Avionics Questions and Answers – Satellite Subsystems

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite Subsystems”.

1. Which of the following is not a satellite subsystem?

a) Ground station

b) Power system

c) Telemetry tracking

d) Communication subsystem

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The communication subsystem is the most important part of the satellite. It requires varies
additional systems like the power system, propulsion system, telemetry system for its proper functioning.
The ground system however is not one of the satellite subsystem and is independent of the satellite. It is
just a transponder to monitor and command the satellite.

2. Which of the following is not a part of the propulsion subsystem of a satellite?

a) Gyroscope

b) Jet thruster

c) AKM

d) Fuel control system

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The propulsion subsystem consists of the AKM(Apogee kick motor), jet thruster and the
fuel control system. Gyroscopes and other attitude systems fall under the attitude control subsystem.

3. Which of the following are common baseband signals transmitted from the earth ground station?

a) Navigational data, computer data, video

b) Computer data, navigational data, voice

c) Voice, video, computer data

d) Computer data

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: An earth station takes the signals to be transmitted, known as baseband signals, and
modulates a microwave carrier. The three most common baseband signals are voice, video, and computer
data.

4. Which of the following components receives, translates the signal frequency and re-transmits the signal
in a satellite?

a) Repeater

b) Relay

c) Transponder

d) Transducer

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The uplink signals from earth are amplified, translated in frequency, and re-transmitted on
the downlink to one or more earth stations. The component that performs this function is known as a
transponder.

5. Why is there a huge spectrum space between the transmitted and received signal in satellite
communication?

a) Reduce interference

b) Maximum efficiency

c) Less attenuation

d) To reduce space occupied by filters

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Because of the close proximity of the transmitter and the receiver in the satellite, the high
transmitter output power for the downlink is picked up by that satellite receiver. Naturally, the uplink
signal is totally obliterated. Furthermore, the transmitter output fed back into the receiver input causes
oscillation. To avoid this problem, the receiver and transmitter in the satellite transponder are designed to
operate at separate frequencies. In this way, they will not interfere with each other.
6. Which of the following transponders convert the uplink signal to downlink signal using two mixers

a) Single conversion transponders

b) Dual conversion transponders

c) Regenerative transponders

d) Dual mixer transponder

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A dual-conversion transponder makes the frequency translation in two steps with two
mixers. No demodulation occurs.

7. In a regenerative transponder, the signal is demodulated and modulated again before transmission.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A regenerative repeater demodulates the uplink signal after the frequency is translated to
some lower intermediate frequency. The recovered baseband signal is then used to modulate the downlink
signal.

8. What is the number of transponders if the satellite uses 12 channels of frequency and frequency reuse is
implemented?

a) 12

b) 6

c) 24

d) 3

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Since in frequency reuse each channel can be used twice the numbers of transponders are
also doubled. 12 x 2 = 24 transponders, two for each frequency.
9. Why is it not possible to provide transmit function by wideband amplifier and mixer circuits?

a) Heavy attenuation

b) High power output over wideband is not possible

c) Economically not profitable

d) Weight of the system increases five fold

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: it is generally not possible to generate very high output power over such wide bandwidth.
The fact is that no components and circuits can do this well. The high-power amplifiers in most
transponders are traveling-wave tubes that inherently have limited bandwidth. They operate well over a
small range but cannot deal with the entire 500-MHz bandwidth allocated to a satellite.

10. Which of the following is not true?

a) Battery is only used as a back up

b) When in orbit, solar power is always available

c) Battery is used for initial satellite orientation and stabilization

d) The batteries are charged using solar power

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: When a satellite goes into an eclipse or when the solar panels are not properly positioned,
there is a temporary cut in solar power supply. In situations like this the batteries take over temporarily
and keep the satellite operating. The batteries are not large enough to power the satellite for a long time;
they are used as a backup system for eclipses, initial satellite orientation and stabilization, or emergency
conditions.

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11. Telemetry, command, and control (TC&C) subsystem allow a ground station to monitor and control
conditions in the satellite.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The telemetry system is used to report the status of the onboard subsystems to the ground
station. The telemetry system typically consists of various electronic sensors whose data are selected by a
multiplexer and then converted to a digital signal, which then modulates an internal transmitter. This
transmitter sends the telemetry information back to the earth station, where it is recorded and monitored.

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Ground Stations”.

1. What is the use of the band pass filter in the receiver section?
a) Protects the receiver
b) Increases antenna gain
c) Reduces noise
d) To reduce it to an intermediate frequency
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The diplexer feeds a bandpass filter (BPF) in the receiver section that ensures that only the
received frequencies pass through to the sensitive receiving circuits. This bandpass filter blocks the high-
power transmit a signal that can occur simultaneously with reception. This prevents overload and damage
to the receiver.

2. The satellite in the earth station must be steerable even for a geosynchronous satellite.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It must be possible to adjust its azimuth and elevation so that the antenna can be properly
aligned with the satellite. Earth stations supporting geosynchronous satellites can generally be fixed in
position, however, azimuth and elevation adjustments are necessary to initially pinpoint the satellite and
to permit minor adjustments over the satellite’s life.

3. In Rf tuning, what is the first local oscillator?

a) Quartz oscillator
b) Frequency synthesizer
c) Magnetic oscillator
d) Electric oscillators
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In RF tuning, the first local oscillator is made adjustable. Generally, a frequency synthesizer
is used in this application. The frequency synthesizer generates a highly stable signal at selected
frequency increments.

4. If the earth station downlink signal received is at fs = 4.08 GHz, what first stage local-oscillator
frequency fLO is needed to achieve IF of 770 MHz?
a) 3310 MHz
b) 4080 MHz
c) 1203 MHz
d) 3250 MHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: fIF = fs – fLO
fLO = fs – fIF = 4080 – 770 = 3310 MHz.

5. Which of the following amplifiers is used in the transmitter substation?

a) RF amplifiers
b) Buffer amplifiers
c) Klystron amplifier
d) Operational amplifiers
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The signals to be sent to the satellite might be TV programs, multiple telephone calls, or
digital data from a computer. These signals are used to modulate the carrier, which is then amplified by a
large traveling-wave tube or klystron amplifier.

6. Which part of the transmitter subsystem modulates the baseband signal?

a) Antenna
b) Up converter
c) Power amplifiers
d) Mixer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The transmit subsystem consists of two basic parts, the up converters and the power
amplifiers. The up converters translate the baseband signals modulated on to carriers up to the final uplink
microwave frequencies.

7. In digital systems, analog signals are first digitized with PCM converters before modulation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In digital systems, analog signals are first digitized with PCM converters. The resulting
serial digital output is then used to modulate a QPSK modulator.
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8. In RF tuning, _________ provides the final up conversion to the microwave frequency?

a) Fixed-frequency local oscillator
b) RF frequency synthesizer
c) Quartz oscillator
d) Magnetic oscillator
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In RF tuning, a mixer fed by a fixed-frequency local oscillator performs an initial up
conversion to 700 MHz. Then a sophisticated RF frequency synthesizer applied to a second mixer
provides up conversion to the final microwave frequency.
9. When individual up converters are used to modulate a channel, what is used to combine them into final
signal?
a) Microwave combiner
b) Multiplexer
c) Mixer
d) Amplifier
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Individual up converters are used on each modulated channel. At the output of the up
converters, all the signals are combined in a microwave combiner, which produces a single output signal
that is fed to the final amplifiers.

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite Applications”.

1. What is the primary use of communication satellites?

a) Telephone service
b) Surveillance
c) Research
d) GPS
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The primary use of communication satellites is in long-distance telephone service. Satellites
greatly simplify long-distance calls not only within countries but also worldwide.

2. Which of the following is not a reason for redistributing TV signals through satellites rather than
skywaves or spacewaves?
a) High frequency signal
b) Long distance communication
c) Economically feasible
d) Power requirements
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: TV signals are being transmitted through satellites for redistribution. Because of the very
high-frequency signals involved in TV transmission, other long-distance transmission methods are not
technically or economically feasible.

3. What type of satellite TV service uses compressed data transmission to beam signals directly to every
home?
a) Direct broadcast satellite
b) Mobile satellite service
c) Broadcasting satellite service
d) Fixed satellite service
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The direct broadcast satellite (DBS) system is an all-digital system. Data compression
techniques are used to reduce the data rate in order to produce high-quality picture and sound. They uses
special broad coverage satellites with high power to transmit cable-TV-like services direct to homes
equipped with the special DBS receivers.

4. Which frequency band does the direct broadcast satellite system use?
a) C band
b) X band
c) Ku band
d) MF band
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The DBS satellite uses the Ku band with a frequency range of 11 to 14 GHz. Uplink signals
are usually in the 14- to 14.5-GHz range, and the downlink usually covers the range of 10.95 to 12.75
GHz.

5. What technique does DSP use to double the number of channels by using helical antennas?
a) Spatial isolation
b) Frequency reuse
c) Multiplexing
d) Modulation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The digital signal is transmitted from the satellite to the receivers using circular polarization.
The DBS satellites have right-hand and left-hand circularly polarized (RHCP and LHCP) helical
antennas. By transmitting both polarities of signal, frequency reuse can be incorporated to double the
channel capacity.

6. What is the number of satellites present in the Iridium system?

a) 72
b) 51
c) 66
d) 32
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The satellite systems use low-earth-orbit satellites to perform the relay services to the main
telephone system or to make a connection directly between any two cellular telephones using the system.
One of the oldest and most widely used is the Iridium system. It uses a constellation of 66 satellites in six
polar orbits with 11 satellites per orbit 420 mi above the earth.

7. Which frequency band is used for connecting the satellite system with the public switched telephone
network?
a) L band
b) Ku band
c) C band
d) Ka band
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The satellites communicate with ground stations called gateways that connect the system to
the public switched telephone network. The satellites also communicate among themselves. Both gateway
and intersatellite communication takes place over Ka band frequencies.
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8. What provides the sufficient drive to the final power amplifier?

a) Intermediate-power amplifier
b) Operational amplifier
c) Power driver circuit
d) Up converter
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The power amplifier usually begins with an initial stage called the intermediate-power
amplifier (IPA). This provides sufficient drive to the final high-power amplifier (HPA).

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Guidance and
Navigation”.

1. What is the number of components of the vector that describes the translational motion of the vehicle?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The three components of position and the three components of velocity make up a six
component state vector that fully describes the translational motion of the vehicle.

2. What is the process called when the state vector is calculated on board the vehicle?
a) Navigation
b) Guidance
c) Surveillance
d) Position location
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When the state vector is measured and calculated on board, the process is called navigation.
When it is calculated outside the vehicle, the process is called surveillance or position location.

3. Which type of navigation measure the state vector without regard to the path travelled by the vehicle in
the past?
a) Dead reckoning
b) Positioning
c) Direct reckoning
d) AHRS
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Navigation systems can be categorized as positioning or dead reckoning. Positioning
systems measure the state vector without regard to the path travelled by the vehicle in the past.

4. Which one of the following does not fall under the positioning system?
a) Radio systems
b) Celestial systems
c) AHRS
d) Mapping navigation systems
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are three types of positioning systems radio systems, celestial systems and mapping
navigation systems. AHRS or Attitude Heading Reference System use accelerometer and gyroscope and
hence fall under the dead reckoning navigation system.

5. Dead reckoning systems must be re-initialized as errors accumulate.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dead reckoning systems use gyroscope and accelerometer whose readings suffer from drift
error as time progresses. Thus it is necessary to reinitialize after a particular time interval as errors
accumulate and if the electrical power is lost.

6. Which of the following navigational systems is most stealthy?

a) Secondary surveillance radar
b) VOR
c) Celestial navigation
d) SONAR
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In celestial navigation, the position is computed by measuring the elevation and azimuth of
celestial bodies relative to the navigational coordinate frame at precisely known times. Since it is a
completely passive system, it is considered to be stealthy and is used in special purpose high altitude
aircraft in conjunction with an inertial navigator.

7. How is the velocity of an aircraft measured by passive radio systems?

a) Doppler shift
b) Velocity data is transmitted by the aircraft and received by the station
c) Secondary surveillance method
d) Satellite mapping
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The aircraft’s velocity is measured from the Doppler shift of the transmission or from a
sequence of position measurements. Since the aircraft is continuously moving, each interrogation pulse
when it is received will have different phase shift which corresponds to the aircraft’s velocity.
his set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Phases of Flight”.

1. What is the speed at which the takeoff is aborted when there is an engine failure?
a) Decision speed
b) Stall speed
c) Rotational speed
d) Takeoff speed
View Answer

2. The distance the aircraft has to cover in the ground to achieve takeoff speed is called?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The distance the airplane has to cover in the ground before it can lift off is called the ground
roll and it varies from aircraft to aircraft. Generally, bigger aircraft have a larger ground roll distance.
This is the reason why huge aircraft need longer runways.

3. The distance the aircraft climbs to clear an obstacle of particular height during takeoff is called as?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The extra distance the aircraft covers airborne but before it covers an obstacle of particular
height is called airborne distance. Airborne distance is also added with the ground roll to give the total
takeoff distance.

4. What is the takeoff clearance height for a military aircraft?

a) 50ft
b) 35ft
c) 20ft
d) 100ft
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The height that the aircraft must cover during the airborne distance is different for different
aircraft depending upon their usage. The height of the obstacle is generally specified to be 50ft for
military aircraft and 35ft for commercial aircraft.

5. The velocity at which yawing motion can be produced by rudder deflection while the aircraft is on the
ground is called _______
a) Ground roll speed
b) Ground control speed
c) Minimum control speed on the ground
d) Control speed
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Minimum control speed on the ground is the minimum speed at which enough aerodynamic
force can be generated in the vertical fin by rudder deflection while the aircraft is still rolling on the
ground to produce a yawing moment on the aircraft.

6. Departure and approach are subphases of what?

a) Landing phase
b) Takeoff phase
c) Terminal phase
d) Surface phase
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The terminal phase consists of the departure and the approach phase. Departure starts when
the aircraft is in the ground and ends when it is out of the terminal area. The approach starts when the
aircraft enters the terminal control area and ends when the aircraft intercepts the landing aids at approach
fix.

7. The height at which approach is aborted when the runway is not in sight is called as?
a) Decision height
b) Approach altitude
c) Clearance altitude
d) Landing altitude
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Decision altitude is the altitude above the runway at which the approach must be aborted if
the runway is not sight. Decision height published for each runway at each airport.

8. A non-precision approach has electronic guidance in only in the horizontal direction.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A non-precision approach has electronic guidance in only in the horizontal direction. An
aircraft executing a non-precision approach must abort if the runway is not visible at minimum descent
altitude, which is typically 700ft above the runway.

9. What instrument is used to measure the aircraft’s altitude during the approach phase?
a) Pressure altimeter
b) Radio altimeter
c) Sound altimeter
d) Infrared altimeter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A radio altimeter can accurately measure the altitude of an aircraft and works on the radar
principle. Typically, radio altimeters provide accurate altitude measurements till 5000ft and are used only
during takeoff and landing.

10. Which of the following conditions does not lead to missed approaches?
a) Poor visibility
b) Excess fuel
c) Alignment with runway
d) Traffic
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A missed approach is initiated at the pilot’s option or at the traffic controller’s request,
typically because of poor visibility, poor alignment with a runway, equipment failure, or conflicting
traffic. A fuel dump is initiated when there is excess fuel in the aircraft.

1. The navigation equations are used by the on-board computer to calculate position velocity and altitude.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The navigation equations how the sensor outputs are processed in the on-board computer in
order ti calculate the position, velocity and attitude of the aircraft. The navigation equations contain
instructions and data and are part of the airborne software that also includes moding, display drivers,
failure detection and an operating system.

2. Which one of the following is not an input utilized by the aircraft navigation system?
a) Sonar
b) Radio aids
c) Dead reckoning data
d) Celestial measurements
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The navigation system utilizes three types of sensor information: position data from radio
aids, radar and satellites; Dead reckoning data from inertial sensors; Line of sight direction to stars or
celestial measurements.

3. What is the angle between the normal to the reference ellipsoid and the equatorial plane at a point
called?
a) Geodetic angle
b) Correction factor
c) Geodetic latitude
d) Earth angle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Geodetic latitude of a point is the angle between the normal to the reference ellipsoid and
the equatorial plane. Geodetic latitude is our usual understanding of map latitude.

4. Which of the following is false with respect to Earth centered inertial coordinate system?
a) Accuracy is 10-5/hr
b) Newton’s laws are not valid
c) Angular coordinates of stars are conventionally tabulated in ECI
d) Used in mechanizing inertial navigators
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Earth centered coordinate system has three navigational functions. First, Newton’s laws
are valid in any ECI coordinate frame, Second, the angular coordinates of stars are conventionally
tabulated in ECI. Third, they are used in mechanizing inertial navigators.

5. Which coordinate system is used in satellite based radio navigation?

a) Earth centered, Earth fixed
b) Earth centered inertial
c) Geodetic spherical coordinates
d) Geodetic wander azimuth
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Satellite based radio navigation system uses ECEF coordinated to calculate satellite and
aircraft position. The origin is at the mass center of the earth and its axis lies along the earth’s spin axis.

6. Geocentric spherical coordinates are used for short range dead reckoning navigation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Geocentric coordinates are sometimes mechanized in short range dead reckoning systems
using spherical earth approximation. These are the spherical coordinates of the radius vector R.

7. What is the technique of calculating position from measurements of velocity called?

a) Dead reckoning
b) Doppler radar
c) Secondary surveillance
d) Celestial navigation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dead reckoning is the technique of calculating position from the measurements of velocity.
It is the means of navigation in the absence of position fixes and consists in calculating the position by
extrapolating measured ground speed.

8. The angle of arrival, relative to the airframe, of a radio signal from an external transmitter is called
_________
a) Bearing
b) Heading
c) Phase
d) Approach angle
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of arrival, relative to the airframe, of a radio signal from an external transmitter is
called bearing. Bearing is measured by the difference in phase or time of arrival at multiple antennas on
the airframe.

9. ________ related ranging errors to the dispersion in measured position?

a) GEOP
b) GDCP
c) GDOP
d) APEG
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: GDOP or Geometric Dilution of Precision relates ranging errors to the dispersion in
measured position. If three range measurements are made in the orthogonal direction, the standard
deviation in the aircraft’s position error is the same as those of the three range sensors.

10. What is TDOP?

a) Time Dilution of pseudorange
b) Time Dilution of position
c) Time Dilution of pressure
d) Time Distortion of position
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: TDOP is the Time Dilution of position. It is the contribution of clock error to the error in
pseudorange.

This set of Avionics Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Radio Propagation and Noise
Characteristics”.

1. Received radio energy is a function of the area of the receiving antenna.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The received radio energy is a function of the area of the receiving antenna. If the
transmission is omnidirectional, the received energy is proportional to the area of the receiving antenna
divided by the area of the sphere of radius equal to the distance from the transmitter.

2. The ratio of terminating impedance to the power density of the incident wave is called as?
a) Maximum effective aperture
b) Maximum allowable power
c) Directivity
d) Gain
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum effective aperture is defined as the ratio of terminating impedance to the power
density of the incident wave. It is also called the effective area of an antenna and is given by Dλ/4π.

3. The factor by which a receiver fails to reach the theoretical internal noise limit is known as ________
a) Noise factor
b) Noise
c) Coefficient of noise
d) Noise figure
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The factor by which a receiver fails to reach the theoretical internal noise limit is often
expressed as a ratio, in decibels, and is known as the noise figure. It can also be described as the ratio
between the noise power output of a practical receiver and the noise power output of an ideal receiver.

4. What is the maximum limit on the frequency that can be used for ground wave communication?
a) 6MHz
b) 2MHz
c) 5MHz
d) 3MHz
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Up to 3MHz, an appreciable amount of energy follows the curvature of the earth and are
called as the ground wave. Above 3MHz, the radio waves do not follow the curvature of the earth and are
used for a line of sight communication.

5. What type of polarization is used for ground waves?

a) Vertical polarization
b) Right circular polarization
c) Horizontal polarization
d) Left circular polarization
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: At lower frequencies, along the surface of the earth, vertical polarization is universally used.
This way minimum signal is radiated into the ground.

6. Why can we not use sky waves for navigation?

a) Low power
b) More noise
c) Unpredictable path
d) Not economical
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The sky waves makes some types of long range communication possible, but is of less value
to navigation system because it’s transmission path is unpredictable. A rough location where the sky
waves might get reflected can be determined by Snell’s law.

7. Ground waves are not adversely affected by which of the following factors?
a) Conductivity of earth
b) Dielectric of earth
c) Lightning strikes
d) Day/night changes
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Propagation of ground waves depends on several additional factors. Some of which are
conductivity and dielectric constant of earth. Weather changes like thunderstorms and lightning strikes
also create extra atmospheric noise and degrade signal.

8. The propagation velocity is not constant in ground waves.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A characteristic of ground waves is that their propagation velocity is not entirely constant.
While the variation is quite small, it is sufficient to limit the ability to obtain fixes at extreme ranges as
good as the instrumentation might otherwise permit.

9. The effect of signal simultaneously taking different paths to reach the receiver is called as _______
a) Multipath effects
b) Differential path effects
c) Propagation noise
d) Atmospheric distortion
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Serious distortion of signal modulation may occur due to different paths simultaneously
travelled by the signal between transmitter and receiver. These are called multipath effects.

10. ______ is the error in determining position relative to an earth referenced coordinate system?
a) Absolute error
b) Repeatable error
c) Relative error
d) Differential error
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The absolute or predictable error is the error in determining position relative to an earth
referenced coordinate system. The earth frame is one such coordinate system that has its origin at the
Earth’s center of mass and its axes fixed on Earth.
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11. The method in which the user’s receiver and the reference station are assumed not to be synchronized
in time is called as _______
a) Redundancy method
b) Pseudoranging
c) Integrity method
d) Differential method
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In this method, the user’s receiver and the reference station are assumed not to be
synchronized in time. By measuring several such pseudoranges, the user’s three dimensional position and
its time offset can be determined.

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Point Source Radio
Systems”.

1. Which type of direction finders takes bearings on airborne transmitters and advice the aircraft of its
bearing from the ground station?
a) Ground based
b) Airborne direction finders
c) Homing adapters
d) Homing beacon
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ground based direction finders take bearings on airborne transmitters and advice the aircraft
of its bearing from the ground station. Such stations can afford the necessary complex equipment, but the
operation is cumbersome and time consuming, and requires airborne transmitter and communication link.

2. Which of the following is not true with respect to airborne direction finder?
a) They are also called homing adapters
b) Uses the simplest of systems
c) Very low error
d) Take bearings on the ground transmitter
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Airborne direction finder or homing adapters take bearing from ground transmitters. These
direction finders typically can afford only the simplest of systems and must, therefore, tolerate large
errors.

3. Which of the following type of direction finder has a system that rotates the loop, using a servo system
until a null is found?
a) Fixed loop
b) Rotatable loop
c) Rotating loop
d) Fixed, crossed loop
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rotating loop is driven by a motor and forming part of a servo system that rotates the
loop until a null is found and then stops. They are sometimes referred to as the radio compass and are
housed inside plastic structures that do not reflect radio waves.

4. Which of the following is not true with respect to loop antennas?

a) Horizontal polarization is assumed
b) Resonance is achieved by a variable capacitor
c) The horizontal antenna pattern is a figure of eight
d) The currents are equal in amplitude and phase when the antenna is 90° with the transmitted signal
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The loop antenna is a rectangular loop of wire whose inductance is resonated by a variable
capacitor. The signal is assumed to be vertically polarized and the horizontal antenna pattern is a figure of
eight. When the loop is 90° with respect to the transmitted signal the currents induced are of same
amplitude and phase.

5. What can be added to reduce signal ambiguity in a loop antenna?

a) Low noise amplifier
b) Amplifiers
c) Sense antenna
d) Increase the antenna size
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The horizontal pattern of the loop antenna is a figure of eight which has two null positions
180° apart. This ambiguity will cause the system to give the same indication whether it is pointing toward
a station or away from it. A sense antenna can be added when the signal ambiguity must be resolved.

6. What is used to combine the output of the two fixed loop antenna that are placed at right angles to each
other?
a) Oscilloscope
b) Spectrum analyzer
c) Mixer
d) Goniometer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The goniometer has two sets of fixed windings at right angles to each other, each set
connected to one loop. It combines the output from the loop antenna into miniature a magnetic field in
which a rotor can operate.

7. The area of reduced signal strength in a non directional beacon is called as ______
a) Cone of silence
b) Zero reception zone
c) Zone of silence
d) Non radio zone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The NDB works on an omnidirectional antenna which has the radio pattern of a donut. The
zone on the middle which is directly above the antenna is called as the cone of silence. In this region, no
signal is transmitted.

8. Which of the following is not an advantage of NDB?

a) Inexpensive
b) Omnidirectional
c) Accuracy depends on airborne equipment
d) No mountain and night effect
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: NDB uses ground waves which follow the curvature of earth. They are inexpensive and
independent of accuracy issues but suffer from night effect and mountain effect. Mountain effect is the
distortion of ground wave in terrain of nonuniform character.

9. What frequency does the marker beacon use for fixes along the airways?
a) 50MHz
b) 25MHz
c) 500MHz
d) 75MHz
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Marker beacons were developed for better fixes along the airways in addition to directional
information. They operate at 75MHz and radiate a narrow pattern upward from the ground.

10. Which of the following can be used to reinforce the upward beam in a marker beacon?
a) Reflector
b) Amplifier
c) Counterpoise
d) Vertical polarization
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The marker beacons use an array of half wave radiators that are aligned in line with the
airway. A wire mesh counterpoise below this array can be used to reinforce the upward beam by
increasing the signal strength in a particular direction.

11. What is the frequency of rotation of the directional beam in a VOR?

a) 20rps
b) 15rps
c) 30rps
d) 50rps
View Answer

Answer:c
Explanation: The VOR sends out two signals. One is a highly directional signal that rotates at a frequency
of 30 rps and an omnidirectional signal. The omnidirectional signal is pulsed every time the directional
signal coincides with north.

12. Which of the following generates the same field pattern as a vertical dipole antenna?
a) Yagi antenna
b) Helix antenna
c) Alford loop
d) Microstrip antenna
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Each radiator in the ground station transmitter is an Alford loop. The Alford loop generates
a horizontal polarized signal having the same field pattern as a vertical dipole.
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13. What is the time gap between each pulse in an interrogation pulse pair for a DME?
a) 12μsec
b) 5μsec
c) 15μsec
d) 10μsec
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The interrogation pulses are in pairs. Each pulse is placed 12μsec apart with each pulse
lasting 3.5μsec. The pulse pair repetition rate ranges between 5 pulse pairs per sec to a maximum of 150
pulse pairs per sec.

14. Why are pulse pairs used in DME instead of single pulses?
a) Reduce interference
b) Better range
c) Reduced noise
d) Redundancy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pulse systems can easily interfere with each other even if they are of different frequencies.
Paired pulses are used in DME to reduce interference with other pulsed systems.

15. What is the frequency in which the DME transmits?

a) 50Mhz above or below the received frequency
b) 20Mhz above the received frequency
c) 40Mhz below the received frequency
d) 63Mhz above or below the received frequency
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Ground beacon in the DME receives the airborne pulses, and after a 50μs delay,
retransmits them back to the aircraft on a frequency 63Mhz above or below the airborne transmitting
frequency. Here the frequency received by the DME is the Airborne transmitting frequency.
Avionics Questions and Answers – Gyroscopes – 1

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Gyroscopes – 1”.

1. What is the purpose of a gyro in an inertial navigation system?

a) Space-stabilize the accelerometer
b) Angle of rotation
c) Measure rotation rate
d) Calculate velocity
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of gyroscope or gyro in an inertial navigation system is to space stabilize the
accelerometers. In gimballed platforms, the gyros measure the rotation of the platform, which is angularly
isolated from the vehicle’s motion.

2. What is the range of an order of angular rate magnitude that gyros used in military planes need?
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 7.1
d) 3
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A gyroscope on a military aircraft must sense angular rates as low as 0.005 deg/hr and as
high as 400deg/sec, a range of 8.5 orders of magnitude. Strapdown gyros in civil aircraft need only sense
an 8 order of magnitude range of angular rates.

3. Why are unfloated instruments with ball bearings not suitable for air navigation?
a) Weight restrictions
b) High drift rate
c) Low drift rate
d) Power restrictions
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Gyroscopes are used as heading references. The spinning wheel, large angle, unfloated
instruments with ball bearings that have drift rates on the order of 50deg/hr . and hence are useless for
navigation.

4. Which of the following is false with respect to SDF floated gyros?

a) Wheel is floated at neutral buoyancy
b) Used in launch vehicles
c) Three gimbals are used
d) Magnetic pickoff used to sense rotation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In SDF floated gyros or single degree of freedom floated gyros, a spinning wheels were
mounted inside a single gimbal that was floated at neutral buoyancy. A magnetic pickoff was used to
sense rotation and they were primarily used in space launch vehicles.

5. Which of the following spinning wheel gyro has an accuracy of 0.001 deg/hr?
a) Floated TDF gyro
b) Electrostatically suspended TDF gyro
c) Floated SDF gyro
d) Unfloated ball bearing gyro
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In electrostatically suspended TDF gyro, the spinning wheel is suspended electrostatically
hence reducing friction and achieving 0.001 deg/hr accuracy but at costs orders of magnitude higher than
the floated TDF gyros.

6. The input, output and spin axes of a gyro are always perpendicular to each other.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The input, output and spin axes of a gyro are always perpendicular to each other regardless
of the motion of the gyro or the platform in which it is fixed. If a gyro is used for heading reference, then
the gyro’s spin axes are mounted perpendicular horizontally to the platform.

7. Which of the following is false with respect to spinning rotor gyros?

a) Mechanically complex
b) High probability of failure
c) Low run up time
d) High power consumption
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The major disadvantage of spinning wheel or spinning rotor gyros is that they are
mechanically complex and have a high probability of failure due to the moving components. They also
require high powers and have high run up time. Run up time is the time taken for the gyro to start
spinning at the required RPM after engine start.

8. What is the basic principle under which MEMS gyro work?

a) Sagnag effect
b) Coriolis effect
c) Angular momentum conservation
d) Mass conservation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: MEMS Micro Electro Mechanical System gyro exploit the effects of Coriolis force. Coriolis
force is experienced when a vibrating mass is subjected to a rate of rotation about an axis in the plane of
vibration.
9. Which part of the insects acts as gyros?
a) Wings
b) Halteres
c) Thorax
d) Legs
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Every flying object needs to maintain its orientation and insects that fly use halteres.
Halteres work in the same principle as MEMS gyro, the vibrate and use Coriolis force to know their
orientation.

10. Which of the following is false with respect to MEMS gyro?

a) Low failure rate
b) Low cost
c) High maintenance
d) Less power consumption
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Micro machined vibrating mass rate gyros exploit semiconductor manufacturing technology
for mass production. They are extremely reliable and rugged devices with low power consumption and
offer the major advantage of relatively low cost. They also do not require the very high maintenance that
spinning rotor gyros require.

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11. Gyros are used as feedback sensors in FBW.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In an FBW aircraft, the rate gyros and accelerometers provide the aircraft motion feedback
which enables a manoeuvre command control to be achieved and an aerodynamically unstable aircraft to
be stabilized by the flight control system

Optical Communications Questions and Answers – Optical Fibers

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Optical
Fibers”.

1. Multimode step index fiber has

a) Large core diameter & large numerical aperture

b) Large core diameter and small numerical aperture

c) Small core diameter and large numerical aperture

d) Small core diameter & small numerical aperture

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Multimode step-index fiber has large core diameter and large numerical aperture. These
parameters provides efficient coupling to inherent light sources such as LED’s.

2. A typically structured glass multimode step index fiber shows as variation of attenuation in range of

a) 1.2 to 90 dB km-1at wavelength 0.69μm

b) 3.2 to 30 dB km-1at wavelength 0.59μm

c) 2.6 to 50 dB km-1at wavelength 0.85μm

d) 1.6 to 60 dB km-1at wavelength 0.90μm

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: A multimode step index fibers show an attenuation variation in range of 2.6 to 50dBkm-1.
The wide variation in attenuation is due to the large differences both within and between the two overall
preparation methods i.e. melting and deposition.

3. A multimode step index fiber has a large core diameter of range

a) 100 to 300 μm

b) 100 to 300 nm

c) 200 to 500 μm

d) 200 to 500 nm

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A multimode step index fiber has a core diameter range of 100 to 300μm. This is to facilitate
efficient coupling to inherent light sources.

4. Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of

a) 2 to 30 MHz km

b) 6 to 50 MHz km

c) 10 to 40 MHz km

d) 8 to 40 MHz km

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Multimode step index fibers have a bandwidth of 6 to 50 MHz km. These fibers with this
bandwidth are best suited for short -haul, limited bandwidth and relatively low-cost application.

5. Multimode graded index fibers are manufactured from materials with

a) Lower purity

b) Higher purity than multimode step index fibers.

c) No impurity

d) Impurity as same as multimode step index fibers.

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have higher purity than multimode step index fiber. To
reduce fiber losses, these fibers have more impurity.

6. The performance characteristics of multimode graded index fibers are

a) Better than multimode step index fibers.

b) Same as multimode step index fibers.

c) Lesser than multimode step index fibers

d) Negligible

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers use a constant grading factor. Performance characteristics of
multimode graded index fibers are better than those of multimode step index fibers due to index graded
and lower attenuation.
7. Multimode graded index fibers have overall buffer jackets same as multimode step index fibers but
have core diameters

a) Larger than multimode step index fibers.

b) Smaller than multimode step index fibers.

c) Same as that of multimode step index fibers.

d) Smaller than single mode step index fibers.

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers have smaller core diameter than multimode step index fibers.
A small core diameter helps the fiber gain greater rigidity to resist bending.

8. Multimode graded index fibers with wavelength of 0.85μm have numerical aperture of 0.29 have
core/cladding diameter of

a) 62.5 μm/125 μm

b) 100μm/140 μm

c) 85 μm/ 125 μm

d) 50 μm/ 125μm

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers with numerical aperture 0.29 having a core / cladding
diameter of 100μm/ 140μm. They provide high coupling frequency LED’s at a wavelength of 0.85 μm
and have low cost. They are also used for short distance application.

9. Multimode graded index fibers use incoherent source only. State whether the following statement is
true or false.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Multimode graded index fibers are used for short haul and medium to high bandwidth
applications. Small haul applications require LEDs and low accuracy lasers. Thus either incoherent or
incoherent sources like LED’s or injection laser diode are used.

10. In single mode fibers, the most beneficial index profile is

a) Step index

b) Graded index

c) Step and graded index

d) Coaxial cable

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In single mode fibers, graded index profile is more beneficial as compared to step index.
This is because graded index profile provides dispersion-modified-single mode fibers.

11. The fibers mostly not used nowadays for optical fiber communication system are

a) Single mode fibers

b) Multimode step fibers

c) Coaxial cables

d) Multimode graded index fibers

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Single mode fibers are used to produce polarization maintaining fibers which make them
expensive. Also the alternative to them are multimode fibers which are complex but accurate. So, single-
mode fibers are not generally utilized in optical fiber communication.

12. Single mode fibers allow single mode propagation; the cladding diameter must be at least

a) Twice the core diameter

b) Thrice the core diameter

c) Five times the core diameter

d) Ten times the core diameter

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: The cladding diameter in single mode fiber must be ten times the core diameter. Larger
ratios contribute to accurate propagation of light. These dimension ratios must be there so as to avoid
losses from the vanishing fields.

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13. A fiber which is referred as non-dispersive shifted fiber is

a) Coaxial cables

b) Standard single mode fibers

c) Standard multimode fibers

d) Non zero dispersion shifted fibers

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A standard single mode fiber having step index profile is known as non-dispersion shifted
fiber. As these fibers have a zero dispersion wavelength of 1.31μm and so are preferred for single-
wavelength transmission in O-band.

14. Standard single mode fibers (SSMF) are utilized mainly for operation in

a) C-band

b) L-band

c) O-band

d) C-band and L-band

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: SSMFs are utilized for operation in O-band only. It shows high dispersion in range of 16 to
20ps/nm/km in C-band and L-band. So SSMFs are used in O-band.

15. Fiber mostly suited in single-wavelength transmission in O-band is

a) Low-water-peak non dispersion-shifted fibers

b) Standard single mode fibers

c) Low minimized fibers

d) Non-zero-dispersion-shifted fibers

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Standard single mode fibers with a step index profile is called non dispersion shifted fiber
and it is particularly used for single wavelength transmission in O-band and as if has a zero-dispersion
wavelength at 1.31μm.

Optical Communications Questions and Answers – Optical Fiber Cables

This set of Optical Communications Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on ” Optical
Fiber Cables”.

1. When optical fibers are to be installed in a working environment, the most important parameter to be
considered is

a) Transmission property of the fiber

b) Mechanical property of the fiber

c) Core cladding ratio of the fiber

d) Numerical aperture of the fiber

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Nowadays, optical fibers are used alternatively to electric transmission lines. They are
installed safely and maintained in all environments including underground areas. This requires
mechanical strengthening of fibers in order to ensure proper transmission.

2. It is not important to cover these optical fibers required for transmission. State whether the given
statement is true or false.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Unprotected optical fibers have number of losses regarding its strength and durability. Bare
glass fibers are brittle and have small cross-section area that makes them highly susceptible to damages
while handling and maintenance. Thus, to improve tensile strength, optical fibers should be covered by
surrounding them with number of protective layers.

3. Optical fibers for communication use are mostly fabricated from

a) Plastic

b) Silica or multicomponent glass

c) Ceramics

d) Copper

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Silica or a compound of glass are brittle and have almost perfect elasticity until reaching
their breaking point. Strength of these materials is high. Thus, optical fibers are fabricated from these
materials.

4. An Si-O bond with a Young’s modulus of 9*1010Nm-1 have an elliptical crack of depth 7nm. The
surface energy is 2.29 J. Estimate fracture stress for silica fiber.

a) 4.32*109Nm-1

b) 6.32*109Nm-1

c) 5.2*109Nm-1

d) 3*109Nm-1

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: For an elliptical crack, the fracture stress is given by-

Sf= (2Eγp /πC)1/2

Where Sf = fracture stress

γp= surface energy

C= depth of crack.

5. Calculate percentage strain at break for a Si-O bond with a fracture strength of 3.52*1010Nm-1 and
Young’s modulus of 9 *109Nm-1.

a) 3.1 %

b) 2.8 %
c) 4.5 %

d) 3.9 %

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Young’s modulus is given by-

E = Stress/Strain

To calculate strain from the above formula, we have to divide stress by Young’s modulus. Therefore,
Strain = Stress/ E.

6. Stress corrosion must be considered while designing and testing optical fiber cables. State whether the
given statement is true or false.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Stress corrosion means growth of flaws due to stress and water. This occurs as a result of
molecular bonds at the tip of crack being attacked by water. Hence, it is important to have a protection
against water to avoid stress corrosion.

7. Which statistics are used for calculations of strengths of optical fibers?

a) Edwin statistics

b) Newton statistics

c) Wei-bull statistics

d) Gamma statistics

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Calculations of strengths are conducted using Wei-bull statistics in case of optical fibers. It
describes the strength behavior of a system that is dependent on the weakest link of the system. The Wei-
bull statistics gives the probability of failure of the optical fiber at a given strength.

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8. What does n denotes in the equation given below, if vc is the crack velocity; A is the constant for the
fiber material and KI is the strength intensity factor?

vc= AKIn

a) Refractive index

b) Stress corrosion susceptibility

c) Strain

d) Young’s modulus

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The above equation allows estimation of the time to failure of a fiber under stress corrosion
conditions. The constant n is called as stress corrosion susceptibility. It is typically in the range of 15 to
50 for a glass.

Optical Communications Questions and Answers – Practical Constraints of Coherent Transmission

This set of Optical Communications Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Practical
Constraints of Coherent Transmission”.

1. Which technology development has helped the field of optical fiber communication?

a) Glass technology

b) Component technology

c) Multiplexing

d) Power

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Substantial developments in the component technology have allowed the initial difficulties
in the optical fiber communication to go away. The coherent factor experienced most of the difficulties.

2. __________ dictates the performance characteristics required from components and devices which are
to be utilized in coherent optical fiber systems.

a) System considerations
b) Bluetooth technology

c) Multiplexing

d) Practical constraints

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Practical constraints inhibit the development of coherent optical fiber communications.
These constraints are derived from factors associated with the elements of the coherent optical fiber
communication.

3. Coherent optical transmission is degraded by the ________ associated with the transmitter and local
oscillator lasers.

a) Phase noise

b) White noise

c) Dissipation

d) Power

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Phase noise is determined by the laser line width. The phase noise associated with both the
transmitter and the mid-tier section severely degrades the coherent optical transmission as well as
reception.

4. ___________ improves the spectral purity of the device output and noise current.

a) Power dissipation

b) Laser line width reduction

c) Laser line width injection

d) Phase noise

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Laser line width determines the level of phase noise and long term phase stability. The
reduced phase noise is obtained using narrow-line width devices. This improves the spectral purity as well
as reduces the noise current.
5. ____________ is the principal cause of line width broadening in the coherent devices.

a) Electromagnetic field

b) Power dissipation

c) Injection laser phase noise

d) Gaussian noise

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Injection laser phase noise affects the system performance. The system performance
considerations include receiver noise, power loss and line width broadening.

6. Which technique was started for narrowing of injection laser line widths?

a) External resonator cavity

b) Long-hauled oscillator

c) Circulator

d) Gyrator

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Many approaches evolved in time for laser line width problem. The one which sustained and
showed effects was the use of external resonator cavity in the lasers.

7. The line width tolerance is wider for heterodyne receivers. State whether the given statement is true or
false.

a) False

b) True

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The laser line width requirements depend on the modulation format, coherent detection
mechanism which includes the use of heterodyne and homodyne receivers. The line width tolerance is
wider for heterodyne receivers when employing FSK modulation.

8. ___________ is an alternative to reduce phase noise and line width requirements.

a) Homodyne detection

b) Heterodyne detection

c) FSK modulation

d) Phase diversity reception

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The more sensitive coherent transmission techniques are most affected by phase noise
problem. A specially configured reception technique called as phase diversity reception technique is used
to overcome phase noise problem.

9. ______________ is the progressive spatial separation between the two polarization modes as they
propagate along the fiber.

a) Fiber birefringence

b) Fiber dispersion

c) Fiber separation

d) Fiber coupling

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In a perfectly formed fiber, both modes would travel together. But, in practice, the fiber
contains random manufacturing irregularities. This result in a progressive spatial separation called as fiber
birefringence.

10. How many compensator devices are required to provide full polarization-state control?

a) Three

b) One

c) Four

d) Two

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: At least two compensator devices are required to provide full polarization-state control.
They can be placed in either the incoming signal path or the local oscillator output path.

1. _____________ is essentially a crude form of Amplitude shift keying.

a) Analog modulation

b) Digital intensity modulation

c) Photodetector

d) Receiver structure

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Many techniques have been developed to amplitude modulate an optical signal. Digital
intensity modulation used in direct detection systems is essentially a crude form of ASK in which the
received signal is detected using square law detector.

2. Almost _________ of the transmitter power is wasted in the use of external modulators.

a) Half

b) Quarter

c) One-third

d) Twice

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: All external modulators suffer the drawback that around half of the transmitted power is
wasted. To avoid this, non-synchronous detection can be employed.

3. The line width in the range ________ of bit rate is specified for ASK heterodyne detection.

a) 8%

b) 2 to 8%

c) 10 t0 50%

d) 70%

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The ASK modulation scheme can be used with laser sources exhibiting the line widths
comparable with the bit transmission rate. For ASK heterodyne detection, line width range of 10 to 50%
is usually specified.

4. ______________ is also referred to as on-off keying (OOK).

a) FSK

b) DSK

c) PSK

d) ASK

View Answer

Answer: Amplitude shift keying (ASK) involves the locking and assembling of the amplitude of the
wave. It involves the carrier wave along with the amplitude wave or transmitted wave and hence referred
to as on-off keying.

5. ________ does not require an external modulator.

a) FSK

b) DSK

c) PSK

d) ASK

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: FSK involves the frequency deviation property of the directly modulated semiconductor
laser used in wideband systems. Unlike ASK, it does not require an external modulator, which in turn,
avoids the wastage of transmitted power.

6. The frequency deviation at frequencies above 1 MHz is typically ____________

a) 10 to 20 mA-1

b) 100 to 500 mA-1

c) 1000 to 2000 mA-1

d) 30 to 40 mA-1

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: The carrier modulation effect occurs at the frequencies above 1 MHz. At the phase of carrier
modulation, the frequency deviation is about 100 to 500 mA-1.

7. ___________ offers the potential for improving the coherent optical receiver sensitivity by increasing
the choice of signalling frequencies.

a) MFSK

b) MDSK

c) MPSK

d) MASK

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Multilevel FSK includes 4-level or 8-level FSK. It improves the receiver sensitivity by
reducing the deviation and increasing the usage of signalling frequencies.

8. Eight level FSK and binary PSK yields an equivalent sensitivity. State whether the given statement is
true or false.

a) False

b) True

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Binary PSK and 8-level FSK provides an equivalent sensitivity. The main drawback of 8-
level FSK is that it yields an equivalent sensitivity to binary PSK at the expense of a greater receiver
bandwidth requirement.

9. External modulation for ________ modulation format allows the most sensitive coherent detection
mechanism.

a) FSK

b) DSK

c) PSK

d) ASK

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: External modulation for PSK is usually straightforward. It is therefore utilized to provide the
modulation format which allows the most sensitive coherent detection mechanism.

10. _________ can potentially provide spectral conservation through the use of multilevel signalling.

a) M-ary PSK

b) MFSK

c) ASK

d) DFSK

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In M-ary schemes, the spectral efficiency is increased by the factor log2 M.this is purely for
M-level schemes which can provide multilevel signalling patterns.

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11. The digital transmission on implementation of polarization modulation which involves polarization
characteristics of the transmitted optical signal is known as _____________

a) Frequency shift keying

b) Amplitude shift keying

c) Phase shift keying

d) Polarization shift keying

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Polarization shift keying is abbreviated as PolSK. PolSK requires additional receiver
complexity than other modulation formats

Optical Communications Questions and Answers – Wavelength Conversion and Optical Regeneration

This set of Optical Communications online quiz focuses on “Wavelength Conversion and Optical
Regeneration”.
1. ___________________ is defined as a process by which the wavelength of the transmitted signal is
changed without altering the data carried by the signal.

a) Wavelength conversion

b) Attenuation

c) Sigma management

d) Wavelength dispersion

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Wavelength conversion observes the changes in the length of the wave. It does not
proportionate with the data carried by the signal or wave.

2. The device which is used to perform wavelength conversion is called as ___________

a) Attenuator

b) Wavelength Gyrator

c) Wavelength Circulator

d) Wavelength translator

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Wavelength translator changes the frequency of the wave and hence it is also called as
frequency changer. It does not affect the data carried by the wave.

3. A wavelength converter is termed as _______ if the converted wavelength is longer than the original
signal wavelength.

a) Down converter

b) Up converter

c) Attenuator

d) Shifter

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A wavelength converter is capable of receiving an incoming signal at any wavelength at the
input port and produces output at the output port. A converter is termed as up converter when the output
signal wavelength is longer than the original signal wavelength.

4. The ___________ converters cannot process different modulation formats.

a) Shifting

b) Optoelectronic wavelength

c) Opt-circular

d) Magnetic simulating

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In optoelectronic wavelength converters, the information contained in the intensity,

frequency, phase of the signal is required to be reprocessed for the purpose of wavelength conversion. It
does not process all the modulation formats.

5. The optical medium, in case of optical wavelength conversion is ___________

a) Depleted

b) Linear

c) Non-linear

d) Dispersive

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The implementation of optical wavelength conversion involves non-linearity of the optical
medium. It can be either active or passive, each providing different nonlinear effects.

6. The process of imposing the nonlinear response of the medium onto the control signal is known as
______________ scheme.

a) Demodulation

b) Absorption

c) Cross-modulation

d) Repeater mixing

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The cross-modulation scheme involves changes produced due to the intensity variation of
the intensity-modulated input signal. It takes place in the active cavity.

7. How many approaches are adopted by the cross-modulation scheme?

a) Four

b) Three

c) Two

d) Five

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Based on the properties of the nonlinear medium, the cross-modulation scheme can be
divided into four main approaches. These are cross-gain modulation, cross-phase modulation, cross-
absorption modulation, differential polarization modulation.

8. __________ wavelength converters make use of a passive optical medium to exploit non-linear effects.

a) Bipolar

b) Optoelectronic

c) Magnetic

d) Coherent

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The nonlinear effects include four-wave mixing and difference frequency generation.
Coherent wavelength converters use a passive medium to extend the changes of nonlinear effects.

9. A _____________ wavelength converter utilizes the nonlinear properties of a semiconductor optical

amplifier to perform the conversion process.

a) Cross-gain modulation

b) Cross-phase modulation

c) Cross-absorption modulation
d) Differential polarization modulation

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Cross-gain modulation wavelength converter is also called as XGM wavelength converter. It
uses semiconductor optical amplifier(SOA) along with its nonlinear properties for the conversion process.

10. The intensity modulated data on one signal wavelength is called as _______

a) Dispersed data

b) Pump signal

c) Probe signal

d) Frequency signal

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Pump signal is intensity modulated data. It produces variations in the carrier density within
the SOA which provides inverted gain modulation in the SOA medium.

11. The probe signal is inverse to that of the pump signal. State whether the given statement is true or
false.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The gain modulations of the pump signal are imprinted onto the probe signal. Thus, the
probe signal acquires the inverse copy of the pump signal, thereby contributing to the wavelength
conversion with the pump signal.

12. In the XGM converter, the transfer function maintains the rectangular shape. State whether the given
statement is true or false.

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: By default, the ideal transfer function should be rectangular in shape. But it does not apply
the same for XGM converter as the amplitude gradually decreases

Avionics Questions and Answers – Microwave Landing System

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Microwave Landing
System”.

1. What is the main weakness of the ILS system?

a) Less power

b) Less range

c) More noise

d) Environment sensitivity

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The main weakness of the ILS system was its sensitivity towards the environmental factors.
Since the frequency used by the system is in MHz, it was more susceptible to atmospheric and weather
interference.

2. What does the MLS use to overcome the weakness of ILS system?

a) Narrow beam width antennas

b) More power

c) Filers for separating noise

d) Array of antennas

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The main weakness of the ILS system is eliminated by using narrow beam width antennas
which are physically small since the frequency is high. As frequency increases antenna size decreases.

3. Which of the following is not one of the basic components of the MLS system?

a) Azimuth ground station

b) Elevation ground station

c) DME

d) Radar

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A basic MLS consists of azimuth and elevation ground stations and a conventional DME for
3D positioning on approach course to 40° on either side of center line and to 15° elevation above the
runway.

4. Why is a back azimuth station used in some MLS?

a) Better range

b) Less noise

c) Missed approach

d) Back up for main azimuth station

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: An expanded MLS system uses back azimuth stations. It is generally used for departure and
for missed approaches. It provides lateral guidance to 40° on either side of the center line.

5. What is the number of channels in the MLS system?

a) 10

b) 50

c) 4000

d) 200

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The MLS station transmit both angle and data functions on one of 200 frequencies between
5031.0 and 5190.7 MHz. The relatively high number of channels allows the use of multiple MLS in
metropolitan cities.

6. Which of the following determines the required transmission power in MLS?

a) Noise

b) Bit error rate

c) Runway length

d) Aircraft size

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The acceptable bit error rate of the differential phase shift keying (DPSK) transmissions at
the 20-nmi limit determines the transmitter power needed in the ground stations.

7. Using an audio tone to encode angles is an efficient method.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Early MLS with mechanical scanned array used a varying audio tone to encode the pointing
angle on the scanning beam pattern. The FAA adopted the time interval between successive passages of
the unmodulated beam as an efficient means of angle encoding.

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8. What is the typical scanning rate of the MLS antenna?

a) 20,000°/sec

b) 10000°/sec

c) 500°/sec

d) 37°/sec

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The very high scanning rate of 20,000°/sec provides about 40 samples per second of the
angle data, a rate ten times higher than that needed to control the aircraft.
9. MLS ESA works on the principle of phase shifting.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: An Electronically scanned array antenna is an array of radiating elements with a feed
network incorporating variable propagation delays. These arrays cause the antenna pattern to rotate by
“phase shifting” the RF signal

Avionics Questions and Answers – Satellite Landing System

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Satellite Landing
System”.

1. Which of the following is not a reason for not using the basic GPS for landing systems?

a) Accuracy

b) Integrity

c) Availability of satellites

d) Number of users

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The primary reason for not using basic GPS for landing systems is because does not provide
the accuracy that is required for landing, it lacks a monitoring system and the availability of a sufficient
number of satellites to provide location information.

2. Which of the following is supplemented with GPS to provide non-precision and Category I
approaches?

a) Primary radar

b) WAAS

c) ILS

d) MLS

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: For non-precision and Category I precision approaches, the limitations by the GPS is
mitigated by the FAA’s Wide Area Augmentation System. It may be supplemented with local differential
GPS stations located near runways.

3. Which of the following is not true with respect to WAAS?

a) Provides WADGPS corrections

b) Uses ground integrity broadcast

c) Provide precision approaches for Category III C

d) Provide GPS ranging function

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: WAAS addresses the limitations by providing Wide area differential GPS error correction, a
ground integrity broadcast, and a GPS ranging function from three or four geostationary satellites
providing additional availability.

4. Which of the following is required to support Category II and III with DGPS?

a) High- integrity ground to air data link

b) ILS system

c) Transponder

d) DME station

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: To support Category II and III landing operations, the additional requirement for accuracy
and monitor-response times can be achieved with a differential GPD reference station and a high-integrity
ground to air data link located near the runway.

5. Which of the following errors are not rectified by LDGPS?

a) Satellite ephemerides

b) Ionosphere propagation effects

c) Multi-path signal interference

d) Clock offset

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: LDGPS operation leads to the nearly complete cancellation of errors due to satellite
ephemerides, clock offset, selective availability, and ionospheric propagation, leaving mainly those errors
due to multipath signal interference and receiver noise.

6. The DME station can supply integrity warnings.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The runway reference station can supply integrity warnings within the required response
time of 1 to 2 sec. These are located near the runway.

7. The accuracy of the SPS code solution is satisfactory for precision approaches.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: GPS receivers were capable of about ten solutions per second, which is sufficient for
coupled flight. The accuracy of the SPS code solution without augmentation is satisfactory for
nonprecision approaches.

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8. The pilot has no other option than to use FLOLS to land the aircraft.

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: The pilot has the option of coupling the autopilot to the ACLS, flying the aircraft from
“needles” controlled by ACLS data, or being talked down by a shipboard controller. A manual carrier
landing with ACLS resembles a land based ground controlled approach.

Avionics Questions and Answers – Modulation and Multiplexing

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Modulation and
Multiplexing”.

1. The process of making the signal more compatible with the medium is called as?

a) Modulation

b) Transmission

c) Encrypting

d) Multiplexing

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Modulation is the process of making the information signal more compatible with the
medium. Modulation is the reason why we can have different channels on radio.

2. The information signal is otherwise referred to as ___________

a) Digital signal

b) Analog signal

c) Baseband signal

d) Broadband signal

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The information signal, regardless of analog or digital type, is referred to as baseband
signals. It could be voice, video or digital data and is modulated before transmission. In some case,
baseband signals can be transmitted without modulation.

3. Voice signals cannot be directly transmitted by radio.

a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Baseband signals are, in many cases, incompatible with the medium. Theoretically, it is
possible to transmit voice signals directly by radio, but due to the low frequency of these waves the
antenna size required form transmission is too big.

4. In frequency modulation, carrier frequency is always greater than baseband frequency.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In frequency modulation, the baseband signal is overlapped or impressed in the carrier
signal. The carrier can never have a lower frequency than the baseband signal as it would result in a huge
data loss of the baseband signal.

5. Which one of the following is not a type of modulation?

a) Frequency modulation

b) Amplitude Modulation

c) Pulse modulation

d) Phase amplitude modulation

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Modulation is of three types, frequency modulation, amplitude modulation and phase
modulation. Pulse modulation is a type of amplitude modulation.

6. In amplitude modulation, which of the following varies?

a) Frequency of the carrier

b) Frequency of the information signal

c) Amplitude of the carrier wave

d) Amplitude of the information signal

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In amplitude modulation, the amplitude of the carrier wave is modulated with respect to the
information signal. The frequency and the phase of both the carrier and the information signal remain
constant.

7. You have 5 information signals and only one transmitter. What technique will help in transmitting all
the 5 signals?

a) Frequency modulation

b) Multiplexing

c) Amplification

d) Amplitude modulation

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Multiplexing is the process of transmitting more than one signal via a common transmitting
medium. A device called a multiplexer is used for this purpose. The signal can be demultiplexed at the
receiver end to retrieve the original information.

8. What type of multiplexing is used in mobile phones?

a) Frequency division multiplexing

b) Time division multiplexing

c) Code division multiplexing

d) Phase multiplexing

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In code-division multiplexing, the signals to be transmitted are converted to digital data that
is then uniquely coded with a faster binary code. The signals modulate a carrier on the same frequency.
All use the same communications channel simultaneously. The unique coding is used at the receiver to
select the desired signal.

9. Which one of the following is not true with respect to amplitude modulation?

a) Less noise
b) Longer range

c) Lower bandwidth

d) Less complex circuits

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Although AM is much simpler and has a wider range due to atmospheric propagation, one of
its major disadvantages is due to noise. Noise directly affects the amplitude of the signal and its hard to
retrieve the original information.

10. What type of multiplexing is used in serial buses?

a) Time division multiplexing

b) Code division multiplexing

c) Frequency division multiplexing

d) Phase multiplexing

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In serial buses, time division multiplexing is used to split the digital data, which is in binary
numbers, into individual bits which occupy a particular time slot and is transmitted. The use oAvionics
Questions and Answers – Digital Signal Processing

This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Digital Signal
Processing”.

1. Any digital computer can be used for DSP.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: DSP is the use of a fast digital computer or digital circuitry to perform processing on digital
signals. Any digital computer with sufficient speed and memory can be used for DSP.
2. What happens after the signal is passed through the analog to digital converter in a DSP?

a) Changed back to analog

b) Stored in a RAM

c) Amplified

d) Attenuated

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: When the signal is converted from analog to digital it is a sequence of binary numbers which
is stored in the RAM. A user defined code that is usually stored in the ROM performs mathematical and
other manipulations after which it is converted back into analog signals.

3. Who is credited with creating the stored program concept?

a) John Von Neumann

b) Larry Page

c) Alan Turing

d) Ken Thompson

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Physicist John Von Neumann is generally credited with creating the stored program concept
that is the basis of operation of all digital computers. Binary words representing computer instructions are
stored sequentially in a memory to form a program. The instructions are fetched and executed one at a
time at high speed.

4. What is the accessibility limitation of only one data or instruction set at a time from the memory
called?

a) Von Neumann limitation

b) Von Neumann limit

c) Von Neumann speed

d) Von Neumann bottleneck

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: The accessibility limitation of only one data or instruction set at a time from the memory is
called as Von Neumann bottleneck. This has the effect of greatly limiting the execution speed.

5. Which type of architecture uses different storage space for program code and the data?

a) Von Neumann architecture

b) Harvard architecture

c) Fragmented architecture

d) Split cell architecture

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In a Harvard architecture microprocessor, there are two memories, a program or instruction
memory, usually a ROM, and a data memory, which is a RAM. Also, there are two data paths into and
out of the CPU between the memories. Because both instructions and data can be accessed
simultaneously, very high-speed operation is possible.

6. What is the reason for the need of high speed DSP?

a) Less power consumption at higher speeds

b) Better processing capabilities

c) High sampling frequency

d) Easily programmable

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The time taken for input/output and the processing time together must be smaller than the
sampling period to ensure the continuous flow of data. Since high sampling frequencies are needed for
accurately converting the analog signal to digital, high speed DSP is a must.

7. Selectivity in a DSP is better than its analog equivalent.

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: With DSP, the filters can have characteristics far superior to those of equivalent analog
filters. Selectivity can be better because of the ease of controlling binary numbers, and the passband or
reject band can be customized to the application.

8. Reduction in the number of binary words required to represent an analog signal is called ________

a) Undersampling

b) Oversampling

c) Data compression

d) Data minimization

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Data compression is a process that reduces the number of binary words needed to represent a
given analog signal. Since analog to digital conversion produces a huge amount of data, for transmission
it is a necessity that data is compressed.

9. What is the process of examining the frequency content of a signal?

a) Signal decoding

b) Spectrum analysis

c) Signal analysis

d) Data analysis

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Spectrum analysis is the process of examining a signal to determine its frequency content.
Algorithms such as discrete Fourier transform (DFT) and FPGA is used to analyze the frequency content
of an input signal.

10. What is the program that is used to speed the spectrum analysis process?

a) DDFT

b) FDFT

c) FGPA

d) Fast Fourier transforms

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The DFT is a complex program that is long and time-consuming to run. In general,
computers are not fast enough to perform DFT in real time as the signal occurs. Therefore, a special
version of the algorithm has been developed to speed up the calculation. Known as the fast Fourier
transform (FFT), it permits real-time signal spectrum analysis.

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11. Which of the following is not possible when the signal is analog?

a) Phase shifting

b) Equalization

c) Modulation

d) Data compression

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Data compression is done by checking redundancy in data. Data redundancy checking is
only possible when the data is in digital form and hence data compression cannot be done in analog
signals.f serial buses increases the limit on transmission speed and reduces noise.

What Are the Types of Data Communication?

Data communication is the transmission of digital messages to external devices. If you look around your
house, you will see many examples of data communication at work. Your cable system, your home phone
and even your computer all work based on varying types of data transfer. The process of transmitting a
message occurs millions of time a day without any of us being aware of it. Today's recent data transfer
methods include many complex concepts, but we can still break down the proSimplex

A simplex communication system sends a message in only one direction. The message source works as
the transmitter. It sends the message over the data channel to the receiver. The receiver is the destination
of the message. Examples of simplex data communication include radio stations and TV broadcasts. With
the simplex channel, there is no ability by the receiver to respond to the message. For example, a radio
station plays a song on your car radio. The data transferred is the song. You do not have the opportunity
to send a message back via your car radio to the station.

Half Duplex
A half-duplex data communication system provides messages in both directions but only allows transfer
in one direction at a time. Once a party begins sending a transmission, the receiver must wait until the
signal stops before responding. If the two data transfers attempt to send at the same time, they both fail.
For instance, if you talk on a CB radio, you press a button and speak. If the receiver attempts to press the
button and speak at the same time, neither one of you hear either message. The system is not capable of
sending both ways simultaneously.

. Full Duplex

A full duplex is a communication that works both ways at the same time. Essentially, full duplex data
communication is a set of two simplex channels, one works as a forward channel and the other as a
reserve channel. The two channels link together at some point. An example of a full duplex
communication system is a landline telephone. When talking on a telephone, both parties have the ability
to speak at the same time. The data, carried both ways through the telephone line, runs simultaneously.

Serial

Serial communication takes a data communication, breaks it up into small pieces, and sends the message
one bit at a time through a channel. The receiver collects the small bits and reassembles them to compose
the original message. Serial communication is the most common type of communication between
electronic devices. One example of serial communication in action is the data sent from a modem to the
service provider.

Selective Data Communication and Networking Questions and Answers:

Q.1 What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over it serial communication link layer?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Hide Answer

Ans . B
You should also check Important Question of Indian Geography

Q.2 Which data communication method is used to send data over a serial communication link?

(A) simplex

(B) half duplex

(C) full duplex

(D) all of these

Hide Answer

Ans . C

Q.3 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) teleprocessing combing telecommunication and DP techniques in online activities.

(B) Multiplexers are designed to accept data from several I/O devices and transmit a unified stream of
data on one communication line.

(C) a half-duplex line is a communication line in which data can move in two directions, but not the same
time.

(D) batch processing is the preferred processing mode for telecommunication operations.
Hide Answer

Ans . D

Q.4 The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to…..

(A) simplex line

(B) half duplex lines

(C) full duplex line

(D) bi-flex lines

Hide Answer

Ans . B

Q.5 Teleprinters….

(A) are used for printing at remote locations, not for input.

(B) offer both high-speed operation and a variety of formatting controls.

(C) have a printer for output and a keyboard for input

(D) are same as teletypes.

Hide Answer

Ans . C
Q.6 Which of the following is an example of a bounded medium?

(A) coaxial cable

(B) wave guide

(C) fiber optic cable

(D) all of these

Hide Answer

Ans . D

Q.7 Coaxial cable has conductors with….

(A) a common axis

(B) equal resistance

(C) the same diameter

(D) none of these

Hide Answer

Ans . A

Q.8 The area of coverage of a satellite radio beam is called its….

(A) beam width

(B) circular polarization

(C) footprint

(D) identity

Hide Answer

Ans . C

Q.9 The amount of uncertainty in a system of the symbol is called.

(A) bandwidth

(B) entropy

(C) loss

(D) quantum

Hide Answer

Ans . B

Q.10 Buffering is….

(A) the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device speeds.

(B) a method to reduce cross-talks

(C) storage of data within the transmitting medium until the receiver is ready to receive

(D) a method to reduce the routing overhead

Hide Answer

Ans . A

If you have any problem or doubt regarding Data Communication and Networking Questions, you can ask
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Q.11 What is the main difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission?

(A) band width required is different.

(B) pulse height is different.

(C) clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission.

(D) clocking is mixed with data in asynchronous transmission.

Hide Answer

Ans . C

Q.12 The transmission signal coding method for T, the carrier is called…..
(A) NRZ

(B) Bipolar

(C) Manchester

(D) Binary

Hide Answer

Ans . B

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Q.13 In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter sends a signal to the……

(A) transmission line

(B) modulator

(C) terminal

(D) equalizer

Hide Answer

Ans . D

Q.14 Which section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler?

(A) Terminal section

(B) Receiver section

(C) Control section

(D) Transmission section

Hide Answer

Ans . D

Q.15 The synchronous modems are more expensive than the asynchronous modems because….

(A) they must contain clock recovery circuits

(B) production volume is larger

(C) they must operate on a larger bandwidth

(D) They are larger

Hide Answer

Ans . A

Q.16 The receive equalizer reduces delay distortions using a…..

(A) difference engine

(B) tapped delay lines

(C) descrambler

(D) gear shift

Hide Answer

Ans . B

Q.17 How much power (approximately) a light-emitting diode can couple into an optical fiber?

(A) 1 picowatt

(B) 100 microwatts

(C) 10 milliwatts

(D) 10 watts

Hide Answer

Ans . B

Q.18 Avalanche photodiode receiver can detect bits of transmitted data by receiving.

(A) 1 Photon

(B) 100 photons

(C) 10 photons
(D) 200 photons

Hide Answer

Ans . D

Q.19 The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called.

(A) propagation

(B) attenuation

(C) scattering

(D) absorption

Hide Answer

Ans . B

Q.20 Multiple repeaters in communication satellites are called.

(A) detector

(B) modulator

(C) transponders

(D) stations
Hide Answer

Ans . C