Exit Mcqs.-1

1.
ANIMAL DIVERSITY
2. The simplest extant animal that have Hox gene that regulate formation of water channels in
the body wall are
a) Sponges
b) Cnidaria
c) Ectoprocta
d) Placozoa
3. Vertebrates made the transition to land and diversified into numerous terrestrial groups
around
a) 460 million year ago
b) 360 million years ago
c) 251 million years ago
d) 65.5 million years ago
4. A group whose members share key biological feature are called
a) Calde
b) Grade
c) Species
d) None of them
5. True tissues are absent in
a) Brachiopoda
b) Cycliophora
c) Sponges
d) Rotifer
6. The germ layer that forms the muscle and most other organs between the digestive tract and
outer covering of the animal is called
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All above
7. A pattern in many animals with protostome development is
a) Spiral cleavage
b) Determinate cleavage
c) Radial cleavage
d) Indeterminate cleavage
8. Example of deutrostome development is
a) Annelids
b) Mollusks
c) Chordates
d) Both a and b
9. A group that includes an ancestral species and all of its descendants are called
a) Grade
b) Clade
c) Population
d) Both a and b
10. Among the characteristics unique to animals is
a) Gastrulation
b) Flagellated sperm
c) Multicellularity
d) Heterotrophic nutrition
11. The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence
versus the presence of
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a) A body cavity
b) True tissue
c) A complete digestive tract
d) Mesoderm
12. Acoelomates are characterized by
a) The absence of brain
b) A solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organ
c) The absence of mesoderm
d) Deutrostome development
13. Dinosaurs were the dominant land vertebrates during
a) Neoproterozoic Era
b) Paleoproterozoic Era
c) Coenozoic Era
d) Mesozoic Era
14. Brachiopods have a crown of ciliated tantacles that function in feeding called
a) Ammonites
b) Copepods
c) Lophophore
d) Padipalps
15. Which one is a clade of animals with true tissue
a) Eumetazoa
b) Ecdysozoa
c) Lophotrochozoa
d) Metazoan
16. The Cambrian explosion was followed by the
a) Ordovician
b) Silurian
c) Devonian
d) All above
17. Duration of Mesozoic Era is
a) 1 Billion -542 MYa
b) 542-521 MYA
c) 251-65.5 MYA
d) 65.5 MYA to present
18. All eukaryotes have genes that regulate the expression of other genes, and many of these
regulatory genes contain common sets of DNA sequences called
a) Homeoboxes
b) Hox genes
c) Genopore
d) Ampulla
19. Extant species of animals that biologists have identified to date
a) 1.2 million
b) 1.3 million
c) 1.4 million
d) 1.5 million
20. Which one of the following play important roles in the development of animal embryo,
controlling the expression of dozens or even hundreds of other genes that influence animal
morphology
a) Nervous system
b) Cardiac system
c) Homeobox
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d) Hox genes
21. The first generally accepted macroscopic fossils of animals range in age from
a) 565-550 mya
b) 565-542mya
c) 575-550 mya
d) 251-65.5 mya
21.How many species of living chondrichthyans?
(a) 600
(b) 700
(c) 750
(d) 650
22.The dorsal fin of sharks act as……..
(a) Stabilizer
(b) Byoyancer
(c) Balancer
(d) Detection
23.Sharks are……….
(a) Bulk feeders
(b) Suspension feeders
(c) Fluid feeders
(d) none of these
24. Large amount of oil in shark’s liver helps in…….
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Capturing prey
(c) Detoxification
(d) gaseous exchange
25. Pectoral fins of rays act as……..
a) Waterwings
(b) venomous barb
(c) claspers
(d) whiplike
26. Mammals belong to the group of amniotes known as:
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a. Anapsids
b. Synapsids
c. None of these
27. A distinctive characteristic of synapsids is:
a. Single temporal fenestra
b. Double temporal fenestra
c. Triple temporal fenestra
28. Hole behind the eye socket on each side of the skull is known as:
a. Retina
b. Optic nerve
c. temporal fenestra
29. Synapsid evolved into large herbivores and carnivores during the period:
a. Permian
b. Triassic
c. Jurassic
30. First true mammals arose in the period:
a. Jurassic
b. Triassic
c. Cretaceous
31. Three major lineages of living mammals: monotremes, marsupials and eutherians
emerged in:
a. Early cretaceous period
b. Permian
c. Carboniferous period
32. Monotremes are found only in:
a. Australia
b. New Guinea
c. Both a & b
33. Red kangaroo is about the size of:
a. Horse
b. Dog
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c. Honey bee
34. Marsupials existed worldwide during the era:
a. Mesozoic
b. Cenozoic
c. Paleozoic
35. Today no. of marsupial families live outside the Australian region:
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
36. Eutherians are commonly called as:
a. Placental mammals
b. Egg laying mammals
c. Marsupials
37. Eutherians have pregnancy longer than:
a. Marsupials
b Monotremes
c.None
38. Humans are members of:
a. Lemurs
b. Monkeys
c. Apes
39. Primates have:
a. Large brain and short jaws
b. Short brain and short jaws
c.Large brain and large jaws
40. Monotremes diverged from other mammals:
a. 150 MYA
b. 180 MYA
c. 120 MYA
41. Marsupials diverged from eutherians:
a. 140 MYA
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b. 170 MYA
c. 120 MYA
42. Elephants belong to order:
a. Proboscidea
b. Monotremata
c. Xenarthras
43. Rabbits belong to order:
a. Rodentia
b. Lagomorpha
c. Carnivora
44. Travelling by swinging from branch to branch in trees:
a. Brachiating
b.Crawling
c.None
45. Lemurs, tarsiers, anthropoids belong to order:
a. Primates
b. Rodentia
c. Carnivora
46. Tarsiers are more closely related to:
a. Anthropoids
b. Lemurs
c. Birds
47. Apes diverged from:
a. Old World monkeys
b. New world monkeys
c.Monotremes
48. Shy apes includes:
a. Orangutans
b. Gorillas
c. Gibbons
49.Gorillas are:
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a. Largest apes
b. smaller apes
c.Shy apes
50. Homo sapiens are:
a. 200,000 years old
b. 30000 years old
c. 17000 years old
51. Human genome resembles with apes:
a.99%
b. 97%
c. 10%
52. Humans and chimpanzees differ in the expression of regulatory genes:
a. 19
b. 27
c. 30
53. Study of human origin is known as:
a. Paleoanthropology
b. Paleontology
c. Ethology
54. Hominins are more closely related to:
a. Humans
b. Chimpanzees
c. Apes
55. Hominins brain have volume:
a. 400-450cm3
b. 300 cm3
c. 250-700cm3
56. Monotremes lack
a. Nipples b. Hair c. Both
57. Life has existed on Earth for at least
a. 3.5 billion years ago

b. 3.0 billion years ago
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c. 4.5 billion years ago
d. 2.5 billion years ago
58. The genomes of humans and chimpanzees are same
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 90%
d. 98%
59. Humans and chimpanzees differ in the expression of ------regulatory genes.
a. 19
b. 18
c. 17
d. 15
60. The study of -------- origins is known as paleoanthropology.
a. Human
b. Reptiles
c. Fossils
d. Arthropods
61. The hole at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord
a. foramen magnum
b. paramen magnum
c. hind magnum
d. thyroid magnum
62. The volume of human brain is
a. 1300 cm³
b. 1000 cm³
c. 1500 cm³
d. 1200 cm³
63. Hominin diversity increased dramatically between
a. 4 and 2 million years ago.

b. 5 and 6 million years ago.
c. 3 and 4 million years ago.
d. 2 and 3 million years ago.
64. Himalayanmountain range had formed,
a. about 10 million years ago

b. about 20 million years ago
c. about 30 million years ago
d. about 40 million years ago
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65. As a chimpanzee walks, it uses the amount of energy used by a human.
a. 2 times
b. 3 times
c. 4 times
d. 6 times
66. Homo erectus originated in
a. Africa
b. America
c. Europe
d. Asia
67. human DNA show that Europeans and ------share a relatively recent common ancestor
a. Asians
b. Africans
c. Australians
d. Americans
68. miniature brains, a condition called microcephaly.
a. microcephaly.
b. Microrenology.
c. microanthropology.
d. Microcardiology.
69. Synapsids evolved into a large herbivores and carnivores during
a. Permian period
b. Cretaceous period
c. Jurassic period
d. periodTriassic
70. The ________ encloses a compartment of fluid that bath the embryo and act as shock absorber:
a) Allantois
b) Chorion
c)Amnion
71.-------------- use their rib cages to ventilate their lungs:
a) Anamniotes
b)Amniotes
c) both
72.The membrane of allantois functions with the -------------- as a respiratory organ:
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
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c) Yolk sac
73.The ---------- clade include the groups plesiosaurs and ichthyosaurs:
a) Amphibians
b) Reptiles
c) birds
74.Snakes and Lizards are:
a) Viviparous
b) Oviparous
c) Oviviviparous
75. The embryos of reptiles and mammals form ----------- extraembryonic membranes:
a) Three
b) four
c) Two
76. Lizards and Snakes are ----------------:
a)Warm blooded
b) Endothermic
c) Cold blooded
77. First major group of reptiles to emerg were:
a)Parareptiles
b) Diapsids
c) Archosaurs
78. Ornithischians and Saurischiana are the lineages of ------------:
a)Birds
b) Reptiles
c) Dinosaurs
79. The tuataras are about -------------cm long;
a) 50
b) 40
c) 45
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80. ------------ are the legless lepidosaurs:
a) Lizards
b) Tuataras
c) Snakes
81. pleurodires and Cryptodires are the types of:
a)Turtles
b) Alligators
c) crocodiles
82. Power for the flapping of the wings comes from the contraction of the large ------------- muscles:
a) Pectoral
b) pelvic
c) Both
83. Shaft and Barbules are the parts of bird’s:
a) Neck
b) Feather
c) Mouth
84. ------------- are the amniotes that have hairs and produce milk:
a) Reptiles
b) Mammals
c) Dipnoi
85. Mammals belong to the group of amniotes that called:
a) Anapsids
b) Synapsids
c) Diapsids
86. Mammals have the _________ major lineages:
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
87. Egg laying mammals are:
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a) Monotremes
b) Eutherians
c) Marsupials
2. CONSEVATION BIOLOGY
1-Diversity among ecosystems occuring in a near by field is known as
a) Beta diversity
b) Gamma diversity
c) Alpha diversity
d) None of these
2-Numbers and variety of species in an area is known as
a) Evenness
b) Richness
c) Abundance
d) a,b
3-The biodiversity valu that something has as a means to human’s end is called as
a) Instrumental value
b) Intrinsic valu
c) Inharent valu
d) None of these
4-IUCN’s red list of threatened species focuses worldwide attention of threats at
a) Individual level
b) Community level
c) Population lavel
d) Species level
5-According to CITES international trade is restricted in species that are
a) Enangered
b) Extinct
c) Vulnerable
d) Critically endangered
6-The species that is not consiered near threatened is known as
a) Data deficient
b) Not evaluated
c) Least concern
d) Near threatened
7-IUCN’s red list of threatened species was initiated in
a) 1983
b) 1999
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c) 1963
d) 1964
8-Biodiversity is measured by its
a) Components
b) Evenness
c) Richness
d) All of these
9-The species is no longer to exist is known as
a) Vulnerable
b) Extinct
c) Endangered
d) Near threatened
10-The biodiversity value that something has as an end in itself is known as
a) Instrumental value
b) Intrinsic valu
c) Utilitarian value
d) Anthropocentric value
11-Diversity among living organisms according to large geographic scales is
a) Alpha diversity
b) Beta diversity
c) Gamma diversity
d) Genetic diversity
12-The areas where strict rules are applied about human activities and settlements are
a) National parks
b) Wildlife sanctuary
c) Zoos
d) Aquariums
13-The areas where settlements are not allowed but only few human activities are
a) Wildlife sanctuary
b) National parks
c) Zoos
d) Aquarium
14-The metho of preserving species or individuals in artificial conditions under human supervision is
a) IN-SITU Conservation
b) EX-SITU Conservation
c) Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Zoos
15-The amount of disturbance that an ecosystem could withstand without changing self-organized
processes and structures
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a) Ecosystem approach
b) Ecosystem resilience
c) Landscape approach
d) Biosphere reserves
16-Areas of natural habitat at varying scales that provide functional linkages between protected areas are
a) Ecosystem resilience
b) Corridors
c) National park
d) zoos
17-The diversity among the species that exist within the same ecosystem is
a) Alpha diversity
b) Beta diversity
c) Gamma diversity
d) Genetic diversity
18-The species have high risk of extinction in wild are know as
a) Endangered
b) Extinct
c) Vulnerable
d) Critically endangered
19-Protected areas mainly managed for scientific research is known as
a) Strict nature reserve

b) Wilderness area
c) National park
d) Natural monument
20-Protected areas managed mainly for conservation of specific natural features are
a) Habitat management area

b) Protected landscape
c) Natural monument
d) Wilderness area
21-Protected area managed mainly for the sustainable use of natural ecosystems is
a) Managed resourse protected area

b) Wilderness area
c) Strict nature reserve
d) Protected landscape
22-Protected area managed mainly for ecosystem protection and recreation is present in
a) Category 1a
b) Category 1b
c) Category 2
d) Category 4
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23-Protected area managed mainly for the sustainable use of natural ecosystems is present in
a) Category 2
b) Category 4
c) Category 6
d) Category 5
24-Resource Conservation Ethic was made popular by ------------
a) Ralph Aldo
b) Gifford Pinchot
c) John Muir
d) Aldo Leopold
25- ----------------- is the family of theories that undergird a discipline.
a) Paradigm
b) Principle
c) Rule
d) Law
26- ---------------- is the basic axiom that unites all of biology.
a) Ecology
b) Community
c) Paradigm
d )Evolution
27-The concept of Multiple Use was given by ----------------
a) Leopold
b) Muir
c) Pinchot
d) Pickett
28-The genetic composition of most populations is likely to change over time due to ---------------------
a) Genetic drift
b) Natural selection
c) Immigration
d) All of these
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29-The ecological world is -----------------
a) Dynamic
b) Non-equilibrial
c) Both a and b
d )Equilibrial
30-Endangered Species Act (ESA) has served since ------------
a) 1970
b) 1978
c) 1973
d) 1983
31-Majority of genetic material does not appear to code for any product and is called --------------variation
a) Neutral genetic
b)Adaptive variation
c)Disperse genetic variation
d) Fundamental variation
32-Every individual of a species is genetically unique, with the exception of ---------------------
a) Clones
b) Twins
c) Identical twins
d) Both a and c
33-Genes under selection represents ------------------
a) Fundamental variation
b) Adaptive variation
c) Neutral genetic variation
d) Dispersive genetic variation
34-Genetic variations within species will be negatively corelated with ---------------
a) Body size
b) Population size
c) Habitat area
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d) None of these
35-Genetic variations will be greater in species with ---------------
a) Smaller ranges
b) Big size
c) Wide ranges
d) Small size
36-Genetic variations will be lower in -----------
a) Invertebrates
b) Echinoderms
c) Small plants
d) Vertebrates
37-Genetic variations should be lower in ---------- populations.
a) Mainland
b) Island
c) Sea
d) All of these
38-Genetic variations will be lower in ---------------- species.
a) Exotic
b) Endemic
c) Endangered
d) Non-endangered
39-Eastern barred bandicoot is a ------------
a) Marsupial
b) Invertebrate
c) Placental
d) Egg-laying
40-More ---------------- populations are better able to handel changes in environment.
a) Homozygous
b) Hetrozygous
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c) Both
d) None of these
41-Gene combinations with a long history together in a population are called ---------------
a) Sister genes
b) Homeogenes
c) Co-adapted gene complexes
d) None of these
42- ---------------- are the ultimate source of genetic variation.
a) Crossing over
b) Mutations
c) Random mating
d) Natural selection
43-The genetically effective population size is represented by ------------
a) Ne
b) No
c) Na
d) Ni
44-Mutations having no effect on the fitness of an individual are ------------- mutations.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Deleterious
d) Neutral
45-In higher organisms, approximately ------- deleterious alleles may be present in each individual.
a) 200
b) 100
c) 500
d) 300
46- ------------- populations are more resistant to the accumulation of deleterious mutations.
a) Large
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b) Small
c) Effective
d) Both a and c
47-In small populations, mutations have a ----------- probability of being passed on to the off springs.
a) Less
b) Least
c) Both a and b
d) Higher
48-Accumulation of deleterious mutations can lead to a more rapid decline in ------------
a) Population size
b) Genetic diversity
c) Gene pool
d) None of these
49-Decline in population size will progresively increase the probability of fixing of future mutation and
the phenomenon is termed as ------------------
a) Bottleneck effect
b) Random mating
c) Mutational meltdown
50-Closed populations are maintained at levels below -------- individuals.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 150
d) 75
51- ----------- is the random fluctuation of gene frequencies over time due to chance alone.
a) Genetic drift
b) Random mating
c) Allelic frequency
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52- ------------- leads to a loss of variation more quickly and is of greatest conservation concern in small
populations.
a) Random mating
b) Natural selection
c) Allelic frequency
d) Genetic drift
53-The direction of genetic drift is ---------
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) Random
54-The only mechanism to recover variability in a closed population is ------------
a) Mutation
b) Bottleneck effect
c) Genetic drift
d) Random mating
55- ------------- can be defined as movement of genes from one population to other.
a) Genetic drift
b) Mutation
c) Gene flow
d) Bottleneck effect
56- --------------- will tend to create differences in separate populations.
a) Random mating
b) Genetic drift
c) Gene pool
d) Mutation
57- ---------- will tend to reduce differences in separate populations.
a) Gene flow
b) Genetic drift
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c) Gene pool
58-Mating between close relatives is termed as ---------------
a) Epistasis
b) Outbreeding
c) Inbreeding
d) Sexual selection
59-Probability of occurence of inbreeding depression increases in ---------- population.
a) Small
b) Isolated
c) Large
d) Both a and b
60-Inbreeding does not change allele frequencies but rather increase the frequency of ----------
a) Hetrozygous phenotype
b) Hetrozygous genotype
c) Homozygous phenotype
d) Homzygous genotype
61-Inbreeding can lead to ------------------
a) Decreased fitness
b) Increased fitness
c) Loss of hetrozygosity
d) Both a and c
62-Inbreeding depression may contribute to decline in ----------------
a) Metabolic efficiency
b) Growth rate
c) Reproductive physiology
d) All of these
63-In the domestic animal and plant literature, outbreeding enhancement is also reffered as
-------------------
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a) Heterosis
b) Hybrid vigor
c) Inbreeding
d) Heterosis and hybrid vigor
64- --------- lead to masking of different deleterious alleles and increase in hetrozygosity.
a) Outbreeding
b) Bottleneck effect
c) Inbreeding
d) Genetic drift
65- -------------- lead to the increased population mean fitness.
a) Inbreeding
b) Outbreeding
c) Gene flow
d) Mutation
66-Decline in fitness of hybrids or outcrossed genotypes can occur due to ------------ of locally adapted
genes due to gene flow.
a) Gene jumping
b) Genetic swamping
c) Genetic drift
d) Gene mutations
67-Breakdown of physiological or biochemical compatibilities between genes that have evolved in

different populations results in --------------
a) Inbreeding
b) Gene flow
c) Outbreeding depression
d) None of these
68-Interactions among alleles at several loci is called ------------
a) Epistasis
b) Mutation
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c) Drift
d) Swamping
69- ----------------------- is defined as the differential survival and reproduction of different genotypes in a
population.
a) Gene flow
b) Genetic drift
c) Natural selection
d) Random mating
70-Differential survivalship to adulthood is termed as --------------
a) Fertility selection
b) Sexual selection
d) Viability selection
71-Differential mating success of different individuals is termed as -------------
b) Sexual selection
72-Differential production of offsprings is termed as -------------------
b) Sexual selection
73-Ecosystems are ---------------- systems.
a) Open
b) Close
c) Random
d) None of these
74- A process by which dry climate have been degraded into artificial deserts by human activites is called
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a)habitat destruction
b)over exploitation
c)desterification
d)a & c
75)worldwide _______arid lands have been converted into deserts by the process of desterification
a) 11 million km2
b) 9 million km2
c)10 million km2
d) 8 million km2
76-When a large area of habitat is converted into small pieces of fragments mainly human activites is
called
a)habitat fragmentation
b)desterification
c)over exploitation
d)none of these
77-Habitat fragments differ from the original habitat by the way that
a)the center of each habitat fragment is closer to an edge
b)the center of each habitat fragment is far from an edge
c)the center is equal in size as that to other habitat
d)none of these
78-Harmful aspect of habitat fragmentation is that
a)foraging ability of native animals
b)species potential
c)both a & b
d)none of thessse
79-___populations are more vulnerable to inbreeding depression, genetic drift and other problems
a)large
b)small
c)both
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d)none of these
80-Habitat fragmentation dramatically increases____relative to the amount of interior habitat
a)center
b)edge
c)corner
d)none of these
81-___animals increases in numbers along forest edges
a)carnivores
b)producers
c)omnivores
d)none of these
82-In temperature deciduous forests physical degradation is mainly caused by
a)natural fires
b)ground fires
c)both of these
d)none of these
83-The process by which DDT and other organochlorine pesticides become more concentated as they
ascend food
a)bioremediation
b)biomagnifications
c)biotechnical process
d)none of these
84-Industrial process often releases large amounts of nitrates and phosphates into aquatic systems, starting
a process is called
a)cultural eutrophication
b)both a & c
c)habitat eutrophication
d)none of these
85-Acid rain___pH of soil moisture
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a)Lower
b)higher
c)intermediate
d)none of these
86-The factor behind the recent dramatic decline of amphibians are
a)increased acidity & water pollution
b)increased industrialization
c)both of above
d)none of these
87-Maintaining healthy environment means preserving

a) Ecosystem
b) Communities
c) Species
d) All
88-The most serious aspect of environmental damage is the extinction of
a) Specie
b) Population
c) Communities
d) Ecosystem
89-Specie can potentially regain genetic variation through
e) Mutation
f) Natural selection
g) Recombination
90-Unique genetic information and combination of characters that passes are lost by losing
a) Population
b) Specie
c) Individual
d) All
91-When no member of species remains alive anywhere in the world then it is considered
a) Extinct
b) Locally extinct
c) Globally extinct
d) Extinct in wild
92-If individual of specie remain alive only in captivity or in other human control situations, the specie is
said to be
a) Extinct
b) Locally extinct
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c) Globally extinct
d) Extinct in wild
93-Specie globally extinct mean
a) Locally extinct
b) Extinct
c) Wildly extinct
d) Both b & c
94-If specie is no longer found in an area that it once inhabited but is still found elsewhere in the wild
then it is considered to be
a) locally extinct
b) ecologically extinct
c) wildly extinct
d) globally extinct
95-The Bachman’s warbler is
a) Wildly extinct
b) Globally extinct
c) Ecologically extinct
d) Extinct
96-Wildly extinct specie is
a) Bachman’s warbler
b) Tiger
c) Franklin tree
d) American burying beetle
97-American burying beetle is locally extinct but once it was present throughtout
a) Eastern America
b) Northern America
c) South America
d) Eastern and central North America
98-If specie persist at such reduced numbers that its effects on the other species in its communities are
negligible then it is called
a) Ecologically extinct
b) Wildly extinct
c) Globally extinct
d) Locally extinct
99-Tiger is
a) Ecologically extinct
b) Wildly extinct
c) Globally extinct
d) Locally extinct
100-If specie has few members alive for years or decades, even reproduce but its ultimate fate would be
extinction then it is called
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a) Dead specie
b) Living specie
c) Endangered specie
d) Living dead specie
101-Species richness has decreased when human population
a) increased
b) decreased
c) Equilibrium
d) none
102-Advanced group of organisms insects, vertebrates and flowering plants reached their greatest
diversity about
a) 20,000 years ago
b) 30, 000 years ago
c) 40, 000 years ago
d) 50, 000 years ago
103-____% of total net primary productivity of terrestrial environment is used or wasted by people; this
represent about ____% of total primary productivity of earth
a) 30, 15
b) 40, 25
c) 50, 35
d) 60, 45
104-The first noticeable effects of human activities on extinction rates can be seen in the elimination of
a) Large mammals
b) Small mammals
c) Amphibians
d) Reptiles
105-When human arrived at Australia, North and south America then extinction of mega fauna at that
time was
a) 30 to 45%
b) 55 to 75%
c) 74 to 86%
d) 85 to 95%
106-Because of large size, extinction rates are best known for
a) Birds and Amphibians
b) Mammals and Birds
c) Amphibians and Mammals
d) Reptiles and Amphibians
107-The highest species extinction rates during historic time have occurred on
a) Island
b) Continents
c) Seas
d) All
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28
108-When species occur naturally to the location then it is called
a) Feral
b) Captive
c) Endemic
d) None
109-High rate of endemism observed in island of
a) Australia
b) Madagascar
c) Hawaiian
d) B&C
110-Extinction of even a few _____ species can represent a serious loss to global biological diversity
a) Marine
b) Terrestrial
c) Both
111-According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of fishes threatened with extinction was _______
and percentage of fishes threatened with extinction was _____
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 1029, 11
112-According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of amphibians threatened with extinction was ____
and percentage of amphibians threatened with extinction was __
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 1029, 11
113-According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of reptiles threatened with extinction was ___ and
the percentage of reptiles threatened with extinction was ____
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 1029, 11
114-According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of birds threatened with extinction was ___ and
percentage of birds threatened with extinction was ____
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 1029, 11
115- According the data of 1993 and 1994, the number of mammals threatened with extinction was ____
and percentage of mammals threatened with extinction was ___
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29
a) 452, 2
b) 59, 2
c) I67, 3
d) 505, 11
116-The island biogeography model was built to explain
a) Population area relationship

b) Species area relationship
c) Community area relationship
d) None of these
117-Species-area relationship define as
a) Islands with large areas have more species than islands with small areas
b) Islands with small areas have more species than islands with large areas
c) Islands with large areas have less species than islands with small areas
d) Islands with small areas have less species than islands with large areas
118-The island biogeography model has been used to predict the number and percentage of
a) Community
b) Species
c) Population
d) Individual
119-The island biogeography model predicts that when 50% of an island ( or a habitat island) destroyed,
approximately……. of the species occurring on the island will be eliminated.
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
120-If deforestation continues until all of the tropical forests except those in national parks and other
protected areas are cut down, about……. of all plant and bird species will be driven to extinction.
a) One third
b) Two third
c) Half
d) none
121-The major threats to biological diversity that result from human activity are
a) Habitat destruction
b) Habitat fragmentation
c) Habitat degradation
d) All of these
122-Until the last few hundred years, the rate of human population growth was relatively slow, with the
birth rate only slightly exceeding the
a) natality rate
b) mortality rate
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30
c) equilibrium
d) none of these
123-Inefficient and unequal usage of natural resources is the major cause of the decline in
a) Ecological diversity
b) Biological diversity
c) Ecosystem diversity
d) None of these
124- The cause of habitat destruction are the
a) Large scale industrial activity

b) Small scale industrial ativity
c) Large scale industrial and commercial activities
d) Commercial activities
125-The major threat to biological diversity is
a) Deforestation
b) Loss of habitat
c) Fragmentation
d) All of these
126-The primary threat to the majority of vertebrate species currently facing extinction is
a) Fragmentation
b) Deforestation
c) Loss of habitat
d) None of these
127-More than…… of the primary forest wildlife habitat has been destroyed in 47 out of 57 old world
tropical countries.
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
128-In the Mediterranean region, which has been densely populated by humans for thousands of years,
only……… of the original forest cover remains.
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
3. Economic Zoology
1. Any individual compeat with man for resources of life is called.
(a) Pest
(b) predators
(c) competitor
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31
(d) decomposers
Answer: (a)
2. The type of pest found in indoor environment is called.
(a) Plant pest
(b) Animal Pest
(c) Household Pest
(d) Termites
Answer: (c)
3. A very common household pest is
(a) Ants
(b) Mosquito
(c) Termites
(d) Bed bugs
Answer: (a)
4. Ants belongs to the order
(a) Diptera
(b) Orthoptera
(c) lepidotera
(d) Hymenoptera
Answer: (d)
5. Carpenter ants are scientifically called as
(a) Componotus pensylvanicus
(b) Pheidole megacephala
(c) Pladium pennanta
Answer: (a)
6. Ants moves from one place to other in the form of
(a) Groups
(b) Individually
(c) Colony
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32
(d) Queue
Answer: (d)
7. Carpenter ants can be common during
(a) Spring season
(b) Winter season
(c) Summer season
(d) Autumn season
Answer: (a)
8. Scientific name of Argentine ants is
(c) Pladium pennant
Answer: (c)
9. Scientific name of Big headed ants is
(c) Pladium pennant
Answer: (b)
10. For population growth....... is very important.
(a) Moisture
(b) Dry
(c) High temperature
(d) Air
Answer: (a)
11. Colour of body of cockroach is
(a) Red
(b) Brown
(c) Reddish brown
(d) Dark Brown
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33
Answer: (c)
12. The average length of cockroach vary from
(a) 10-15cm
(b) 15-20cm
(c) 5-10cm
(d) 5-20cm
Answer: (a)
13. In Pakistan the common specie of coackroach is
(a) Termites
(b) German cockroach
(c) Common cockroach
Answer: (b)
14. Scientific name of German coackroach is
(c) Periplanata Americana
15. German cockroach cause
(a) Skin allergy
(b) Cancer
(c) Rashes
(d) a and c
Answer: (d)
16. Mouth part of the cockroach contain
(a) Teeth
(b) Poison
(c) Antenna
(d) Eyes
Answer: (b)
17. The method use to control the cockroach is use of
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34
(a) Pesticide
(b) Insecticides
(c) Anti biotic
(d) Poison
Answer: (b)
18. The pest usually found in woods and furniture is
(a) Bed bugs
(b) Cockroach
(c) Ants
(d) Termites
Answer: (d)
19. The size of damp termites is about
(a) 20mm
(b) 30mm
(c) 10mm
(d) 20cm
Answer: (a)
20. Each Colony of damp wood termites comprise of...... individuals.
(a) 20-25
(b) 15-20
(c) 20-30
(d) 15-25
Answer: (b)
21. They prefer to stay inside
(a) Dry habitat
(b) Moisture habitat
(c) Hot environment
(d) Light
Answer: (b)
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35
22. Swarmers are actually attacking
(a) Sub-terranen termites
(b) Damp wood termites
(c) Dry wood termites
(d) Bed bugs
Answer: (b)
23. They reproduce by following method
(a) Binary fission
(b) Multiple Fission
(c) Sexually
(d) Asexually
Answer: (b)
24. The size of dry wood termites is
(a) 12-15mm
(b) 15-17mm
(c) 15-20mm
(d) 20-25mm
(b) 15-17mm
25. Swarmed can be done damage by using their
(a) Antenna
(b) Mandible
(c) Eyes
(d) Nails
Answer: (b)
26. Sub-terranian termites are present
(a) Dry habitat
(c) Below soil surface
(d) Above the surface
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36
Answer: (c)
27. Their colony comprise of
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 35
Answer: (b)
28. Bed bugs usually required...... for their survival.
(a) Dry habitat
(c) Nocturnal condition
(d) Diurnal conditions
Answer: (c)
29. The size of bed bugs ranges from
(a) 0.5cm-1cm
(b) 1cm-2.5cm
(c) 1cm-5cm
(d) 0.5mm-1mm
Answer: (a)
30. Bed bugs Belongs to the order
(a) Heteroptera
(b) Orthoptera
(c) Lepidoptera
(d) Hymenoptera
Answer: (a)
31. Bed bugs cause infection in humans called
(a) Common bed bugs
(b) Dry wood termites
(c) Infectious bed bugs
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37
(d) Human bed bugs
Answer: (d)
32. The allergy condition can occur due to
(a) Weak immune system
(b) Poison
(c) Virus
Answer: (a)
33. Ticks are performed of their activity during
a. Diurnal condition
b. Nocturnal condition
c. Dry days
d. Rainy days
Answer: (b)
34. Argasidae reduce the fever caused by the
a. Mites
b. Ticks
c. Cockroach
d. Aphid
Answer: (a)
35. Dropanorhynchous oxambii are present in
a. Rainforest habitat
b. Desert areas
c. Hilly areas
d. All of them
Answer: (d)
36. Chicken mites are caused due to reducing the activity of
a. Respiratory tract
b. Vascular system
c. Nervous coordination
d. Skeletal system failure
Answer: (a)
37. Seri-culture is the branch which deals with the study
a. Ant
b. Spider
c. Aphid
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38
d. Silkworm
Answer: (d)
38. Silk worm are feed on the
a. Mulberry fruit
b. Flower
c. Juicy fruit
d. Crop
Answer: (a)
39. Sitophilus oryzae damage the stored item
a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Cereals
d. Maize
Answer: (a)
40. Which one is the wheat damaging insect….
a. Rhyzopertha dominica
b. Karnal baut
c. Khapra beetle
d. Rice weevil
Answer: (a)
41. Fumigation process uses mixture of following gasses
a. Hydrogen sulfide and co2

b. Hydrogen sulfide and co
c. Phosphine and H2S
d. Phosphine and co2
Answer: (c)
42. Use of environment friendly gels to repel the insects from the stored grains is a ……… method.
A. Non chemical method

B. Chemical method
C. Biological method
D. None of these
Ans: (A)
43. Which insect cause damage to stored grains………..,
A. Rice weevil
B. Khapra beetle
C. Lesser grain borer
D. All of these
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39
Ans: (D)
44. The scientific name of rice weevil is …….,
A. Sitophilus oryzae
B. Trobolium castaneum
C. Rhyzopertha dominica
D. Tilletia indica
Ans: (A)
45. At what stage of wheat, the lesser grain bore effect it…….,
A. At pre harvested stage

B. At post harvested stage
C. At the time of seed germination
D. At the time of bud formation
Ans: (B)
46. What is the scientific name of Karnal bunt…..
A. Tilletia indica
B. Trogoderma granarium
C. Sitophilus oryzae
D. Tribolium castaneam
Ans: (A)
47. What is the scientific name of lesser grain bore…..
A. Tribolium castaneum
B. Sitophilus oryzae
C. Rhyzopertha dominica
D. Tilletia indica
E. Both A and C
Ans: (E)
48. Health facilities in many developed countries are adverse with the general poor economics
particularly in,
A. Turkey
B. Brazil
C. Africa
D. Thailand
Ans: (C)
49. A pearl is formed from…
A. Soft tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Bone tissue
D. Muscle tissue
Ans: (A)
50. Which material is present in pearl which help in illumination,
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40
A. CaSO4
B. CaCO3
C. KCO3
D. MgCO3
Ans: (B)
51. How many types of pearl are there,
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Ans: (A)
52. A pearl has,
A. Low refractive index

B. Low reflective index
C. High refractive index
D. High reflective index
Ans: (C)
53. The natural pearls are present in the special mendranous structure of the molluscs called,
A. Upper region
B. Mantle
C. Core
D. Crust
Ans: (B)
54. The cultured pearls are present in the delicate structure of oyster called as,
A. Imitating membrane
B. Hard membrane
C. Super coil membrane
D. Fragile membrane
Ans: (A)
55. The pearls are used in the formation of ,
A. Gold and jewelry

B. Buttons
C. Furniture
D. Wires
E. Both A and B
Ans: (E)
56. Predominantly, pearl industry originate from which country,
A. India
B. Europe
C. North America
D. China
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41
Ans: (D)
57. The most reason for the failure of the pearl industry in Pakistan is the lack of,
A. Required environmental factors

B. Degree of motivation
C. Sources
D. None of these
Ans: (A)
58. Categories of pest include,
A. Plants
B. Insects
C. Vertebrates
D. All of these
Ans: (D)
59. A pest is……,
A. Good for crops

B. Harmful for crops
C. Beneficial for crops
D. Sufficient for crops
Ans: (B)
60. Plant pests are following,
A. Birds and grasses

B. Weeds and grasses
C. Insects and weeds
D. Birds and insects
Ans: (B)
61. Plant pests cause……… in the soil.
A. Soil fertility
B. Hardness
C. Soil erosion
D. Deficiency of nutrients
E. Both C and D
Ans: (E)
62. Vertebrate pests are,
A. Small mammals
B. Large mammals
C. Birds
D. All of these
63. Fumigation is the mixture of …….. Gases.
A. Methane and hydrogen sulphide

B. Phosphine and hydrogen sulphide
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42
C. Methane and phosphine
D. Methane and chlorine
Ans: (B)
64. After fumigation process the whole building is shut off from the external source and left for about …..
Years.
A. 72
B. 71
C. 70
D. 60
Ans: (A)
65. Karnal bunt laid how many eggs,
A. 350
B. 200
C. 220
D. 335
Ans: (A)
66. How many categories of insect pest.
a. Five
b. Three
c. Six
d. Two
Answer: b
67. Pest which are present for large mammals and birds.
a. Insect pest
b. Vertebrate pest
c. Plant pest
d. Wheat insect pest
Answer: b
68. Detection of insect damage process is called
a. Harmful detection
b. Taxonomy detection
c. Taxonomic Knowledge
d. Knowledge detection
Answer: c
68. Where the wheat insect are present in Pakistan
a. Punjab
b. Central Punjab
c. Sindh
d. Baluchistan
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43
Answer: b
69. Midge is the most important crop pest which effect the crops during
a. Seed stage
b. Developing stage
c. Maturity stage
d. Growth stage
Answer: d
70. Midges population is control by
a. Cultural measures
b. Biological measures
c. Chemical measures
d. All of them
Answer: d
71. Another important insect which is likely to affect the wheat crop in Lentil stage
a. Grass hopper
b. Tick
c. Bed bud
d. Ants
Answer: a
72. What a technique which is used for Detection of insect pest
a. Detection Technique
b. Pest Monitoring
c. Pest Scouting
d. Detection Monitoring
Answer: c
73. Transect and …..method use in pest scouting technique
a. Quadrant method
b. Line Method
c. Square method
d. None of these
Answer: a
74. Numerical occurrence of Vertebrate pest can be less as compared to……but damage profile is more
a. Plant pest
b. Insect pest
c. Wheat pest
d. Maize pest
Answer: b
75. Important Vertebrate pests are
a. House Mouse
b. House Rat
c. Bandicoot Rat
d. All of these
Answer: d
76. Scientific name of House Mouse
a. Mus musculus
b. Rattus rattus
c. Bandicota bengalensis
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44
d. Passer domesticus
Answer: a
77. Cash crop of Pakistan is
a. Wheat
b. Maize
c. Cotton
d. Rice
Answer: b
78. Bandicota bengalensis is a common name of
a. Rat
b. Mouse
c. Bandicoot Rat
d. Sparrow
Answer: c
79. Which pest damage the Maize crop
a. Insect pest
b. Plant pest
c. Vertebrate pest
d. Wheat pest
Answer: c
80. Dough and Mature stages of…. Crop effect by rodents
a. Wheat
b. Maize
c. Rice
d. Cotton
Answer: b
81. Large Mammals which damage the Maize crop
a. Fox
b. Wild boar
c. Jackals
d. All of these
Answer: d
82. Scientific name of Fox is
a. Canis aureus
b. Sus scrufa
c. Vulpes vulpes
d. Psittocula krameri
Answer: c
83. Scientific name of jackal is
a. Canis aureus
b. Sus scrufa
c. Vulpes vulpes
Answer: a
84. Scientific name of wild boar

a. Canis aureus
b. Sus scrufa
c. Vulpes vulpes
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45
Answer: b
85. Most important Bird pest of Maize
a. Rose ringed parakeet
b. House sparrow
c. House crow
d. All of these
Answer: d
86. Scientific name of Rose ringed parakeet
a. Passer domesticus
b. Corvus splendens
c. Canis aureus
Answer: d
87. Alpha alpha insect pest of Maize found in
a. Summer season
b. Spring season
c. Winter season
d. Rainy season
Answer: b
88. Small insect pest which damage the seedling stage of Maize crop
a. Cut worm
b. Weevil
c. Aphids
d. Beet worm
Answer: c
89. Which worm have rapid rate of breeding and appear August to september
a. Cut worm
b. Beet worm
c. Earth worm
d. Round worm
Answer: a
90. Which worm cause intensive damage during growth stage of Maize
a. Grasshopper
b. Beet worm
c. Weevil
d. Aphids
Answer: a
91. Ornamental fishes are those that are present as:
a) Reserve fishes
b) Game fishes
c) Decorative fishes
d) Healthy fishes
Answer: (b)
92. Ornamental fishes can be found in:
a) Small freshwater and large marine water
b) Brackish water
c) Large freshwater and small marine water
d) Pond water
Answer :( a)
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46
93. Ornamental fishes are sold at:
a) High prices
b) Low prices
c) Medium prices
d) Free of cost
Answer :( a)
94. The resources for the ornamental fishes are present in:
a) Peshawar harbor
b) Swat harbor
c) Karachi harbor
d) Islamabad harbor
Answer :( c)
95. How many methods are for the breeding of ornamental fishes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer :( c)
96. Which of the following is not the method for the breeding of ornamental fishes?
a) Natural
b) Artificial
c) Stripping
d) Ornamental
Answer :( d)
97. Hypophysation occurs in the following method:
a) Natural method
b) Artificial method
c) Stripping method
Answer: (b)
98. In Hypophysation, after how many hours female brooders show response:
a) 2 to 3 hours
b) 5 to 6 hours
c) 6 to 8 hours
d) 9 to 10 hours
Answer :( c)
99. Hypophysation does not take more than…….. Hours:
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer: (d)
100. In stripping method brooders are placed in containers for about……minutes:
a) 5 to 7
b) 7 to9
c) 9 to 11
d) 11 to 13
Answer :( a)
101. The stripping method is fruitful in ………hours:

a) 3 to 4
b) 5 to 6
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47
c) 8 to 10
d) 12 to 15
Answer :( c)
102. In stripping method, brooders are stripped with chemical secretion known as:
a) Milt
b) Ethanol
c) Methanol
d) 5-hydroxy butyric acid
Answer :( a)
103. The leading country for ornamental fishes is:
a) Japan
b) America
c) Canada
d) Turkey
Answer :( a)
104. Ectoparasitic diseases are caused by:
a) Amphibians
b) Aves
c) Insects
d) Rodents
Answer :( d)
105. Salmonellosis is caused by a parasite which is known as:
a) Salmonella
b) Yersenia pestis
c) Lymph dispar
d) Liver fluke
Answer :( a)
106. Salmonella parasite is present among the gut content of ……..rodents species:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer :( c)
107. Salmonellosis is common among children below……..years:
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
Answer: (b)
108. Leptospirosis is caused by the parasite known as:
a) Yersenia pestis
b) Salmonella
c) Lyme dispar
d) Spirochete
Answer :( d)
109. The destruction of red blood cells is called:
a) Anemia
b) Hemophilia
c) Hemolysis
d) Leukemia
Answer :( c)
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48
110. Plague is caused by the ectoparasite known as:
a) Yersenia pestis
b) Salmonella
c) Lyme dispar
d) Spirochete
Answer :( a)
111. Yersenia pestis is caused by the ……..species of rodents:
a) 12
b) 24
c) 36
d) all
Answer :( d)
112. Jaundice caused by:

a) Yersenia pestis
b) Salmonella
c) Lyme dispar
d) Spirochete
Answer :( a)
113. Plague is common in ……. continents:
a) America and Africa

b) Africa and Asia
c) Asia and Australia
d) Africa and Europe
Answer: (b)
114. Lyme disease is caused by:
a) Yersenia pestis
b) Salmonella
c) Lyme dispar
d) Spirochete
Answer :( c)
115. Swelling of lymph glands and the failure of red blood cells occur in:
a) Lyme disease
b) Salmonellosis
c) Leptospirosis
d) Murine typhus
Answer :( a)
116. Murine typhus is caused by which species of rodents:
a) Mus musculus
b) Bandicota bengalensis
c) Rattus rattus
d) Nesokia indica
Answer: (b)
117. Hypothermia occurs in which disease:
a) Lyme disease
b) Salmonellosis
c) Leptospirosis
d) Murine typhus
Answer :( d)
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49
118. Leishmaniasis is caused by:
a) Yersenia pestis
b) Leishmania devoni
c) Lyme dispar
d) Spirochete
Answer: (b)
119. Boils and Rashes on hands, feet and neck occurs in which disease:
a) Lyme disease
b) Salmonellosis
c) Leptospirosis
d) Leishmaniasis
Answer :( d)
120. Which of the following disease is transferred by the saliva?
a) Lyme disease
b) Murine typhus
c) Leptospirosis
d) Leishmaniasis
Answer :( b)
121. Destruction of red and white blood cells occurs in which disease:
a) Lyme disease
b) Salmonellosis
c) Leptospirosis
d) Leishmaniasis
Answer :( d)
122. Leishmaniasis is responsible for the great infection among:
a) Rodents
b) Grazing animals
c) Birds
d) Fishes
Answer :( b)
123. Leishmaniasis is responsible for the mortality about:
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
Answer :( c)
124. The treatment is possible for the Ectoparasitic diseases if these are diagnosed in:
a) Mid stage
b) Last stage
c) Early stage
d) Embryonic stage
Answer :( c)
4. Animal Ecology
1) A group of individuals of one kind with no barriers to exchange of genetic material in a given area at a
given time called
A) Population B) Community C) Ecology D) Population ecology
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50
2) The study of dealing with structure and dynamics of individuals in a population and their interactions
with environment is known as
A) Population B) Population ecology C) Community D) None
3) ___ deals with study of structure and dynamics of individual in population
A) Community B) Succession C) Population ecology D) None
4) Population ecology deals with structure and ____ of individuals in a population and their instruction
with environment
A) Function B) Both C) Dynamics D) None
5) The study of ecology of individual species or its population ____
A) Autecology B) Synecology C) Community D) None
6) The population of individuals can be ____
A) r- selected B) K-selected C) Both D) None
7) The classification of population are ___ types
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
8) The type of classification of population is based on their ___ and survival strategies
A) Function B) Structure C) Density D) Growth
9) ___ selected population are characterized by high reproductive rate
A) r- selected B) k-selected C) both D) None
10) High rates of intrinsic growth present in the___
A) k-selected B) r-selected C) Both D) None
11) r- selected exhibit ___ life span
A) Longer B) intermediate C) shorter D) both a& b
12) The r-selected populations exhibit the shorter life span called
A) Opportunistic species B) Population ecology C) None
13) ___ selected population are slow growing
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51
A) r-selected B) k-selected C) Both D) None
14) K-selected population’s are___
A) Fast growing B) Slow growing C) have great density D) both a & b
15) ___ slow growing and tend to be limited by carrying capacity of environment
A) k-selected B) r-selected C) Both D) None
16) K-selected populations have ___ life span
A) Short B) intermediate C) Both a & b D) long
17) The subject of population ecology can be divided into ___sections
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
18) Populations are identified by ___ number of characteristics
A) Six B) Seven C) Eight D) Nine
19) Population size usually determined by on basis of ___
A) Pattern of dispersion B) Mortality C) Density D) Structure
20) Density of population is often __ types
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five
21) The density which takes in account area of land or aquatic ecosystem under consideration called__
A) Ecological density B) Crude density C) Natality D) Both a & b
22) The density which takes in account abundance of individuals in actual area occupied by a population
called__
A) Crude density B) Population abundance C) Ecological density D) None
23) The manner in which individuals of a population are distributed in space and time called__
A) Pattern of dispersion B) Age structure C) Population size D) All
24) Dispersion may be__
A) Spatial B) Temporal C) Both D) None
25) Dispersion may be varying with respect to__
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52
A) Time B) Space C) Density D) Both a & b
26) In case of spatial pattern, broadly __ types of dispersion patterns are recognized
A) Three B) Four C) Five D) six
27) A population is comprised of individuals of different ___ that constitute its age structure
A) Natality B) Age group C) Pattern of dispersion
28) ___ of a population thus derive from the proportion of individuals in different age groups
A) Age structure B) Biotic potential C) Natality D) None
29) Age categories have been divided into __ major stages
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Six
30) ___ is a geometrical model showing the proportions of different age groups of a population
A) Age structure B) Reproductive structure C) Age pyramid D) None
31) A Population with __ proportion of major three stages are said to be stationary populations
A) Equal B) Different C) Major D) All
32) A population with high number of young individuals as compared to older organism’s called__ type
A) Retrogressive B) Declining C) Progressive D) None
33) If number of older organisms is more than the younger ones, the population said to be__type
A) Retrogressive B) Declining C) Increasing D) Both a & b
34) The base of pyramid of such population would be __
A) Narrow B) Broad C) Open D) All
35) The population of new individuals of an organism in a population called _
A) Age groups B) Age structure C) Natality D) None
36) The new individuals can be formed through the birth, hatching, germination, and cell division in
__process
A) Natality B) Age groups C) Age structure D) None
37) The number of offspring produced per female per unit time is known as
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53
A) Natality B) Rate of natality C) Pattern of dispersion D) none
38) Natality can be of __ types
A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five
39) ___ rate means maximum offspring’s produced under most suitable environmental conditions
A) Fecundity B) Fertility C) Mortality D) All
40) __ rates refers to number of offspring produced under prevailing environmental conditions
A) Fecundity B) Ecological natality C) Fertility D) both b & c
41) Rate of death of individuals in a population called
A) Mortality B) Natality C) Fecundity D) All
42) The theoretical minimum death rate which occur under ideal conditions of environment with limiting
factors called
A) Minimum mortality rate
B) Physiological longevity
C) Ecological mortality rate D) both a & b
43) Under actual environmental conditions, the death rate may be more and this actual death rate is
referred to as
A) Physiological longevity B) Ecological mortality C) None
44) The most popular way to express mortality in a population is to prepare the __ survivorship curve
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
45) Higher rate of survival, low rate of mortality of younger individuals as compared to older ones occur
in__
A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Convex curve D) both a & c
46) __ type shows a steady death of individuals per unit time throughout the life
A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Type 3 D) None
47) __ type shows a straight line relationship b/w age and number of survivors
A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Type 3 D) All
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54
48) __ type called the highly concave curve
A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Type 3 D) None
49) __ type shows the high mortality of individuals at young stage as compared to old stage
A) Type 1 B) type 2 C) Type 3 D) None
50) ___ is the inherent power of a population to grow and reproduce when environmental conditions are
favorable and resources are unlimited
A) Biotic potential B) population dynamic C) Both
51) Biotic potential is represented by the__
A) r B) k C) B D) E
52) Population is never static and changing with time and space. These changes in population size over
the time show varied trends.
A) Population ecology
B) Population dynamic
C) Population abundance D) None
53)__ types of growth models are present
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
54) Population dynamics represented by the
A) dN/Dt= rN B) Dn/Dt=rN C) dN/dt=rN D) None
55) When population growth occurs at a place where resources are limited then it attains the __ shape
curve showing the minimum death during early stages
A) J-shaped B) s-shaped C) Both D) None
56) The population increase in size until it reaches an upper limit.This upper limit known as
A) Carrying capacity B) Population growth C) Population regulation D) None
57) Carrying capacity represented by the symbol
A) r B) k C) e D) c
58) Capacity of an ecosystem to support maximum number of individuals of a species called
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55
A) Carrying capacity B) population regulation C) Population growth D) None
59) sigmoid growth is thus density dependent and can be expressed by the following equation
A) Dn/dt= rn(K-n/K)
B) dN/dt=rN(K-N/K)
C) dN/Dt= rN(k-N/K) D) None
60) A number of factors like availability of food, space, water, pests may regulate the population __
A) Size B) Growth C) Density D) None
61) The factors that responsible for population regulation can be
A) Density dependent
B) Density independent C) both a & b D) only a
62) Individuals of populations release a toxic substance in the soil or water, which tend to limit growth
of their own type of plants and thus control over-crowding of a species at a particular place known as
A) Autoallopathy B) Autotoxicity C) Both a & b D) None
63) A group of co-existing and interacting populations of a variety in a given space and time called
A) Community B) Biotic & Ecological community C) Biocoenosis D) All
64) Transitional area b/w two communities that known as the
A) Ecotone B) Species richness C) keystone D) None
65) The ecotonal communities are rich in __ diversity
A) Population B) Species C) community D) None
66) Characteristics of community are __ types
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
67) Number of different species in the community including both abundant and rare species called
A) Species abundance B) Species richness C) Species diversity D) Species
68) Species diversity has the components
A) Species evenness B) Species richness C) Both a & b D) All
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69) Species diversity very high in ___ communities
A) Natural B) Physical C) Human controlled D) None
70) Species diversity very low in the ___ communities
A) Natural B) Physical C) Human controlled D) Both b & c
71) Species__ refers the different types of species and their numerical strength
A) Richness B) Evenness C) both D) None
72) Species __ refers to measure which qualifies as to how even species are in terms of their number
A) Richness B) Evenness C) Both D) None
73) Community structure is often expressed in term of its major__ form
A) Structure B) Reproduction C) Growth D) All
74) The horizontal distribution of a community is known as
A) Zonation B) Straight C) Lining pattern D) None
75) Such groups of species are not taxonomically related and influenced the energy flow and affect the
environment of other species known as
A) Ecology B) Ecological dominance C) none
76) __ species that are not necessarily abundant in a community
A) keystone B) Ecotone C) Both D) None
77) __ is a key factor in a community dynamics
A) Trophic growth B) Trophic structure C) Ecology D) None
78) The trophic structure is determined by the feeding relationship b/w__
A) individuals B) Organisms C) Population D)None
79) Plant communities keep changing with time and space in__
A) Tropic structure B) Ecology C) Ecological succession
80) The change in community structure and composition over period until there is a formation of a stable
community known as
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57
A) Ecological Succession B) Trophic structure C) None
81) Ecological succession also termed as the__
A) Ecological development B) Ecosystem development C) Both D) None
82) The final stable community formed at the end of succession exists for a longer period and is in
harmony with the existing environmental conditions known as
A) climax community B) Seral community C) Pioneer community D) None
83) Communities that appear for a shorter time, and are replaced in succession are termed as__
community
A) Climax B) Seral C) Pioneer D) None
84) The plant community that colonizes an area for the first time is termed as__ community
A) Climax B) Seral C) Pioneer D) None
85) A___ coloration is indicated by warning colors, and is sometimes associated with other defense
A) Posematic B) Cryptic C) Both D) None
86) Individuals of a species that vary in external appearance and their variations are genetically fixed and
irreversible called
A) Ecotones B) Ecotypes C) Keystone D) All
87) Ecotypes are the__ race
A) Ecological B) Physiological C) Both a & b D) None
88) __ ecotype erect type that is grow in moist areas
A) 1 B) 2 C) Both D) None
89) __ ecotype is prostrate type that grow in the dry areas
A) Type 1 B) Type 2 C) Both D) None
90) Morphological races of a species that exhibit temporary variation in response to different
environmental conditions are known as
A) Ecads B) Ecophenes C) Both D) None
91) Ecad___ totally prostrate and grows on the dry and hard soil
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92) Ecad___ grows on footpath, in grasses, has temporary variations arise in response to grazing
93) The United Nation world commission on Environment and development defined the expression
sustainable development in its report “Our common future”in
A) 1984 B) 1985 C) 1986 D) 1987
94) It is anything directly used by human beings are the resources said by the
A) OECC B) OECB C) OECD D) OECE
95) Types of resources that are in an intermediate stage of their possibility to renew or to deplete
called___ resources
A) Renewable B) Semi renewable C) Non-renewable D) None
96) Time for the regeneration of renewable resources is
A) < 1 year B) 1-200 years C) 1-300 years D) <2 year
97) Time for regeneration of the semi renewable resources is
A) 1-100 years B) 1-200 years C) < 4 years D) <1 year
98) Time for regeneration for the non-renewable resources is
A) < 1 year B) <5 year C) No economic relevance D) < 2year
99) Carlson, studied the growth of of yeast by centrifuging a culture and determining its ______
(a) Mass (b) weight (c) volume (d) both a,c
100) Who identified three major types of survivorship curves
A) pearl (b) Evans and Frederick (c) Carlson (d) none of these
101) Type 1 servivorship curve a ________ in which mortality is high initially
A) convex curve (b) concave curve (c) straight curve (d) none
102) Each female of one generation is expected to produce 120 offspring, of which 60 females then the
net reproductive rate is
A) 120 (b) 80 (C) 60 (d) 50
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103) In a stabilized population when the net reproductive rate is 1 then r is
A) Zero (b) one (c ) two (d) 10
104) Net reproductive rate an indication of _________
(a) Generation time (b) maturity time (C) environmental resistance (d ) none
105) Net reproductive rate coupled with_____
A) Generation time (b) maturity time (c) environmental resistance (d ) none
106) There is ________ relationship between r and generation time
a) Direct (B) inverse (c) stable (d) None
107) There is inverse relationship between ________
r and generation time (b) body size and r (c) body size nd generation time (D) both a,b
108) The value of r in stable population must be
A) Zero (b) one (c ) two (d) 10
109) A convex curve in which mortality is low initially is______ type of survivorship curve
A) Type 1 (b) type2 (c) type 3 (d) type 4
110) In S, J shaped curve which force push the curve upward
A) Biotic potential (b) reproductive potential (c) environmental resistance (d)no of individuals
111) In S, J shaped curve which force push the curve downward
Biotic potential (b) reproductive potential (C) environmental resistance (d)no of individuals
112) Increase potential of a population is dependent on both
R and N (b) r and R (C) r and N (d) none
113) J, shaped population continue to increase geomatically if
(a) N continues to increase (b) N continues to decrease (c) if N is stable (d) none
114) J, shaped population continue to increase geomatically if
There is immigration and migration (B) there is neither immigration nor emigration
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(a) There is migration and emigration (d) there is nether migration and emigration
115) The J shaped growth curve is observed in
Insects population (b) algae population (c) reptile population (D) both a,b
I16) population continues increasing at accelerating rate , precipitously decreases its rate to zero in
this initial curve has ______ shape
A) J (b) S (c) straight (d) none
117) J shaped growth curve observe in the growth of those populations that have only _________
generation per yer
A) One (b) two (c) three (d) more than one
118) If the data of time and no of individuals are plotted and points joined the growth curve of population
J shaped (B) Sigmoidal (c) type 1 (d) type3
119) The turning or inflection point of the positive growth phase is
(a) 12 hours (b) 4 hours (C) 8 hours (d) 0 hours
120) The rapid growth portion of positive growth phase is referred as logarithmic growth phase because
__________ produce when data plotted logarithmically
A) Straight line (b) curve (c) horizontal line (d) vertical line
121) At stationary phase of growth curve there is no net change in the population at ______
A) Maximum point (b) Minimum point (c) medium point (D) Zero point
122) The J shaped growth curve observe in the population of
A) Insects (b) algae (c) drosophila (D) House fly
123) Amount of energy required to convert one gram of substance from solid to liquid at melting point
called….
A) Latent heat of fusion (b) evaporation (c) latent heat of evaporation (d) None
124) Water reach at its maximum density at….
(a) 8 (B) 4 (c) -2 (d) -4
125) Violent waves also called….
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61
(a) Hurricanes (b) earthquake (c) wind (d) tsunamis.
126) Less variable climate above 2 meters is known as….
(A) Macroclimate (b) microclimate (c) climate (d) weather.
127) Amount of radiant energy of all the wave length that cross a unit area called…
(a) Solar distance (b) light intensity (C) solar flux (d) temperature.
128) Total precipitation is….
(A) 5.2 17kg (b) 4.5 102 km (c) 5.5×1017 kg (d) none of these.
129) Diurnal changes in temperature are most marked in….
(a) Aquatic (B) terrestrial (c) earth (d) forest.
130) About 45 percent of soil consist of ….
(a) Air (b) water (c) organic matter (D) mineral matter .
131) A2 is zone of….
(A) Maximum leaching of mineral (b) humus (c) debris (d) parent rock.
132) Liebig’s law of minimum applied to ….
(a) Organic nutrients (B) inorganic nutrients (c) minerals (d) proteins.
133) B layer also called….
(A) Zone of accumulation (b) zone of nutrients (c) decomposed zone (d) Un weathered rock.
134) Long term weather over period of 30 to 40 years is called….
(a) Season (b) temperature C) climate (d) condition.
135) ____fire is very intense and destructive
A) Crown fire (b) surface fire (c) litter fire (d) none of these.
136) Law of minimum is a special case of…..
(a) law of maximum (b) limiting factor (c) optimum (d) Law of toleration
137) Infra-red has____
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62
A) Long wave (b) short wave (c) intermediate (d) normal
138) -Mineral matter constituent’s about__________% of soil.
(a) 55% (b) 65% (C) 45% (d) 67%
139) Macro-nutrients comprises about______% of dry organic weight
(A) 0.2 (b) 1.5 (c)0.4 (d) 1
140) Basic component of protein is
(a) Phosphorus (B) sulphur (c) magnesium (d) iodine
141) Rate of photosynthesis is influenced by
(a) sulphur (b) calcium (c) iodine (D) copper
142) Trace element that was to be found first of all is:
(a) Iodine (b) fluorine (C) Nickel (d) Tin
143) Aluminium is necessary for thedevelopment of
(a) Algae (B) Ferns (c) plants (d) None
144) China’s forests are the reserves of_____
(a) Gymnosperms (b) Shrubs (C) Conifers (d) ornamental plants
145) Surface fire burns only the
(a) A-horizon (b) B-horizon (c) Litter layer (D) O-horizon
146) Soil is the ________ as well as biological laboratory of nature
(a) Geological (b) Physical (C) Chemical (d) None
147) -According to _________ view soil is a pulverized rock containing organic matter
(a) Physical (B) Geological (c) Biological (d) None
148) Organic and mineral components of soil differentiated it into different______
(A) Horizon (b) Compartments (c) Patches (d) Blocks
149 Different horizons make the
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63
(a)soil structure (b) soil texture (C) soil profile (d) All
150) Maximum leaching takes place in______ horizon
(A) A2 (b) A1 (c) O (d) None
151) Zone containing the weekly weathered parent rock
(a) O (B) C (c) B (d) A
152) Mineral matter, air, water and organic matter are the main constituent of
(a) Atmosphere (b) Animal (c) ocean (D) Soil
153) Organic matter constituents about _____ %
(A) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
154) Soil contain about _______% of water and air
(a) 20 (b) 30 (C) 25 (d) 45
155) Number of chemicals required by the organism are_______
(a) 20 (B) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50
156) Nutrients that constituent less than 0.2%of dry organic weight are
(A) Micronutrients (b) macronutrients (c) Essential elements (d) None
157) Macronutrients constituents more than 1% of dry organic weight are
(A) C,N,H,O2 (b) C,N,H,P (c) H,C,N,O (d)None
158) - Nitrogen comprises _______% of human body
(a) 15 (b) 19 (C) 1.4 (d) 1.9
159) -_______ comprises 63% of human body
(a) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) sulphur
160) -Building block of protoplast is
(A) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) sulphur
161) Elements that maintain acid base balance are
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(a) Cl, Na, k (b) Na, Cl, Mg (C) Cl, Na, Ca (d) None
162) Element critical to the structure of chlorophyll is
(a) Ca (b) Mn (c) Cl (D) Mg
163) Iron is required for the transfer of _________in photosynthesis
(A) Electron (b) proton (c) Energy (d) Hydrogen
164) The macro nutrients that are micronutrients in plants are
(a) Na & Ca (B) Na & Cl (c) Na & k (d) cl
165) Boron is involved in
(a) Growth (b) cell replacement (C) Cell division (d) None
166) _________is required in root nodules for proper functioning of nitrogen fixing bacteria
(A) Cobalt (b) Boron (c) Fluoride (d) Nickel
167) Crown fire is more _________ than surface fire
(a) Crucial (B) destructive (c) Beneficial (d) None
168) Black dragon river separates the USSR from
(a) Iran (b) America (c) Turkey (D) China
169) The great fire takes place in
(A) 1989 (b) 1990 (c) 1991 (d)1992
170) Fire is a great cause of ________ disturbance
(a) Community (B) ecological (c) Population (d) All
171) Cedar Bog Lake has gross production
(A) 111c/cm2/yr (b) 112c/cm2/yr (c) 114c/cm2/yr (d) None
172) Trophic dynamics of ecosystem means dynamics
(a) Food (b) water (C) energy (d)minerals
173) Herbivores consume ______% of total net autotroph production.
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(A) 13.5 (b) 13.6 (c) 13.7 (d) 13.9
174) -_______% of net production of cedar Bog Lake is amount by decomposition
(a) 2 (B) 2.7 (c) 2.5 (d) 3
175) Herbivores consume 30% of energy in
(a) Reproductive activities (B) Metabolic activities (c) Both
176) Herbivores lost more energy in respiration than
(a) Heterotroph (b) Carnivores (C) Autotroph (d)Detrivores
177) 60% of total intake energy by________ is consumed in metabolic activities.
(A) Carnivores (b) Decomposers (c) Herbivores (d)None
178) Laws of thermodynamics deals with energy and
(a) Liquid (B) matter (c) solid (d)energy
179) Energy may change in form but not in amount” is the statement of
(A) Ist law of tharmodynamics
(b) 2nd law of thermodynamics
(c) entropy (d) laws of Newton
180) In terrestrial ecosystem of the total energy _____% is transmitted carnivores
(a) 0.05 (B) 0.01 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.07
181) -58% of total energy in terrestrial ecosystem is consumed by
(A) remain un used (b) decomposed (c) Autotroph (d) None
182) Types of fragmentation are
(a) 1 (B) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
183) Net primary production of Hubbard Brook Forest is
(a) 30% (b) 40% (C) 45% (d) 60%
184) The movement of water from the atmosphere to the Earth surface and through a variety of pathways
back to atmosphere called___Cycles
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(a) Biogeochemical (B) hydrological (c) sedimentary (d) None
185) The movement of chemical elements involves biological organisms and their geological
environment , these movements called ____ cycles
(A) Biogeochemical (b) hydrological (c) sedimentary (d) all
186) Major reservoir is the lithosphere from which the elements are released largely by weathering
called__cycles
(a) Biogeochemical (b) hydrological (C) Sedimentary (d) all
187) carbon found in the human body about the __%
(a) 47 (b) 48 (C) 49 (d) 50
188) The simplest nutrient cycle is the ____ cycle
(A) Carbon (b) sulphur (c) nitrogen (d)phosphorus
189) In carbon cycle the gaseous reservoir is the atmosphere , which has an average conc. Of about __%
of carbon dioxide
(a) 0.023 (b) 0.024 (c) 0.025 (D) 0.032
190) At ground level conc. Of carbon is ____
(A) maximum (b) minimum (c) normal (d) all
191) CO2 levels near the ground may rise to ____ % at night
(a) 0.01 (B) 0.05 (c) 0.06 (d) 0.07
192) CO2 level drop to below the average conc. Of ____% during days
(A) 0.032 (b) 0.024 (c) 0.025 (d) 0.026
193) In spring _____ photosynthetic activity take place that balanced conc. Of CO2
(a) Minimum (B) maximum (c) normal (d) all
194) Low or no decomposition process takes place in ____
(a) Summer (b) spring (C) winter (d) Fall
195) In northern latitudes CO2 contents which is a maximum in April & September and the winter – to-
summer- differences may vary by as much ___%
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(A) 0.002 (b) 0.003 (C) 0.004 (d) 0.005
196) CO2 conc. ___ m above the soil surface from march through November 1985
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.2, 3 (c) 12 (D) All
197) CO2 conc. Were highest near soil surface in ____
(A) summer (b) spring (c) winter (d) fall
198) The amount of carbon in the sediments as ___ times larger
(a) 6 (B) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
199) The amount of carbon in the dead organisms as ____ time larger
(A) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
200) The amount of carbon in organic form is but a fraction less than ___ % of that occurring in the
geological component of environment
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.02 (C) 0.1 (d) 0.4
201) Major reservoir of carbon is inorganic with ___ % being in sedimentary form
(A) 99 (b) 97 (c) 95 (d) 93
202) A liter of rain water contains about ___ cc of gaseous CO2
(a) 0.2 (B) 0.3 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.5
203) 1 cc is = to
(a) 1-microliter (b) 1-centimeter (C) 1-milliliter (d) none
204) The ___% nitrogen rich in atmosphere
(A) 79 (b)78 (c) 77 (d) 76
205) The ____% of car bon in atmosphere
(a) 0.02 (B) 0.03 (c) 0.05 (d) 0.06
206) Nitrogen fixation take place by biological means ___%/yr
(a) 58 (b) 59 (C) 60 (d) 61
207) Nitrogen fixation take place by industrial means ___%/yr
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(A) 40 (b) 41 (c) 42 (d) 43
208) Net energy input for nitrogen fixation of ___ C/mole
(a) 144 (b) 145 (c) 146 (D) 147
209)____ can convert ammonia to nitrite
(A) Nitrosomonas (b) Nitrobacter (c) none
210) ----- convert the nitrite to nitrate
(a) Nitrosomonas (B) Nitrobactor (c) none
212) Denitrification to molecular or gaseous nitrogen as well as to nitric oxide and nitrous oxide is
effected by ___
(A) Pseudomonas (b) Nitrobactor (c) Notrosomonas (d) None
5. Zoogeography and Paleontology
1) The branch which integrates information on the historical, current ecology and genetics of an organism
refers as,
a) Ecological Zoogeography
b) Historical Zoogeography
c) Zoogeography
d)Systematics
answer: c
2) The study of region or space known as,

a) Faunistics
b) Chorology
c) Descriptive zoogeography
d) Descriptive zoogeography
answer: b
3) The tropic is a region of earth roughly 1600 miles at,
a) South and East Pole
b) North and East Pole
c) North and South Pole
d) At North Pole
answer: c
4) South America and Mexico present in,

a) Neotropical Region
b) Palearctic Region
c) Ethopian Region
d) Australian Region
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Answer: a
5) The most diverse biological region of earth is,

a) Australian Region
b) Ethopian Region
c) Neotropical Region
d) Palearctic Region
Answer: c
6) The Palearctic region separated from Ethopian Region by,

a) Himalayan range
b) Andes Mountain range
c) Amazon River Basin
d) Sahara Desert
answer: d
7) The most extensive tropical forest present in,
a) Neotropical Region
c) Ethopian Region
d) Australian Region
Answer: a
8) Rich fish fauna present in,
a) Australian Region
b) Neotropical Region
c) Ethopian Region
d) Palearctic Region
answer: c
9) Amphibians are less distinct in,
a) Palearctic Region
b) Ethopian Region
c) Australian Region
d) Neotropical Region
Answer: a
10) In oriental Region the climate is mostly,
a) Tropical
b) Temperate
c) Rain
d) Hot and Dry
Answer: a
11) The continental island are formed through,
a) Volcanic eruption
b) Due to Continental drift
c) Sinking of land
d) Through Flooding
Answer: c
12) Total number native freshwater fishes in Pakistan are,
a) 180
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b) 177
c) More than 200
d) 660
Answer: a
13) Lemurla land bridge present between,
a) Africa, Madagascar and India
b) Between South America and Australia
c) Between Africa and South America
d) Between South America and South Africa
Answer: a
14) According to Wegner the floor of oceans were made up slime which composed of,
a) Magnesium and chloride

b) Magnesium and Bicarbonates
c) Magnesium and Silica
d) Magnesium and Silicon
Answer: c
15) Europe and northern part of Africa present in,
b) Oriental Region
d) Ethopian Region
Answer: a
16) Palearctic region separated from Oriental region by,

a) Sahara Desert
b) Pacific Ocean
c) Himalayan Region
d) Amazon River Basin
Answer: c
17) Madagascar included in,
b) Ethopian Region
d) Oriental Region
Answer: b
18) Deserts are totally absent in,
a)Palearctic Region
b) Oriental Region
d) Ethopian Region
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71
19) Passive dispersion of living organisms occurs due to,
a) Through Locomotory organ
b) Through Human
c) Through Abiotic and biotic agents
d) Through Animals
Answer: c
20) Thickness of Mozambique Channel is about,
a) 50 km
b) 60 km
c) 40 km
d) 30 km
Answer : c
21) Distinctive fauna of Central Africa from Cape of Good Hope is due to,
a) Kalahari Desert
b) Sahara Desert
c) Mountain range
d) River
Answer: a
22) Monophagic animals feed on,
a) Different foods
b) On Insects
c) One specialized food
d) On Plants
Answer:c
23) Some insects and millipedes carried out through logs, known as,
a) Natural Rafts
b) Favoring gales
c) Driftwood
d) Migration
Answer: c
24) Vertical distribution of organism in space known as,
a) Altitudinal Distribution
b) Halobiotic Distribution
c) Limnobiotic Distribution
d) Bathymetric Distribution
Answer: d
25) Vertical distribution of organisms in freshwater habitat refers as,
a) Altitudinal Distribution
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72
Answer: c
26) Altitudinal distribution of life of land known as,
a) Geobiotic Distribution
Answer:a
27) Vertical distribution of organism in marine habitat known as,
a) Geobiotic Distribution
answer: b
28) Phytogeography is study of geographical distribution of,

a) Animals
b) Insects
c) Plants
d) Mammals
Answer: c
30) The climatic condition of north and south Pole are,
a) Different
b) Identical
c) Hot
d) Rainy
Answer: b
31) Distribution of animals do not depends upon.
a) Suitability
b) Food resources
c) Climate
d) Natural laws
Answer: a
32) Palearctic and Ethopian region grouped into,
a) Neogaea
b) Arctogaea
c) Notogaea
d) Palaeogaea
Answer: d
33) Neogaea division of region included,

a) Australian and Indian region
b) Nearctic and Australian region
c) Neotropical and Nearctic region
d) Australian and Neotropical region
answer:c
34) Southern division of earth known as,
a) Neogaea
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73
b) Notogaea
c) Arctogaea
|d) Palaeogaea
Answer: b
35) Arctogaea is division of earth,
a) Due to presence of oceans
b) Due to climatic conditions
c) Division from southern side
d) Division from Northern side
Answer: c |
36) At the west and north Palearctic Region bounded by,
a) Desert
b) Sea
c) Mountain Range
d) Pacific ocean
Answer: b
38) Palearctic Region bounded by Himalayas to the,
a) South
b) West
c) North
d) East
Answer:a
39) At East side Palearctic region bounded by,
a) Pacific Ocean
b) Himalayas
c) Indian Ocean
d) Sahara Desert
Answer: d
40) ……. has greater diversity of surface feature,
a) Nearctic region
b) Neotropical region
c) Palearctic region
d) Ethopian region
Answer:c
41) Mammalian families of Palearctic region are about,
a) 28
b) 29
c) 30
d) 32
Answer: a
42) Two rodents species, Spalacidae and Selevinidae present in,
a) Ethopian region
b) Oriental Region
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74
c) Palearctic Region
d) Australian region
Answer: c
43) Large numbers of tailed amphibians are present in,
a) Ethopian region
Answer: b
44) Palearctic region shares bears and deers with,
a) Nearctic and Ethopian region
b) Neotropical and Australian region
c) Nearctic and Palearctic region
d) Neotropical region Oriental region
Answer: d
45) Oriental region has no physical boundary in,
a) Southeast side
b) Southwest side
c) South side
d) West side
Answer: a
46) At Northwest side the oriental region bounded by,
a) Indian Ocean
b) Desert
c) Mountains
d) Grassy Plains
Answer: b
47) At north Oriental region bounded by,
a) Indian Ocean
b) Desert
c) Himalayas
d) Grassy Plains
Answer: c
48) 153 families of terrestrial vertebrates are present in,
a) Ethopian region
b) Oriental Region
49) Oriental region fauna resemble with,

a) Palearctic region
b) Nearctic region
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75
d) Ethopian region
Answer: d
50) Oriental region shares hedgehog and porcupine with,
a) Nearctic and Ethopian region
b) Neotropical and Australian region
c) Ethopian and Palearctic region
d) Neotropical Oriental region
Answer: c
51) At Northern side Ethopian region bounded by,
a) Indian Ocean
b) Sahara
c) Himalayas
d) Grassy Plains
Answer: b
52) 161 Families of terrestrial vertebrate present in,
a) Australian region
c) Nearctic region
d) Ethopian region
Answer: d
53) …….. families are exclusive in Ethopian region.
a) 13 Families
b) 12 Families
c) 10 Families
d) 8 Families
Answer: b
54) Of all chameleons’ species in the world …….. found in Ethopian region.
a) 45
b) 40
c) 35
d) 20
Answer: b
55) In Australian region the terrestrial vertebrates are about,
a) 134 families
b) 133 families
c) 132 families
d) 130 families
Answer: a
56) ……. birds species are present in Australian region.
a) 18
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76
b) 19
c) 17
d) 20
Answer: c
57) 8 mammalian species are present in,

a) Oriental region
b) Ethopian region
c) Australian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: c
58) …… species of lizard are present in Australian region.

a) 100 species
b) 150 species
c) 200 species
d) 250 species
Answer: d
59) 100 species of tree frogs and and common frogs are present in,
a) Oriental region
b) Ethopian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: c
60) Australian region fauna, a few frogs turtles and marsupials resemble with,
a) Nearctic region
c) Palearctic region
d) Ethopian region
Answer: b
61) 155 terrestrial vertebrates are present in are present in,

a) Oriental region
b) Ethopian region
c) Neotropical region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: c
62) Higher number of endemic species are present in,
a) Neotropical region
b) Ethopian region
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77
d) Nearctic region
Answer: a
63) Nearctic fauna is very similar to,
b) Ethopian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: a
64) Terrestrial vertebrates of Nearctic region are about,
a) 121 families
b) 119 families
c) 122 families
d) 120 species
Answer: d
65) 59 birds species are present in,
b) Ethopian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: d
66) Nearctic region joined by Central Isthmus to,
a) Neotropical region
b) Ethopian region
d) Nearctic region
Answer: a
62) In Nearctic region, there present,
a) 20 reptiles and 21 amphibians
b) 14 Reptiles and 21 amphibians
c) 21 reptiles and 14 amphibians
d) 21 reptiles and 21 amphibians
Answer: c
68)The Earth has existed for _______years ago
a) 3.2 Billion
b) 4.7 Billion
c) 4.6 billion
d) 5.2 billion
answer: c
69)The largest section is called as_____
a) Eras
b) Periods
c) Epochs
d) Eons
answer: d
70) The second section is called as_____
a) Eras
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78
b) Periods
c) Epochs
d) Eons
answer: a
71) Eras are divided into_____
a) Eras
b) Periods
c) Epochs
d) Eons
answer: c
72) The death of every member of a species is_________
a) Vulnerable
b) Threaten
c) Extinction
d) Expired
answer: c
73) Extinction’s main reasons are____
a) Competition
b) Survival
c) Danger
d) Space
answer a
74) The extinction of many species at the same time______
a) Uniformitarianism
b) Mass Extinction
c) Catastrophism
d) Destruction
answer b
75) Gradual changes in climate or ocean currents result in _____
b) Mass Extinction
c) Catastrophism
d) Destruction
answer a
76) Asteriods hitting the earth and of blocking
the sun_____
b) Mass Extinction
c) Catastrophism
d) Destruction
answer c
77) Time from the formation of the Earth____ to _____ is called as Precambrian Time.
a) 4.9 Billion to 572 million years
b) 5.2 Billion to 592 million years
c) 4.6 Billion to 542 million years
d) 4.9 Billion to 542 million years

answer: c
78) The first organism appeared ______ years ago
a) 5.4 billion
b) 4.9 billion
c) 3.6 billion
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79
d) 4.2 billion
answer:c
79) The first organism called as_____
a) Ameoba
b) Prokaryotes
c) Eukaryotes
d) Pramecium
Answer: b
80) Prokaryotes have_____
a) No cell and many nucleus
b) Many cells and no nucleus
c) One cell and no nucleus
d) Many cells and many nucleus
answer: c
81) As oxygen began to build up, the_____ was formed.
a) Ozone
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
answer: a
82) After the formation of Prokaryotes ____ years ago Eukaryotes formed
a) 10 Millions
b) 1.5 billion
c) 1 billion
d) 2.5 billion
answer: c
83) Paleozoic Era formed ______ and ended ______ years ago.
a) 575 M and 340 M
b) 542 M and 251 M
c) 548 M and 390 M
d) 532 M and 245 M
answer: b
84) Paleozoic Era is divided into____ periods
a) 9
b) 5
c) 6
d) 2
answer: c
85) New life forms appeared during the 1 st period, the “Cambrian Period”___
a) Cambrian formation
b) Cambrian Explosion
c) Cambrian Initiation
d) Cambrian Destruction
answer: b
86) Organisms hard part firstly formed as_____
a) Shells, Endoskeleton
b) Flagella, Endoskeleton
c) Cillia, Exoskeleton
d) Shells, Exoskeleton
answer: a
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80
87) Permian Extinction occurred_____ years ago.
a) 248 M
b) 298 M
c) 251 M
d) 340
answer: c
88) Paleozoic era ends and __________Era starts.
a) Precambrian
b) Perminan
c) Cambrian
d) Mesozoic
answer: d
89) ___% of life ocean life and ____% of Life ended according to the scientists.
a) 90% and 48%
b) 74% and 56%
c) 90% and 78%
d) 56% and 67%
answer: c
90) Which of the animals group survived during Permian extinction.
a) Reptiles and Mammals
b) Mammals and Amphibians
c) Reptiles and Amphibians
d) Mammals, Amphibians and Reptiles
answer: c
91) Mesozoic Era begans _______ Millions years ago.
a) 251
b) 340
c) 560
d) 480
answer: a
92) Mesozoic Era is the age of ______

a) Mammals
b) Amphibians
c) Reptiles
d) Birds
answer: b
93) Tertiary Extinction is ______ and happened _____ million years ago.
a) Permian, 57
b) Mass, 48
c) Cretaceous, 65
d) Mesozoic, 62
answer: c
94) Mesozoic era ends and __________Era starts.
a) Precambrian
b) Cenozoic
c) Cambrian
d) Paleozoic
answer: b
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81
95) In Tertiary Extinction _____ got Extinct.
a) Mammals
b) Amphibians
c) Reptiles
d) Dinosaurs
answer: d
96) Cenozoic Era began ______ million years ago
a) 45
b) 78
c) 65
d) 89
answer: c
97) The remains of all organisms preserved in the earth is called as.________
a) Ruminants
b) Fossils
c) Specimens
d) Particles
answer: b
98) A preserved specimens is ______.
a) Ruminants
b) Fossils
c) Waste products
d) Particles
answer: b
99) The minimum age of a fossil is arbitrary date of _______ years.
a) 50,000
b) 25,000
c) 100,000
d) 10,000
answer: d
100) Fossils varied from microscopic single bacterial cells ___ in diameter.
a) 10 mm
b) 4 mm
c) 1 mm
d) 6 cm
answer: c
101) Fossiliferous (fossil-containing) rock formations and sedimentary layers (strata) is ____.
a) fossilization
b) destruction
c) fossil formation
d) fossil record
answer: d
102) There are ____ categories of fossils.
a) 1
b) 4
c) 7
d) 9
answer: b
103) Original soft parts of organisms consisted the medium of ___
a) Ice, land, water and amber
b) Ice, oil, saturated soil and amber
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82
c) Land, desserts and amber
d) Ice, land, water and soil
answer: b
104) The best known example of original parts of organisms is Wooly Mammoths of. ____
a) Siberia and America
b) Alaska and England
c) Siberia and Alaska
d) Canada and Sweden
answer: c
105) A huge elephant like mammal buried in ____
a) Iceland
b) Ireland
c) Permafrost (frozen soil)
d) Ancient Iceland
answer: c
106) Pre-historic insects became entrapped in sticky gum like yellowish resin is called ____
a) Amber
b) Saturated soil
c) Glacier
d) Poland
answer: a
107) Original hard parts of organisms are of ____ forms.
a) 1
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
answer: b
108) ______ remains consisted of shells of foraminifera, corals, tests of echinoderms.
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Calcitic
answer: d
109) _____ remains are (an unstable form of calcite) shells of gastropods, cephalopods
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Calcitic
answer: a
110) _____Remains includes bones.
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Calcitic
answer: b
111) ____Remains included radiolarian shells, spongs
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Chitinous
answer: c
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83
112) Exoskeleton of arthropods are remains of _______
a) Aragonitic
b) Phosphatic
c) Siliceous
d) Chitinous
answer: d
113) Altered hard parts of organisms consisted of ______ forms.
a) 1
b) 3
c) 7
d) 9
answer: b
114) These are the remains of _____ nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen are lost only a thin film of
carbonaceous material.
a) Carbonization or mineralization
b) Preminerlization or petrification
c) Carbonization or distillation
d) Replacement or mineralization
answer: c
115) These are the remains of _____ literally turned into stone.
answer: b
116) These are the remains of _____ chemical from bones or shells get dissolved only turned into light
and spongy.
answer: d
117) Traces of Organisms are also called as. ______
a) Recored fossils
b) Ichnofossils
c) Remains of fossils
d) Specimens
answer: b
118) Traces of Organisms includes. ________
d) Mold and cast
answer: d
119) Mold is _____ in surrounding.
a) depression
b) expression
c) impression
d) filling
answer: c
120) Cast is filling of ____.
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84
a) Microfilaments
b) Hollow cavity
c) Golgi bodies
d) Neurons
answer: b
121) Impression of an organisms after original material disappears is known as.____
a) Mold
b) expression
c) Cast
d) filling
answer: a
122) Molds that are filled in with other materials ______

a) Mold
b) expression
c) Cast
d) Impression
answer: c
123) Process of fossils formation is known as _________
a) fossilization
b) destruction
c) fossil formation
d) fossil record
answer: a
124) Fossilization is the process by which plant and animals remains are preserved in _____
a) desserts
b) soil
c) sedimentary rocks
d) oil
answer : c
125) The study of how living organisms become fossilized is known as ________
a) Fossil record
b) taphonomy
c) fossilization
d) catatrophism
answer: b
126) Inner Core _____km.
a) 1590
b) 1409
c) 1200
d) 2250
Answer: c
127) Outer core ____ km.
a) 1590
b) 1409
c) 1200
d) 2250
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85
Answer: d
128) Mantel is______.
a) 1590
b) 2900
c) 1200
d) 2250
Answer: b
129) Crust---to ---- km made up of solid lighter rocks.

a) 3- 39
b) 5 - 40
c) 7-89
d) 22- 17
Answer: b
130) Lithosphere (crust and MOHO) ____ km thick.

a) 150
b) 100
c) 110
d) 125
Answer: b
131) All the water on Earth is called as._____
a) Atmosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Geology
Answer: c
132) Part of the Earth where life exists.
a) Atmosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Hydrosphere
d) Geology
Answer: b
133) Study of the Earth’s magnetism is called as_____.
a) Atmosphere
b) Magnetic force
c) Paleomagentism
d) Geology
Answer: c
134) Newezland is regarded as _____by Wallace.

a) Continental Island
b) Ireland
c) Oceanic Island
d) Ancient Island
Answer: a
135) British Islets consisted of ____ main lands.
a) 5
b) 4
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86
c) 3
d) 2
Answer: d
136) Temperature highest near the ground and falls all the way up to about:
a) 30,000 ft
b) 40,000 ft
c) 20,000 ft
d) 10,000 ft
Answer: a
137) The layer is 30 to 50 miles above the ground:
a) Ionosphere
b)Troposphere
c)Mesosphere
d) Stratosphere
Answer: c
138) Animals that enjoy universal distribution are:
a) Cosmopoliton
b) Discontinuous
c) Derivatives
d) Endemic
Answer: a
139) The region consist of whole of Africa and South Arabia is:
a) Australian
b) Oriental
c) Ethopian
d) Neo tropical
Answer: b
140) Neotropical region is also called:
a) Reptile continent
b) Bird continent
c) Mammal continent
d) Amphibian
Answer: b
6. Developmental Biology
Which statement correct about Developmental Biology?

a) Growth and differentiation of a simple cell into highly structured cell
b) The growth, differentiation and development of a cell into a multi cellular organisms
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
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87
Classification of Developmental biology based on history involve….
a) Descriptive Embryology
b) Regeneration
c) Organogenesis
d) Developmental Physiology
Embryology of most animal types are classified and compared in…
a) Descriptive Embryology
b) Comparative Embryology
c) Chemical Embryology
d) Experimental Embryology
The origin of new individual from living beings explained by….
a) Anaximander (600 B.C)
b) Aristotle (384-322 B.C)
c) Holy Hindu’s book (600 B.C)
d) None of these
Statement “Heart form first and nails at the end” said by….
a) Empedocles
b) Aristotle
c) Muller
d) Haekel
Aristotle discussed classification of animals based on mode of reproduction.
a) Reproduction without egg
b) Egg with fluid
c) Highest level big egg
d) All of above
Theory of Entelechy given by….
a) Swammerdam
b) Aristotle
c) Wolff
d) Baer
Concept “Rearrangement takes place under the guidance of architect” given in,,,
a) Theory of Epigenesis
b) Theory of preformation
c) Baer’s law
d) Biogenetic law
Who was father of embryology?
a) Swammerdam
b) Baer
c) Muller
d) Haekel
Which statement true about Preformation Theory?
a) Preformed individual is present in sex cells
b) Preformed individual only present in egg
c) Feature of ancient origin develop earlier
d) Both b and c
Mosaic theory stated that….
a) Development is pre-planned and predetermined
b) Fate is not fixed
c) Both a and b
d) Development is changing with condition
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88
In 1891 Derish proposed….
a) Theory of organogenesis
b) Mosaic theory
c) Regulative theory
d) Theory of Gradient
When embryo of amphibian cleaved equatorially and separate dorsal half, other half….
a) Failed to develop
b) Completely develop
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Metabolic rate of egg is………. In animal pole
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Medium
d) Metabolic rate is absent
Concentration of yolk is
a) Higher in animal pole
b) Higher in vegetal pole
c) Lower in animal pole
d) Lower in vegetal pole
The process of production and maturation of male and female gametes known as,,,,,
a) Organogenesis
b) Gametogenesis
c) Fertilization
d) None of these
Cells of sertoli are also called….
a) Somatic cells
b) Germ cells
c) Spermatogonia
d) Both a and b
In which tissue, seminiferous tubules are enclosed?
a) Connective tissues
b) Tunica albuginea
c) Somatic tissues
d) Both a and b
After meiosis, primary spermatocytes form….
a) Spermatid
b) Sperm mother cells
c) Spermatogonia
d) None of these
Conversion of spermatid into mature sperm called
a) Spermioteleosis
b) Spermatogenesis
c) Maturation phase
d) All of above
A fibrous material surrounding the nucleus of sperm makes its appearance known as….
a) Granules
b) Manchette
c) Vesicle
d) All of these
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89
Which statement correct about mature sperm?
a) Streamlined to swim through vagina
b) Have acrosomal cover
c) Haploid nucleus
d) All of these
Mitochondria of sperm present in…
a) Head
b) Middle piece
c) Tail
d) Both b and c
What is the weight of ovary in 1kg fish?
a) 200g
b) 100g
c) 300g
d) 150g
In mammal’s ovaries are present………… percent by weight.
a) 0.016%
b) 0.01%
c) 1.6%
d) 0.01%
Which statement is true about and birds?
a) Usually have single ovary
b) Ovary are elongated
c) Ovoid in structure
d) All of these
Zona radiata appeared in which process?
a) Oogenesis
b) Spermatogenesis
c) Ovogensis
d) None of these
Major component of yolk is….
a) Proteins
b) Phospholipids
c) Carbohydrates
d) Both a and b
Eggs containing small amount of yolk called…
a) Microlecithal
b) Mesolecithal
c) Macrolecithal
d) None of these
Fishes contain which type of egg?
a) Microlecithal
b) Macrolecithal
c) Mesolecithal
d) Polylecithal
Lamp brushes chromosomes are present in the nucleus of….
a) Egg
b) Ovary
c) Sperm
d) Both a and b
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90
Growth rate of oocytes in insects completed in….
a) 3 days
b) 4 days
c) 3 years
d) None of these
On which side nucleus is present in egg?
a) Animal pole
b) Vegetal pole
c) Cytoplasm
d) Mitochondria
In which type of egg yolk is equally distributed?
a) Oligolecithal
b) Homolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Alecithal
In phosvitin, phosphorus present up to.
a) 8%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 7%
Egg envelope in the form of chitinous shell are present in…
a) Fishes
b) Amphibians
c) Insects
d) Reptiles
Which statement is correct about egg membrane?
a) Prevent egg fusion
b) Inhibit polyspermy
c) Act as ecological barrier
d) All of these
Fusion of male and female gametes along with their nuclei is called….
a) Cleavage
b) Fertilization
c) Gastrulation
d) Induction
Sperm is motile while the egg is….
a) Stationary
b) Motile
c) Mobile
d) Both b and c
Maturation of sperm and egg take place at the……in the males and females of the same species.
a) At different times
b) Sperms mature early
c) Eggs mature early
d) At same times
The female genital tract support the movement of sperm in forward direction during….
a) Internal fertilization
b) External fertilization
c) Parthenogenesis
d) Not support
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91
A protein fertilizin is present on the surface of egg and antifertilizin is present on….
a) Egg
b) Sperm
c) Ovary
d) Genital tract
In case of internal fertilization fluid is provided by….
a) Sperm
b) Egg
c) Genital tract
d) Ovary
Mostly the encounter of sperm take place when egg is under growth period of….
a) Maturation
b) Differentiation
c) Division
d) All a, b and c
During upward movement of sperm in genital tract, sperm undergoes certain changes which gives
capacity to sperm to fertilize the egg is known as….
a) Fertilization
b) Maturation
c) Penetration
d) Capacitation
The entry of egg into sperm is facilitated by….
a) Physical processes
b) Chemical and structural changes
c) Chemical changes
d) All a, b and c
Spermatozoa has ……. nucleus.
a) Spherical
b) Oval
c) Long
d) No nucleus
The space between acrosomal membrane and nuclear membrane is filled by a material is known as….
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleoplasm
c) Periacrosomal material
d) None of these
The acrosomal material contain lytic enzymes, such as……. responsible for clearing the path through the
secondary envelops.
a) Amylase
b) Hyaluronidase
c) Ribonucleotide reductase
d) Both a and b
The Periacrosomal material injected into egg is responsible for….
a) Egg activation
b) Egg maturation
c) Zygote formation
d) Cleavage
After the entry of sperm nucleus, mitochondria and centrioles, into the cortex of egg, rotates at…….
Degrees.
a) 180
b) 90
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92
c) 360
d) None of these
The fertilization cone formation is followed by a chain of physiochemical reactions in the cortex of egg is
called….
a) Capacitation
b) Activation of egg
c) Cortical reaction
d) Penetration of sperm
The………blocks the entrance of late arriving spermatozoa.
a) Fertilization membrane
b) Fertilization cone formation
c) Periacrosomal material
d) Cortex of egg
The lamellar parts, liquefied components and globules are components of….
a) Egg
b) Sperm
c) Cortical granule
d) Acrosome
After fertilization rate of……. synthesis increase at great speed.
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Hormone
d) Cell
After fertilization, intracellular changes occur in the concentration of….
a) Sodium, potassium
b) Chloride, sodium
c) Potassium, chloride
d) Potassium
The mixing of male and female nuclei is…….
a) Fusion
b) Fertilization
c) Amphimixis
d) Penetration
The path at which male apparatus move towards the female nuclei is called……
a) Penetration path
b) Fertilization path
c) Capacitation
d) Both a and b
The site of Amphimixis lies on…….of the active cytoplasm.
a) Right side
b) Left side
c) Both a and b
d) Centre
Gynogenesis is a type of…….
a) Cleavage
b) Gastrulation
c) Fertilization
d) Cloning
After fertilization, internal membrane potential changes…….
a) -60 mv to +5 mv to -60 mv
b) -60 mv to +2 mv to -60 mv
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c) 60 mv to -5 mv to 60 mv
d) 60 mv to -2 mv to 60 mv
Globular membrane fuses with plasma membrane and constitute….
a) Fertilization membrane
b) Plasma membrane
c) Nuclear membrane
d) Hyaline membrane
Denser lamellar parts arrange inner side of…….
a) Plasma membrane
b) Globular membrane
c) Vitelline membrane
d) Hyaline membrane
Liquefied components of cortical granules fill the……
a) Vitelline space
b) Perivitelline space
c) Inside the plasma membrane
d) Fertilization cone
In Gynogenesis sperm enter but nuclei……
a) Fuse
b) Do not fuse
c) Partially fuse
d) Both b and c
In polyandric situation……. male pronuclei fuse with female pronuclei.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
A situation in which enucleated egg fuses with sperm is known as…….
a) Polygamy
b) Polyandry
c) Merogony
d) Polyspermy
Egg is fertilized with part of sperm (e.g. sperm aster) in……
a) Gynogenesis
b) Androgenises
c) Monospermic condition
d) Partial fertilization
After fertilization, egg undergoes a series of cell divisions from single cell to multicellular structure. The
divisions are called….
a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) Cleavage
d) Mitosis or meiosis
Consecutive mitotic divisions are important characteristic of......
a) Cleavage
b) Mitosis
c) Fertilization
d) Gastrulation
During cleavage cell shows….
a) No growth
b) Faster growth
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c) Less growth
d) None of these
During cleavage, cytoplasmic substances changes into….
a) Organelles
b) Nuclear envelop
c) Nuclear substance
d) Cell membrane
During cleavage size of………decreases slowly and finally becomes equal to normal body size
a) Egg
b) Zygote
c) Embryo
d) Blastomere
During cleavage nucleus to cytoplasm ratio…….
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Increase or decrease
d) Remain same
In the process of cleavage, nuclear or DNA ratio…….
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Increase or decrease
In cleavage, chromatin material remains…….
a) Haploid
b) Diploid
c) Tetraploid
d) Diploid to tetraploid
Cytoplasm contains ribonucleotides which are converted to deoxyribonucleotide with the help of an
enzyme……
a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Catalase
c) Ribonucleotide reductase
d) Amylase
Protein synthesis during cleavage…….
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No protein synthesis
d) Remain same
During cleavage, the RNA synthesis……
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Decrease or blocked
d) Both a and b
Nuclear histone protein is required for…….
a) Nucleus formation
b) Protein synthesis
c) RNA synthesis
d) Chromosomes binding
The protein that is responsible for the microtubules of asters that is translated by mRNA.
a) Nuclear histone
b) Histone
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c) Tubulin
d) Actin
The cleavage in which egg divides completely into two cells…….
a) Meroblastic
b) Equal holoblastic
c) Unequal holoblastic
d) Holoblastic
In equal holoblastic cleavage, blastomere are of…….
a) Equal size
b) Unequal size
c) Very small size
d) Large size
In unequal holoblastic cleavage, the upper smaller blastomere is formative blastomere while lower
blastomere is known as…….
a) Lower blastomere
b) Terminal blastomere
c) Axillary blastomere
d) Central blastomere
Incomplete cleavages occur in animals are called……
a) Holoblastic
b) Meroblastic
c) Radial
d) Spiral
Incomplete cleavages occur in …….egg.
a) Oligolecithal
b) Telolecithal
c) Mesolecithal
d) Both a and blastula
The amphioxus egg is…….
a) Oligolecithal
b) Mesolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Macrolecithal
The first cleavage in amphioxus egg is…….
a) Meridional
b) Vertical
c) Holoblastic
d) Meridional and holoblastic
Third cleavage in amphioxus is…….
a) Equatorial and slightly unequal
b) Equatorial
c) Latitudinal
d) Meridional
The ball of cells produce because of cleavage……
a) Blastula
b) Gastrula
c) Morula
d) Blastomere
After blastula formation, a cavity appears which is called…….
a) Coelom
b) Blastocoel
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c) Periblast
d) Blastocyst
The frog egg is…….
a) Mesolecithal
b) Oligolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Macrolecithal
First and second cleavages in frog are………
a) Holoblastic and meridional
b) Holoblastic and equatorial
c) Meroblastic
d) Holoblastic
The third cleavage in frog is unequal equatorial and divide the egg into……….
a) 4 cells
b) 6 cells
c) 8 cells
d) 10 cells
In frog egg the cells towards the animal pole are smaller are known as….
a) Blastomeres
b) Megameres
c) Micromeres
d) Both b and c
In frog a cavity appears at four cell stage which is the beginning of……
a) Gastrocoel
b) Periblast
c) Blastocyst
d) Blastocoel
Due to the formation of blastocoel the megameres and micromeres arrange themselves in the form
of……… which is 2 to layers in thickness.
a) Blastoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Mesoderm
Mammalian egg is…….
a) Mesolecithal
b) Oligolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Macrolecithal
In mammals, axillary blastomere act as…….
a) Nutritive part
b) Inactive part
c) Dividing part
d) Both a and c
Second cleavage in mammalian egg is restricted to…….
a) Formative cell
b) Axillary cell
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
In mammalian egg, because of irregular cleavage a mass of cells form is known as…….
a) Zygote
b) Embryo
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c) Blastula
d) Morula
In mammals, a layer surround the whole of the cavity is known as….
a) Trophoblast
b) Periblast
c) Blastocyst
d) Ectoblast
The bird egg is….
a) Oligolecithal
b) Macrolecithal
c) Telolecithal
d) Both b and c
In bird’s egg cleavage is……
a) Meroblastic
b) Holoblastic
c) Meroblastic and meridional
d) Holoblastic and equatorial
In birds the cleavage is restricted to the upper part of the egg due to the presence of……
a) Less amount of yolk
b) Huge amount of yolk
c) Medium amount of yolk
d) None of these
First cleavage in bird egg is……
a) Vertical and incomplete
b) Equatorial
c) Meridional
d) Holoblastic
The cavity which form in birds is known as….
a) Blastocyst
b) Blastocoel
c) Periblast
d) Coelom
Spindle elongates in the direction of least resistance is known as……
a) Belfour’s law
b) Sachs law
c) Hertwings law
d) Flugers law
The rate of cleavage is inversely proportional to the amount of yolk, this law is….
a) Flugers law
b) Belfour’s law
c) Sachs law
d) None of these
Nucleus and its spindle fibres are generally found in the centre of the active cytoplasm, this law is…….
a) Sachs law
b) Belfour’s law
c) Hertwings law
d) Flugers law
The law in which cells tend to divide into equal half. Each new plane of division tends to intersect the
previous plane at right angle is……
a) Sachs law
b) Belfour’s law
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c) Hertwings law
d) Flugers law
Spiral cleavage is found in……
a) Molluscs
b) Amphioxus
c) Reptiles
d) Birds
Equatorial cleavage occurs through Center and it is
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Longitudinal
d) Both a and b
There is no blastocoel in……
a) Amphiblastula
b) Discoblastula
c) Stereoblastula
d) Coeloblastula
Discoblastula is found in……
a) Mammals
b) Reptiles, birds
c) Amphibians
d) Amphioxus
Incomplete peripheral blastomeres, surrounds the yolk……
a) Superficial blastula
b) Amphiblastula
c) Discoblastula
d) Coeloblastula
Whole ball is no single layer and well differentiated into micro and megameres, this type of blastula
is……
a) Amphiblastula
b) Discoblastula
c) Coeloblastula
d) Stereoblastula
The characteristic feature of gastrulation?
a) Single layered blastoderm changes to three layered structure
b) Neural tube formation
c) Cell division increases
d) Metabolic rate decreases
Biochemical changes in gastrulation process
a) Nucleolus reappears, RNA synthesis starts again
b) Metabolic activity decreases
c) Cell proliferation
d) DNA synthesis
Which stains are used to study the morphogenetic movements in gastrulation?
a) Janus green, neutral red and Nile blue
b) Janus red, neutral pink
c) Nile blue and green
d) purple and pink stains
In gastrulation which type of morphogenetic movements take place?
a) Epibolic and Embolic
b) Epibolic movements
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c) Embolic movements
d) Epiblast and Hypoblast
Inward movements of cell are known as
a) Embolic movements
b) Epibolic movements
c) Tactic movements
Cells move inward in the form of layers and groups, this type of inward movement is known as
a) Invagination
b) proliferation
c) Involution
d) poly invagination
Invagination of cell occurs in
a) Amphioxus
b) Amphibian
c) Mammals
d) birds
Movement of cell from the surface of the embryo through the blastopore rolling on its margin is known
as?
a) Involution
b) Invagination
c) Delamination
d) Poly invagination
Involution takes place in which class of animals?
a) Amphibian
b) Mammals
c) Reptiles
d) Birds
In which type of movement cells separate from the blastoderm in the form of group?
a) Ingression
b) Involution
c) Invagination
d) Delamination
The differentiation of cytoplasm of egg in to different regions and the regions are clearly marked is
known as
a) fate map
b) mapping
c) markers
d) Differentiation
Presumptive endodermal area is present towards the ………..and it contains the small amount of yolk
a) vegetal pole
b) Animal pole
c) Grey crescent area
d) area pellucida
Presumptive epidermal is present towards the
a) Animal pole
b) Vegetal pole
c) Grey crescent area
d) area pellucida
First movement in gastrulation of amphioxus is shown by
a) endodermal area
b) Mesodermal area
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c) Ectodermal area
d) Epidermal area
The blastopore end in amphioxus is changes in to future
a) Posterior end (Anus)
b) Anterior end
c) Mouth
d) Mesoderm
The notochordal cell in amphioxus start invagination by rolling over the
a) Dorsal lip of the blastopore
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
In neurulation, presumptive neural area flattens and forming the
a) Neural plate
b) Neural crest
c) Neural tube
The sequence of neurulation is given as follows
a) Neural plate→ neural tube→ nerve cord →brain and spinal cord
b) Neural plate→ neural crest→ neural tube→ nerve cord →brain and spinal cord
c) Neural plate→ neural tube→ nerve cord→ neural crest →brain and spinal cord
d) Neural tube→ neural plate→ neural crest→ nerve cord →brain and spinal cord
The neural crest area will develop in to
a) Ganglion and peripheral nerves
b) Nervous system
c) Brain
d) Spinal cord
Gut tube formation takes place by the
a) Endodermal area
b) Mesodermal area
c) Ectodermal area
d) Epidermal area
Notochord formation takes place by the
a) Mesodermal area
b) Endodermal area
c) Ectodermal area
d) Epidermal area
The amphibian egg is
a) Mesolecithal
b) Endolecithal
c) Epilecithal
d) Endolecithal
Initial morphogenetic movements in amphibian takes place by
a) Involution
b) Invagination
c) Delamination
d) Poly invagination
Dorsal mesoderm in amphibian splits vertically in to segments called
a) Somites
b) vertebral column
c) Brain
d) spinal cord
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Lateral plate mesoderm in amphibian splits in to
a) somatic and splanchnic mesoderm
b) ectoderm and endoderm
c) no splitting
d) none of them
Trophoblast is formed in ………its provides the nutrition to developing embryo.
a) Mammals
b) Amphibian
c) Reptiles
d) Birds
Extra embryonic envelop consists of
a) Amnion, chorion, Allantois, yolk sac
b) calcium, phosphorus and carbon
c) two shell
Amnion and chorion develops from
a) Somatoplure
b) Splanchnic plure
c) Mesoderm
d) Ectoderm
The cavity formed btween the somatoplure and the embryo is known as
a) Amniotic cavity
b) Chorionic cavity
c) Allantois
d) Placenta
The seroamniotic connection cut and outer part of the folds moves away attaching the shall membrane
and is called as
a) Chorion
b) Amnion
c) Allantois
d) Placenta
Amnion and chorion is made up of extra embryonic
a) Ectoderm and mesoderm
b) Mesoderm and endoderm
c) Ectoderm and endoderm
d) Endoderm and mesoderm
The cavity which appears between the amnion and chorion is known as
a) Extra embryonic coelom
b) Coelom
c) Endogenous cavity
d) Placenta
Functions of amnion and chorion
a) Provide the fluid medium
b) Shock absorber
c) Protect from adhesion to the shall
d) All
Yolk sac and Allantois develops from
a) Splanchnoplure
b) Somatoplure
c) Mesoderm
Allantois develops as an outgrowth of
a) Splanchnoplure
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b) Somatoplure
c) Mesoderm
d) Ectoderm
Functions of allantois are
a) Respiration
b) Storage of excretory products
c) Nourishment
d) Both a and b
Functions of yolk sac are
a) Respiration
b) Storage of excretory products
c) Nourishment
d) Both a and b
The connection between the foetus and mother cell is known as
a) Chorion
b) Amnion
c) Allantois
d) Placenta
The foetal part that are involved in the formation of placenta
a) Yolk sac, chorion and allantois
b) Chorion
c) Amnion
d) Allantois
Choriovitelline placenta formed by the
a) Yolk sac +chorion
b) Chorion + allantois
c) yolk sac
d) allantois
Chorioallantoic placenta is formed by the
a) Chorion + allantois
b) Yolk sac +chorion
c) yolk sac
d) allantois
Diffuse placenta is present in
a) pig, horse
b) cats, dogs
c) cattle, sheep
d) man
Cotyledonary placenta is present in
a) cattle, sheep
b) pig, horse
c) cats, dogs
d) man
Zonary placenta is present in
a) cattle, sheep
b) pig, horse
c) cats, dogs
d) man
Mono discoidal placenta is present in
a) cattle, sheep
b) pig, horse
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c) cats, dogs
d) Man
Bi discoisal placenta is
a) Monkey
b) Pig, horse
c) Cats, dogs
d) Man
Based on the position of connection placenta is divided in to
a) Central
b) Eccentric
c) Interstitial
d) ALL
Central placenta is present in
a) Marsupials
b) Mouse
c) Man
d) pig
Ecentric placenta is present in
a) Mouse
b) Man
c) pig
d) Marsupials
Interstitial placenta is present in
a) Man
b) Mouse
c) pig
d) marsupials
In epitheliochorial placenta
a) All barriers are present
b) Uterine epithelium eroded
c) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue eroded
d) uterine epithelium +uterine connective tissue +foetal chorionic epithelium and uterine
endothelium
In Syndesmochorial placenta
endothelium
In Endotheliochorial placenta
endothelium
In hemochorial placenta
endothelium
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Epitheliochorial placenta is present in
a) pig, horse
b) cats, dogs
c) cattle, sheep
d) man
Syndesmochorial placenta is present in
a) Sheep
b) pig, horse
c) cats, dogs
d) man
Endotheliochorial placenta is present in
a) Cats, dogs
b) pig, horse
c) cattle, sheep
d) man
Hemochorial placenta is present in
a) Bats, mole
b) pig, horse
c) cattle, sheep
d) man
The study of inducing, stimulating or effecting tissue is called
a) Embryonic induction
b) Tissue interaction
c) Neural induction
When tissue B which is primarily controlled by tissue A influence the tissue C is called
a) Primary induction
b) Secondary induction
c) Exogenous
When tissue A itself modified, is called
a) Secondary induction
b) Endogenous
c) Exogenous
When the responding tissue modify in different way, is called
a) Heterotypic
b) Homotypic
c) None of these
Notochordal cells when moves under the neural cells starts modifying the neural plate and converts it’s
into neural tube, is called
a) Primary induction
b) Secondary induction
c) Neural induction
In neural induction, notochordal cells are presents on the--------lip of blastopore in the beginning
a) Dorsal
b) Ventral
c) Lateral
In dorsal lip of blastopore (notochordal plate) can only effect the epidermal tissue and convert it into
neural tube in case of------------
a) Regional specificity
b) Tissue stage specificity
c) Both of these
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In case of regional specificity, if notochordal plate is transplanted at endoderm, it will not form the
a) Neural tube
b) Neural plate
c) Both of these
The inducing and tissue intract only during limited time of developing phase, in case of
a) Regional specificity
b) Tissue stage specificity
c) Both of these
Body is not clearly divisible into head and trunk in
a) Amniotes
b) None-amniotes
c) None of these
Crown rump is
a) Sitting length
b) Standing length
c) Lateral length
Crown head is
a) Sitting length
b) Standing length
c) None of these
The process of repairing of organs or damaged cells in animals is called…
a) Organogenesis
b) Gastrulation
c) Regeneration
d) Recovery
The regeneration of limbs to a very high degree is seen in following organisms…
a) Frogs and Newts
b) Newts and Salamanders
c) Salamanders and Frogs
d) All of above
In salamanders, during wound healing epidermis grow in ……. shape
a) Square
b) Circular
c) Elliptical
d) Conical
The time of Regeneration depends on…
a) Size and stage of the development animal
b) Type of wound
c) Size of animal
d) None of these
A type of Regeneration by the renewal of limbs is called….
a) Metamorphosis
b) Epimorphosis
c) Ecdysis
d) None of these
There are ……. Types of Regeneration.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
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Loss of 1% blood cells and ejaculation of sperms is …… type of Regeneration’
a) Reparative
b) Physiological
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Reparative regeneration has following types…
a) Metamorphic and Epimorphic
b) Metamorphic and Morpholactic
c) Epimorphic and Morpholactic
d) All of above
Repair of minor lost part is…
a) Epimorphic or epimorphosis
b) Morpholactic or morpholoxis
c) Metamorphic or metamorphosis
d) None of these
Repair of major lost part is called….
a) Epimorphic or epimorphosis
b) Morpholactic or morpholoxis
c) Metamorphic or metamorphosis
d) None of these
In algae …… part can develop complete filament.
a) 1/25
b) 1/50
c) 1/100
d) 1/200
The ability to regenerate lost parts differ in….
a) Scope
b) Its course in group of animals
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
In coelenterates ……part can develop a new organism.
a) 1/25
b) 1/50
c) 1/100
d) 1/200
Type of regeneration in coelenterates occurring…
a) Epimorphosis
b) Morpholaxis
c) Physiological
d) All a, b, and c
Regenerative powers highest in …… forms and reduced in ….. forms.
a) Adult, polyploid
b) Larvae, adult
c) Polyploid, medusoid
d) Larvae, medusoid
In planarians individual resulting from regeneration is ....
a) Smaller than original
b) Larger than original
c) Equal to original
d) None of these
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Type of regeneration occurring in planarians ….
a) Epimorphosis
b) Morpholaxis
c) Physiological
d) Both a and b
In earthworm, typical number of regenerating segments is…
a) Two or three
b) Three or four
c) Four or five
d) Five or six
In …… segment there is no restriction of in number of segments in Earthworm.
a) Anterior
b) Median
c) Genital
d) Posterior
In Annelids, the regeneration is…
a) Epimorphic
b) Morpholactic
c) Reparative
d) Physiological
In Hirudinea type of regeneration is...
a) Epimorphosis
b) Morpholaxis
c) Physiological
d) Regeneration not occur
The regenerative ability in molluscs is…
a) Very high
b) High
c) Low
d) Very low
In nematodes, regenerative ability is limited to ….
a) Limbs regeneration
b) Organs regeneration
c) Wound healing
d) None of these
In insects regeneration occur in …. Stage.
a) Larval
b) Adult
c) In both a and b
d) None of these
In spiders and crabs shedding of legs in danger is called.
a) Regeneration
b) Protection
c) Autotomy
d) None of these
After a loss of appendage in arthropods, the wound is covered with….
a) Keratin plug
b) Fibrous plug
c) Both a and b
d) Chitinous plug
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In arthropods type of regeneration is…
a) Epimorphosis
b) Morpholaxis
c) Physiological
d) None of these
In fish regeneration is limited to
a) Fins
b) Tails
c) Scales
d) Both a and c
Regeneration is limited to larval stage of …. Class of amphibians.
a) Anurans
b) Urodeles
c) Crocodilian
d) None of these
Regeneration of tails in lizard is known as…
a) Metamorphosis
b) Ecdysis
c) Autotomy
d) Both a and c
In birds, parts of …. can be regenerated.
a) Beaks
b) Tails
c) Organs
d) Skin
Infant opossums have ability to regenerate amputated hind limbs if fragment of brain implanted in….
a) Backbone
b) Limbs
c) Arms
d) None of these
In mammals, tissue regeneration is type of ….
a) Organ regeneration
b) Wound healing
c) Regeneration don’t occur
d) None of these
The striking degree of regeneration is seen in …. Organ of mammals.
a) Stomach
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Liver
The animals of lower degree have ….. regenerative power than higher forms.
a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) Medium
d) None of these
More the tissue differentiation ….. would be regenerative power.
a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) No difference
d) None of these
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The stimulus for regeneration is…
a) Absence of an organ
b) Drugs
c) Wound
d) Both a and c
The development of superfluous number of organs in regeneration is called
a) Saturated regeneration
b) Extra regeneration
c) Super regeneration
d) None of these
Mechanism of regeneration include.
a) Wound healing
b) Dedifferentiation
c) Metabolic changes
d) Blastema formation
e) Redifferentiation
f) All of above
g) A b d and e
Factors which effect growth and …. also, effect regeneration.
a) Development
b) Movement
c) Weight
d) None of these
Which is not a factor affecting regeneration.
a) Temperature and food
b) Oxygen
c) X-rays
d) Specie, age and nervous control
e) Water
How many types of cloning are present ...
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Productions of medicines take place in......
a) Molecular cloning
b) Animal cloning
c) Cellular cloning
d) None of these
In molecular cloning biologist make clones of ..
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Ribosomes
d) Mitochondria
The genetic makeup of the cloned cells is identical to that of original cell in....
a) Cellular cloning
b) Animal cloning
c) Molecular cloning
d) None of these
In cellular cloning copies are made of cells derived from...
a) DNA
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b) RNA
c) Soma
d) Ribosome
Which type of cloning occur in cloning of animals....
a) Deposition of karyoplast
b) Enucleation of egg
c) Blastomere separation
d) Both a and c
In blastomere separation developing embryo composed...............cells
a) 2-6
b) 2-8
c) 2-10
d) 2-12
When nucleus is removed from egg by aspiration, the egg is now called...
a) Cytoplast
b) Karyoplast
c) Oocyte
d) None of these
Development of blastocyst occur after fusion of ...
a) Karyoplast and oocyte
b) Cytoplast and oocyte
c) Cytoplast and karyoplast
Wilmut and his colleagues do experiments on sheep....
a) 9 years old
b) 8 years old
c) 7 years old
d) 6 years old
First time somatic cells used as a donar nuclei by...
a) Conard Gesnen
b) Wilmut and colleagues
c) Vesalius and colleagues
d) Tin berger
Somatic cells different from each other by...
a) Same set of genes
b) Different set of genes
c) Activated genes
d) Denatured genes
Transcription in xenopus starts after ..........cell stage.
a) 10000
b) 6000
c) 4000
d) 5000
Gurdon and colleagues did experiments on adult frog skin as a donar nuclei in....
a) 1962
b) 1975
c) 1989
d) 1957
Genes in the nuclei of differentiated skin cells of frog can be reactivated by..
a) Cytoplasm
b) Cytosole
c) Cytokines
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d) Cytoskeleton
Which changes in genetic material inhibit reactivity of nucleus of adult frogs....
a) Reversible changes
b) Countinued changes
c) Irreversible changes
d) Discontinued changes
Transcription involve the synthesize of ....
a) RNAs
b) DNAs
c) Ribosomes
d) None of these
Which genes produce protein ....
a) Control genes
b) Activated genes
c) Inactivated genes
d) Hox genes
Production of molecules of .....stop in reprogrammed of donar nucleus...
a) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
c) Proteins
d) Fats
Grath and Solter showed that nuclei could be successfully exchanged in....
a) 1989
b) 1884
c) 1985
d) 1986
Successful experiments were done in mammals over last....
a) Ten years
b) Fifteen years
c) Twenty years
d) Thirty years
Yang et al., used early embryos ranging from.......cell stage in rabbits.
a) 16-32
b) 32-64
c) 64-128
d) 128-256
S- phase is the.....
a) DNA synthesis
b) RNA synthesis
c) Ribosomes
d) None of these
Which is quiescent phase ....
a) G1
b) G2
c) G0
d) S
Blastocyst transferred develop in to a live lamb.....
a) 3%
b) 11%
c) 14%
d) 16%
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112
Mechanism of cloning take place in ........ steps.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
The totipotency decrease with increase in age and....
a) Differentiation
b) Multiplication
c) Starvation
d) Division
Decline in genetic materials included in ....
a) Merits of cloning
b) Demerits of cloning
c) Uses of cloning
d) Abuses of cloning
7. Ichthyology
1. Tonic ________________ reception consists of a canal leading from skin to an ampulla in which
a group of sensory cells are embedded.
a. Sensory Reception
b. Ampullary Reception
c. None of these
2. In _____________ the canals lead to ampullae are separated from each other.
a. Sharks
b. Rays
c. Teleost .
3. Resistance of the walls of the canals leading to ampullae are ___________ than that of the
nerve myelin sheath.
a.30-100 times higher

b.30-110 times higher
c.35-70 times lower
4.Sound production in fish may involve ____________ as a resonator which produced
resonance.
a. Swim bladder
b. fins
c. gills
5. sound produced by swim bladder may be at high frequeny ________
a. 500 hz
b. 400 hz
c. 444 hz
6. The lateral line receptors in most fishes lie in canal on the ______
a. Mouth
b. Eyes
c. Head
7.____________ respond upto frequencies around 200 Hz .
a. Lateral line neuromast

b. Tonic apmullary receptors
c. Both of these
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8. Lateral lline neuromasts appear to be used by the fish to detect the ___________
a. Prey
b. Near field effect
c. Far field effect
9. Fish could locate their prey on at distance upto ___________
a. 32 meters
b. 31 meters
c. 31 centimeters
10. The _____________ system enables the fish to respond to variation in the water.
a. Nervous system
b. Digestive system
c. Acoustic lateralis system
11. In the cat, sensory fibers account for than ________ of axons in the nerves passing to the
muscles; most of these go to the muscle spindle.
a. 75%
b. 85%
c. 70%
12. Muscle spindles are absent in fish and _________ are known only in a few special cases, such as
myxine, teleost barbels and rays.
a. Proprioceptors
b. Sensory receptors
c. Photo receptors
13. In fish nitrogenous waste mainly passes out across the gills as _________
a. Ammonia
b. Nitric acid
c. Ammonia or ammonium ions
14. The kidney shares the responsibility for regulating _________with the gills.
a. Nervous coordination
b. Body fluid pH
c. Both of these
15. Fish generally maintain the constancy of their internal body fluid composition through a process
termed as ___________
a. Thermoregulation
b. Water retension
c. Osmoregulation
16. To achieve osmoregulation, fish employ a number of homeostatic organs that include gills,
kidneys, urinary bladder, gut and in __________ the rectal glands
a. Elasmobranchs
b. Rahu
c. Rays
17. Elasmobranch and, as far as we can tell from the sole surviving species, crossopterygians,
evolved high extra cellular urea and __________
a. ATP
b. T.M.O
c. D.M.O
18. Sodium chloride excretory organ, the __________, has evolved to assist in the elimination of
excess dietry sodium.
a. Gills
b. Rectal gland
c. Kidney
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19. Excess magnesium and ___________ ions, diffuse down their electrochemical gradients into the
fish.
a. Sodium ions
b. Chloride ions
c. Sulfate ions
20. Control of teleostean kidney function is likely to involve both neutral and ____________ factors.
a. Endocrine
b. Exocrine Endocrine
c. pituitary
21. Endocrine control of renal function may involve a number of factors including both neutron and
_____________.
a. Arginine vasotocin
b. AVT
c. Adenohypophysial
22. The volume of urine output and salt balance is regulated in fishes, as well as in other vertebrates,
by ____________.
a. Endocrine secretions
b. Hypothalamic secretins
c. Stomach secretion
23. In fishes, where gills and kineys share the osmoregulatory process, __________ also influence
filtration or absorption process at the gills.
a. Proteins
b. Hormones
c. Sodium
24. In man and in amphibians, ____________________ extracts contain fraction which directly
influence urine output by constricting the afferent glomerular arterioles.
a. Posterior pituitary
b. Adrenal gland
c. Rectal gland
25. ______________________ hormones which influence sodium and chlorine equilibrium in higher
vertebrates also play a role in the regulation of gills and kidney functions in fishes.
a. Pituitry
b. Steroids
c. Adrenal cortical
26. Blood of trout contains ____________ and corticostrone as well as other cortical hormones and
related compounds, the corticosteroids.
a. Prolactin hormone
b. Arginine vasotocin
c. Hydrocortisone
27. More recently, however, ______________ has been demonstrated in the heart of some teleost.
a. Vagus nerve
b. Sympathetic nerve
c. Spinal nerve
28. These adrenergic nerves reaching the heart via the vago-sympathetic nerve trunk and ______
spinal nerve.
a. 2nd
b. 1st
c. 4th
29. Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline may pass into the blood stream either by direct secretion from the
__________ tissue in which they are stored or by diffusion from adrenergic nerve endings.
a. Chromaffin tissue
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115
b. Muscle tissue
c. None of these
30. The increased stretching of the cardiac muscles during diastolic filling will result in a more
vigrous systolic contraction and so an increased cardiac stroke volume; this is known as
________________
a. Frank-Starling relationship
b. Relaxation
c. Contraction
31. Blood oxygen capacity of Mackrel is ___________
a. 4.6%
b. 9.3%
c. 19.2%
31. The gill area of prionotus is ______________
a. 360mm2/g
b. 1158mm2/g
c. 188mm2/g
32. Heamoglobin in the blood raises the oxygen capacity up to ___________
a. 50 times
b. 40 times
c. 45 times
33. Lampreys feed on
a. Blood and tissue fluids
b .zooplankton
c. phytoplankton
d. none of these
34. Fishes adapted with close set gill rakers feed on
a. phytoplankton
b. zooplankton
c. protozoans
d. molluscs
35. Fishes having cutting teeth take parts of plants as food
a. stems
b. fronds
c.leaves
d. a&b
36. _____ is Natural food for predatory freshwater fishes
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116
a. frog
b. molluscs
c. phytoplankton
d. insects
37. ____ is the key factor in determining what the fish will eat
a. Availability
b. Meat
c. Potential
d. none
38. Predatory fishes have well defined stomach with strong acid secretions and ___ intestines
a.Long
b. intermediate
c. no
d. short
39. The anglerfishes have developed an anterior ray of _____into a lure to attract their prey
a. Second dorsal fin
b. first ventral fin
c. first dorsal fin
d. second ventral fin
40. An adult menhaden is capable of straining as much as ______of water per minute through gill rakers
a.3-4 gallons
b. 1-2 gallons
c. 4-5 gallons
d. 3 gallons
41. Adaptation for strainers is the development of close set and elongated _____
a. Fins
b. gill rakers
c. kidneys
d. operculum
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42. _______ have an inferior mouth and fleshy modification of lips
a. predators
b. herbovores
c. suctorial feeders
d. all
43.The lips of the sturgeons and suckers are mobile and described as
a. Papillose
b. modified lips
c. barbells
d. none of these
44. Suctorial feeders have______ consisting of sense organs and help to locate food
a. lips
b. lateral line
c. barbels
d. mouth
45. Among grazers and suctorial feeders mouth resembles with elongated ____
a.barbels
b. lips
c. fins
d. beak
46. Half beaks are usually characteristic of _____
a. Suctorial feeders
b. surface feeders
c. predators
d. grazers
47. Three kinds of teeth are found in bony fishes present in jaw,mouth and
a.phyrangral slits
b. gill rakers
c. operculum
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118
d. none
48. Major kinds of Jaw teeth includes _____that are short,fine and pointed
a. villiform
b. cladiforms
c. canines
d, incisors
49._____ are more or less elongated than cardiformes.
a. villiforms
b. cladiforms
c. canines
d. incisors
50._____are dogtooth like,often fang like.
a. cladiforms
b. villiforms
c. canines
d. incisors
51. Sharply edged cutting teeth are ____
a.cladiforms
b. villiforms
c. canines
d. incisors
52. ____teeth are from crushing and grinding.
a. cladiforms
b. villiforms
c. molariforms
d. incisors
53. _____bones are found in jawed fishes
a. maxillary
b. premaxillary
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119
c. both
d. none
54. Omnivores have stubby and unadorned gill rakers mainly concerned with
a.straining
b. eating
c. excretion
d. digestion
55. Digestive tube in fishes is the great distensibility of
a. stomach
b. esophagus
c. intestine
d. mouth
56. _____ stomach is found in fish eating fishes
a. short
b. wide
c. elongated
d. thin
57.Omnivores have _____ stomach
a. elongated
b. sac shaped
c. short
d. box shaped
58._____have shortened intestine
a. carnivores
b. herbivores
c. omnivores
d. predators
59. _______have elongated intestine
a. Carnivores
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120
b. herbivores
c. omnivores
d. predators
60. in which we study the functions in living matter it explain the physical and chemical factors that are
responsible for origin ,development and progression of life?
(a)physiology
(b) ethology
(c) evolution
(d) conservation
61. which is the non diffusible constituents of plasma fraction?
(a) enzymes,lipids,albumin
(b) platelets,leukocytes
(c) erythrocytes,globulin
(d) fibrinogen ,platelates
62.which is the catabolic products?
(a) hormones,vitamins
(b) amino acids , creatine
(c) urea ,creatinine,uric acid
(d) sodium , Glucose
63.red blood cell occur more frequently in the lymph of ?
(a) fishes
(b) higher vertebrates
(c) both a&b
(d) none of them
64.what is the concentration of sodium in Cyprinuscarpio plasma?
(a) 0.016
(b) 0.004
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121
(c) 0.31
(d) 0.313
65.which fish has higher content of Mg or weaker alkaline reserve?
(a)bony fishes
(b) sharks
(c) cyprinus carpio
(d) carp
66. what is the range of freezing point depression plasma of fresh water bony fishes?
(a) 0.6 tp 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 2.17 to 2.08
(d) 2.08 to 2.91
67.what is the value of freezing point depression for sea water ?
(a) 3.06
(b) 2.17
(c) 2.08
(d) 0.6
68.in which has higher prothrombin content ?
(a) sharks
(b) bony fishes
(c) mammalian
(d) marine fishes
69. which enzymes are abundantly occur in marine fish?
(a) protease&lipase
(b) amalyse &carbonic anhydrase
(c) lipase &carbonic anhydrase
(d) none of them
70. which has no nucleated yellowish red erythrocytes ?
(a) fishes
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122
(b) three small Antarctic species
(c) sharks
(d) carp
71. what is the diameter range of fish mature RBCs?
(a) 7 micron
(b) 9 micron
(c) 6 micron
.10 micron
72. what is the diameter of mature RBCs in African lung fish?
(a) 30 microns
(b) 32 microns
(c) 34 microns
(d) 36 microns
73. what is the diameter of RBCs in humans?
(a) 7.6
(b) 7.7
(c) 7.9
(d) 4.5
74. what is the range of RBCs in different group?
(a) 20,000 to 300000
(b) 10,000 to 20,000
(c) 40,00 t0 30,00
(d) 5000 t0 20,000
75. what is the average diameter of white blood cells?
(a) 8 microns
(b) 7 microns
(c) 9 microns
(d) 10 micron
76. in which vertebrates formation of blood cells is restricted to bone marrow spleen & lymph nodes?
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123
(a) cold blooded
(b) warm blooded
(c) both a&b
(d) none of them
77. in which kind of fishes blood cells are formed in the diffused spleen ?
(a) lampreys&hag fishes
(b) carp&sharks
(c) both a&b
(d) none of them
78. in which organ the thrombocytes are formed?
(a) bone marrow
(b) spleen
(c) mesonephric kidneys
(d) all of these
79. what is the spiral valve of the intestine produce in the sturgeons?
(a) WBCs
(b) RBCs
(c) platlets
(d) all of themt
80. the appropriate muscles of the pneumatic duct wall and the blood vessels are under control of ?
(a) circulatory system
(b) nervous system
(c) both a&b
(d) none of them
81. whats is the thickness of the swim bladder of the layer of cells containing sheets of guanine crystal ?
(a) 3um
(b) 7 um
(c) 8 um
(d) 9 um
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124
82. what is the pure concentration percentage of oxygen in deep sea fishes?
(a) 80 percent
(b) 90 percent
(c) 70 percent
(d) all of them
83. which acid is produce by the cells of gas gland are rich in glycogen ?
(a) carbonic anhydrase
(b) lactic acid
(c) both a&b
(d) none of them
84. how much amount of oxygen unloading when a change of one pH unit occur?
(a) 60 percent
(b) 70 percent
(c) 50 percent
(d) all of them
85. in which class of fish the filaments are joined along almost their whole length by a septum which
form external flap ?
(a) elasmobranches
(b) salmonids
(c) both a&b
(d) none of them
86. which fishes spend all their lives in dense viscous fluid Which contain relatively little oxygen?
(a) sharks
(c) shallow water fish
(d) marine water fish
(d) muds kipper
87. what is the basic generator of respiratory rhythm in fish resides?
(a) CNs
(b) medulla
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125
(c) PNs
(d) all of them
88. krough,s constant donated by ?
(a) K
(b) X
(C) z
(d) e
89. how many lungs are present in the Australian lung fish?
(a) two lung
(b) three lung
(c) one lung
(d) none of them
90. what is the time required for the breathing of water protopterus?
(a) 6-9 mints
(b) 5-7 mints
(c) 9-7 mints
(d) none of them
91. what is the amount of concentarion of oxygen in lung fish to enable to live in water?
(a) low oxygen content
(b) high oxygen content
(c) modrate oxygen content
(d) none of them
92. in nature aestivation lasts about ?
(a) 4-6 months
(b) 6-7 months
(c) both a&b
(d) none of them
93. Which animals are cold blooded, typically with backbone and gills and fins..
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126
A, Fish
B, Amphibians
C, Reptiles
D, Birds
94. What is the length of sexual maturity American percid
A, 29nm
B, 32nm
C, 27nm
D, 21nm
95. Most fishes are torpedo-shape but some are
A, round
B, flat
C, angular
D, all of these
96. The grass of the water is microscopic plant life diatoms and algae collectively known
A, zooplankton
B, phytoplankton
C, diatoms
D, none of these
97. The study of fishes is called
A, ichthyology
B, ethology
C, fisheries
D, synecology
98. How many surface of earth is covered with water
A, 75%
B, 70%
C, 60%
D, 65%
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127
99. The range of fish approximately 5km above sea level and how many beneath
A, 10km
B, 14km
C, 20km
D, 11km
100. What is the accelerate rate of development of diversity of living conditions in water
A, speciation
B, species
C, population
D, diversity
101. How many present vertebrate species
A, 41,600
B, 43,500
C, 25,200
D, 18,203
102. How many time ago the presence of man on earth like ape ancestor
A, 600
B, 400
C, 500
D, 100
103. Life ways and habitats and the interaction of fish with each other and their environment
A, Natural history & ecology
B, ecology 7 conservation
C, physiology & biochemistry
D, ecology and biochemistry
104. The long term effort to arrange all kind of living and fossil fishes into groups and taxa with their
natural relationship is called
A, anatomy
B, evolution
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128
C, genetics
D, classification
105. What is the example of fish without jaws
A, hag fishes
B, lampreys
C, sharks
D, both a&b
106. How many aims of fish classification
A, 3
B, 5
C, 2
D, 1
107. The basic theme of classification would be for mechanical convenience, alphabetically or by size
A, practical
B, ideal
C, theoretical
D, all of these
108. The classification on the base of evolutionary genetic or natural in character this aim is called
A, practical
B, ideal
C, mechanical
D, none of these
109. What is the class of bony fishes
A, crossopteriygii
B, osteichthyes
C, pisces
D, myxini
110. In whis group of fish paired fins absent
A, sharks & rays
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129
B, rays & skates
C, hag fishes & lampreys
D, lung fishes
111. The jawed fishes is called
A, gnathostomous
B, teleostomi
C, holocephali
D, none of these
112. In which subclass of fish three pairs of toothplates are present
A, elasmobranchii
B, dipnoi
C, actinoptrygii
D,crossopterygii
113. What is the order of Australian lung fishes..
A, Anguilliformes
B, clupeiformes
C, Dipterifomes
D, Osteoglossiformes
114. What is the family of Pikes..
A, salmonidae
B, Denticipitidae
C, Esocoidei
D, pantodontidae
115. What is the suborder of Mullets..
A, Muiloidei
B, percoidei
C, Gobioidei
D, Anabantoidei
116. What is the order of Snakheads
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130
A, Tetraodontiformes
B, perciformes
C, lophiiformes
D, squaliformes
117. Which class of puffers
A, Osteichthyes
B, Chondrichthyes
C, Cephalaspidomorphi
D, none of these
8 Evolution
Encircle The Correct Answers

1.The Onymacris ungucularis is a which lives in the coast Namib desert of Southwestern
Africa.
a)Bettle b)Fly c)None of these d)Both of these
2.Change in the genetic composition of a population from generation to generation is called .
a)Variation b)Sexual selection c)Evolution d)Behaviour
3.Aristotle is from .
a)354-331B.C b)384-322B.C c)394-325B.C d)None of these
4.The concept of scala natutae given by .
a)Aristotle b)Darwin c)Linnaeus d)Mendel
5.Carlous Linnaeus is a Swedish physician from .
a)1701-1775 b)1891-1937 c)1935-1991 d)1707-1778
6.According to Darwin,evolution mainly study on .
a)Fossils b)Traces of organisms c)Plants d)Both a & b
7.New layers of sediment cover older ones and compressed them into superimposed layers of
rocks called .
a)Strata b)Mentle c)Core d)None of these
8.Paleonotology is the studt of .
a)Earth crust b)) Fishes c Fossils d)Birds
9.Georges Cuvier is from .
a)1752-1880 b)1665-1773 c)1909-1995 d)1769-1832
10. observed that from one layer to the next,some new species appeared while other
disappeared.
a)Linnaeus b)Darwin c)Aristotle d)Cuvier
11.The principle that events in the past occurred suddenly and were caused by mechanism .
a)Catastrophism b)Evolution c)Both d)None
12.Earth geological features proposed by in 1795.
a)Cuvier b)Hutton c)Linnaeus d)Both a & b
13.Charles Lyell is from .
a)1797-1875 b)1877-1991 c)1798-1876 d)1881-1935
14.Charles Lyell gave the process of .
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131
a)Uniformitarianism b)Catastrophism c)Both d)None
15.Lamarck published his hypothesis in .
a)1813 b)1809 c)1902 d)1912
16.Darwin embarked from England on Beagle in 1831.
a)June b)September c)December d)April
17.Darwin studied on .
a)Humid jungles of Brazil b)Expensive grassland of Argentina c)Towering peaks of the andes d)All of
them
18.Galapagos,a group of volcanic islands located near the equator about .
a)500km b)700km c)900km d)1100km
19.A process in which individuals with certain inherited traits leave more offspring is called .
a)Natural selection b)Group selection c)Kin selection d)All of them
20.Darwin set his ideas on paper in .
a)1852 b)1844 c)1876 d)1849
21.Seven lineages related to elephants have become extinct over the past million years.
a)70 b)40 c)50 d)30
22. of all species that have ever lived are now extinct.
a)71% b)100% c)99% d)50%
23.Natural selection is the process in which individuals survive and reproduce at then
other individuals.
a)Higher rate bLower rate c)Normal rate d)None
24.Natural selection can the match between the organisms & their enivornment.
a)Decrease b)Normalize c)Increase d)Both a & b
25.Jhon Endler studied on .
a)Fossils b)Bettle c)Insects d)Guppies
26.Poecilia reticulate are .
a)Guppies b)Atlantic sparrow c)Seahorse d)Atlantic canary
27.The evolution of HIV resistance to the drug .
a)2TC b)3TC c)4TC d)5TC
28.3TC molecule is similar in shape to the bearing.
a)Adenine bearing b)Guanine bearing c)Uracil bearing d)Cytosine bearing
29.The early cetaceans lived million years ago.
a)50-60 b)50-70 c)50-80 d)50-90
30.Whales and other cetaceans originate from mammals.
a)Aquatic b)Land c)Terrestrial d)All of them
31.The structure of human and whale forelimb is .
a)Analogy b)Homology c)Both d)None
32.All embryos have a tail located posterior to the anus and the structure is called .
a)Pharyngeal slits b)Pharyngeal pouches c)Pharyngeal throat d)Both b & c
33.Protective embryonic layer is .
a)Allantois b)Chorion c)Amnion d)None
34.Organisms that are closely related to each other and share common characters from common descent is
called .
a)Convergent evolution b)Divergent evolution c)Experimental evolution d)Hypothetical
evolution 35.
Complete their embryonic development in the uterus.
a)Marsupials b)Birds c)Amphibians d)Eutherians
36. Are born as embryos and complete their development in external pouch.
a)Eutherians b)Amphibians c)Marsupials d)Birds
37.Sugar glider is similar to .
a)Flying squirrels b)Flying monkey c)Flying bats d)None
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132
38.A single large continent is .
a)Pangaea b)Gondwana c)Panthalasia d)Lauresia
39.Present-day horse species originated million years ago in North America.
a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5
40.Organisms that are not found elsewhere in the world .
a)Feral b)Cosmopolitan c)Endemic d)Exotic
41.Seed eating birds that inhabit the Galapagos islands .
a)Ground finch b)Water finch c)Rock finch d)Bull finch
42.Change in allele frequencies in a population over generation is known as .
a)Macroevolution b)Microevolution c)Genetic variation d)Mutation
43.Scientific name of house mouse is .
a)Ratus ratus b)Ravan c)Parus major d)Mus musculus
44.Graded change in a character along a geographic axis is known as .
a)Clone b)Spike c)Cline d)None of these
1.The pattern of evolution over large time scale is.
a)macro evolution b)microevolution c)slow evolution d)gradual evolution
2.The sweeping change in life on earth
a)macro evolution b)microevolution c)slow evolution d)gradual evolution
Long term impact of mass extinction , origin of key biochemical process “photosynthesis” and the
emergence of first terrestrial vertebrate are the examples of
a)microevolution b)slow evolution c)gradual evolution d)macro evolution
The earliest evidence of life on earth cases from fossils of micro-organisms that are about -----years ago
a)2.5million b)3.5 million c)4.5million d)5.5million
The hypothesis that chemical physical processes on early earth aided by the emerging forces of
a)natural selection b)artificial selection c c)evolution d )volcanic eruption
The hypothesis that chemical and physical processes 0n early earth could have produced very simple cells
through a sequence of main -------- stages
a(4 b)5 c)6 d)7
Earth and other planets of solar system formed about ----------years ago
a)4.4 million b)4.4billion c)4.6millio d)4.6billio
Collisions generated heat enough to vaporize the water and prevent yhe seas forming , this phase likely
ended about--------- billion years ago
a)3.9 b)4 c)4.9 d)5
The first atmosphere was probably----------- with water vapours
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133
a)thin b)unfavorable c)thick d)favorable
Scientists in 1920s hypothesized that the earth’s atmosphere was------- envoirment
a)reducing b) non reducing c)both of these d)none of these
Haldane suggest that early earth were a solution of organic molecules,a---------from which life arose
a)primitive group b)primitive molecules c)primitive soup d) none of these
It is unclear whether the atmosphere of Young Eotained methane and amonia to be
a)reducing b) non reducing c)both of these d)none of these
The early atmosphere was made up of the nitrogen and carbon dioxide was -------------- primarily
a)reducing b)oxidizing c)a&b both d) neither reducing nor oxidizing
First organic compounds formed near------and deep sea vents , where hot water and minerals gush in to
the ocean from earth’s interior
a)submerged volcanoes b)rivers c)oceans d)streams
Among Meteorites that land on earth are----------condrites
a)potassium b) magnesium c)carbonaceous d) chloride
Fragments of fallen 4.5 billion years old chondrite found in Australia in 1969 cotain more than-------
amino acids
a)20 b)40 c)60 d)80
Condrite amino acids cannot be contaminates from earth because of an equal amount of------
a)D isomer b)L isomer c)a&b d) none of them
Early cell has a vast assortment ----------
a)macro molecule b) micro molecule c)a&b d)none of them
Two key properties of life are accurate Replication &------------
a)translation b)transduction c)metabolism d)transcription
Miller urey type experiments have yielded some of the nitrogen bases of-------
a)DNA b)RNA c)a&b d)none of them
Collection of abioticaly produced molecules surrounded surrounded by a membrane like structure
a)probionts b)symbionts c)mutulism d)b&c
Probionts produced abiotically but have the properties of
a)reproduction b)metabolism c)a&b d)none of them
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Small membrane bounded droplet called------- can form when lipids and other molecules are added in
water
a)liposome b)isosome c) mesosome d)b&c
Liposome undergo other osmotic -------- when placed in solution of different solute concentration
a)swelling b)shrinking c)swelling or shrinking d)brusting
RNA ------stranded molecules as a same varity of specific three dimensional shapes mandataed by their
nucleotide sequence
a)single b) double c) triple d)none of them
That there could have been trillions of--------------- in bodies of water on early earth
a)symbionts b)probionts c)small water mammals d) insects
Sedimentry rocks are the richest source of -----------
a)fossils b)organic molecule c)inorganic molecule d)b&c
The sequence in which fossils have accumulated in sedimentary rock layers called
a)layers b) plates c)ages d)starta
---------- are the valuable data for reconstructing the history of life
A)fossils b)layers c)rocks d)sarta
one of the most common technique for the determination of age of the fossils is--------
a)counting of layers b)radiometric dating isotopes c)a&b both d)none of them
The radioactive parent isotopes decay into daughter isotopes, the rate of decay expressed by
a)increasing amount b)decreasing amount c)half life d)half amount
Carbon 14 decays relatively quickly, it has a half life of
a)5730 b)5570 c)5560 d)5580
By measuring the ratio of carbon 14 and carbon 12 in a fossil, we can determine the fossil’s age. This
method works for fossils up to aboyt-------------
a)71000 b)73000 c)75000 d)77000
Radioactive isotopes with longer half lives are used to date the
a)new fossils b)older fossils d)ancient fossils d)recent fossils
The organisms do not use radioisotopes that have long half life , such as ------- build in their bones and
shells
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a)uranium 238 b)uranium 237 c)uranium236 d)uraniu
During the formation of volcanic sedimentary rock, iron particals in the rock align themselves with the
earth’s
a)magnetic field b)gravitational field b)a&b d)none of them
The measurement of the magnetism of various rock layers indicate that earth’s -------------magnetic poles
have reserved repeatedly in past
a)north b)south c)north & south d)west
along with the Amphibians &------------ mammals belong to the group of animals called tetrapods
a)reptiles b)vertebrates c)invertebrates D)none of these
Synapsids had -----------bones in the lower jaw & single pointed teeth
a)single b) multiple c) countless d) no any bone present
synapsids also has the opening called the temporal fenestra behind -------
aa)eyes socket b)nose C) ribs D)b&c
---------million year ago , mammals originate gradually from a group tetrapod called synapsid
a)110 b)120 c)130 d)140
synapsids originate--------million years ago
a)100 b)200 c)300 d)400
therapsid originated-------million years ago
A)180 b)280 c)380 d)480
Early cycnodont originated--------million years ago
a)120 b)130 b)260 d)320
Later cynodont originated----------million years ago
a)220 b)230 c)260 d)250
Very late cynodont originated--------million years ago
a)100 b)195 c)199 d)200
Later group of synapsid called---------
a)therapsid b)cynodont C)tetrapods d)b&c
50 -------had large dentary bones long faces large canine
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a)therapsid b)cynodont C)tetrapods d)b&c
--------------,the jaw had an articular quadrate hing
a)early synapsid b)cynodont c)therapsid d)later synapsid
----------had teeth with complex cusp
a)early synapsidb)later cynodont c)therapsid d)later synapsid
the first two eons the Archean & Proterozoic together lasted approximately ---------
a)4 billion years b)4 million years c)4.5 million years d)4.5 billion years
Proterozoic era divided in to --------- eras
a)2 b)3 c)4 d)5
Mesozoic era some time called as the age of
a)vertebrates b)invertebrates c)reptiles d)birds
The fossil record provides a ---------- over view of the history of life over geological time.
a)simple b)mixed c)unclear d)sweeping
The earliest evidence of life dating from -------billion years ago.
a)3.5 b)2.5 c)1.5 d)1
------------ are the layered rocks that form when certain prokaryotes bind thin film of sediment together
a) ignecious b)sedimentary c)stromatolits d)a&b
Early prokaryotes were Earth’s sole inhabitants from at least -----million years ago to about 2.1 million
years ago
a)1.5 b)2.5 c)3.5 d)4.5
Red layers of rock containing ------ that are source of iron ore today
a)iron oxide b) Ferrus oxide c)ferric oxide d) none
The amount of atmospheric oxygen increased gradually from about -------- billion years ago.
a)2.7 b)2.8 c)2.7 to 2.2 d) 2.2
The oldest widely accepted f0ssils of Eukaryotic organisms are about ----- years old.
a)2.1 billion b)2.3b c)2.5b d)2.2b
Eukaryotic cells have cytoskeleton a feature that enables eukaryotic cell to change their
a) location b)shape c)position d)movement
A range of evidences support a model called------------
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a)symbiosisis b)mutulism c)endosymbiosis d)commensalism
The term refer to a cell live within other cell called ---------
a)symbiosisis b)mutulism c)endosymbiotic d)commensalism
---------probably gained enters to the host cell as undigested prey
a)mitochondria b)ribosomes c)golgibodies d)ER
Wildlife
A historical and philosophical perspective
1. The place where an organism lives is called habitat.
2. Humans are present in almost every habitat because they can modify their environment according
to their need.
3. The only record about animal-habitat relationship was provided by naturalists for centuries.
4. The first best early naturalist was the Aristotle who wrote many books about cluding breeding
behavior, diets, migration and hibernation.
5. Fish are found in sea estuaries because of two reasons; firstly for food and secondly for
breeding.
6. Interest toward natural history vanished after Aristotle during the growth of Roman Empire.
7. Little new information about animal habitat was added for nearly 1700 years after the death of
Aristotle.
8. Klopfer and Ganzhorn (1985) noted painters in the medieval and pre-Renaissance period still
showed an appreciation of specific animal with particular feature of the environment.
9. System of naming and classification of organism was given by Carl Linnaeus.
10. Europeans collected feathers, eggs, pelts, horns and other parts of animals for collection
cabinets.
11. Theory of natural selection was given by Charles Darwin in 1959.
12. Theory of evolution by natural selection forms the foundation of field of ecology.
13. Merriam in 1890 identified the changes that occur in plants and animals on an elevated gradient.
14. Adams 1908 studied changes in bird species that accompany plant succession.
15. Davis lack was first to recognize the features of appropriate environment trigger the animal to
select a place to live.
16. Lack´s idea gave birth to the concept of habitat selection.
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17. Svardson (1949) developed a general conceptual model of habitat selection and Hilden later
expressed similar ideas.
18. Svardson found that factors other than those associated with the structure of the environment
influence selection.
19. Habitat selection is a complicated process involving several levels of discrimination and spatial
scale and a number of potentially interacting factors.
20. The distribution of animal is intimately tied to the concept of niche.
21. Grinnell formerly introduced the term niche when he was attempting to identify the reason for
the distribution of a single species of birds.
22. Elton described the niche as the status of an animal in the community and focused on trophic
position and diet.
23. Hutchinson articulated the multivariate nature of causes of animal distribution.
24. Odum in 1959 viewed the niche as the position or status of an organism in an ecosystem
resulting from its behavior and morphological adaptations.
25. Use of fire by Native Americans altered the ecosystem in which they lived and influenced the
number of animals they hunted.
26. Marco polo reported that in the Mongol Empire in Asia, Kublai Khan increased the number of
quail and partridge.
27. H.L.Stoddard´s work on bobwhite quail, published in 1931, and Errington and Hammerstrom
´s work on pheasants, published in 1937, exemplify early efforts.
28. In the United States in 2001, 66 million people over 16 years of age spent over $38.4 billion
observing, feeding, or photographic wildlife.
29. In Arizona non game program is funded by a fixed percentage of the funds generated by the state
lottery.
30. An effort to increase the funding base for managing non game animals and their habitats was
started in the mid-1900s.
31. Christopher D.Stone, Jermy Bentham and Peter Singer argue that animals deserve the focus of
ethical consideration.
32. Ecological concept was proposed by J.Baird Callicott and was most eloquently advanced by
Leopold in his book A County Almanac.
Notre: Acts and legislations are not included.
Topic: Concept of an Ecosystem
1) Ecosystem is natural and functional unit.
2) An ecosystem is a region with specified and recognizable landscape.
3) Nature of an ecosystem is based on its geographical features.
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4) At global level skin of earth on the land, the sea and air, forms the biosphere.
5) Ecosystems are structurally and functionally identified able.
6) Overuse or misuse of resources has led to serious degradation of our environment.
7) The most undisturbed forests are located mainly in our National parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
8) Grassland covers area where rainfall is low and/or soil depth and quality is poor.
9) Low rain fall in grassland prevent growth of large number of trees and shrub.
10) Desert and semi-arid lands are highly specialized and sensitive ecosystems that are easily
destroyed by human activities.
11) Rajasthan is in the Thar desert.
12) These ecosystems provide human beings with a wealth of natural resources.
13) The special abiotic features are its physical aspects such as the quality of water.
14) Aquatic ecosystem may be classified as stagnant ecosystem or running water ecosystems.
15) Aquatic ecosystems are classified as freshwater, brackish and marine ecosystems.
16) Coral reefs are rich in species.
Scientific, philosophical and educational value
1) Scientific value of wildlife is value of wild population as object of scientific study.
2) Charles Darwin gave concept of natural selection as part of principle of evolution.
3) There were immense ramification in biology, geology, religion and ethics.
4) Our awareness of danger of chlorinated hydrocarbons pesticides was enhanced when sensitive
species of wildlife were affected.
5) For man’s understanding and management of himself affects the quality and persistence of human
life.
6) The philosophical and educational value of wildlife may b critical to developing an ecological and
evolutionary ethic.
7) Tall grass praries are an extinct ecosystem.
8) Wildlife is subject of literature, poetry, art and music.
9) An individual’s physical and mental health, enhanced by participating in outdoor recreation.
10) Negative values of wildlife are cost of wildlife damages to crop and other property and cost of
controlling these damages.
The variety of advocates for wildlife
1) Laissez-faire group, apathetic toward wildlife, uncaring.
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2) The greatest threat to wildlife in US is that this laissez-faire group will grow, resulting in declining
political support for wildlife conservation.
3) Waterfowl marshes and floodplain forests provide some of the best opportunities to preserve urban
wildlife habitat.
4) Sentimentalists oppose use or management of wildlife on moral principles.
5) Manipulation of populations or habitats is moral.
6) Man cannot exist without using other forms of life or without manipulating habitat.
7) Sentimentalists are sometimes attached to certain species, usually wild warm blooded species.
8) Sentimentalists view of biota and its complex function is limited.
9) Habitat destruction is the major cause of declining wildlife population.
10) Protectionists are concerned mostly for aesthetic values and non-consumptive uses of wildlife.
11) Protectionists tend to oppose the use of natural resources.
12) Protectionists distrust proposals of multiple use of land.
13) Single-use adherents prefer one value of wildlife over all other.
14) The trophy is proof of some physical accomplishment.
15) The goal of trophy is acquisition.
16) Classification is first necessary step toward understanding nature.
17) Many people have found their religion and philosophy in their perception of nature.
CH:17
1) ……………. Are characterized by reduced number of teeth.
a) Wild cats b) clvets c) wild boar d) deers
2) Dolphin is regarded as primitive type of
a) fishes b) mammals c) whales d) vertebrates
3) Indus dolphin rises above to breathe after an interval of
a) 9 to 120 sec b) 9 to 100 sec c) 1 to 100 sec d) 9 to 10 sec
4) Litter size of dolphin is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
5) Wild boar has ………….. shaped tusks for defense.
a) rectangular b) triangular c) flattened d) oval
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6) Wild boar is
a) herbivore b) carnivore c) omnivore d) none
7) In deer family antlers are found in
a) males b) females c) both male and female d) none
8) Today ………… species of deers are recognized in Pakistan.
a) 4 b) 5 c) 9 d) 2
9) Musk is obtained from……….
a) musk deer b) barking deer c) red deer d) black deer
10) Antelopes belongs to the family……
a) canidae b) bovidae c) homonidae d) none
11) In Pakistan there are ….. species of antelopes.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
12) Nilgai is……..
a) cow b) cat c) goat d) antelope
13) Gazeela gazeela is…..
a) nocturnal b) diurnal c) semi-nocturnal d) semi-diurnal
14) In Pakistan there are ……. recognized genera of wild goat.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
15) Black buck Is ……………… mammal.
a) fast running b) fast swimming c) fast flying d) slow running
16) Blue sheep shows characteristics intermediate between…..
a) sheep and cat b) sheep and goat c) sheep and cow d) sheep and buffalo
17) In Pakistan there are five distinct subspecies of Markhor that can be separated on the basis of…
a) horn shape b) skin color c) number of legs d) number of horns
18) Capra falconeri megaceros, commonly called as…
a) Kabul Markhor b) Astor Markhor c) Chiltan Markhor d) Kashmir Markhor
19) Ovis orientalis vignei commonly called as….
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a) Marcopolo sheep b) Shapu c) Ladakh urial d) both b & c
20) Common peafowl, Pavo crictatus are…..
a) herbivore b) carnivore c) omnivore d none
21) Monal is a large….
a) bird b) mammal c) reptile d) amphibian
22) The imperial Sandgrouse are……
a) herbivore b) vegetarian c) both a & b d) carnivore
23) Which one of the following is known as game bird….
a) Markhor b) peacock c) crow d) Houbara Bustard
24) Houbara Bustard is a large sized….
a) running mammal b) running bird c) flying bird d) swimming mammal
1 Pakistan is bounded on north and northwest by ………………..
a) Afgananistan
b) Iran
c) India
d) None of them
2 The area of Pakistan is ………………..square kilometer.
a) 905,678
b) 665,895
c) 803,943
d) 112,365
3 The highest peak in the highland is …………………………in the Hindukush in north .
a) K-2
b) Nanga purbat
c) Tirich mir
d) None of them
4 In the mountain region of Pakistan average winter temperature is ………………….degree Celsius.
a) 15
b) 16
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c) 13
d) 19
5 Most of the rain fall in the arid region of Pakistan occurs from…………….
a) July to September
b) May to June
c) August to September
d) April to may
6 About …………..% of land in Pakistan is waterlogged.
a) 90
b) 80
c) 68
d) 10
7 The total number of vertebrate’s species found in Pakistan excluding fish only ………….
a) 9-10%
b) 11-12%
c) 7-8%
d) 4-7%
8 Present statuses of brown bear in Punjab ………………
a) Present
b) Absent
c) Vulnerable
d) Endangered
9 Present status of Urialin Punjab ……………….
a) Present
b) Absent
c) Vulnerable
d) Endangered
10 some ………….. Species of plant are believed to be rare or threatened in Pakistan.
a) 600
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b) 300
c) 500
d) 900
11 Among freshwater fishes, only ………….. Species has been listed as endangered.
a) Two
b) One
c) Three
d) Five
12 Internationally threatened bird species occurring in Pakistan includes ……………
a) 25
b) 60
c) 30
d) 35
13 Dry sub-tropical habitats may again be subdivided into ………… zones .
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) One
14 Monkeys are represented by only …………….. species in Pakistan.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 8
15 ………………. Terrestrial, nocturnal and burrowing mammal found in Pakistan.
a) Red fox
b) Badger
c) Pangolin
d) Martens
16 The wolf is comparatively larger in size than the …………….
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a) Wild dog
b) Indian fox
c) Red fox
d) Jackal
17 There ……………. Common species of foxes found in Pakistan.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 8
d) 2
18 civets secretes a greasy substance from their anal gland called used in ……… making .
a) Soap
b) Powder
c) Paint
d) Perfumes
Fossil are inclde
(a) Biological resources (b) Physical resources (c) Unaltered resources (d) None
(b) Physical resources
Complex of plant, animals and micro-organisms communities, their non living environment interacting as
a functional unit.
(a)Ecosystem (b) community(c) population(d)None
(a)Ecosystem
Any plant or animal not existence today is called
(a) Endemic (b) Exotic (c) Extinct (d) Feral
(c) Extinct
Domestic plants or animals which having escaped accidentally and now live wild under natural condition.
(a)Endemic (b) Exotic (c) Extinct (d) Feral
(d) Feral
Taxonomic subdivision of a genus is called
(a) Territory (b) population (c) species (d) None
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(b) species
First national park was established in
(a)1869 (b)1870(c) 1871(d)1872
(d)1872
Wild life is integral part of
(a) Ecosystem (b) population (c)species(d)None
Ecosystem
Organisms that eat both plant and animal is called
(a) herbivore (b) carnivore (c) omnivore(d) none
(b) omnivore
World wildlife fund was set up in
(a) 1961 (b) 1962 (c) 1963 (d) 1964
1961
First zoological park was established in
(a)1895 (b)1896 (c)1897 (d) 1898
(a)1895
Wildlife has an excellent value
(a) Social (b)economic (c) aesthetic (d)none
(b) Aesthetic
Fisheries
Nutritionally complete feeds should be used whenever ________ foods are absent:
A. Natural
B. Manmade
C. Artificial
Most requirements for nutrients that have been published focus on:
A. Juvenile fish
B. Shrimp fish
C. Adult fish
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D. Both A & B
__________ percent of ascorbic acid is lost in processing , half life of 2-3 months in storage:
A. 50 %
B. 60%
C. 70%
_________ is important to insure appropriate consumption:
A. Particle size
B. Particle shape
C. Both
___________ is a slow feeding specie:
A. Shrimp
B. Labeo rohita
C. Carps
Fish meal is high in:
A. LYS
B. MET
C. Both of these
Fish meal also contains ________ n-6 fatty acids essential to many fish and all shrimp:
D. 1-1.5%
E. 2-2.5%
F. 1-2.5%
G. 1.5-2.5%
De-hulled soybean meal contains ______% less ME , ______% less available P, and _______% less n-3
FA’s than anchovy meal:
A. 25, 85, 90
B. 25,90,85
C. 90,85,70
Heating via extrusion improves digestibility by:
A. 10=15%
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B. 15=20%
C. 20=30%
________ are used as energy sources, provide essential fatty acids, attractant, coating of pellet to reduce
abrasion:
A. Crustacean meal
B. Soybean meal
C. Fats and oil
The amount of Polymethylocarbamide used in steam pelleted fish feeds is :
A. 0.5-0.8%
B. 0.1-0.2%
C. 0.8-0.7%
Chemical binders have good binding potential , for cross linkages with:
A. COH &PRO
B. Carbohydrates
C. phospholipids
In addition to essential nutrients , feeds may have ________________ that have various effect on aquatic
species:
A. organic and inorganic materials
B. protein constituents
C. carbohydrates
The most important toxins effecting animal feeding are those associated with molds. These are called as:
A. mytotoxins
B. toxins
C. aflotoxins
___________ is the mytotoxin of greatest concern in feeding of culture species:
A. aflotoxins
B. mytotoxins
C. toxins
rainbow trout are highly sensitive at _______ exposure:
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A. 1ug/kg
B. 2ug/kg
C. 3ug/kg
Aspergillus and penicilium molds are the compounds produced by:
A. Ochratoxin
B. Aflotoxins
C. Antimetabolites
Ochratoxin is typically associated with ________ toxicity:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Ureter
Ochratoxin toxic level is __________ in diet:
A. 4.7mg/kg
B. 3.7mg/kg
C. 4.7mg/kg
Microbial toxins must contain less than:
A. 20ppb
B. 10ppb
C. 75ppb
_________ is a toxic compound found in fish meal, a typical feed ingredient:
A. Histamine
B. Phytic acid
C. Hormones
___________ is a component of pigment lands in the cotton plant:
A. Gossypol
B. Pellet binders
C. Diet additives
Hormonal control is used to produce __________ cultures of fish:
A. Monosex
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150
B. Unisex
C. Bisex
_________ are used for improving water stability:
A. Pellet binders
B. Fibers
C. Hormones
____________ is commercial;;y available as “medicated” fish (shrimp) feed , 1500mg/kg:
A. OTC
B. BHA
C. BHT
Attractants usual inclusion level is around ___________, largely due to cost:
A. 0.5-1.0%
B. 1-2%
C. 2-3%
Harmones are used as____________ in catle:
A. Implants
B. Otplants
C. none
1- Common signs of disease in fish are
a) Discoloration of body
b) Whirling or turning movement
c) Folding of fins
d) all of these
2- tumours of water on the body is the symptoms of the disease of
a) Lymphocystis
b) VHS
c) IHN
d) IPN
3- IHN is a ----------- disease in salmonids
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151
a) Viral
b) Bacterial
c) Autoimmune
d) Hygienic
4- A great majority fish live in PH 7.0-6.0 but if PH of water goes does ,fish shows signs of
a) Alkemia
b) Acidaemia
c) Acidosis
d) Alkalosis
5- To overcome the acidaemia , the PH level most be normalized with judicious application of powdered
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium phosphate
c) Hydrogen phosphate
d) Calcium
6- Kurmar and Dey (1991) have classified therapeutic treatment of fish s under
a) External treatment
b) Systematic treatment via diet
c) External and systematic via diet
d) None of these
7- The organism resting or swimming on the surface of water is termed as
a) Detritus
b) Plankton
c) Neuston
d) Benthos
8- ………… is contain aminoacids together with microorganisms and organic product of decay
a) Periphyton
b) Mud
c) Benthos
d) detritus
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9- ……….. those feed exclusively on fish
a) piscivores
b) aerial feeders
c) benthivores
d) aerial feeders
10- Specialized carnivores are
a) fin biters
b) scale eaters
c) parasite
d) all of these
11- gas bubble disease is also known as
a) pop eye
b) embolism
c) anoxia
d) acidaemia
12- Anemia caused due to the deficiency of
a) iodine
b) vitamin
c) Vitamin E
d) Biotin
13- deficiency of pentothenic acid in fish caused
a) Anemia
b) Blue slim disease
c) Dietary gills
d) Thyroid tumor
14) ……… concentration of oxygen in water is most sufficient for most fish
a) 5ppm
b) 3ppm
c) 7.5ppm
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153
d) 7 ppm
15) The concentration less then ……. May prove to be lethal for many fish species and other aquatic
animal
a) 3ppm
b) 5ppm
c) 4ppm
d)7ppm
16) Gass bubble disease also known as
a) dietary disease
b) Embolism
c) anoxia
d) ergailoso
17) a gas saturation of ……. Is generally considered as problematic to fish
a) Above 110%
b) Less than 110%
c) 110%
d) 111%
Pop-eye disease in fish is caused by
a) Gas bubble disease
b) Dietry disease
c) anoxia
d) ergailoso
Water is emerging as:
(a)national challenge
(b) international challenge
(c)none of these
(2) ------is one of the best examples of mixed farming:
(a)integrated fish farming
(b)integrated of aquaculture
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154
(c)none of these
(3 ) Integrated fish farming practices in different forms mostly in:
(a)East and West
(b)South and North
(c)South and East
(4) ------countries is one of the most important ecological balance sustainable technologies:
(a)West Asian countries
(b)East Asian countries
(c)North Asian countries
(5) An important component of integrated fish farming is highly advantageous to:
(a)Farmers
(b)Hunters
(c)Woodcutters
(6) Integrated fish farming is well develop culture practice in:
(a)China
(b)Japan
(c)India
(7) ------is organic-based and drives inputs from agricultural and animal husbandry:
(a)China
(b)India
(c)Japan
(8) Integrated fish farming refers to:
(a)simultaneous culture of fish
(b)Integrated of aquaculture
(c)Both (a) and (b)
(9) The integrated fish farming is accepted as a sustainable from of:
(a)aquaculture
(b) agriculture
(c)none of these
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155
(10) The integrated of fish and plants results in a:
(a)aquaculture
(b)agriculture
(c) polyculture
(11) The------products of one biological system serve as nutrient for a second biological system:
(a)The useful products
(b)The waste products
(c)The useful and waste products
(12) The integrated fish farming includes the:
(a)process of trapping solar energy
(b)its utilization by photographs
(c)(a) and (b)
(13) ------provide more employment avenues:
(a)Integrated fish farming
(b)Integrated of aquaculture
(c)none of these
(14) -------is an artificial balanced ecosystem where there is no waste:
(a) Integrated aquaculture
(b)Integrated fish farming
(c)none of these
(15) There are --------types of integrated fish farming:
(a)One
(b)Two
(c)Three
(16) Agri-based fish farming is an example of:
(a)Integrated fish farming
(b)Paddy
(c)Integrated of aquaculture
(17) Paddy fields retain water for------- months in a year:
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156
(a) 4-8
(b) 5-9
(c) 3-8
(18) Paddy grows in:
(a)Middle
(b)Front
(c)Backward
(19) At least--------goats are essential to fertilize 1 ha pond:
(a) 60-50
(b) 50-70
(c) 50-60
(20) ------are provided on either one or both sides of the moderately sloping field:
(a)perimeter type
(b)Lateral trench system
(c)Both (a) and (b)
(21) The fish production is about ------- Kg from 1 ha:
(a) 1000Kg
(b) 2000Kg
(c) 3000Kg
(22) The-------farming system includes the culture of fruits, vegetables and flowers on the embankment of
the pond:
(a)Horticulture-cum-fish farming
(b)Paddy-cum-fish culture
(c)Aquaculture
(23) The Indian Council of Medical Research has recommended -------fruits and ------vegetables to
consume daily:
(a) 84g fruits and 300g vegetables
(b) 85g fruits and 301g vegetables
(c) 85g fruits and 300g vegetable
Page
157
(24) The system of Horticulture-cum-fish farming provides-------% more return in comparison to
aquaculture alone:
(a) 20-25%
(b) 30-35%
(c) 25-50%
(25) ---------are used for growing pulses and oil seed crops:
(a)water
(b)pond bundhs
(c)Both (a) and (b)
(26) The fish production obtained is about:
(a) 4000 kg/ha/year
(b) 3000 kg/ha/year
(c) 5000 kg/ha/year
(28) The Rhode Island require----------meter space/bird
(a) 0.4-0.3 square
(b) 0.3-0.5 square
(c) 0.3-0.4 square
(29)
The duck are commonly called:
(a)organic fertilizer
(b)biological aerator
(c)none of these
(30) The ‘Indian runner’ and ‘khaki camp bell’ varieties are found more suitable in:
(a)Duck-cum-fish culture
(b) pig-cum-fish culture
(c)Cattle-cum-fish farming
(31) About how many no. of ducklings are reared to fertilizer the 1 ha pond?
(a) 200 no. of ducklings
(b) 300 no. of ducklings
Page
158
(c) 400 no. of ducklings
(32) The duck also control:
(a)aquatic weed
(b)aquatic insects
(c)Both (a) and (b)
(33) The total production from such type of culture is about:
(a) 18000-18500Kg fish
(b) 18000-18500Kg eggs
(c) 3500-5000Kg fish
(34) The total production from such type of culture is about:
(a) 500kg of duck meat
(b) 400kg of duck meat
(c) 600kg of duck meat
(35) Which culture has certain advantages over others?
(a) cattle-cum-fish culture
(c) duck-cum-fish culture
(36) How many pig’s waste may produce 1 tonn of Ammonium Sulphate?
(a )30-35 pig’s
(b 35-40 pig’s
(c)20-25 pig’s
(37) Each pig requires about--------sq. floor space:
(a) 2-4 sq. floor space
(b) 3-4 sq.m floor space
(c) 4-6 sq.m floor space
(38) Which is a common practice all-over the world:
(a) cattle-cum-fish culture
(c) Rabbit-cum-fish culture
Page
159
(41) Which integration can provide 3500-4000Kg fish/ha/year without supplementary feeding and
fertilizer?
(a)GOAT-cum-fish integrated
(b)Rabbit-fish integrated
(c)none of these
(42) The important meet breeds are:
(a)grey giant
(b)white giant
(c)both a and c
(44) The rabbit excreta is high in:
(a)nitrogen content
(b)moisture
(c)quality manure
(45) From how many rabbit would be enough for 1 ha pond fertilization:
(a)300 rabbits
(b)400 rabbits
(c)500 rabbits
(46) which is a primary nutrient:
(a)nitrogen (N)
(b)oxygen(O2)
(c)carbon dioxide(CO2)
(47) Fertilizers are:
(a)natural
(b)synthetic substance
(c)both of these
(48) The chemical attached to soil particles may also later be released back into the water-----
(a)slowly
(b)fast
Page
160
(c)normally
(49) How many distinct groups are formed by pond fertilizers:
(a)one
(b)two
(c)three
(50) such dense planktonic growth is often called :
(a)zooplankton bloom
(b)plankton bloom
(c)none of these
(51) if possible add more fertilizer as needed according to the plankton density using regularly
(a)small amounts
(b)synthetic substance
(c)large amount
(52) several kinds of organic material can be used as:
(a)fish production
(b)organic fertilizer
(c)additional feedings
(53) Animals manures are organic fertilizer are a source of additional:
(a)carbon dioxide
(b)oxygen
(c)nitrogen
(54) Reduce the competition for nutrients and sunlight by controlling:
(A) Particular characteristics
(b) Plankton density
(C) Floating and submersed vegetation
(55)The most common kind of organic fertilizers:
(A) Mineral nutrients
(b) Plankton algae
(c) Natural vegetation
Page
161
A recent detailed account of various fish catching methods has been given by
A. Hickling 1961
B. Brandit 1972
C. Ewart 1997
D. Wine j &kranse 1972
According to hickling 1961 the freshwater fishing methods are:
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 7
In individual fish capture method which of the following is not included
A. Poisoning
B. Hook and line
C. Digging
D. Natural drawdown
Fyke nets are part of which following method
A. Diffuse methods
B. Lift and drop trapments
C. Electrofishing
D. Multiple methods
Poisoning, suffocation &explosions are part of
A. Individual fish capture
B. Entangling structures
C. Indiscriminate methods
D. Investing structures
Framed dip nets, scoop nets & cast nets are part of
A. Entangling structures
B. Lift & drop treatments
Page
162
C. Investing structures
D. Diffuse methods
Which of the following is not a part of investing structures ;
A. Basket traps
B. Purse seine
C. Trawl net
D. Drag net
Gill nets & trammel nets are part of
A. Individual fish capture
B. Electrofishing
C. Entangling structures
D. Collective methods
Hook & line and fish spears & harpoons are a part of which method
A. Diffuse methods
B. Individual fish capture
C. Lift &drop treatments
D. Investing structures
Tubular traps and barricades are part of which following method
A. Indiscriminate, Diffuse methods
B. Lift & drop trapments
C. Electrofishing
D. Multiple,Collective methods
Which of the following fresh water fishing method do not have have further parts
A. Diffuse methods
B. Multiple methods
C. Electrofishing
D. Entangling structures
Hickling(1961) gave different fishing methods for
A. Contour ponds
Page
163
B. Freshwater
C. Barrage ponds
D. Embankment ponds
Ponds with large overflows of water would flush out ?
A. Fishes
B. Food
C. Essential nutrients
D. Soil
Stream carries a little ….,especially during flood periods
A. Fish
B. Nutrients
C. Sand
D. Silt load
Stream water and surface run-off water are … sources of water
A. Common sources
B. Spring water
C. Ground water
D. Natural water
Which of the following water is of best quality to support aquatic life ;
A. Stream water
B. Well water
C. Ground water
D. Surface run off water
To construct a pond the site should be cleared of …
A. Insects
B. Walls
C. Trees & bushes
D. Ground water
Once the core trench has been filled with high quality clay soil, … should be installed
Page
164
A. Dam site area
B. Drain pipe
C. Spillway
D. Channel
All fills should be composed of high quality clay soil applied in thin, ….
A. Well packed layers
B. Close layers
C. Well organized sets
D. Layers
The pond banks should have a … slope to prevent excessive growth of rooted aquatic weeds
A. 3:1
B. 12 feet
C. 2:1
D. 14 inches
Spillway size should be related to the …
A. Pond size
B. Drainage area
C. Water body
D. Earthen dam
Which shape of pond is easier to build and operate
A. Square& rectangle
B. Oval
C. Circle
D. Hexagonal
Area of …. Is good for a family pond that can be built without machinery
A. 400m2
B. 200m2
C. 300m2
D. 500m2
Page
165
The water depth of pond is usually …. At shallow end
A. 4ft
B. 7ft
C. 5.3ft
D. 3ft
The water depth is usually …. At the deep end
A. 6-7ft
B. 4-5ft
C. 1-2ft
D. 9-10ft
The type of ponds depend on the …
A. Topography
B. Weather
C. Water
D. Seasons
There are …. Types of ponds
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 3
Which of the following is not a pond
A. Diversion ponds
B. Embankment ponds
C. Contour ponds
D. Streams
The pond dam should be grassed immediately to prevent
A. Dam failure
B. Erosion
C. Flooding
Page
166
D. Pond damage
___were first to practice fish culture
a) Egyptians
b) Chinese
c) Pakistani
d) British
___were first to develop pisciculture
a) Egyptians
b) Chinese
c) Pakistani
d) British
Carp culture was widespread in china by
a) 2000BC
b) 3000BC
c) 2500BC
d) 4000BC
A small lake can be termed as big lake___
a) Big lake
b) Big pond
c) Big river
d) Sea
Forel considered ponds to be ___of slight depth
a) River
b) Lake
c) Sea
d) None
Wind plays an important role in mixing of water in __?
a) Pond
b) Lakes
c) Both
d) None
Ponds may be considered as shallow bodies of quieter standing or with ___
a) Wave action
Page
167
b) No wave action
c) Less wave action
d) Max wave action
Huet considered only ___ponds as fish ponds
a) Drainable
b) Non drainable
c) Both
d) None
___ponds are build across stream water course or valley above ground structures
a) Embankment
b) Excavated
c) Barrage ponds
d) Both a and c
___ponds are build by digging soi
a) Excavated
b) Contour
c) Barrage
d) Both a and b
Barrage or embankment and excavated or contour ponds are classified on basis of ___
a) Construction
b) Function
c) Both
d) None
Spawning ponds are used for__
a) Feeding fish
b) Breeding fish
c) Catching fish
d) None
Nursery ponds ___in shape
a) Square
b) Rectangular
c) Oval
d) Circle
___pond covering an area of 0.1-0.3hectare
a) Spawning
b) Rearing
c) Stocking
d) Nursery
Page
168
On basis of function ponds are classified into __types
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
15-20m long,10-12m wide having average depth of 0.5m defines
a) Stocking pond
b) Rearing pond
c) Nursery pond
d) Spawning pond
Nursing ponds are used for nursing __days old hatchling for about a month
a) 3-5 days
b) 5-10 days
c) 10-15 days
d) None
0.1-15hectare and 0.5-1.5m depth,12-20cm long fish defines
a) Spawning pond
b) Nursing pond
c) Rearing pond
d) Stocking pond
0.25 to onward hectares having an average depth 1.5m defines
a) Stocking pond
b) Foraging pond
c) Both
d) None
__ponds are used for feeding and growing fingerlings to markable size
a) Stocking or foraging pond

b) Barrage or embankment
c) Contour pond
d) None
In selection of site for ponds they should be __to transport facilities
a) Close
b) Faraway
c) In b/w
d) None
The surface feature of area is __
a) Water quality
Page
169
b) Topography
c) Selection of site
d) Soil quality
Self draining ponds can be built on __elevations
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Medium
d) None
Topography slope should be
a) 0.5-1%
b) 2%
c) 5%
d) None
Slope greater than __is not suitable
a) 2%
b) 5%
c) 3%
d) 1%
Suitable soil for fish pond is
a) Clay loam
b) Silt clay
c) Heavy clay
d) All
Soil with too much sand or gravel have __holding capacity
a) Very high
b) Very low
c) More or less
d) None
Commercial sealing compounds are __
a) Botonite
b) Asphalt
c) Both
d) None
Acid sulphate soil is common in
a) Mangrove areas
b) Grassy areas
c) Both
d) None
Page
170
Do not dry up in summer months
a) Springs
b) Artisan wells
c) Both
d) None
Spring and well water is __in oxygen
a) Rich
b) Deficient
c) Abundant
d) None
___absorbs more water than open fields
a) Dry land
b) Water land
c) Woodland
d) None
___ponds are not practicable in arid zones
a) Dry ponds
b) Sky ponds
c) Both
d) None
Which one is not major carp
a) Catla catla
b) Labeo rohita
c) Cirrhinus mrigala
d) Cyprinus carpio
For suitable fish culture bone to flesh ratio should be
a) Low
b) High
c) Irregular
d) None
For suitable fish culture fish should be
a) Non predacious
b) Herbivore
c) Planktophagus
d) All
Page
171
Answer Key
Page
172
1) Sponge Answer key Animal Diversity
2) 360 million years ago
3) Grade
4) Sponges
5) Mesoderm
6) Spiral cleavage
7) Both a and b
8) Clade
9) Gastrulation
10) Mesoderm
11) A solid body without a cavity surrounding internal organ
12) Mesozoic Era
13) Lophophore
14) Eumetazoa
15) All above
16) 251-65.5 MYA
17) Homeoboxes
18) 1.3 million
19) Hox genes
20) 565-550 mya
21) 750
22) Stabilizer
23) Suspension feeders
24) Buoyancy
25) Waterwings
26) Synapsids
27) Single temporal fenestra
28) Temporal fenestra
29) Permian period
30) Jurassic
31) Early cretaceous
32) Both a & b
33) Honey bee
34) Mesozoic
35) Three
36) Placental mammals
37) Marsupials
38) Apes
39) Large brain and short jaws
40) 180 MYA
41) 140 MYA
42) Proboscidea
43) Lagomorpha
44) Brachiating
45) Primates
46) Anthropoids
47) Old world monkeys
48) Orangutans
49) Largest
50) 200,00 years old
51) 99%
52) 19
53) Paleoanthropolgy
54) Humans
55) 400-450 cm3
56) Nipples
57) 3.5 billion years ago
58) 99%
59) 19
60) Human
61) Foramen magnum
62) 1300 cm³
63) 4 and 2 million years ago.
64) About 10 million years ago
65) 4 times
66) Africa
67) Asians
68) microcephaly.
69) Permian period
70) Allantois
71) Amniotes
72) Chorion
73) Reptiles
74) Viviparous
75) four
76) Cold blooded
77) Parareptiles
78) Dinosaurs
79) 50
80) Snakes
81) Turtles
82) Pectoral
83) Feather
84) Mammals
85) Synapsids
Answer key Conservation Biology
1.a 21.a 41.c 61.d 81.c 101.a 121.d

2.b 22.c 42.b 62.d 82.b 102.b 122.b
3.a 23.c 43.a 63.d 83.b 103.b 123.b
4.d 24.b 44.d 64.a 84.a 104.a 124.c
5.d 25.a 45.b 65.b 85.a 105.c 125.b
6.c 26.d 46.a 66.b 86.a 106.b 126.c
7.c 27.c 47.d 67.c 87.d 107.a 127.a
8.d 28.d 48.a 68.a 88.a 108.c 128.a
9.b 29.c 49.c 69.c 89.d 109.b
10.b 30.c 50.b 70.d 90.b 110.a
11.c 31.a 51.a 71.b 91.a 111.a
12.a 32.d 52.d 72.a 92.d 112.b
13.a 33.b 53.d 73.a 93.d 113.c
14.b 34.a 54.a 74.c 94.a 114.d
15.b 35.c 55.c 75.b 95.d 115.d
16.b 36.d 56.b 76.a 96.c 116.b
17.a 37.b 57.a 77.a 97.d 117.a
18.c 38.c 58.c 78.c 98.a 118.b
19.a 39.a 59.d 79.b 99.a 119.a
20.c 40.b 60.d 80.b 100.d 120.b
Answer key Developmental Biology
ANSWERS.
1- C
2- A
3- B
4- C
5- A
6- D
7- B
8- A
9- B
10- A
11- A
12- C
13- A
14- A
15- A
16- B
17- A
18- D
19- A
20- A
21- B
22- D
23- B
24- A
25- A
26- A
27- A
28- D
29- A
30- B
31- B
32- A
33- A
34- B
35- A
36- A
37- D
38- B
39- A
40- D
41- A
42- B
43- C
44- B
45- D
46- B
47- A
48- C
49- B
50- A
51- A
52- C
53- A
54- C
55- A
56- A
57- C
58- A
59- D
60- C
61- A
62- D
63- C
64- B
65- B
66- C
67- C
68- D
69- C
70- A
71- A
72- C
73- D
74- A
75- B
76- D
77- C
78- B
79- C
80- D
81- C
82- B
83- A
84- C
85- B
86- B
87- A
88- D
89- A
90- C
91- B
92- A
93- A
94- C
95- C
96- D
97- A
98- B
99- A
100- B
101- D
102- A
103- D
104- A
105- B
106- A
107- C
108- D
109- B
110- C
111- A
112- A
113- A
114- C
115- B
116- A
117- A
118- A
119- A
120- A
121- A
122- A
123- A
124- A
125- A
126- A
127- A
128- A
129- A
130- A
131- A
132- A
133- A
134- A
135- A
136- A
137- A
138- A
139- A
140- A
141- A
142- A
143- A
144- A
145- A
146- A
147- A
148- A
149- A
150- D
151- A
152- A
153- D
154- C
155- D
156- A
157- A
158- A
159- A
160- A
161- C
162- D
163- A
164- D
165- A
166- A
167- A
168- A
169- B
170- C
171- D
172- A
173- A
174- A
175- A
176- A
177- B
178- B
179- A
180- C
181- A
182- A
183- A
184- B
185- A
186- A
187- B
188- C
189- B
190- D
191- A
192- B
193- A
194- B
195- C
196- A
197- B
198- C
199- C
200- D
201- B
202- C
203- A
204- D
205- C
206- D
207- A
208- D
209- C
210- C
211- A
212- C
213- D
214- A
215- D
216- A
217- C
218- A
219- B
220- B
221- D
222- B
223- A
224- C
225- C
226- F
227- A
228- E
229- C
230- A
231- B
232- A
233- C
234- C
235- B
236- A
237- C
238- C
239- B
240- C
241- C
242- B
243- A
244- C
245- A
246- B
247- C
248- C
249- A
250- B
251- A
252- C
253- A
254- A
255- A
256- B
Answer key Ichthyology

1.b 2.c 3.a 4.a 5.b 6.c 7.a 8.b 9.a 10.c 11.a 12.a 13.c 14.b 15.c 16.a 17.b 18.b 19.c 20.a 21.c 22.a 23.b 24.a
25.c 26.c 27.b 28.b 29.a 30.a 31.c 32.b 33.a 34.a 35.d 36.a 37.a 38.d 39.c 40.b 41.b 42.c 43.a 44.c 45.d
46.b 47.a 48.b 49.a 50.c 51.d 52.c 53.c 54.a 55.b 56.c 57.b 58.a 59.b 60.a 61.a 62.c 63.a 64.c 65.b 66.b
67.c 68.b 69.c 70.b 71.a 72.d 73.c 74.a 75.d 76.b 77.a 78.c 79.a 80.b 81.b 82.a 83.b 84.c 85.a 86.d 87.b
88.a 89.c 90.b 91.a 92.a 93.a 94.c 95.d 96.b 97.a 98.b 99.d 100.a 101.a 102.c 103.a 104.d 105.d 106.c
107.a 108.b 109.b 110.c 111.a 112.b 113.c 114.c 115.a 116.b 117a.

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1.

21.How many species of living chondrichthyans?

(a) Bulk feeders

(b) Suspension feeders

(c) Fluid feeders

(d) none of these

24. Large amount of oil in shark’s liver helps in…….

a. 3.5 billion years ago

58. The genomes of humans and chimpanzees are same

59. Humans and chimpanzees differ in the expression of ------regulatory genes.

60. The study of -------- origins is known as paleoanthropology.

62. The volume of human brain is

63. Hominin diversity increased dramatically between

a. 4 and 2 million years ago.

64. Himalayanmountain range had formed,

a. about 10 million years ago

66. Homo erectus originated in

68. miniature brains, a condition called microcephaly.

71.-------------- use their rib cages to ventilate their lungs:

72.The membrane of allantois functions with the -------------- as a respiratory organ:

73.The ---------- clade include the groups plesiosaurs and ichthyosaurs:

74.Snakes and Lizards are:

76. Lizards and Snakes are ----------------:

77. First major group of reptiles to emerg were:

78. Ornithischians and Saurischiana are the lineages of ------------:

79. The tuataras are about -------------cm long;

81. pleurodires and Cryptodires are the types of:

83. Shaft and Barbules are the parts of bird’s:

85. Mammals belong to the group of amniotes that called:

86. Mammals have the _________ major lineages:

87. Egg laying mammals are:

1-Diversity among ecosystems occuring in a near by field is known as

2-Numbers and variety of species in an area is known as

4-IUCN’s red list of threatened species focuses worldwide attention of threats at

5-According to CITES international trade is restricted in species that are

6-The species that is not consiered near threatened is known as

7-IUCN’s red list of threatened species was initiated in

8-Biodiversity is measured by its

9-The species is no longer to exist is known as

10-The biodiversity value that something has as an end in itself is known as

11-Diversity among living organisms according to large geographic scales is

18-The species have high risk of extinction in wild are know as

19-Protected areas mainly managed for scientific research is known as

a) Strict nature reserve

a) Habitat management area

a) Managed resourse protected area

24-Resource Conservation Ethic was made popular by ------------

25- ----------------- is the family of theories that undergird a discipline.

26- ---------------- is the basic axiom that unites all of biology.

27-The concept of Multiple Use was given by ----------------

30-Endangered Species Act (ESA) has served since ------------

c)Disperse genetic variation

32-Every individual of a species is genetically unique, with the exception of ---------------------

33-Genes under selection represents ------------------

c) Neutral genetic variation

d) Dispersive genetic variation

34-Genetic variations within species will be negatively corelated with ---------------

35-Genetic variations will be greater in species with ---------------

36-Genetic variations will be lower in -----------

37-Genetic variations should be lower in ---------- populations.

38-Genetic variations will be lower in ---------------- species.

39-Eastern barred bandicoot is a ------------

40-More ---------------- populations are better able to handel changes in environment.