B is the brother of A, so B must be a man.
Now, B and E (a married man, as given in the question) are males.
A and D are unmarried students, hence E must be married to C. Thus, C is a female.

B is neither an IAS Officer nor an Engineer.
C is not an IAS Officer.
Therefore, E must be an IAS Officer.
Now, out of B and C, one is an IPS Officer and other is an Engineer.
And, as B is not an Engineer, he must be an IPS Officer.
Hence, C is an Engineer.
35. Following item consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot
both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the
two that satisfy the above condition.
Examine the following statements:
(1) All cars are run by diesel engine.
(2) Some cars are run by diesel engine.
(3) No car is run by diesel engine.
(4) Some cars are not run by diesel engine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
As Statements 1st and 3rd are complimentary statements, both these statements together
cannot be true but both can be false.
36. Nearly, 20,000 farmers have decided to march from Thane to Mumbai's Azad
Maidan for demanding 'Drought Compensation.' There is no direct route from Thane
to Azad Maidan. So the farmers need to pass through multiple routes in order to
reach their final destination. The time (in hours) required along each route is as
shown in the figure given below. If the farmers begin their march at 10:00 PM on a
Sunday night then find out the least possible time they can take to reach Azad
Maidan on Monday morning?
(a) 4:00 AM
(b) 5:00 AM
(c) 6:00 AM
(d) 7:00 AM
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 Route ABGEF = 5+1+1+1 = 8 hours
 Route ABCDF = 5+2+2+2 = 11 hours
 Route ACDF = 5+2+2 = 9 hours
 Route ABEF = 5+1+1 = 7 hours

Hence, via ABEF it will take 7 hours and
farmers can reach by 5: 00 AM (as they start
at 10:00 PM on Sunday) at the earliest on
Monday morning.
37. Under the Swachh Bharat Mission, 10

public toilets were built at a block level. The
contract for building such toilets was given to
a private contractor. The contractor employed 600 men and 400 women. But to
make quick profit, he paid less ‘per hour wages’ to women than men. Each woman
got Rs. 5 (per hour) less than a man. If the average wage of both – men and women
combined was Rs. 25.50 per hour, what were the wages (per hour) of a man and a
woman separately?
(a) Man Rs. 30, Woman Rs. 25
(b) Man Rs. 25, Woman Rs. 20
(c) Man Rs. 27.50, Woman Rs. 22.50
(d) Man Rs. 32.50, Woman Rs. 27.50
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Let a man's wage per hour be Rs. x.
So, a woman's wage per hour is Rs. (x - ½).
Average wage of both a man and woman is Rs. 25.50
Hence,
600𝑥 + 400(𝑥 − 5)
= 25.5
1000
The value of x = 27.50 i.e Wages per hour for Man = x = Rs. 27.50
And wages per hour for a woman = x – 5 = Rs. 27.50 - 5 = Rs. 22.50
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Wages (per hour) of a man is Rs 27.50, and a
woman is Rs 22.50.
38. In Thailand's Chiang Rai province during the early morning hours of Christmas eve,
5 trekkers and their trekking coach went to explore a cave but ended getting trapped
deep inside it due to the cave being flooded by torrential downpour and no exit in
sight except swimming underwater for half an hour. Now, the Thai disaster
management team is all set to begin their rescue operation. Under the current
situation, only one person from the rescue team can get to the spot where the
trekkers are stranded. It takes 1 hour to get to the spot and 1 and half hour to come
back safely with one rescued trekker. Also, after each trip, it takes 20 minutes to
refill the oxygen tank being used for rescue operation. For how many hours, the
rescue operation will continue if it is carried out without any break in between?
(a) 13 hours 10 minutes
(b) 14 hours 40 minutes
(c) 15 hours 10 minutes
(d) 16 hours 40 minutes

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Total trekkers to be rescued = 5 trekkers and 1 coach = 6 trekkers
 Time needed to rescue 1 trekker = 60 mins + 90 mins = 150 mins
 Time needed to rescue 6 trekker = 6 X 150 mins = 900 mins = 15 hours
But we need to include time taken to refill the oxygen tank also i.e extra 20 mins after
each trip.
The tank should be refilled with oxygen for 5 times during the rescue operation (as no
need to refill it once the 6th trekker) is rescued. Also, at the beginning of the operation the
tank is already filled with oxygen. The need to refill the tank comes up only after the
completion of one trip inside the cave.
 So, 5 trips * 20 mins = 100 mins extra for refilling the oxygen tank.
 100 mins = 1 hour and 40 mins
Total rescue operation time period = 900 mins + 100 mins = 16 hours and 40 minutes
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
39. The monsoon season is a month away. At the Panchayat level, it has been decided
to harvest rainwater by digging a pond at the centre of each village. In village
Palampur three persons A, B and C have volunteered for the job. A can do the job in
24 days, B in 9 days and C in 12 days. B and C together start digging the pond but
leave after 3 days. The remaining job will be finished by A in _________?
(a) 5 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 20 days
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
B's one day work = 1/9
C's one day work = 1/12
(B+C)'s 1 day work = (1/9) + (1/12)
(B+C)'s 3 days work = 3 [(1/9) + (1/12)] = 7/12
Remaining work = 1 - (7/12) = 5/12
A can finish the remaining work in = (5/12) * 24 = 10 days.
40. The Government of India (GOI) is in the process of deciding how to spend its
leftover revenue. It has Rs. 905 crores left in its budget and there are eight
programs to choose among. As a standard rule, GOI will not provide surplus funds
to any program. Each program needs a certain minimum amount for its
implementation and no program must be partially funded. The programs and their
funding requests are as follows:
1. Disaster Management: Rs. 145 crores
2. Ports Improvement: Rs. 85 crores
3. Education Sector Schemes: Rs. 165 crores

4. Health Sector Schemes: Rs. 135 crores
5. Agricultural Subsidy program: Rs. 225 crores
6. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: Rs. 175 crores
7. MSME sector incentives: Rs. 265 crores
8. International Airport’s Renovation: Rs. 340 crores
Chief Ministers of industrialized states of India are very much concerned about the
funding for International Airport’s Renovation. The Union Minister of Agriculture is
demanding money for agricultural subsidies to address the distress in agriculture
sector. If the Government of India funds these two programs, then the rest of the
revenue can be spent to the last dime on which of the following two programs?
(a) Port Improvement and MSME sector incentives
(b) Disaster Management and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Education Sector Schemes
(d) Education Sector Scheme and Health Sector Scheme
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
International Airport + Agricultural subsidy program = Rs. 340 crores + Rs. 225 crores =
Rs. 565 crores.
The amount left after the International Airport and agricultural subsidies are funded = Rs.
905 crores - Rs. 565 crores = Rs. 340 crores.
 Ports Improvement (Rs. 85 crores) and MSME sector incentives (Rs. 265 crores) =
Rs. 350 crores
 Disaster Management (Rs. 145 crores) and MSME sector incentives (Rs. 265 crores)
= Rs. 410 crores
 Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Rs. 175 crores) and Education sector schemes (Rs. 165
crores) = Rs. 340 crores
 Education sector schemes (Rs. 165 crores) and Health sector schemes (Rs. 135
crores) = Rs. 300 crores
So only for Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Rs. 175 crores) and Education sector schemes (Rs.
165 crores) remaining Rs. 340 crores can be allotted. Hence, option (c) is the correct
answer.
DIRECTIONS for the following 7 (seven) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your
PASSAGE – 1
India’s mining sector today stands at an inflexion point, and the time is ripe to realise its
full potential that will not only boost the overall economic growth, but also generate huge
employment opportunities in the downstream sectors. Development of natural resources
is vital for overall socio-economic development of the country. The import of natural
resources makes up for $200 billion, or over 50%, of India’s total import bill of $400 billion.
With greater development of India’s natural resources sector, import dependency can be

reduced by more than 50%, resulting in the savings of $100 billion that will help create
more than 20 million jobs, alleviate poverty and save precious foreign exchange. Only
10% of area with mining potential has been explored in India, against 95% in Australia. A
vibrant mining sector will create an entire eco-system of SMEs. The contribution of India’s
mining sector to its GDP is just 2%, while it could contribute as much as 10%. Given India
has one of the best geologies in the world, it must increase production on a massive
scale, may be up to five times from the current production. This requires a simple and
transparent policy, one that peels off layers from the current stack of approvals needed, to
attract firms to invest, explore and produce.
(a) Concerns over environmental issues must be addressed with utmost priority in
context of mining activities.
(b) The government’s intention should be to maximise production.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The passage discusses the impact of developing the mining sector on the economy and
employment, not on the environment. Hence, concerns over environmental issues are
irrelevant to the passage. Hence, statement (a) cannot be inferred.
The passage quotes various statistics to show the importance of mining to India’s
economy and then goes on to say that India needs to increase production on a massive
scale, possibly up to five times the current value. Hence, statement (b) can be inferred.
42. The passage says that:

(a) Government should take concrete steps to encourage private investment in
the mining sector.
(b) There exists untapped potential in the Indian mining equipment sector.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The passage pushes towards greater development of the mining sector and concludes by
stating that the government has to create policies that encourage companies to invest in
this sector. Hence, statement (a) is valid.
The passage mentions that India has only 10% of its area being mined, whereas a
country like Australia has 95%. It also shows how the development of this sector can
reduce import dependency and the import bill. Thus, there is clear untapped potential in
this sector. Hence, statement (b) is valid.

43. Which of the following is true as per the passage?
(a) While demand continues to create the ground for a robust mining sector, it is
not supported with requisite supply.
(b) India lacks advanced technology to mine resources that are difficult to access.
(c) India’s mining sector contribution to GDP is below par.
(d) Both (a) and (c) above
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
According to the passage, India’s outflow on importing natural resources is nearly half its
total import bill. Thus, there is very clearly a lot of demand in India but the supply lacks the
capacity to meet this demand. Hence, statement a is true. The passage also mentions
that India’s mining sector contribution to GDP is only 2%, and can go up to 10%. Hence,
statement (c) is correct.
The inability to explore land areas for mining activities, and not technology, is mentioned
as the reason for the stagnant mining sector of India. Hence, statement (b) is not
correct.
PASSAGE – 2
India must take a leaf from China’s book on improving healthcare. China, which, in 2015,
had 3.6 physicians for every 1,000 population is deploying artificial intelligence (AI) in a
big way to make up with automation what it lacks in manpower in healthcare. An article in
the MIT Technology Review (MTR) talks of how it is easing work in many areas of
healthcare, from diagnostics to dentistry - in fact, the Chinese government has made
computerised medical diagnosis one of the cornerstones of its grand plan to embrace AI
by 2020. While over 130 companies are already working on AI applications in the
country’s healthcare sector, the IDC estimate of a $930-million market in China for AI-led
healthcare services by 2022 means more of such companies are expected to come
online. China’s home grown tech giants, Alibaba and Tencent, have also placed
significant bets on AI diagnostic tools.
The MTR report talks about how cancer- radiologists in more than 20 Chinese hospitals
are using a neural network that helps them identify potential malignancies, drawing from
thousands of reports, images and conclusions drawn by medical professionals. While it
makes the doctors’ job easier, the latter also help refine it by correcting any mistakes it
throws up; the start-up that created the software has netted over 180 hospitals so far as
research collaborators.
India, in 2016, had just 0.75 physicians per 1,000 population. Public spending on health,
per capita, in 2015 stood at a mere $16.2 compared with China’s $254.4 and the US’s
whopping $4,810. This meant the government expenditure on health in India, as
proportion of the country’s overall health spending, was just 25% compared with China’s
60%. While improving the density of physicians, diagnostic facilities, hospitals and health
centres, and other indicators of healthcare adequacy are an important goal, India could
definitely benefit from taking a cue from China on deploying AI.

(1) In India, the healthcare infrastructure is inadequate on many fronts.
(2) China is looking at AI and machine-learning from a perspective of productivity
gains.
(3) Providing health services to a widely-dispersed population can be solved by
AI.
Which of the statements given above can be assumed?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The last paragraph points to the shortcomings of Indian healthcare system on every
parameter such as physicians per population, public spending on health as well as
healthcare infrastructure. Hence, it can be assumed that healthcare infrastructure is
inadequate on many fronts i.e. statement 1 can be assumed.
The passage mentions how AI is making the work of Chinese doctors easier and is also
refining and errors made. Thus it can be assumed that productivity is improving. Hence,
statement 2 can be assumed.
The passage states that what China lacks in terms of healthcare manpower gets covered
by AI. This gives credence to the assumption that AI helps reach out to a much larger and
dispersed population set compared to actual doctors. Hence, statement 3 can be
assumed.
PASSAGE – 3
While toilets can be constructed on a mission mode, using them and becoming conscious
of cleanliness is a different matter. None of that can happen without a mindset change as
even the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation has acknowledged. This is the most
difficult job.
Nor has the presence of toilets, even when readymade and handed out on a pan, created
an atmosphere that encourages cleanliness. It is often said that India is dirty because
everything associated with pollution and filth is for the so-called lower castes to clean. Yet,
if the subaltern people were meant to do all the dirty work, why then are their habitations
unclean as well?
Assuming that in the next four years all, or nearly all, Indian households will have toilets,
will that make this country noticeably clean? Chances are that it will not. According to a
conservative government figure, post-Swachh Bharat there is piped water in 1.5 lakh out
of 2.45 lakh villages that have indoor toilets.
Further, the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) also shows that over 80% of
rural households in 2014 reported that they had improved sources of drinking water since

2012. That, however, has not changed the fact that only 6.4% of villagers dump garbage
in a designated dumping spot.

(1) The so-called lower castes are indifferent towards health and cleanliness as
their habitations are unclean.
(2) Merely building toilets is not a panacea to India’s manifold health problems.
(3) Open defecation will be importantly reduced if the government builds more
latrines.
Which of the statements given above can be assumed?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The passage clearly says that construction of toilets will not help unless the mindset of the
people changes. The passage also says that the so-called lower castes are associated
with pollution and cleaning filth and since their habitations are also unclean it can be
implied that they are indifferent to health and cleanliness. The passage also states that
building toilets alone is not a solution to India’s health problems. Hence, statements 1
and 2 can be assumed.
By the same logic as above, only building more latrines will not convince people to avoid
open defecation. Hence, statement 3 cannot be assumed.
(a) The burden of maintenance of toilets rests on communities that have been
assigned this job for centuries.
(b) India’s much poorer neighbours have done better than India in reducing open
defecation.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The passage says that one reason why India is unclean is that work related to cleaning
filth, toilets etc is the work of certain castes and communities alone. Hence, the burden of
maintaining toilets currently rests on certain communities that have been historically doing
this work. Hence, statement (a) can be inferred.
The passage does not discuss India’s record in tackling open defecation w.r.t. other
countries. Hence, statement (b) cannot be inferred.

PASSAGE – 4
Even after nine months of unveiling the GST, the system continues to be unsettled, and
there is a palpable sense of uneasiness among the governments as well as businesses.
The “good and simple tax” has ceased to be so, and the “one nation, one tax” is yet to
materialise in proper shape. The revenue collections have not been according to
expectations and the governments are worried on that front. The central government is
seriously concerned with the issue not only because it poses serious difficulties in
conforming to even the revised estimate of fiscal deficit, but also because it has to give
generous compensation to the states for a shortfall in revenues. Although the states are
not immediately concerned on this front, as the Centre has promised to give compensation
for the loss of revenue computed at 14% increase over the previous year’s collection of
the taxes included in the levy, there are long-term concerns that matter. Furthermore, it has
not been possible to apportion the IGST, as it has not been possible to finalise the returns
and the ad hoc allocations have not helped many state governments to overcome their
liquidity problems. Businesses are seriously concerned about the complication in the
structure, the high-compliance cost it has imposed on them and the fear of e-way bills.
Exporters are faced with the serious problem of not getting refunds on the tax paid due to
the difficulty in finalising the returns.
(1) The government has not been able to address the structural issues of GST
reform.
(2) The GST has helped widen the government's tax net to incorporate the
previously un-taxed business enterprises.
(3) The Central and State governments will share 50% of the tax amount collected
as IGST.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
According to the passage, GST revenue collections are lower than expectations, the
central and state governments have been facing issues and businesses have problems
due to structural complications, high compliance costs and difficulty in filing of returns. All
these point to the inference that the government has been unable to address structural
issues within GST. Hence, statement 1 can be inferred.
According to the passage, revenue collections from GST have been lower than expected.
There is no evidence to show that previously untaxed businesses have been brought into
the net. Hence, statement 2 cannot be inferred.
The passage states that one of the problems being faced is that the Centre has not been
able to apportion the IGST i.e. decide the division of the tax amount collected as IGST.

Hence, statement 3 cannot be inferred.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.
48. Consider the following statement and the two statements that follow from it:
None but astronauts use teflon.
(1) Sita is an astronaut and thus, she uses teflon.
(2) Gita does not use teflon and thus, she is not an astronaut.
Which of these statements follows from the main statement?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)

(1) All plants are organic and all trees are organic. Therefore, all plants are trees.
(2) Only phones are cellular. Mobiles are cellular and so, mobiles are phones.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Directions for Q. 50: The following item consists of four statements. Of these four
statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully
and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
50. Examine the following statements:

(1) All cups are white.
(2) Some cups are not white.
(3) No cups are white.
(4) Some cups are white.
Codes
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (a)
Directions for Questions 51 to 54 (4 items)

Study the chart given below and answer the questions based on the information
provided:
The Midday Meal Scheme is a school meal programme of the Government of India
designed to better the nutritional standing
of school-age children nationwide. It was
launched in 1995. This scheme has helped
in improving the enrolment rate of students
in primary schools at pan India level. But
during initial years due to poor
implementation of the scheme, few village
schools didn't see any satisfactory check
on dropout rate of students. In this context,
consider the line chart which gives the
number of students who joined and left the
schools of a village 'Wani' in Maharashtra.
51. For which year, the percentage

rise/fall in the number of students who left
the schools compared to the previous year
is maximum?
(a) 1998
(b) 1999
(c) 2000
(d) 2001
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The percentage rise/fall in the number of students who left the schools compared to the
previous year is as follows:
The maximum percentage rise/fall among the given options is for the year 2000. Hence,
option (c) is the correct answer.

52. The ratio of the least number of students who joined the schools to the maximum
number of students who left the schools in any of the years during the given period
is?
(a) 7 : 9
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Important data noted from the given line chart:
 In 1997: Number of students joined = 300 (least).
 In 1997: Number of students left = 450 (maximum) or
 in 2000: Number of students left = 450 (maximum)
Required ratio = 300/450= 2/3. Hence, option is (d) is correct answer.
53. The number of students studying in the schools in 1998 was what percent of the
number of students studying in the schools in 2001?
(a) 92.13%
(b) 93.75%
(c) 96.88%
(d) 97.25%
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Important data noted from the given line chart:
 In 1996: Number of students left = 250 and number of students joined = 350.
Therefore, the numbers of students studying in the schools (i.e., strength of the schools)
in various years:
 In 1995 = 3000 (given).
 In 1996 = 3000 - 250 + 350 = 3100.
 In 1997 = 3100 - 450 + 300 = 2950.
 In 1998 = 2950 - 400 + 450 = 3000.
 In 1999 = 3000 - 350 + 500 = 3150.
 In 2000 = 3150 - 450 + 400 = 3100.
 In 2001 = 3100 - 450 + 550 = 3200.
The numbers of students studying in the schools in 1998 is 3000 and in 2001 is 3200.
Required percentage = ((3000/3200) x 100 ) % = 93.75%. Hence, option is (b) is correct
answer.

54. During which of the following pairs of years, the strength of the schools was same?
(a) 1999 and 2001
(b) 1998 and 2000
(c) 1997 and 1998
(d) 1996 and 2000
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
As calculated in above solution, in the years 1996 and 2000 the strength of the schools
was same i.e., 3100.
 In 1996 = 3000 - 250 + 350 = 3100.
 In 2000 = 3150 - 450 + 400 = 3100.
55. Find the number of triangles in the given figure:
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 32
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The simplest triangles are AGH, GFO, LFO, DJK, EKP, PEL and IMN (Total 7 in
number).

 The triangles having 2 parts each are GFL, KEL, AMO, NDP, BHN, CMJ, NEJ and
HFM (Total 8 in number).
 The triangles having 3 parts each are IOE, IFP, BIF and CEI (Total 4 in number).
 The triangles having 4 parts each are ANE and DMF (Total 2 in number).
 The triangle having 5 parts each are FCK, BGE and ADL (Total 3 in number).
 The triangle having 6 parts each are BPF, COE, DHF and AJE (Total 4 in number)
Hence, the total number of triangles in the figure = 7+8+4+2+3+4 = 28
56. A Motor Biker started travelling towards north. After travelling 50m, he turned right
and travelled 40m. He again turned right and travelled 45m. He again turned right
and travelled a distance of 100m straight. After taking rest for about 10 min, he
turned left and travelled 5m and then finally he turned right. In which direction was
he moving finally?
(a) North-east
(b) East
(c) West
(d) South-West
Answer: (c)
57. When all the students of standard X of Modern school were made to stand in
ascending order of their heights, Mukesh was standing at 17th position. When they
were standing in decreasing order of their height, Mukesh was standing at the 26th
position. How many students are there in the class? (no two students have the
same height)
(a) 42
(b) 41
(c) 40
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
If ‘n’ people are standing in a row, then the sum of the ranks from left and from the right is
always equal to n+1. Here in this case, n + 1 = 17+26. Therefore n = 42. Option (a).
DIRECTIONS for Ques 58 to 61 (4 items):

The following table gives the Fund allocation of different schemes by Government of India
over the years.
(in Rs crores)
Schemes
Years A B C D E Total
2011 75 144 114 102 108 543

2012 90 126 102 84 126 528
2013 96 114 75 105 135 525
2014 105 90 150 90 75 510
2015 90 75 135 75 90 465
2016 105 60 165 45 120 495
2017 115 85 160 100 145 605
58. What was the approximate percentage increase in the fund allocation of scheme A
in 2016 compared to that in 2011?
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 56%
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
105−75
× 100% = 40%
75
59. The total fund allocation of all the seven years is the maximum for which scheme?
(a) Scheme (A)
(b) Scheme (B)
(c) Scheme (C)
(d) Scheme (D)
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Scheme A – 676 crore
Scheme B – 694 crore
Scheme C – 901 crore
Scheme D – 601 crore
60. In which year, there has been a maximum percentage increase in the value of fund
allocation for scheme C as compared to previous year?
(a) 2016
(b) 2014
(c) 2013
(d) 2012
Answer: (b)
Explanation:

150−75
× 100% = 100% Increase
75
61. In case of which scheme there was a continuous decrease in fund allocation from
2013 to 2016?
(a) Scheme A
(b) Scheme B
(c) Scheme C
(d) Scheme E
Answer: (b)
62. An alphabet series is given with two term missing. Choose the correct alternative
that will continue the same pattern and replace the question marks in the given
series:
Z, S, W, O, T, K, Q, ?, ?
(a) K, C
(b) G, N
(c) J, C
(d) C, J
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In this question we are having alternate pattern:
S, O, K, G
Z, W, T, Q, N
So answer is GN
63. How many dots will be on the face opposite to the face which contains 4 dots?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 6
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Face with 4 dots is having face with 1, 5 and 6 dots adjacent. By
eliminating answer options (a), (b) and (d), we get correct answer (c).
64. Which of the options will replace the question mark?

(a) 25
(b) 34
(c) 29
(d) 47
Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Pattern is:
5 × 4 + 3 = 23
7 × 6 + 5 = 47
6 × 5 + 4 = 34
65. Delhi is to the east of Lucknow which is to the north of Srinagar. Kabul is to the
south of Srinagar. Compared to Delhi which direction is Kabul located?
(a) West
(b) South
(c) South-East
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Correct answer is South-west
Directions for Ques no. 66:

Monu and Sonu are good in Archery and Swimming.
Anjali and Monu are good in Swimming and Cooking.
Anjali, Poonam and Nisha are good in Cooking and Driving.
Poonam and Sonu are good in Riding and Archery.
66. Who is good in Riding, Cooking, Swimming and Driving?

(a) Poonam
(b) Nisha
(c) Sonu
(d) Data Inadequate
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Monu Archery Swimming Cooking

Sonu Archery Swimming Riding
Anjali Swimming Cooking Driving
Poonam Archery Cooking Driving Riding
Nisha Cooking Driving
67. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 45
km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The
length of each train is:
(a) 80 m
(b) 72 m
(c) 45 m
(d) 90 m

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Let
length of the train is x.
Relative speed = 45-36=9 km/hr = 2.5 m/s
2𝑋
2.5
= 36
2x = 90 m
x = 45 m
68. Present ages of Ajay and Vijay are in the ratio of 5:4 respectively. Three years
hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11:9 respectively. What is Ajay’s present
age in years?
(a) 24
(b) 30
(c) 40
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
𝐴𝑗𝑎𝑦 5
=
𝑉𝑖𝑗𝑎𝑦 4
𝐴𝑗𝑎𝑦+3 11
𝑉𝑖𝑗𝑎𝑦+3
= 9
By solving these two equations we will get Ajay's age = 30 years
69. A goldsmith has 500 gms of gold, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at
18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is:
(a) 200 gm
(b) 280 gm
(c) 300 gm
(d) 320 gm
Answer: (c)
Explanation:

3
5
× 500= 300 Gms
70. In a garden, there are 13 rows and 11 columns of trees. The distance between two
trees is 4 metres and a distance of two metres is left from all sides of the boundary
of the garden. The area of the garden is:
(a) 543 sq meters
(b) 2288 sq meters
(c) 1144 sq meters
(d) 960 sq meters
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Dimensions of the garden are 52 x 44 = 2288 sq. meter (area).
Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your
PASSAGE – 1
To begin with, in the pre-independence period, labour rights, trade unions, and freedom of
association were all suppressed. As a result, labour activism became part of the civil
disobedience and unrest. Post-independence Indian labour law was so closely linked to
the Indian independence movement, that the then newly framed Constitution of India in
1950, included fundamental labour rights, such as the right to join and take action in a
trade union, the principle of equality at work and the aspiration of creating a living wage
with decent working conditions. Despite several decades of economic progress, labour
laws enshrined in the Constitution have not largely been amended nor reformed over the
years, making them archaic to contemporary businesses and ways of working in a
technology-centric world.
Apparently, political ideologies and mindsets are also to be blamed. Studies have
indicated that regional mindset has impaired domestic industry and economic growth. For
example, in Kerala alone there were nearly 363 “hartals” called by different political
parties, between 2005 and 2012, making them days of unproductive labour. Moreover, a
political climate dominated by the socialist ideology during the 70’s and 80’s contributed to
a mindset which perceived profit making and enterprise a taboo, thereby also laying extra
emphasis on worker-centric labour policies. Nevertheless, the current union government is
taking an industry-friendly attitude and hopes to transform India into a manufacturing hub
over the next years.

(a) Laws alone don't result in a productive workforce; governments, organisations
and people themselves need to bring about a change in mindsets.
(b) Private companies did not set up business in India in 70’s and 80’s owing to
lax labour laws

(c) Formulation of worker-centric labour policies will accelerate India’s dream of
improving its manufacturing sector.
(d) Prior to independence, India did not have any labour laws.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The passage mentions that political ideologies and mindsets have also hampered
domestic industry and economic growth. This also contributed in maligning concepts like
profit- making and enterprise and framing policies and laws accordingly. Hence, it can be
validly concluded that governments, organisations like trade unions and workers
themselves need a mindset change, along with laws, to improve productivity. Hence,
statement (a) can be concluded.
The passage just mentions that labour policies were exceedingly worker-centric in the 70s
and 80s but this cannot be used to conclude that private companies did not set up
business in India in this period. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded.
The whole gist of the passage is that worker- centric labour policies have hindered India’s
goal of improving its manufacturing sector. Hence, statement (c) cannot be concluded.
The passage mentions that before independence, concepts such as labour rights, trade
unions and freedom of association were suppressed. This implies that there were labour
laws in place, but they were oppressive. Hence, statement (d) cannot be concluded.
72. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(a) Labour laws in India are adaptive to contemporary businesses.
(b) India suffered from weak bureaucracy but boasted high labour productivity.
(c) Labour activism interfered with civil- disobedience movement.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The passage mentions that labour laws have not been amended or reformed, thereby
making them obsolete w.r.t. contemporary business. Hence, statement (a) is not true.
The passage gives multiple examples of low labour productivity due to archaic labour
laws. Hence, statement (b) is not true.
According to the passage, labour activism became a part of the civil disobedience
movement, rather than interfering with it. Hence, statement (c) is not true.
PASSAGE–2
The biggest bottleneck where India’s agri-exports are concerned has been the arbitrary
policy framework; governments have been prone to clamping down on exports of one
product or another depending on what is politically expedient at the time. So, it is
unfortunate that the blueprint for doubling India’s agri-exports promises free exports only
for processed agri- products and all organic products. Exports of other products would be

restricted. The draft policy paper notes that those products considered to be “essential
from a food security perspective” will be subject to restrictions. One assumes, therefore,
commodities such as rice, wheat, sugar, pulses and vegetables would all be considered
essential. If India wants to boost exports, the policy needs to be a more liberal one. One of
the case studies highlighted reveals how the country could have saved some $7.5 billion
between 2008 and 2011 had the exports of non- Basmati rice not been banned. Over the
three years, nearly 15 million tonnes of non-Basmati rice could have been exported
because stocks were overflowing; instead, the farmers earned lower realisations for their
crop because the government wanted to control consumer inflation. A policy that bans
exports of too many products can’t help; in that case, the bulk of India’s exports will
continue to comprise meat and marine foods. What is unfortunate is that India is importing
products that are already grown here—among them, wheat, apples, tea, raw cashew and
almonds—and whose production can be increased with some minimal investment.

(a) Exports are an important driver of economic growth and will also help create
much needed jobs for India's growing workforce.
(b) India’s farm exports face prohibitive import duties in overseas markets.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The relation between India’s exports and its labour force is not elaborated upon in the
passage. As such, it cannot be said whether exports will help create jobs. Hence,
statement (a) cannot be concluded.
The passage mentions that India’s farm exports face constraints due to political
considerations and interference. Hence, statement (b) cannot be concluded.

(1) There is big potential to increase exports in products such as rice.
(2) It’s time India stopped over-promotion of cereals, and let demand and supply
forces guide production and trade decisions.
(3) India needs to remove quantitative restrictions on exports so that farmers get
best prices for their produce.
Select which of the statements given above is/are correct using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:

The passage mentions that rice might be one of the products that is not allowed to be
exported under the consideration of being essential. Since the passage argues against
this practice, there is a lot of potential to increase rice exports if such artificial tags such as
“essential commodity” are removed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The passage does not claim that cereals are over- promoted. It just states that certain
products are restricted in terms of exports. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The passage gives the example of rice to show farmers got lower value for their crops due
to quantitative restriction on export of rice. Hence, it argues for removal of such
restrictions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
PASSAGE – 3
We all know that India is an energy-deficit country and our per-capita power consumption
is a third of China's and a fifth of the US'. There is a lot of latent demand and as India
grows, our deficit — currently estimated at 10% on an installed base of 200 GW — will
likely go up, if no new investment is made in power capacity and in improving distribution.
Renewables can play a critical role in plugging the energy shortfall. Solar can be set up on
a disaggregated basis as well. It does not need to be set up in large utility scale, grid-
connected situations only. It is just as amenable to rooftops. With net metering, and given
the solar resource all over the country, we have the clear possibility of using our
residential and commercial rooftops for power generation on a distributed basis.
The issue is of climate change. The case for renewables in India is mostly made on the
basis of energy access and energy deficit — seldom on the basis that climate change is
real and we in India must, as all countries must, put our best efforts towards combating
climate change. At a national level, the government did indeed enunciate a National
Action Plan for Climate Change with a game plan out to 2022. The 12th Five-Year Plan
too sets out modest targets in renewable energy capacity.

(1) India needs to improve its grid capacity and make renewables mandatory.
(2) The world will soon begin to run out of conventional fuels and prices will rise.
(3) The renewable sector needs financial support in order to fulfil the energy
needs of the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
While the passage mentions that India needs to focus more on utilising its natural

strengths in renewables, it also says that solar need not be setup in large scale, grid-
connected situations only. Thus, India may be able to tackle the problem even without
improving its grid capacity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The passage mentions that there is already energy shortfall and this is expected to
increase if no new energy is produced. Also, since the passage emphasises on
“renewable” energy, it implies that the conventional fuel sources are not renewable and
may go out of stock sooner or later. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Though the passage focuses on the need and benefit of renewable energy sources, it
does not discuss the financial aspects of the same. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
76. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 24. The numbers are in the ratio 2:3. Then sum of the
numbers is:
(a) 20
(b) 32
(c) 24
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Numbers are 8 and 12
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Four students of XYZ college: Harry, Pali, Sattu and Baba went to Taj hotel. Each ordered
different food items. Food items available that time were Masala Dosa, Idly Sambhar,
Noodles and Manchurian. However none ate what any of the others ate. When they
returned to their college they asked their college mates to guess what they had eaten at
hotel. Each makes two false statements and one true statement. Read their statements
and answer the questions that follow:
Harry: I ate Masala Dosa
Pali ate Idly Sambhar.
Sattu did not eat Manchurian.
Sattu: Harry ate Masala Dosa.

Pali did not eat Masala Dosa
I ate Manchurian.
Pali: Sattu ate Manchurian

I did not eat Idly Sambhar
Baba did not eat noodles.
Baba: I ate idly Sambhar

Pali ate Manchurian
Harry ate noodles.

77. What did Harry eat?
(a) Noodles
(b) Manchurian
(c) Idly Sambhar
(d) Masala Dosa
Ans: (c)
78. What did Pali eat?

(a) Noodles
(b) Manchurian
(c) Idly Sambhar
(d) Masala Dosa
Ans: (b)
79. What did Sattu eat?

(a) Noodles
(b) Manchurian
(c) Idly Sambhar
(d) Masala Dosa
Ans: (d)
80. What did Baba eat?

(a) Noodles
(b) Manchurian
(c) Idly Sambhar
(d) Masala Dosa
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
By hit-and-trial approach, following is the distribution of food-items:
Harry Idly Sambhar
Pali Manchurian
Sattu Masala Dosa
Baba Noodles

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Answer Key & Exp for CSAT Test-1 held on 27th Jan’ 2019

1. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 1

2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

3. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage?

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 2

Economic development is often conceived of as increasing output per person.

4. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 3

5. The passage is trying to:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 4

6. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 5

8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 6

9. Consider the following statements:

10. Consider the following statements:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 7

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 8

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 9

Population of two states

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 10

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 11

22. After declaration of Sadiya-Dhubri stretch in Brahmaputra river as a National

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 12

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 13

Directions for the following five (5) items:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 14

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 15

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 16

30. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 17

Directions for the following 4 items (Q.31-Q.34):

31. Who is the IAS Officer?

32. Who is the Engineer?

33. Who is the IPS Officer?

34. Which of the following is definitely a male?

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 18

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 19

37. Under the Swachh Bharat Mission, 10

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 20

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 21

DIRECTIONS for the following 7 (seven) items:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 22

42. The passage says that:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 23

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 24

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 25

45. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 26

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 27

49. Consider the following statements:

50. Examine the following statements:

Directions for Questions 51 to 54 (4 items)

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 28

51. For which year, the percentage

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 29

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 30

55. Find the number of triangles in the given figure:

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 31

DIRECTIONS for Ques 58 to 61 (4 items):

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 32

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 1 (27.01.2019) 33