JET ENGINE – I MODULE QUESTIONS

1. Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished

1. by gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and overboard through a common outlet in each wing.
2. through individual outlets for each tank.
3. through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.
4. Aota

2. The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a

1. Lower landing weight. 2. Reduced fire hazard.
3. Balanced fuel load. 4. Higher landing weight

3. Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems by

1. gravity. 2. boost pumps. 3. gravity and engine driven fuel pumps.
4. None

4. Which procedure must be followed when defueling aircraft with sweptback wings?
1. Defuel all the tanks at one time. 2. Defuel the outboard wing tanks first.
3. Defuel the inboard wing tanks first. 3. Defueling not required

5. What is the purpose of the pump crossfeed valve?

1. Balance the fuel in the tanks. 2. Allow operation of engines from one tank.
3. Allow operation of the left engine when the right fuel boost pump is inoperative.
4. Nota

6. Normal fuel cross-feed system operation in multiengine

1. reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during fueling or defueling operations.
2. provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel load condition.
3. calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct lateral instability.

7. What is the primary purpose of the cross feed system?

1. To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any desired level.
2. To allow the feeding of any engine from any tank.
3. To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for defueling.
4. Aota

8. Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in order to

1. retard galvanic corrosion. 2. drain off static charges.
3. prevent stray currents. 4. Aota

9. A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system allows how many of the following?
a. All tanks can be serviced through a single connection.
b. Any engine can be fed from any tank.
c. All engines can be fed from all tanks simultaneously.
d. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the fuel system.

1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a, b, d

10. The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in some problems not normally associated with
aviation gasoline. One of these problems is
1. microbial contaminants.
2. increasing viscosity of fuel as fuel temperature lowers at altitude.
3. higher vapor pressure.
4. None
11. What is used in many aircraft to prevent bubbles in the fuel after it leaves the tank when
atmospheric pressure is lower than fuel vapor pressure?
1. Air fuel separators. 2. Boost pumps. 3. Anti-foaming additives. 4. EDP

12. Which of the following precautions is most important during refueling operations?
1. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified
2. All electrical switches must be in OFF position
3. All outside electrical sources must be disconnected from the aircraft
4. None

13. Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling method, what important precaution
should be observed?
1. The truck pump pressure must be adjusted for minimum filter pressure.
2. The aircraft's electrical system must be on to indicate quantity gauge readings.
3. The truck pump pressure must be correct for that refueling system.
4. AOTA

14. What flight safety related advantage does a pressure fueling system provide?
1. Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.
2. Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance limitations.
3. Reduces the time required for fueling.
4. Enhances fuel economy

15. Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional procedures are normally placarded on the
1. lower wing surface adjacent to the access door.
2. fuel control panel access door.
3. aircraft ground connection point.
4. AOTA

16. Pressure fueling of aircraft is usually accomplished through

1. at least one single point connection.
2. individual fuel tank over wing and/or fuselage access points.
3. pressure connections on individual fuel tanks.
4. Aota

17. How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a submerged, single speed, centrifugal type fuel
pump?
1. By the first check valve downstream from the pump.
2. By the pump's design and internal clearances.
3. By the engine driven pump's design and internal clearance.
4. By the pump's design and external clearances

18. What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent?

1. To decrease tank internal air pressure.
2. To decrease fuel vapor pressure.
3. To maintain atmospheric pressure.
4. All

19. When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks, what procedure should be followed?
1. pressurize the tank with air and submerge in water to locate leaks.
2 .pressurize the tank with air and brush with soapy water.
3. fill the tank with water and pressurize with air and brush with soapy water.
4. None
20. What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel tank before welding?
1. Steam clean the tank interior. 2. Flush the inside of the tank with clean water.
3. Purge the tank with air. 4. All
21. An aircraft's integral fuel tank is
1. a part of the aircraft structure. 2. usually located in the bottom of the fuselage.
3. a self sealing tank. 4. a external tank

22. Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?

1. Carbon monoxide. 2.Helium or argon. 3. Carbon dioxide. 4. Ammonia

23. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system?
1. It filters and traps all micro-organisms that may be present in the fuel system.
2. It provides a drain for residual fuel.
3. It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system.
4. None

24. The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane type fuel pump is to

1. compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes. 2. vary fuel pressure according to
throttle setting.
3. equalize fuel pressure at all speeds. 4. Produces a fixed volume of fuel

25. Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard because of its susceptibility to freezing as it
passes through
the filters. What are common methods of preventing this hazard?
1. Micromesh fuel strainers and fuel heater. 2. Anti-icing fuel additives and fuel
heater.
3. High-velocity fuel pumps and fuel heater 4. AOTA

26. Fuel leaks are usually classified as a stain, a seep, a heavy seep, or a running leak. As a
general rule,
1. stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards.
2. all fuel leaks regardless of location or severity are considered a hazard to flight.
3. stains, seeps, and heavy seeps, (in addition to running leaks) are considered flight hazards
when located in unvented areas of the aircraft.
4. None

27. Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline?
1. Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is more easily suspended.
2. Condensation is greater because of the higher volatility of jet fuels.
3. Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.
4. Jet fuel particles have more cohesion force.

28. The probe of a capacitance type fuel level gauge is essentially a

1. float actuated variable capacitor. 2. capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate.
3. capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric. 4. Transmitter is used inside
probe.

29. The capacitance type (electronic) fuel quantity indicator

1. has no moving parts in the tank.
2. has two tubes separated by a mica dielectric in the tank.
3. utilizes a float operated variable capacitor.
4. None

30. A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel quantity indicating system?
1. Capacitor. 2. Synchro. 3. Selsyn. 4. All

31. Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system more accurate in measuring fuel level
than a mechanical
type?
1. It measures by weight instead of volume.
2. Only one probe and one indicator are necessary for multiple tank configurations.
3. It measures in gallons and converts to pounds.
4. because precise Transmitter is used inside probe.

32. How does temperature affect fuel weight?

1. Warm fuel is heavier per gallon. 2. Temperature has no effect.
3. Cold fuel is heavier per gallon. 4. None

33. What is the purpose of flapper type check valves in integral fuel tanks?
1. To allow the engine driven pumps to draw fuel directly from the tank if the boost pump fails.
2. To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pumps.
3. To allow defueling of the tanks by suction.
4. Both 2 & 3

34. (a) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft positive displacement fuel pump.
(b) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft centrifugal fuel boost pump.
Regarding the above statements

1.both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. 2. only No. 2 is true. 3. only No. 1 is true. 4. None

35. The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a

1. place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank can collect and be drained.
2. positive system of maintaining the design minimum fuel supply for safe operation.
3. reserve supply of fuel to enable the aircraft to land safely in the event of fuel exhaustion.
4. AOTA

36. Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large aircraft?
1. To facilitate servicing. 2. To reduce weight. 3. To reduce fire hazards
4. So that fuels can be interchanged

37. Integral fuel tanks are

1. usually constructed of nonmetallic material. 2. readily removed from
the aircraft.
3. formed by the aircraft structure. 4. Made up of wood

38. The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to

1. resist fuel surging within the fuel tank. 2. provide internal structural integrity.
3.provide an expansion space for the fuel. 4. None

39. What minimum required markings must be placed on or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on
utility category
aircraft?
1. The word "Avgas" and the minimum fuel grade or designation for the engines, and the usable fuel
tank capacity.
2. The word "Avgas" and the minimum fuel grade, and the total fuel tank capacity.
3. The word "Avgas" and the minimum fuel grade
4. The word "Avgas" and the minimum fuel grade, and the total fuel tank capacity & no. of probes
used

40. What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation fuels?

1. Results in low fuel volatility. 2. A fuel intercooler is required.
3. Deteriorates rubber parts. 4. AOTA
41. Fuel boost pumps are operated
1. automatically from fuel pressure. 2. primarily for fuel transfer.
3. to provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine 4. None

42. The type of fuel boost pump that separates air and vapor from the fuel before it enters the line to
the carburetor is
the
1. gear type pump. 2. centrifugal type pump. 3. sliding vane type pump.
4. Piston type pump

43. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an aircraft fuel?
1.7 PSI. 2. 3 PSI. 3. 5 PSI. 4. 1 PSI

44. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be improved?

1. By adding a knock enhancer. 2. By adding a knock inhibitor.
3. By adding a fungicide agent. 4. None

Fire Protection

45. In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?
1. Engine andlor nacelle. 2.Surface combustion heater compartment.
3. Cockpit andlor cabin. 4. Aircraft tail section

46. What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?

1. A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically.
2. The test lamp illuminates and an alann is provided automatically.
3. A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically.
4. AOTA

47. When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing
yellow silica gel will turn which color?
1. Blue. 2. Green. 3.Red. 4. Blue

48. Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of

1. detection. 2.construction. 3.maintenance. 4. None

49. Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called
1. visual devices. 2. electromechanical devices. 3. photoelectrical
devices
4. NONE

50. Which fire detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
1. Lindberg continuous element. 2.Fenwal continuous loop.
3. Thermocouple. 4. Spot

51. A carbon dioxide (C02) hand held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the
1. horn is nonmagnetic. 2. horn is nonmetallic.
3. handle is insulated. 4. No horn is required

52. The proper fire extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is
1. dry powder chemical. 2. water. 3.carbon dioxide. 4. Halogenated
hydrocarbon

53. Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which
instrument?
1. Chemical reactor. 2. Photoelectric cell.
3. Sniffer. 4. Thermocouple

54. Light refraction smoke detectors

1. sense light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber.
2. use radiation induced ionization to detect the presence of smoke.
3. measure a reduction in the amount of visible or infrared light in the surrounding area.
4. None

55. Why does the Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two
separate circuits?
1. A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.
2. A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction.
3. This installation is equal to two systems: a main system and a reserve system.

56. What is the color code for fire extinguisher lines?

1. Brown. 2. Yellow. 3. Red and green. 4. Yellow or blue

57. A thermocouple in a fire detection system causes the warning system to operate because
1. heat decreases its electrical resistance.
2. it expands when heated and forms a ground for the warning system.
3. it generates a small current when heated.
4. heat increases its electrical resistance.

58. The thermocouple fire warning system is activated by a

1. certain temperature. 2. core resistance drop. 3. rate of temperature
rise.
4. rate of pressure rise

59. When used in fire detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in
1. series with each other and parallel with the light.
2. parallel with each other and in series with the light.
3. series with each other and the light.
4. None

60. What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built in fire extinguisher system?
1. A discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in the thermal discharge line.
2. A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line.
3. The thermal plug missing from the side of the bottle.
4. None

61. The thermal switches of a bimetallic thermal switch type fire detection system are heat sensitive
units that complete
circuits at a certain temperature. They are connected in
1. series with each other, but in parallel with the indicator lights.
2. parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights.
3. parallel with each other, and in parallel with the indicator lights.
4. None

62. In some fire extinguishing systems, evidence that thesystem has been intentionally discharged is
indicated by
the absence of a
1. red disk on the side of the fuselage. 2. yellow disk on the side of the fuselage.
3. green disk on the side of the fuselage. 4. Blue disk on the side of the fuselage

63. Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen
system?
a. Display "No Smoking" placards.
b. Provide adequate fire fighting equipment.
c. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease.
d. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.

1. a, c, and d. 2. a, b, c, and d. 3. a, b, and d 4. None

64. A squib, as used in a fire protection system, is a

1. temperature sensing device.
2. probe used for installing frangible disks in extinguisher bottles.
3. device for causing the fire extinguishing agent to be released.
4. Aota

1.They are connected in parallel with each other but in series with the indicator lights
a.series,parallel b.parallel,series c.series,series d.parallel,parallel
2. If the temperature rises above a set value in any one section of the circuit, the thermal switch
closes, completing the light circuit to indicate a fire or overheat condition
a.opens b.closes c.partially opened d.partially closed
3. A thermocouple depends on the rate of temperature rise and does not give a warning when an
engine slowly overheats or a short circuit develops
a.pressure b.temperature c.both a & b d.either a or b
4. The thermocouple is constructed of two dissimilar metals, such as chromel and constantan
a.chromel b.nickel c.constantan d.both a & c
5. Any time the current is greater than 4 milliamperes (0.004 ampere), the sensitive relay closes.
a.2ma b.3ma c.4ma d.5ma
6. The total number of thermocouples used in individual detector circuits depends on the size of the
fire zones and the total circuit resistance, which usually does not exceed 5 ohms.
a.1 ohms b.2 ohms c.3 ohms d.5 ohms
7. Two widely used types of continuous-loop systems are the thermistor type detectors, and the
pneumatic pressure detector
a.thermister b.hydraulic c.pnuematic d.both a & c
8. The Fenwal system uses a slender Inconel tube packed with thermally sensitive eutectic salt and a
nickel wire center conductor
a.monel,KOH salt,copper b.inconel,eutectic salt,nickel c.chromel,CuO salt,silver
9.The time delay incorporated for the overheat indication in kidde system is 10 sec
a.2 sec b.5 sec c.10 sec d.11 sec
10. The resistance of a sensor varies inversely as it is heated; as sensor temperature is increased, its
resistance decreases
a.increases,increases b.decreases,decreases c.decreases,increases d.increases,decreases

Airconditionimng and Pressurisation

65. Which section of a turbine engine provides high pressure bleed air to an air cycle machine for
pressurization and
air-conditioning?
1. C-D inlet compressor duct. 2. Inlet compressor.
3. Turbine compressor. 4. Exhaust section

66. At which component in an air cycle cooling system does air undergo a pressure and temperature
drop?
1. Expansion turbine. 2. Primary heat exchanger.
3. Refrigeration bypass valve 4. Aota
67. In a freon vapor cycle cooling system, where is cooling air obtained for the condenser?
1. Pressurized cabin air. 2. Turbine engine compressor.
3. Ambient air. 4. Primary heat exchanger

68. What is ventilating air used for on a combustion heater?

1. Provides air required to support the flame. 2. Carries heat to the places where
needed.
3. Provides combustion air for ground blower. 4. Nota

69. Turbine engine air used for air conditioning and pressurization is generally called
1. ram air. 2. compressed air. 3. bleed air. 4. Ionised air

70. The basic air cycle cooling system consists of

1. heaters, coolers, and compressors.
2. a source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.
3. ram air source, compressors, and engine bleeds.
4. Aota

71. What component might possibly be damaged if liquid refrigerant is introduced into the low side of
a vapor cycle cooling system when the pressure is too high or the outside air temperature is too
low?
1. Compressor. 2. Condenser. 3. Evaporator. 4. Dryer

72. How can it be determined that a vapor cycle cooling system is charged with the proper amount
of freon?
1. The compressor loads up and RPM decreases.
2. Air bubbles appear in the sight glass.
3. Air bubbles in the sight glass disappear.
4. The compressor loads up and RPM increases

73. Frost or ice buildup on a vapor cycle cooling system evaporator would most likely be caused by
1. moisture in the evaporator. 2.the mixing valve sticking closed.
3. inadequate airflow through the evaporator 4. None

74. Hot compressor bleed air operates the conditioned air system on some turbine aircraft, how is
cold air supplied?
1. By the ram cycle cooling unit. 2. By the flow control unit.
3. By the air cycle machine turbine. 4. By Secondary Heat exchanger

75. Where does the last stage of cooling in an air cycle air conditioning system occur?
1. Secondary heat exchanger. 2. Refrigeration unit compressor.
3. Expansion turbine. 4. Flow control valve.

76. The point at which freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system gives up heat and
changes from a gas to a
liquid is the
1. expansion valve. 2. evaporator.
3. condenser. 4. Dryer

77. The point at which freon flowing through a vapor cycle cooling system absorbs heat and
changes from a liquid to a gas is the
1. condenser. 2. expansion valve.
3. evaporator. 4. Secondary Heat exchanger

78. The function of the evaporator in a freon cooling system is to

1. lower the temperature of the cabin air.
2. transfer heat from the freon gas to ambient air.
3. liquefy freon in the line between the compressor and the condenser.
4. None

79. What is the purpose of a mixing valve in a compressor bleed air air-conditioning system?
1. Distribute conditioned air evenly to all parts of the cabin.
2. Combine ram air with conditioned air.
3. Control the supply of hot, cool, and cold air
4. Aota

80. The position of the thermostatic expansion valve in a vapor cycle cooling system is determined
by temperature
and pressure of the
1. freon entering the evaporator. 2. freon in the outlet of the
evaporator.
3. air in the outlet of the condenser. 4. Air in the heat exchanger

81. The function of the condenser in a freon cooling system is to

1. transfer heat from the freon gas to ambient air.
2. change liquid freon into a gas before it enters the compressor.
3. transfer heat from the cabin air to the liquid Freon

82. The air cycle cooling system produces cold air by

1. passing air through cooling coils that contain a refrigerant.
2. extracting heat energy across a compressor.
3. extracting heat energy across an expansion turbine.
4. Aota

83. What unit in a vapor cycle cooling system serves as a reservoir for the refrigerant?
1. Evaporator. 2. Receiver dryer. 3. Condenser. 4. Heat exchanger
84. What is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the condenser of a vapor cycle cooling
system?
1. Low pressure liquid. 2. High pressure liquid.
3. High pressure vapor. 4. Low pressure vapor

85. What is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the evaporator of a vapor cycle cooling
system?
1. Low pressure liquid. 2. High pressure liquid.
3. High pressure vapor. 4. Low pressure vapor

86. What is the condition of the refrigerant as it leaves the evaporator of a vapor cycle cooling
system?
1. Low pressure liquid. 2. High pressure liquid.
3. High pressure vapor. 4. Low pressure vapor

87. What is the condition of the refrigerant as it leaves the condenser of a vapor cycle cooling
system?
1. Low pressure liquid. 2. High pressure liquid.
3. High pressure vapor. 4. Low pressure vapor

88. The purpose of a sub cooler in a vapor cycle cooling system is to

1. aid in quick cooling a hot aircraft interior.
2. augment the cooling capacity during periods of peak demand.
3. cool the freon to prevent premature vaporization.
4. Nota

89. What type of oil is suitable for use in vapor-cycle cooling system?
1.Low viscosity engine oil with the inability to absorb water.
2. Highly refined synthetic oil, free from impurities with special water absorbing additives.
3. Special high grade refrigeration oil.
4. Synthetic jet oil

90. When purging a freon air conditioning system, it is important to release the charge at a slow rate.
What is the
reason for the slow rate discharge?
1. Prevent excessive loss of refrigerant oil.
2. Prevent condensation from forming and contaminating the system.
3. Prevent the large amount of freon from contaminating the surrounding atmosphere.
4. None

95. High pressure cylinders containing oxygen for aviation use can be identified by their
1. green color and the words "AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN" stenciled in 1-inch white
letters.
2. yellow color and the words "AVIATOR'S BREATHING OXYGEN" stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
3. green color and the words "BREATHING OXYGEN" stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
4. None

96. In a gaseous oxygen system, which of the following are vented to blow out plugs in the fuselage
skin?
1. Filler shutoff valves. 2. Pressure relief valves.
3. Pressure reducer valves. 4. Regulators

97. (a)Oxygen used in aircraft systems is at least 99.5percent pure and is practically water free.
(b) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is 99.5percent pure and is hospital quality.
Regarding the above statements,
1. both a and b are true. 2. only a is true.
3. neither a nor b is true. 4. Only b is true

98. Oxygen systems in unpressurized aircraft are generally of the

1. pressure demand type only. 2. continuous flow and pressure demand
types.
3. portable bottle type only 4. None

99. A contaminated oxygen system is normally purged with

1. compressed air. 2. nitrogen.
3. oxygen. 4. None

100. How should you determine the amount of oxygen in a portable, high pressure cylinder?
1. Read the pressure gauge mounted on the cylinder. 2. Measure the pressure
at the mask.
3. Weigh the cylinder and its contents. 4. None

rconditionimng and Pressurisation

Fire Protection

Flight Controls

Fuel Systems

Fuel Systems
1) 81/97 AVGAS is …………
1) Dyed Blue 2) Dyed Red 3) As in 2) and is no longer available 4) As in 2) and is still available

2) AVGAS that is most readily available and is dyed blue

1) 80/87 AVGAS 2) 115/145 AVGAS 3) 100LL AVGAS 4) NOTA

3) Dyes are used in fuel because

1) It gives good appearance
2) To increase antiknock rating
3) Help aviators monitor fuel type
4) AOTA

4) All grades of jet fuel are

1) Dyed for identification purpose
2) colorless or straw colored
3) Both 1) and 2)
4) NOTA

5) AVGAS 100 LL is dyed

1) Green 2) Blue 3) red 4) purple

6) AVGAS 100 is dyed

1) Green 2) Blue 3) red 4) purple

1 The sluggish condition of mindand body caused by a deficiency in,or lack of, oxygen is called as --------------
Hypoxia

2)The effect of increased altitude on the human body is practically negligible between sea level and ………….. ft
above mean sea level
7000

2)Prolonged exposure at 10000 ft above sea level results in headache and fatigue also called as-----------------
4) the oxygen saturation in blood is reduced to 90percent; extended exposure results in headache and fatigue at
approximately ……….. feet
10,000
5)

3)Oxygen saturation in the blood drops enough to likely cause convulsions at …………… feet above sea level
22,000 ft

Flight Controls

Equipment and furnishing

EQUIPMENTS
91. Combi freighter means
1. aircraft carries both extra freight and passengers in the cabin
2. aircraft carries only extra freight
3. aircraft carries only passengers in the cabin
4. None

92. Types of cargo retention equipments are

1. Containers with latch system
2. Nets for securing loose baggage
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None

93. What should be the insulation resistance of water-activated light in life jacket
1. 2 Megohm 2. 1 Megohm 3. 5 Megohm 4. None

94. a. Life jackets use a co2 cylinder to give rapid inflation once the passenger is outside the aircraft
b. Aircraft seats can be divided into three main groups; passenger seats, flight attendant seats
and flight deck crew seats
Regarding the above two statements
1. Only a is correct 2. Only b is correct 3. Both are correct 4. None are correct

Q1 name and explain the various air sources used for air-conditioning and pressurization systems in different
aircrafts

Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
Q13
Q14
Q14
Q15
Q16
Q17
Q18
Q19
Q20