NUMS Past Paper (1) Total 180 Questions Chemistry Biology Physics

Total Marks: 180 NUMS Past Paper (1) Total Question: 180
CHEMISTRY
1. What is the net charge on ferrous ion?
A. +2
B. +3
C. +4
D. +5
2. One mole of a gas refers to:
A. The number of molecules in one liter of gas
B. The number of molecules in one gram of gas
C. The number of molecules contained in 12 grams of 12C isotope
D. The number of molecules in 22.4 liters of a gas at S.T.P.
3. The total pressure exerted by a number of non-reaction gases under the same
conditions is:
known as
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charlee’s Law
C. Avogadro’s Law
D. Dalton’s law
4. The quantum number which determines the shape of the orbital is:
A. principal
B. azimuthal
C. magnetic
D. spin
5. Ionization energies of the elements of group VA are greater than those of Group:
VIA. The reason is that
A. group VIA elements have grater shielding effect
B. group V A elements half-filled atomic orbitals
C. group V A element have less electronegativity
D. group V A elements have greater shielding effect
6. The relative attraction of the nucleus for the electrons in a chemical bond is called:
A. lionization energy
B. Electron affinity
C. Electronegativity
D. None of the above.
7. When two hydrogen atoms approach each other to form a chemical bond then which
of the following is true?
A. the energy of atoms increase
B. the attractive forces dominate the repulsive forces
C. the two atoms start ionization
D. the repulsive force dominates the attractive forces
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8. Bomb calorimeter is usually use for calculating the enthalpy of:
A. Combustion
B. Neutralization
C. Formation
D. Solution
9. Elements react to form compounds to:
A. gain energy
B. form bond
C. absorb heat
D. attain lower energy state
10. The molality of the solution is indirect expression of the ratio:
A. Most of solute/moles of solvent
B. Mole of solvent/moles of solute
C. Mole of reactants/moles of products
D. None of above
11. Sugar cane is readily dissolved in:
A. Petrol
B. Kerosene
C. Water
D. Benzene
12. The branch of chemistry which deals with the conservation of electrical energy
and chemical energy into electrical energy is called?
A. Thermochemistry
B. Electrochemistry
C. Biochemistry
D. None of these
13. Electrolytes have the ability to pass electricity because they possess.
A. free electrons
B. Fused electrolyte
C. Charged ions
D. None of these
14. Which of the following reduces the time to attain equilibrium.
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Catalyst
D. Concentration
15. How can we yield maximum ammonia from Haber’s process?
A. High Temperature and high pressure
B. Low pressure, high temperature, increase the ammonia content.
C. High pressure, low temperature, continual removal of ammonia
D. All of above
16. The rate of reaction between A and B increases by a factor of 100, when the con
centration with respect to A is increased 10 folds. The order of reaction with respect
to A is:
A. 10
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
17. When KCLO3 is heated, it decomposes into KCL and O2. If some MnO2 is added,
the reaction goes much faster because:
A. MnO2 decomposes to give O2
B. MnO2 provides heat by reacting
C. Better contact is provided by MnO2
D. MnO2 acts as a catalyst
18. Identify the correct statement:
A. Element sodium can be prepared and isolated by electrolyzing an aqueous
solution of NaCl
B. Element Na is a strong oxidizing agent
C. Elemental Na is insoluble in NH3
D. Element Na is easily oxidized.
19. Which compound will show the highest lattice energy?
A. RbF
B. CsF
C. NaF
D. KF
20. Mark the correct statement:
A. Basic carbonates of Mg and Cu are soluble in water
B. Calcium Cyanamid on treatment with steam under pressure gives NH3 and Ca
(HCO3)2
C. The temperature at which thermal decomposition of magnesium carbonate occurs
is less than that of calcium
D. Sodium carbonate is insoluble in water
21. Identify the correct statement:
A. Be (NO3)2 decomposing similar to LiNO3 on heating
B. The formula of Chile salt peter is NaNo3
C. thermal decomposition of Calcium Nitrate is
Ca(NO3)2 → CaO + N2O + 2O2
∆
D. NaNO3 decomposition on heating at high temperature to give NO2
22. The volume occupied by 28 grams of N2 at STP?
A. 224dm3
B. 2.24dm3
C. 1.12dm3
D. 112 Cm3
23. Isotopes differ in the:
A. number of atoms
B. number of neutrons
C. number of protons
D. number of electrons
24. Which of the following lipids is involved in membrane structure;
A. Phospholipid
B. Glycolipid
C. Sterol
D. A and C both
25. The location of double bound in most of the monounsaturated fatty acids is;
A. C9
B. C7
C. In between C-9 and C-1-
D. None of these
26. In poly-unsaturated acids double bonds are;
A. Not present
B. Coordinate
C. None-conjugated
D. Conjugated
27. The pH range of the acid rain is:
A. 7 – 6.5
B. 6.5 – 6
C. 6- 5.6
D. Less than 5.6
28. What is the effect of polluted air on environment?
A. Ozone creation
B. increase in greenhouse effect
C. Global warming
D. increases in daytime
29. Petroleum is mainly a mixture of:
A. Saturated hydrocarbons
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbons
C. Phenols
D. Compounds of sodium
30. Which one is not an organic compound?
A. Fats
B. Carbohydrates
C. Water
D. None of these
31. The method of converting high boiling hydrocarbons into low boiling hydrocarbons
is called?
A. polymerization
B. cracking
C. condensation
D. isomerization
32. Ether shows the phenomenon of:
A. Position isomerism
B. Functional group isomerism
C. Metamerism
D. Cis-trans isomerism
33. Replacement of hydrogen atom by -SO3H group in benzene is called?
A. nitration
B. alkylation
C. Sulphonation
D. acylation
34. Straight chain hydrocarbons are:
A. In which atoms of C are not in a series
B. In which atoms of C are not in a series
C. In which each carbon is attached at least with three other carbon atoms
D. None of these
35. C2H2CL2 can show which of the following isomerism.
A. Position
B. Functional
C. Geometric
D. Metamerism
36. Compounds have same empirical formula but different molecular formula must
have:
A. the same viscosity
B. the same Vapors density
C. different molecular weights
D. same molecular weights
37. Bromoethane can be converted to alcohol by:
A. reaction with aqueous KOH
B. reaction with alcoholic KOH
C. oxidation
D. reduction
38. In catalytic cracking, the typical catalyst used is:
A. SiO2
B. Al2 O
C. SiO2 + Al2O3
D. Pt
39. On passing ethane into concentrated sulphuric acid, the intermediate compound
formed on hydrolysis with boiling water gives:
A. methyl alcohol
B. ethyl alcohol
C. ethyl hydrogen Sulphate
D. methyl hydrogen sulphate
40. 1-Chloropropane has two isomers. It is an example of:
A. Chain isomerism
B. Position isomerism
C. functional group isomerism
d. Metamerism
41. When a carbon atoms forms single bonds with other carbon atoms, these hybrid
overlap with the orbitals of hydrogen to form four bonds which are:
A. Three sigma and one Pi
B. Two sigma and two Pi
C. One Sigma and three Pi
D. Sigma
42. In which molecule carbon atom is sp2 hybridized:
A. CH4
B. C2 H4
C. C2H2
D. None of these
43. The isomers due to the unequal distribution of carbon atoms on either side of the
functional group belonging to the same homologous series are called?
A. Functional isomers
B. Position isomers
C. Chain isomers
D. Metamers
44. Coal heated in the absence of air of about 500-10000C is converted to?
A. Coke
B. Coal gas
C. Coal tar
D. All above
45. Organic compound resemble to those of inorganic compounds having same:
A. Ionic properties
B. Carbon forming long chain or +rings
C. Chemical forces
D. Isomerism
BIOLOGY:
46. Which of the following phase use almost 90% of the total time required for cell
cycle of human skin cell?
A. Metaphase
B. Prophase
C. Telophase
D. Interphase
47. Phragmoplast formation occurs during which of the following phase:
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase and prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
48. Which of the following is a prominent feature of prophase of meiosis?
A. Chiasmata formed
B. Chromosomes arrange at equatorial plane
C. Chromosomes moves towards opposite pole
D. Chromatids moves toward opposite pole
49. A diploid cell contains four chromosomes (2N=4) if this cell divides by meiosis
how many chromosomes present in daughter cells?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
50. Throughout which phase of mitotic cell cycle of a single cell or daughter cell in
DNA present in the least amount:
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Prophase
51. During which phase in cell division does replication of chromosomes takes place?
A. Interphase
B. G-1-phase
C. G-2-phase
D. S-phase
52. Crossing over is the exchange of chromosomal segments between:
A. Non sister chromatids
B. Sisters chromatids
C. Non-homologous chromosomes
D. Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
53. Starting of synapsis is the essential phenomenon in:
A. meiosis
B. crossing
C. mitosis
D. hybridization
54. System of interconnected protoplast in the root cells is present in which type of
pathways of transport in plants:
A. Apoplast pathway
B. Symplast pathway
C. Vacuolar pathway
D. None of these
55. Water move by osmosis into a cell, the process is called?
A. Exosmosis
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Endosmosis
D. Transportation
56. Loss of liquid water through water secreting glands is termed as:
A. transpiration
B. Guttation
C. Bleeding
D. Lenticles
57. The branch of biology which deal with study of chemical components and chemical
processes is called as:
A. Biochemistry
B. Biotechnology
C. Molecular biology
D. Microbiology
58. Which of these chemical constitute 70% of mammalian cell:
A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Inorganic ions
D. Water
59. Which one of the following is not a macromolecular?
A. Cellulose
B. Hemoglobin
C. RNA
D. Fructose
60. In ring structure of glucose, if the OH group on carbon atom 4 is above the plane of
the ring. Then the glucose is termed as:
A.α- glucose
B. β- glucose
C. α and βglucose
D. D- glucose
61. Which of the following lipids is involved in membrane structure;
A. Phospholipid
B. Glycolipid
C. Sterol
D. A and C both
62. The location of double bond in most of the monounsaturated fatty acids is;
A. C9
B. C7
C. In between C-9 and C-10
D. None of these
63. Artificial DNA is not present naturally are synthesized through;
A. Polymerization
B. PCR
C. Solid-phase chemical synthesis
D. Cannot be synthesize
64. The largest known individual molecules is;
A. Hemoglobin
B. Diamond
C. DNA
D. None of these
65. In proteins amino acid residues are joined together by;
A. Glycosidic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Phosphodiester linkage
D. Straight chain
66. Which of the amino acid has an ionizable side chain?
A. Alanine
B. Asparagine’s
C. lycine
D. Histidine
67. Which of the following shapes are related to the bacteria?
A. Spherical or oval road shape, spiral
B. Trichome sheathed stalked
C. Square, star-shaped, spindle, filamentous
D. All of them
68. What is the contrasting feature on the basis of which fungi are considered different
from individual:
A. Lack cellulose in their cell wall
B. Heterotrophs
C. Contains chitin
D. Non- motile
69. A Dutch scientist Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek use simple microscope to describe
bacteria and protozoa with accurate drawing and descriptions and called these small
creatures as:
A. Eubacteria
B. Archaeobacteria
C. Animalcules
D. Prokaryote
70. Robert Hook postulated the Germs theory of disease, which one of these statement
is not correct about this theory:
A. A specific organism, can always be found associated with a disease
B. The organisms cannot be isolated and grown in a pure culture in the laboratory
C. The pure culture will produce the disease when inoculated into susceptible
animal
D. It is possible to recover the organisms in pure culture from experimentally
infected animal
71. Protoctista are:
A. Fungi
B. true plants
C. both A & B
D. None of them
72. Which of the following does not belongs to kingdom Animalia:
A. Snake
B. Starfish
C. Hookworm
D. Rose
73. Animals that have true body cavity are termed as:
A. Pseudocoelomate
B. Acoelomate
C. Coelomate
D. Parazoa
74. We say that in grade radiate the animals of radial symmetry are present, what is the
meaning of radial symmetry?
A. The animals can be divided into equal parts by an imaginary line in one plane
B. Body parts are arranged around a central axis in such a way that any plane
passing through the central axis divide the animals in two halves that are almost-
mirror image of each other.
C. The line or planes of cleavage are not symmetrical between poles
D. The planes of cleavage are symmetrical to polar axis
75. Enumerates out the feature present in Proterostomes from the following statement:
A. Cleavage is radial and indeterminate
B. Mesoderm is derived from wall of developing gut
C. Coelom is formed due to splitting of mesoderm
D. Coelom is developed from
76. The animals in which such an Organization of body is found, in which there are two
body layers are called?
A. Triploblastic
B. Diploblastic
C. Pore forming animals
D. Sycon
77. Storage of bile is the function of:
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Gall Bladder
D. Bile duct
78. Parotid glands are located in front of:
A. Jaws
B. Tongue
C. Ear
D. Brains
79. In embryonic life Red Blood cell are produced in:
A. Liver
B. Red bone marrow
C. Spleen
D. Both A and C
80. Incomplete or imperfect digestion is called?
A. Dysentery
B. Piles
C. Dyspepsia
D. Food poisoning
81. The protection of internal environment from the harms of external environment is
termed as:
A. Osmoregulation
B. Thermoregulation
C. Excretion
D. Homeostasis
82. Ascending limb loop of Henley does not allow out flow of:
A. Water
B. Sodium
C. Both A and B
83. The depression on concave side of the kidney is:
A. Hilus
B. Pelvis
C. Cortex
D. Medulla
84. Haemodialysis means:
A. Cleaning of blood
B. Clotting of blood
C. Coagulation of blood
D. Both A and B
85. AIDS is caused by Retrovirus that kills:
A. B-lymphocyte
B. CD-4 positive, T-Lymphocyte
C. T-Lymphocytes
D. CD-8 positive T-lymphocytes
86. A serum containing antibodies is known as:
A. Interstitial
B. Plasma
C. Lymph
D. Antisera
87. In animals, third mechanism to defend body against foreign invaders is
A. Skin + Mucous membrane:
B. Immune system
C. Phagocytosis
D. All of these
88. How many disulphide bridges attach heavy chains together of antibodies?
A. Two
B. Three
C. four
D. Five
89. Which of the following chemical substance can act on nicotine receptor?
A. Histamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Both A and B
D. L-dopa
90. The organ present in cranium is:
A. Live
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Brain
91. Following is not concerned with Parkinson’s disease:
A. Mental faculties are affected
B. Caused by cell death in brain
C. Involuntary tremors
D. One set is usually in 50s and 60s
92. Which is true for epilepsy?
A. High levels of aluminum
B. Rapid and excessive electric discharges in the gray matter
C. Cell death of dopaminergic neurons
D. Genetic predisposition in some people
93. Concentration of Potassium inside the membrane surface is:
A. Ten folds higher than outside
B. Twenty folds higher than outside
C. Thirty folds higher than outside
D. None of these
94. Snaps is a microscopic gap between:
A. Consecutive neurons
B. Pre-synaptic neurons and post synaptic neurons
C. Axons and dendrites
D. All of these
95. The living cells of epidermis, cortex, and pith take in water by osmosis, thus an
internal hydrostatic pressure called as:
A. Tonoplast
B. Turgor pressure
C. Heart wood
D. Sap wood
96. The type of sclerenchyma cells that are long and cylindrical and they may exist as
solid bundles in xylem are called as:
A. Sclereides
B. Vessels
C. Fibers
D. Collenchyma
97. The process in which energy poor inorganic oxidized compounds of carbon and
hydrogen are reduced to energy rich carbohydrates (glucose) using light energy that
is converted into chemical energy by chlorophyll and other pigments is called?
A. Bioenergetics
B. Photosynthesis
C. Aerobic respiration
98. Carbon dioxide released by respiration just equals that quantity required by
photosynthesizing cells. At this Moment there is no net gas exchange between the
leaves and the atmosphere. This termed as:
A. Bacteriochlorophylls
B. Redox process
C. Photosystem
D. Compensation
99. A graph plotting absorption of light of different wave lengths by a pigment is
called?
A. Absorption spectrum
B. Spectrophotometer
C. Carotenoids
D. Xanthophylls
100. While studying the structure og chloroplast we encounter the membranes. These
A. Thylakoid
B. Thylakoid
C. Grana
D. Stroma
101. The cure Parkinson’s disease:
A. Patient could get regular dose of cell that produce cutting factor
B. Cell could be placed in abdominal cavity
C. Dopamine producing cells could be grafted directly into brain
D. L-dopa is grafted into brain
102. Which of the following can be used as vector for cloning gene of interest?
A. Plasmid DNA
B. Viral DNA
C. Bacterial chromosome DNA
D. Both A and B
103. Genes that caused bacterial to self-destruct when the job has been accomplished:
A. Insecticide genes
B. Suicide genes
C. Herbicide genes
D. Fungicide genes
104. In which process the multiple copies of the desired genes can be produced by:
A. Analyzing
B. PCR
C. PCR and genetic engineering
D. DNA finger printing
105. Study of relationship of animals to their environment is termed as:
A. Ecology
B. Eco
C. System
D. Biotic component
106. Which one of the following is a biotic component?
A. Atmosphere
B. Water
C. Fungi
D. Soil
107. Major types of ecosystems, those that occupy broad geographical regions are
called?
A. Climax
B. Biome
C. Planetary
D. Community
108. Thin layer of earth in which all living organism exist is known as:
A. Habitant
B. Niche
C. Biosphere
D. Ecological
109. The process that have transformed life on earth from its earliest forms to the vast
diversity that we observe today refers to.
A. Evolution
B. Theory of special creation
C. Natural selection
D. Hydrothermal
110. Which scientist sought and found order in the diversity of life and introduced
binomial nomenclature:
A. Lamarck
B. Linnaeus
C. Malthus
D. Cuvier
111. Which scientist sent his theory to Darwin:
A. Lyell
B. Linnaeus
C. Mendel
D. Wallace
112. During evolution from prokaryotes to eukaryotes which event causes the reducing
atmosphere to oxidizing atmosphere:
A. Oxygen liberated by photosynthesis
B. Ozone in upper atmosphere began to filter UV lights from sun
C. Protective ozone
D. Eukaryotic
113. AIDS stands for:
A. Acquired Infected Deficiency Syndrome
B. Acquired Immune Defective Syndrome
C. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
D. Actual Infected Defective Syndrome
114. Individuals with AIDS suffer in many ways which ways include:
A. Susceptible
B. Infections are caught by the individual
C. The nervous system breaks down
D. Pain in the spinal cord
C. Immunity increase
115. The cause of AIDS is:
A. A bacteria named as HIV
b. An RNA virus named HIV
C. A DNA virus named HIV
D. An RNA retrovirus named HIV
E. A DNA retrovirus named HIV
PHYSICS
116. SI unit heat is:
A. Volt
B. Henry
C. Joule/ Calorie
D. joule
117. Everything in the vastness of space is in a state of:
A. Rest
B. Rectilinear motion
C. Perpetual motion
D. Circular motion
118. If the a slop of the velocity-time graph increases at constant rate, with time,
then the body is said to have:
A. Uniform retardation
B. Uniform negative acceleration
C. Average acceleration
D. Uniform positive acceleration
119. The magnitude of displacement is:
A. Distance between two points
B. Distance in a curved path
C. Shortest distance between two points.
D. Uniform positive acceleration
120. If v is the velocity of flow of liquid through a tube of area of cross-section A, then
according to equation of continuity:
A. v/A = constant
B. A/v = constant
C. Av = constant
D. None
121. Substance which flows easily are:
A. Water
B. kerosene oil
C. Petrol
D. All of these
122. According to the electromagnetic theory, the speed of light is approximately:
A. 3 * 106 ms-1
B. 3 * 108 ms-1
C. 3 * 10-10 ms-1
D. 3.1 * 108 ms-1
123. The locus of all points in the same phase of vibration is called:
A. Wavelength
B. Waveform
C. Wave front
D. Wave number
124. According to Huygens, every point on a wave front may be regarded as a_____ of
secondary wavelets.
A. Base
B. Source
C. Producer
D. Origin
125. One condition for interference is that the two sources should be coherent and:
A. Close together
B. At a far off distance
C. Opposite to each other
D. Coinciding
126. For constructive interference the path difference is:
A. mλ
B. (m-1)λ
C. m2 λ
D. ½ mλ
127. The various features of wave phenomenon can be very conveniently studies by an
apparatus called?
A. Sonometer
B. Ripple tank
C. hydrometer
D. Barometer
128. Waves without transport of matter, transport:
A. Velocity
B. Energy
C. Sound
D. All of these
129. When two waves, having the same frequency and amplitude, traveling in the
opposite direction meet one another the resulting interference pattern gives rise to:
A. Transverse waves
B. Longitudinal waves
C. Stationary waves or standing waves
D. Electromagnetic
130. The wave is generated by an oscillation in the vibrating body and propagation of
wave through medium is by means of oscillation:
A. Electric and magnetic waves
B. Mechanical waves
C. Water waves
D. None of these
131. The ratio of applied stress to volumetric strain is called?
A. Shear modules
B. Young’s modules
C. Bulk modules
D. None of these
132. Polythene, polystyrene and nylon are examples of:
A. Polymeric
B. Crystalline solids
C. Glassy solids
D. Amorphous solids
133. During an adiabatic expansion, the increase in volume is associated with:
A. Decrease in pressure and decrease in temp
B. Increase in pressure and increase in temp
C. Increase in pressure and decrease temp
D. Decrease in pressure and increase in temp
134. What will be a mathematical form of first law of thermo-dynamic for a system
whose variation of volume with pressure is shown?
A. Q = U
B. u/w
C. U = W
D. Q = W
135. The temp at which the K.E of Gas molecular becomes double as compared to its
value at 27°C is:
A. 54°C
B. 327°C
C. 300 K
D. 600°C
136. At Ok which of the following properties of a gas will be zero?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Vibrational energy
D. Density
137. According to kinetic theory of gases molecules of a gas behave like:
A. Inelastic
B. Perfectly elastic
C. Perfectly elastic non-rigid spheres
D. Inelastic non-rigid spheres
138. On colliding in a closed container, the glass molecules:
A. Transfer momentum to the walls
B. Momentum becomes zero
C. Move in opposite direction
D. Perform Brownian motion
139. The width of potential barrier in p-n junction diode decrease in:
A. Forward bias
B. Reverse bias
C. Zero bias
D. None of these
140. Capacitor is used to get smooth output voltage in:
A. LC circuit
B. Full wave rectification
C. Amplification
D. None of these
141. A certain has a collector current of 10 mA and a base current of 40 A. What is the
current gain of the transistor?
A. 150
B. 250
C. 300
D. 315
142. If potential difference across the conductor is one volt and one ampere current is
flowing, then resistance of the conductor is:
A. One farad
B. One Ohm
C. One coulomb
D. One ampere
143. The reciprocal of the resistance of a conductor is called?
A. Specific resistance
B. Current
C. Conductance
D. Effective resistance
144. The drift velocity of free electron in a metallic conductor is:
A. 10-1 ms-1
B. 10-4 ms-1
C. 10-5 ms-1
D. 10-6 ms-1
145. The path alone which is isolated North Pole of a magnet moves in the magnetic
field is called?
A. Magnetic fields
B. Magnetic fields line
C. Electric field
D. Electric Lines of force
146. The SI unit magnetic induction is:
A. Tesla
B. Weber
C. Wb n-2
D. Both A & B
E. Both A & C
147. When the magnetic flux changes through a loop on a coil, an induced emf is
produced in it. This is called?
A. Ampere’ law
B. Faraday’s Law
C. Lenz’s law
D. Gauss’s Law
148. The magnetic force Fm acting on charge q when it moves with a velocity v
through a magnetic field B is given by:
A. Fm = q v * B
B. Fm = qv2 * B
C. Fm = q v3 * B
D. Fm = qE + q(Vx B)
149. How many times the radius of the atom is larger than the radius of the nucleus.
A. 103
B. 105
C. 107
D. 1010
150. A mass spectrograph is the device which is use to:
A. Separate isotopes
B. Find isotopes
C. Find the neutrons
D. A and B|
151. How many types of radiation are radiated from a radioactivity elements?
A. α
B. β
C. α, β
D. α,β,γ
152. Which of the following undergo fission reaction easily by slow moving neutrons?
A. U-235, P-239
B. P-239, Th-234
C. U-238, Rn-231
D. Th- 234, U-238
153. Using Quantum entanglement, we can realize which of the following:
A. Teleportation
B. Information transfer
C. Quantum computing
D. Anti-gravity
E. Warp drive
154. Which of the following theorize technologies manipulates space-time travel?
A. Warp Drive
B. Hyper-loop
C. Hyperspace
D. Jump drive
E. Anti-gravity drive
155. Field emission technology in an application of:
A. Fields
B. Quantum tunnelling
C. Electric Energy
D. Ionization
E. Fermi Energy
156. For increased accuracy, which of the following theories are incorporated in the
GPS (Global positioning System)?
A. General Relativity
B. Special Relativity
C. Quantum Theory
157. Half-life is:
A. the time taken by half of a given amount of an element to change into its
half amount
B. The time taken by a given amount of an element to change into its ions
C. The time taken by a given amount of an element to change into another
element
D. The time taken by half of a change into its ions
E None of these
English:
158. If the wagon would have been moved on time, we would not have received the
airplane ticket.
A. If the wagon were moved on time
B. if the wagon would had been moved on time
C. If the wagon had been moved on time
D. if the wagon could have been on time
159. Neither Khalid nor Ayesha have been in this room whole week.
A. Have been in this here room
B. Has been in this room
C. Could have been in this room
D. Had been in this room
160. The clock was just installed, therefore it is the part the most important for normal
functioning of the machine:
A. Installed therefore
B. installed. therefore
C. installed; therefore
D. installed, therefore
161. He spoke before I had complete my prayers, which annoyed me very much.
A. Prayer that annoyed me muchly
B. Prayer, which annoyed I much
C. Prayer, that annoyed me very much
D. Prayer. His impatience annoyed me very much
162. The reason the motor failed is because the electricity fluctuated.
A. The motor failed is due to
B. Why the motor failed is because
C. The motor failed is that
D. That the motor failed is because
163. No sooner had the window opened that the supervisor had ordered us to close it.
A. Then the supervisor ordered us to close it
B. When the supervisor orders us to close it
C. Then the supervisor ordered us to close it
D. When the supervisor ordered us to close it
164. To drive a vehicle, your patience must match your skill.
A. To drive a vehicle, your patience should match your skill
B. When you drive a vehicle your patience must match your skill
C. When driving a vehicle, your patience must your skill
D. To drive a vehicle; Your patience must match your skill
165. Coach admit that he is a keeper than any of the other players in this team.
A. Then any of the other players
B. Than any of the players
C. Then any of the players
D. Than any of the other players of is unnecessary.
166. Nouman is one of the participants who was to chosen to attend the seminar.
A. Which was chosen?
B. Who were chosen
C. whom were chosen
D. Who was to chosen
167. Because we saw the incident, the judge ordered us to testify at the hearing.
A. Because we had seen the incident, the
B. Because we, saw the incident the
C. Because we, see the incident, the
D. Because we saw the incident. the
168. The ancient Chinese practice to insert needles at specific points in the body
is_____.
A. Acupuncture
B. Aberration
C. Abnegate
D. Absolution
169. ____________ is the ability to make good and quick decisions:
A. Actuary
B. Acumen
C. Adamantine
D. Addled
170. The officer consoled the family, in order to _______ their fears.
A. Alacrity
B. Allay
C. Altruistic
D. Ambulatory
171. __________ is the pain experienced in the chest region.
A. Angina
B. Anomaly
C. Anomie
D. Antagonist
172. Abdul was too sloppy to walked on the pavement.
A. Was
B. Sloppy
C. Walked
D. Pavement
173. Ayesha founded it difficult, to manage her schedule.
A. Founded
B. Difficult
C. To
D. Schedule
174. He never quite managed to outdo himself.
A. Never
B. Quite
C. Managed
D. Did
175. He was positive of an excel response.
A. Positive
B. Of
C. Excel
D. Response
176. Even through sunlight was too light, he was committed on going out.
A. Even through
B. Sunlight
C. Light
D. On
177. Ali may have gone too distance, but we can always call him.
A. May
B. Have
C. But
D. Distance

NUMS Past Paper (1) Total 180 Questions Chemistry Biology Physics

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Total Marks: 180 NUMS Past Paper (1) Total Question: 180

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