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INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

1. What Is Instrument?
Answer :
It is a device for determining the value or magnitude of a quantity or variable.
2. List Three Sources Of Possible Errors In Instruments.?
Answer :
Gross Error, Systematic or Random errors.
3. Define Instrumental Error?
Answer :
These are the errors inherent in measuring instrument because of their mechanical
structure.
4. Define Limiting Error?
Answer :
Components are guaranteed to be with in a certain percentage of rated value. Thus
the manufacturer has to specify the deviations from the nominal value of a particular
quantity.
5. Define Probable Error?
Answer :
It is defined as r = ± 0.6745s where s is standard deviation.
Probable error has been used in experimental work to some extent in past, but
standard deviation is more convenient in statistical work.
6. Define Environmental Error?
Answer :
These are due to conditions in the measuring device, including conditions in the area
surrounding the instrument, such as the effects of changes in temperature,humidity.
7. Define Units.?
Answer :
It is necessary to define a physical quantity both in kind and magnitude in order to use
this information for further proceedings. The standard measure of each kind of physical
quantity is named as the unit.
8. Define Standards?
Answer :
The physical embodiment of a unit of measurement is a standard. For example, the
fundamental unit of mass in the international system is the kilogram and defined as the
mass of a cubic decimeter of water at its temperature of maximum density of 4°c.
9. Mention The Purpose Of The Measurement.?
Answer :

o To understand an event or an operation.


o To monitor an event or an operation.
o To control an event or an operation.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o To collect data for future analysis


o To validate an engineer design.
10. What Are The Methods Of Measurement?
Answer :

o Direct comparison method


o Indirect comparison method
11. Define Odds?
Answer :
The specification of limiting error is in itself uncertain because the manufacture himself
is not sure about the accuracy because of the presence of random errors.
12. Define Transducer And Give An Example.?
Answer :
Transducer is a device which convert one form of energy into electrical energy. A
thermocouple converts heat energy into electrical voltage.
13. What Is Primary Transducer?
Answer :
Bourdon tube acting as a primary transducer, senses the pressure and convert the
pressure into displacement. No output is given to the input of the bourdon tube. So it
is called primary transducer. Mechanical device can act as a primary transducer.
14. What Is Secondary Transducer?
Answer :
The output of the Bourdon tube is given to the input of the LVDT. There are two stages
of transduction, firstly the pressure is converted into a displacement by the Bourdon
tube then the displacement is converted into analog voltage by LVDT. Here LVDT is
called secondary transducer. Electrical device can act as a secondary transducer.
15. What Is Passive Transducer?
Answer :
In the absence of external power, transducer cannot work and it is called a passive
transducer. Example capacitive , inductive, resistance transducers.
16. What Is Active Transducer?
Answer :
In the absence of external power, transducer can work and it is called active
transducer. Example velocity, temperature, light can be transdued with the help of
active transducer.
17. What Is Analog Transducer?
Answer :
These transducers convert the input quantity into an analog output which is a
continuous function of time. Thus a strain gauge, an LVDT, a thermocouple or a
thermistors may be called analog transducer, as they give an output which is a
continuous function of time.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

18. Give The Classification Of Units.?


Answer :
1.Absolute units
2.Fundamental and derived units
3.Electromagnetic units
4.Electrostatic units
19. Define Primary Fundamental And Auxiliary Fundamental Units.?
Answer :
Fundamental units in mechanics are measures of length,mass and time and those are
fundamental to most other physical quantities and hence they are called Primary
fundamental units Measures of certain physical quantities in thermal ,electrical and
illumination fields are also represented by fundamental units and are used only where
those disciplines are involved and hence called auxiliary fundamental units.

20. Define Static Calibration.?


Answer :
It refers to a process in which all the inputs(desired,modifying,interfering) except one
are kept at some constant values.
21. Define Traceability.?

Answer :

The ability to trace the accuracy of the standard back to its ultimate source in
fundamental standards of National Institute of Science and Technology is termed
“Traceability”.

22. What Are Random Errors Or Residual Errors.?

Answer :

The happenings or disturbances about which we are unaware and lumped together
are called random errors or residual errors.Since these errors remain even after the
systematic errors are taken care of,they are called residual errors.

23. Give One Property Of Piezo-electric Crystal.?

Answer :

When a force is applied to piezo-electric crystals ,they produce an output voltage.

24. Define An Inverse Transducer.give An Example.?

Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

A device which converts an electrical quantity into an non-electrical quantity.A piezo-


electric crystal acts as a inverse transducer because whwn a voltage is applied across
its surfaces ,it changes its dimensions causing a mechanical displacement.

25. List The Factors Responsible In Selection Of A Transducer.?

Answer :

1.Operating principle
2.Sensitivity
3.Operating range.
4.Accuracy.

26. Define Static Characteristics.?

Answer :

static characteristics of a measurement system are, in general, those that must be


considered when the system or instrument is used to measure a condition not varying
with time.

27. What Is Dynamic Characteristics?

Answer :

Many measurements are concerned with rapidly varying quantities and , therefore, for
such cases we must examine the dynamic relations which exist between the output
and the input . This is normally done with the help of differential equations .
Performance criteria based upon dynamic relations constitute the Dynamic
Characteristics.

28. Mention Different Types Dynamic Characteristics?

Answer :

o Zero- order transducers


o First - order transducers
o Second-order transducers
o Higher-order transducers
29. What Are The Test Inputs Of The Transducer?

Answer :

o Impulse input
o Step input
o Ramp input
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Parabolic input
o Sinusoidal input
30. Define- Zero Order Transducer.?

Answer :

The input- output relationship of a zero- order transducer is given by

Y(t) = K r(t)

Where r(t) is the input, Y(t) is the output and K is the static – sensitivity of the
transducer.

Example for zero- order transducer is a potentiometer.

31. What Is Frequency Response Of Zot.?

Answer :

Frequency response is thus defined as the steady – state output of a transducer When
it is excited with sinusoidal input . the frequency response is represented with the help
of two plots namely amplitude radio verses frequency and phase angle shift versus
frequency.

32. What Is Damping Ratio?

Answer :

The damping ratioV is an important parameter which decides the nature of oscillation
in the transducer output . when V =0 , the second – order system is said to be un
damped and the system behaves like an oscillator . when V =1 , the second – order
system is said to be critical damped and when V >1 , the second – order system is
said to be over damped.

33. Compare Accuracy And Precision.?

Answer :

Accuracy is the closeness to true value whereas precision is the closeness amongst
the readings .

precision is the degree of closeness with which a given value may be repeatedly
measured.

34. What Is Threshold?


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :

When the input to a transducer is increased from zero, there is a minimum value below
which no output can be detected .This minimum value of the input is defined as the
threshold of the transducer.

35. What Is Range And Span?

Answer :

The range of the transducer is specified as from the lower value of input to higher value
of input.

The span of the transducer is specified as the difference between the higher and lower
limits of recommended input values.

36. What Is Rise Time ?

Answer :

It is defined as time required for the system to rise from 0 to 100 percent of its final
value.

37. What Is Potentiometer?

Answer :

Basically a resistance potentiometer, or simply a POT, (a resistive potentiometer used


for the purposes of voltage division is called a POT) consists of a resistive element
provided with a sliding contact. The POT is a passive transducer.

38. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Potentiometer?

Answer :

Advantages :

o Inexpensive
o Useful for measurement of large amplitudes
o Efficiency is very high
o Frequency response of wire wound potentiometers is limited

Disadvantages :

Require a large force to move


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

39. What Are The Different Types Of Strain Gauge?

Answer :

o Unbonded metal strain gauges


o Bonded metal wire strain gauges
o Bonded metal foil strain gauges
o Vacuum deposited thin metal film strain gauges
o Sputter deposited thin metal strain gauges
o Bonded semiconductor strain gauges
o Diffused metal strain gauges.
40. What Are The Factors To Be Considered For Bonded Strain Gauge?

Answer :

o Filament construction
o Material of the filament wire
o Base carrier material or backing material
o Cement used to bond the filament to the carrier
o Lead wire connections.
41. What Is Inductance Transducer?

Answer :

Transducers based on the variation of inductance are another group of importance


devices used in many application. In these transducers self inductance or the mutual
of a couple of coils is changed when the quantity to be measured is varied.

42. Mention Three Principles Of Inductance Transducer.?

Answer :

o Change of self inductance


o Change of mutual inductance
o Production of eddy currents.
43. What Is Lvdt?

Answer :

The Linear Variable Differential Transformer (LVDT) is the most common mutual
inductance element. This can be considered to be a versatile transducer element for
most of the electromechanical measuring systems with regards to resolution,
hysteresis, dynamic response, temperature characteristics, linearity and life.

44. What Is Null Voltage?


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :

Ideally the output voltage at the null position should be equal to zero. However, in
actual practice there exists a small voltage at the null position.

45. Explain The Principle Of Induction Potentiometer?

Answer :

The primary is excited with alternating current. This induces a voltage in to the
secondary. The amplitude of this output voltage varies with the mutual inductance
between the two coils and this varies with the angle of rotation.

46. Explain The Principle Of Variable Reluctance Accelerometer?

Answer :

Another common version of the variable reluctance principle. This is an accelerometer


for measurement of accelerometer for measurement of acceleration in the range ± 4g.
Since the force required to accelerate a mass is proportional to the acceleration.

47. What Is The Principle Of Capacitive Transducer?

Answer :

Many industrial variables like displacement, pressure, level, moisture, thickness etc
can be transduced into an electrical variation using capacitance variation as the
primary sensing principle.

48. What Are The Advantages Of Capacitive Transducers?

Answer :

o They require only small force to operate.


o Have a good frequency response.
o Extremely sensitive.
o High input impedance
49. What Are The Uses Of Capacitive Transducer?

Answer :

it Can be used for measurement of linear and angular displacement. Can be used for
measurement of force and pressure. It can be used as pressure
transducer. Measurement of humidity in gases. Commonly used for measurement of
level, density, weight.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

50. What Is Digital Transducer?

Answer :

These transducer convert input quantity into an electrical output which is in the form of
pulses.

51. What Is Piezoelectric Transducer?

Answer :

They convert pressure or force into electrical charge. These transducers are based
upon the natural phenomenon of certain non-metal and di-electric components.

52. What Are The Suitable Materials For Piezo Electric Transducer?

Answer :

Primary quartz, Rochelle salt, ammonium dihydrogen phosphate (ADP), and ceramics
with barium titanate, dipotassium tartrate, potassium dihydrogen phosphate and
lithium sulfate.

53. What Are The Suitable Materials For Magnetostrictive Transducer?

Answer :

Iron , nickel, 68 permalloy, ferroxcube ect.

54. What Is Magnetostrictive Transducer?

Answer :

The permeability can increase or decrease depending upon the material, type of stress
, and the magnetic flux density in the sample.

55. What Is Fibre Optic Transducer?

Answer :

Fibre optic cable consists of outer core and inner cladding.Data is transmitted in the
form of light.It is used for measuring displacement,torsion.

56. Compare Digital Transducer W ith Analog.?

Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Digital transducer give digital outputs. Analog transducers outputs are continuous
functions of time. If these analog transducers are to be interfaced with digital devices,
then one has to use analog to digital converters.

57. What Is Piezoelectric Effect?

Answer :

A piezoelectric material is one in which an electric potential appears across certain


surfaces of a crystal if the dimensions of the crystal are changed by the application of
the mechanical force.

58. What Id Digitiser?

Answer :

Digital encoding transducer or digitiser, enable a linear or rotary displacement to be


directly converted into digital form without intermediate form of analog to digital (A/D)
conversion.

59. What Is Zero Error Of The Transducer?

Answer :

In this case output deviates from the correct value by a constant factor over the entire
range of transducer.

60. What Are The Disadvantages Of Capacitive Transducers?

Answer :

o The metallic parts of the capacitive transducers must be insulated from each other.
o Non-linear behaviour.
o This leads loading effects.
o The cable may be source of loading resulting loss of sensitivity.

1. What Are Different Components In Plc?


Answer :

o Input Interface
o Memory Section
o Central Processing Unit (CPU)
o Programmable Language
o Programming tool
o An output Interface
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

2. Advantages Of Plcs Than Hard Wired Relay?


Answer :
PLCs are highly reliable, easily programmable, Small and Inexpensive, PLCs can be
designed with the communication capabilities so they can converse with the local or
remote computer, They can sustain in robust environment less maintenance.
3. What Is The Programmable Language Used In Plc?
Answer :
The general language program consists of Ladder Diagrams. Relay logic control
scheme is represented in Ladder diagrams. Alternative languages uses Boolean
representation of these control schemes as base of the computer representation.
4. What Does Central Processing Unit (cpu) Of Plc Consists?
Answer :
CPU is the brain of the system and consists of Microprocessor: To carry out arithmetic
and logical operations
Memory: The area in the CPU in which the information is stored and retrieved
Power Supply:The electrical supply that converts the ac voltage to various DC
operating voltages.
5. What Is Scan In Plc ?
Answer :
The sequential operation of the controller that goes through the ladder diagram from
top to bottom of the ladder. In this process it updates all the outputs corresponding to
the inputs. SCAN takes place from left to right of each rung. Usually SCAN time is in
milliseconds and it is a continuous process.
6. What Is A Plc?
Answer :
Programmable Logic Controllers are industrially hardened micro computers, designed
to replac e electromechanical relays, used to control machines and processes.
7. What Are The Main Advantages Of Plc?
Answer :
1. Modular design
2. Increased reliability
3. Lower cost
4. Compact size
5. Ease of programming
6. Rugged construction and designed to withstand vibrations, temperature, humidity
and noise
7. Ability to communicate with computer
8. What Is The Need Can Be Satisfied In Designing An Industrial Grade Lcu?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Flexibility of changing the control configuration Ability to use the controller without
being a computer expert. Ability to bypass the controller in case it fails. So that the
process still can be controlled manually. Ability of the LCU to communicate with other
LCUs and other elements in system.
9. What Is Lcu?
Answer :
Local control unit is the small collection of hard ware in the system that can do closed
loop control. Local control unit interfaces directly to the process.
10. What Is The Significance Of Dcs?
Answer :
DCS is used for interfacing and computing functions and also provides the means of
communication between the other devices. It consists of local control unit, low level
interface, high level interface, shared communication facility Etc.

11. What Is Scada? Give Any Four Editors Available In Scada Package?
Answer :
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system is computerised hardware
and software based project that provides a single integrated view of all control and
information resources, enable engineers, supervisors, operators to view and interact
with the working of an entire operation through graphical representation of their product
process.
Four editors:
a. Inkscape SAGE - SCADA Animation Graphic Editor
b. Generic Logic
c. TRACE MODE
d. UCanCode
12. What Is Cimplicity?
Answer :
CIMPLICITY is a SCADA package. It is based on a client server architecture consisting
of servers and viewers. Servers are responsible for the collection and distribution of
data. Viewers connect into servers and have full access to the collected data for
viewing and control actions.
13. List The Potential Benefits Of Scada.?
Answer :
a. Educed site visits and callouts
b. Predictive maintenance which allows proactive rather than reactive planning
c. The ability to view and adjust set points remotely
d. Reliability and robustness
e. Maximize productivity
f. Improve product quality
g. Reduce your operating and maintenance costs
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

h. Integrate with your business systems


i. Preserve your capital investment
14. Mention Some Of The Application Areas Of Scada?
Answer :
Industrial process: chemical plants, power generation and distribution, Metallurgy etc
and nuclear process: reactors, nuclear waste etc.
15. Define Scada.
Answer :
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system is computerised hardware
and software based project that provides a single integrated view of all control and
information resources, enable engineers, supervisors, operators to view and interact
with the working of an entire operation through graphical representation of their product
process.
16. What Are The Major Areas Of Application Of Plc?
Answer :
1. Sequence control, timing, counting, and data calculation
2. Batch or continuous process control
3. Precise position/motion control
4. Open loop or feedback control, process data acquisition and display
17. What Are The Advantages Of Plc Over Relays?
Answer :
1. They have to be hard-wired to perform a specific function
2. No hard-wire requirement
3. When the system requirement change, the relay wiring has to be changed or
modified
4. Can be easily changed or expanded through program
5. Higher power consumption
6. Lower power consumption
18. Explain The Functions Of Plc-input And Output Modules:
Answer :
1. Input interface modules accept signals from the machine or process devices
(120Vac) and convert them into signals (5Vdc) that can be used by the controller.
2. Output interface modules convert controller signals (5Vdc) in to external signals
(120Vdc) used to control machine or process.
19. What Is Ladder Logicdiagram?
Answer :
Ladder Logic Diagram is a symbolic language used in PLC. This diagram consist of
series of symbols interconnected by lines to indicate the flow of current through the
various devices. In ladder logic diagram the sides of the ladder forms the power
sources and current flows through the various –logic input devices that form the rungs
of the ladder.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

20. Explain Advantages Of Plcs Than Hard Wired Relay?


Answer :
PLCs are highly reliable, easily programmable, Small and Inexpensive, PLCs can be
designed with the communication capabilities so they can converse with the local or
remote computer, They can sustain in robust environment less maintenance.
1. What Are The Process Variable?
Answer :
The process Variable are:

o Flow
o Pressure
o Temperature
o Level
o Quality i. e. % D2, C02, PH etc.
2. Define All The Process Variable And State Their Unit Of Measurement?
Answer :

o FLOW: Kg I hr, Litter I min, Gallon I min. M3 I NM3 I HR. (GASES)


o PRESSURE: Force acting per unit Area. P = F/A Units: Bar I Pascals I Kg I CM I,
Pounds
o LEVEL: Different between two heights. Units: Meters, M M, C M, %.
o TEMPERATURE: It is the degree of hotness or coldness of a body. Units : Degree
Centigrade, Degree Farenheit, Degree Kelvin, Degree Rankin.
o QUALITY: It deals with analysis PH, % C02, % 02, Conductivity, Viscosity.
3. What Are The Primary Elements Usedfor Flow Measurement?
Answer :
The primary elements used for flow measurement are:

o Orifice Plate.
o Venturi tube.
o Pitot tube.
o Annubars.
o Flow Nozzle.
o Weir & Flumes.
4. What Are The Different Types Of Orifice Plates And State Their Uses?
Answer :
The different types of orifice plates are:

o Concentric.
o Segmental.
o Eccentric.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

CONCENTRIC: The concentric orifice plate is used for ideal liquid as well as gases
and steam service. This orifice as a hole in concentric and hence known as concentric
orifice.
Eccentric & Segmental: The eccentric orifice plate has a hole eccentric. The use this
is made in viscous and sherry flow measurement.
The segmental orifice place has the hole in the form segment of a circle. This is used
for colloidal and sherry flow measurement.
5. How Do You Identify An Orifice In The Pipe Line?
Answer :
An orifice tab is welded on the orifice plate which extends our of the line giving an
indication of the orifice plate.
6. Why Is The Orifice Tab Provided?
Answer :
The orifice tab is provided due to the following reasons:

o Indication of an orifice plate in a line.


o The orifice diameter is marked on it.
o The material of the orifice plate.
o The tag no. of the orifice plate.
o The mark the inlet of an orifice.
7. What Is Bernoulli’s Theoram And Where It Is Applicable?
Answer :
Bernoulli’s theoram states the “total energy of a liquid flowing from one point to another
remains constant.” It is applicable for non compressible liquids.
8. How Do You Identify The H. P. Side Or Inlet Of An Orifice Plate In Line?
Answer :
The marking is always done H. P. side of the orifice tab which gives an indication of
the H.P.side.
9. How Do You Calibrate A D. P. Transmitter?
Answer :
The following steps are to be taken which claribrating :

o Adjust zero of the Xmtrs.


o Static preasure test: Give equal pressure on both sides of the transmitter. Zero should
not shift. If it is shifting carry out static alignment.
o Vaccum test: Apply equal vaccum to both the sides. The zero should not shift.

Calibration Procedure:

o Give 20 psi air supply to the transmitter.


o Vent the L.P. side to atmosphere.
o Connect output of the Instrument to a standard test gauge. Adjust zero.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Apply required pressure to high pressure side of the transmitter and adjust the span.
o Adjust zero again if necessary.
10. What Is The Seal Liquid Used For Filling Impulse Lines On Crude And
Viscous Liquid?
Answer :
Glycol.

11. How Do You Carry Out Piping For A Different Pressu re Flow
Transmitter On Liquids, Gas And Steam Services? Why?
Answer :
Liquid lines: On liquid lines the transmitter is mounted below the orifice plate. Since
liquids have a property of self draining.
Gas Service: On gas service the transmitter is mounted above the orifice plate because
Gases have a property of self venting and secondly condenlate formation.
Steam Service: On steam service the transmitter is mounted below the orifice plate
with condenlate pots. The pots should be at the same level.
12. An Operator Tells You That Flow Indication Is More? How Would You
Start Checking?
Answer :

o First flushing the transmitter. Flush both the impulse lines. Adjust the zero by equalizing
if necessary. If still the indication is more then.
o Check L.P. side for choke. If that is clean then.
o Check the leaks on L.P. side. If not.
o Calibrate the transmitter.
13. How Do You Do A Zero Check On A D.p. Transmitter?
Answer :
Close one of the valve either H.P. or L.P. open the equalizing valve. The O/P should
read zero.
14. How Would You Do Glycol Filling Or Fill Seal Liquids In Seal Pots 7
Draw And Explain?
Answer :
The procedure for glycol filling is :

o Close the primary isolation valves.


o Open the vent on the seal pots.
o Drain the use glycol if present.
o Connect a hand pump on L.P. side while filling the H.P. side with glycol.
o Keep the equalizer valve open.
o Keep the L.P. side valve closed.
o Start pumping and fill glycol.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Same repeat for L.P. side by connecting pump to H.P. side, keeping equalizer open
and H.P. side isolation valve closed.
o Close the seal pot vent valves.
o Close equalizer valve.
o Open both the primary isolation valves.
15. How Do You Calculate New Factor From New Range Using Old Factor
And Old Range?
Answer :
New Factor = _!New Range Old Factor = _IOld Range Flow = K_!Range
Q = Factor X Unit Flow
New Factor = Old Factor I _IOld Range X _/New Range.
16. How W ill You Vent Air In The D.p. Cell? What If Seal Pots Are Used?
Answer :

o Air is vented by opening the vent plugs on a liquid service transmitter.


o On services where seal pots are used isolate the primary isolation valves and open
the vent valves. Fill the line from the transmitter drain plug with a pump.
17. Why Is Flow Measured In Square Root?
Answer :

o Flow varies directly as the square root of different pressure F = K square root of ΔP.
o Since this flow varies as the square root of differential pressure the pen does not
directly indicate flow.
o The flow can be determined by taking the square root of the pen. Say the pen reads
50% of chart.

1. What Is A Hazardous Area?


Answer :
A hazardous area classification is one in which concentrations of flammable
substances are present or can be expected to be present. These concentrations are
at a level which requires specific safety standards and precautions to be taken in the
construction, installation and maintenance of all electrical equipment.
A “hazardous area” is defined as an area in which the atmosphere contains, or may
contain in sufficient quantities, flammable or explosive gases, dusts or vapours. In such
an atmosphere a fire or explosion is possible when three basic conditions are met.
This is often referred to as the “hazardous area” or “combustion” triangle.
In order to protect installations from a potential explosion a method of analysing and
classifying a potentially hazardous area is required. The purpose of this is to ensure
the correct selection and installation of equipment to ultimately prevent an explosion
and to ensure safety of life. The methods used to classify an installation can vary
depending upon which part of the world it is located, but generally there are two main
types of classification. In countries that have adopted the IEC (International Electro
technical Commission) philosophy this is referred to as Zoning whilst in North American
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

installations are classified by Classes, Divisions and Groups to ascertain the level of
safety required.
2. How Hazardous Area Classified?
Answer :
A Hazardous Area is defined by three main criteria, these being:

o The type of hazard (groups).


o The auto-ignition temperature of the hazardous material (temperature or “T” rating).
o The likelihood of the hazard being present in flammable concentrations (zones).
3. Explain About Type Of Hazard (groups)?
Answer :
The type of hazard will be in the form of either a gas or vapour or a dust or fibre.
The classification of these hazardous is primarily divided into two groups depending
on whether it is in a mining or above surface industry.
These are defined below:

o Group I – electrical equipment for use in mines and underground installations


susceptible to firedamp Group II and Group III -electrical equipment for use in surface
installations
o Groups II & III are further sub-divided depending upon the hazard. Group II gases are
grouped together based upon the amount of energy required to ignite the most
explosive mixture of the gas with air. Group III dusts are subdivided according to the
nature of the explosive atmosphere for which it is intended.
4. Explain About Auto Ignition Temperature Or “t” Rating?
Answer :
The hazard level of the gases increases from gas group IIA to IIC with group IIC being
the most severe. Substances in this group can be ignited very easily with Hydrogen
being the most at risk to ignition. The temperature class is based on the auto-ignition
temperature of the gas.
If a hazardous is present the equipment used within the installation must be given an
appropriate “T” classification in order to maintain the integrity. If that hazardous is, say,
hydrogen, then all equipment used must meet the “T6” rating. This means that all
equipment used must not have a surface temperature of greater than 85˚C. Any
equipment used that can generate a hotter surface temperature of greater than 85˚C
must not be used as this will then increase the likelihood of an explosion by igniting
the hydrogen in the atmosphere.
5. Classification Of Hazardous Locations?
Answer :
Hazardous locations are classified into zones so as to facilitate the selection of the
correct electrical apparatus and to ensure that the electrical design and installation
meets the specified requirements to be used in different areas. The zone classification
is based on the likelihood and the duration of an explosive atmosphere.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

The zone classification for gases is divided into three zones, namely Zone 0, Zone 1
and Zone 2 and for dusts Zone 20, Zone 21 and Zone 22.
Definition of hazardous area zones (AS/NZS 60079.10):
Zone 0:

o “Place in which an explosive atmosphere consisting of a mixture with air of flammable


substance in the form of gas, vapour or mist is present continuously for long periods
or frequently”
o As per experts experience that a Zone 0 condition is rarely encountered and is limited
mainly to confined spaces (such as the vapour space of closed process vessels, closed
storage tanks and closed containers), although it can occur in larger rooms, such as
chemical plants. From the Institute of Petroleum (IP 15) an exposure exceeding 1000
hours per year is often used.

Zone 1:

o “Place in which an explosive atmosphere consisting of a mixture with air of flammable


substances in the form of gas, vapour or mist is likely to occur in normal operation
occasionally”
o A Zone 1 classification usually includes locations where volatile flammable liquids or
liquefied flammable gasses are transferred; gas generator rooms; inadequately
ventilated pump rooms for flammable gases or for volatile flammable liquids; and most
other locations where hazardous concentrations of flammable vapours or gases can
occur in the course of normal operations. IP 15 stipulates between 10 hours and 1000.

Zone 2:
“Place in which an explosive atmosphere consisting of a mixture with air of flammable
substances in the form of gas, vapour or mist is not likely to occur in normal operation
but, if it does occur, will persist for a short period only”
Generally, for an area to be classified as a Zone 2 location the following conditions
shall normally be regarded as the minimum requirements for the area:

o The area is so well ventilated that if an abnormal conditions arises, ignitable


concentrations of the gas or vapour are rapidly dispersed; and
o Complete segregation from Zone 1 locations is ensured.

In this case an expose to flammable vapours or gases of less than 10 hours per annum
is prescribed in IP 15.
6. Explain Ex I Intrinsic Safety?
Answer :
A protection concept in which the electrical energy within the equipment is restricted
to a level which is below that what may cause an ignition or to limit the heating of the
surface of the equipment. There are two main sub types to Ex i protection, these being
“ia” and “ib”.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Type “ia” protection allows for the occurrence of two faults during operation.
o Type “ib” protection allows for the occurrence of one fault during operation.
7. Explain Ex D Flameproof?
Answer :
The equipment that may cause an explosion is contained within an enclosure which
can withstand the force of an explosion and prevent transmission to the outside
hazardous atmosphere. This method of protection also prevents the hazardous
atmosphere from entering the enclosure and coming into contact with equipment.
8. Explain Ex M Encapsulation?
Answer :
A protection concept where by equipment that could potentially cause an ignition is
encapsulated within a compound or resin so as to prevent contact with the explosive
atmosphere. The concept also limits the surface temperature of the equipment under
normal operating conditions.
9. Explain Ex E Increased Safety?
Answer :
Precautions are applied to the installation to ensure increased security against the
possibility of excessive temperatures and sparks from electrical equipment. Equipment
that normally causes sparks is excluded from use within this method of protection.
10. Explain Ex P Pressurized?
Answer :
One process ensures that the pressure inside an enclosure is sufficient to prevent the
entrance of a flammable gas, vapour, dust, or fibre and prevent a possible ignition.
Another process maintains a constant fl ow of air (or an inert gas) to dilute to take away
any potentially explosive atmosphere.

11. Explain Ex O Oil Immersion?


Answer :
All equipment that has the potential to arc and potentially cause an ignition is immersed
in a protective liquid or oil. The oil provides an insulating method to prevent ignition.
12. Explain Ex Q Powder Filling?
Answer :
All equipment that has the potential to arc is contained within an enclosure filled with
quartz or glass powder particles. The powder filling prevents the possibility of an
ignition.
13. Explain Ex N Non-sparking?
Answer :
A type of protection where precautions are taken so that electrical equipment that has
the potential to arc is not capable of igniting a surrounding explosive atmosphere. This
can be further categorised as follows: Ex nA -Where components used in construction
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

are non-sparking Ex nC -Where components used in construction are non-incendive


Ex nR – Where components used are tightly enclosed to restrict the breathing and
prevent ignition Ex nL -Where components used in construction do not contain enough
energy to cause an ignition.
14. Explain Ex S Special?
Answer :
This method of protection, as its name indicates, has no specific parameters or
construction rules. In essence it is any method of protection which can provide a pre-
determined level of safety to ensure that there is no potential for an ignition. As such it
does not fall under any specific protection method and may in fact be a combination of
more than one.
15. Explain Operational Temperatures?
Answer :
All equipment used within hazardous areas has an operational temperature band or
limit. This is often referred to as the “Tamb” and defines the upper and lower ambient
temperatures of which the equipment is approved for use in. As defined in IEC 60079-
0 the standard limits are – 20˚C to +40˚C. Where the operation temperatures of the
equipment fall between these parameters no additional marking is required. However,
if they are outside these parameters than the specific temperatures need to be
identified.
16. Explain Marking Of Hazardous Area Equipment?
Answer :
All equipment for use in hazardous areas should be marked as prescribed in 60079-0.
As a general rule this includes, where appropriate, such information as:

o Company/Manufacturers name and address


o Hazardous area certificate number(s)
o Protection concept -Gas group(s)
o Temperature class
o Ambient temperature range
o Product identification
o Serial number and year of manufacture
o Electrical parameters
o CE marking and ATEX notified Body ID number
o ATEX coding -IP code
17. Explain Basic Ul / Csa / Nema Enclosure Types?
Answer :
Type 3: An enclosure which is intended for outdoor use primarily to provide a degree
of protection against windblown dust, rain, sleet and damage from external ice
formation.
Type 3R: An enclosure which is intended for outdoor use primarily to provide a degree
of protection against falling rain and damage from external ice formation.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Type 3S: An enclosure which is intended for outdoor use primarily to provide a degree
of protection against rain, sleet, windblown dust, and to provide for operation of
external mechanisms when ice laden.
Type 4: An enclosure which is intended for indoor or outdoor use primarily to provide
a degree of protection against windblown rain and dust, splashing water, hose directed
water and damage from external ice formation.
Type 4X: An enclosure which is intended for indoor or outdoor use primarily to provide
a degree of protection against corrosion, windblown rain and dust, splashing water,
hose directed water and damage from external ice formation.
Type 6: An enclosure which is intended for indoor or outdoor use primarily to provide
a degree of protection against falling dirt, hose directed water, the entry of water during
occasional temporary submersion at a specified depth and damage from external ice
formation.
Type 6P: An enclosure which is intended for indoor or outdoor use to primarily to
provide a degree of protection against falling dirt, hose directed water and the entry of
water during prolonged submersion at a specified depth and damage from external ice
formation.
18. Why Perform Electrical Equipment In Hazardous Areas Inspections?
Answer :
Perhaps you have heard the expression ‘if it’s not broken don’t fix it’. The same can be
said for Electrical Equipment in Hazardous Areas (EEHA) inspections and there is
often a great deal of resistance from engineering and production managers to perform
electrical inspections which may involve the isolation certain equipment or partial plant
shutdown. It is a fact that if the electrical inspector lacks the necessary experience, the
EEHA inspection could indeed do more harm than good, resulting in damage to
electrical apparatus, tripping of electrical circuits or extended isolations. For this reason
only competent personnel should be employed for the purpose of performing EEHA
inspections. Using a competent electrical inspector will provide the owners or users of
the plant with a condition assessment of the electrical installation in hazardous areas
to ensure that it is maintained in a satisfactory condition. It is also a requirement of
AS/NZS 2381.1:2005 Section 4 that EEHA inspections be performed on a regular
periodic basis or under continuous supervision by competent personnel.
Before embarking upon an inspection of electrical equipment within a hazardous area,
the hazards associated with the flammable gas or vapour must be understood and the
extent of the hazardous zone must be clearly defined. It is a fruitless exercise to begin
an EEHA inspection without a clear definition of the hazardous zones. Internationally,
the classification of hazardous areas has traditionally been carried out by individuals
representing the legal owners/users of the plant. Often these persons lack expertise in
hazardous areas classifications as well as the specific knowledge of the properties of
the flammable materials. As a result, inconsistencies may exist in the limits of the
hazardous zones. However, in more recent times hazardous areas classification has
tended to be carried out by professional multidisciplinary engineering consultancies
specializing in hazardous locations classifications. The electrical inspector performing
the EEHA inspection should verify that the existing area classification remains correct
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

and that there have been no changes to plant or processes that may affect the
hazardous zones.
19. Does All Electrical Equipment For Use In Hazardous Areas Have To Be
Submitted To A Test House For Certification?
Answer :
No, electrical equipment in category 1, i.e. suitable for use in Zone 0,1 and 2 must be
submitted to a test house (now known as a notified body) for EC Type Examination
Certification. This also applies to category 2 equipment (i.e. suitable for use in Zone 1
and 2) . Equipment in category 3, i.e. suitable only for use in Zone 2 need only be
subject to self certification by the manufacturer. For all electrical equipment for use in
hazardous areas, the manufacturer must issue an EC Declaration of Conformity with
his product.

20. If An Enclosure Is Marked Ii 2 Gd And Also Eexd 11c T5 T100 Ip 66,


What Is The Meaning Of The Upper Case And The Lower Case‘d’s?
Answer :
The upper case D is part of the ATEX labelling and indicates that the equipment is for
use in areas where the explosion hazard is Dust (the G indicates Gas Hazard). The
lower case d indicates the method of Ex protection, in this case flameproof (d from the
German Druckefest Kapselung meaning pressure proof enclosure).
21. I Have An Eexe Electric Motor Which Is Labelled As T3, I Understand
This To Mean That The Temperature Reached By Any Part Of The Motor
Will Not Be Any Greater Than 200°c. Is This The Case And Do I Need To
Consider Ambient Temperature Effects?

Answer :

This is true and if there is no ambient temperature range marked on the equipment
then the T rating is based on a range of -20°C to +40°C. Any other range must be
marked on the label. Q. A flameproof EExd enclosure has a 32mm entry and we need
to use it for a 20mm cable gland, is it permissible to use two reducers to achieve this?
A. No, EN 60079-1, the standard for flameproof equipment states that for any entry
only one reducer can be used, also that reducers or adapters cannot be used at all
with stopping plugs.

1. What Is Automation?
Answer :
Automation is delegation of human control functions to technical equipment for
increasing productivity, better quality, reduced cost & increased in safety working
conditions.
2. What Are The Different Components Used In Automation?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

The components of automation system include

o Sensors for sensing the input parameters (RTD, Thermocouple, Pressure, Flow, Level;
etc)
o Transmitters for transmitting the raw signal in electrical form
o Control system which includes PLC, DCS & PID controllers
o Output devices / actuators like drives, control valves.
3. What Are The Different Control Systems Used In Automation?
Answer :

o PID Controller based control system


o PLC based control system
o DCS based Control system
o PC Based automation system
4. Explain Pid Based Control System?
Answer :
PID (Proportional Integral Derivative) is the algorithm widely used in closed loop
control. The PID controller takes care of closed loop control in plant. A number of PID
controller with single or multiple loop can be taken on network.
PID Controllers are widely for independent loops. Although some logic can be
implemented but not much of sequential logic can be implemented in PIDs.
5. Difference Between Plc & Relay ?
Answer :

o PLC can be programmed whereas a relay cannot.


o PLC works for analog I/Os such as PID loops etc. whereas a relay cannot
o PLC is much more advanced as compared to relay.
o Modifications in relay base circuit is difficult compared to PLCs
6. Difference Between Plc & Dcs ?
Answer :
DCS: The system uses multiple processors, has a central database and the
functionality is distributed. That is the controller sub system performs the control
functions, the history node connects the data, the IMS node gives reports, the operator
station gives a good HMI, the engineering station allows engineering changes to be
made.
PLC: The system has processor & I/O’s and some functional units like basic modules,
communication modules and so on. Uses a SCADA for visualization. Generally the
SCADA does not use a central database.
DCS is often used in the big plants where the redundancy level needed is more and
the analog input used are high.
7. What Is Pc Based Control System ?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

In PC based control system, the CPU of computer acts as processor, the PCI based
cards are used for connecting Input and Output. The RAM acts as memory. Hard disk
is used as storage device. Currently this systems are very useful when the large data
is to be proceed with very high speed. In many cases for greater accuracy we can use
the real-time operating system.
8. What Is Encoder?
Answer :
A feedback device which converts mechanical motion into electronic signals. Usually
an encoder is a rotary device that outputs digital pulses which correspond to
incremental angular motion. The encoder consists of a glass or metal wheel with
alternating clear and opaque stripes that are detected by optical sensors to produce
the digital outputs.
9. Which Are The Leading Plc Providers ?
Answer :
The leading PLC providers include

o Rockwell Automation : Allen Bradley (Micrologix, SLC, PLC, Control Logix)


o Siemens ( S7 200, S7 300 , S7 400)
o Grouppe Schneider : Modicon ( Nano, Micro, Premium, Quantum)
o GE Fanuc : Versa, Series 90-30, 90-70
o Messung : Nextgen
10. Which Are The Leading Dcs Providers ?
Answer :
The leading DCS providers include

o Yokogawa : Centum VP, CS 3000 , CS 5000 (Earlier Centum Excel, Micro Excel)
o Honeywell : TDC 3000
o Fisher – Rosemant – Delta V
o ABB – Freelance 2000
o Moore – APACS
o Fox boro – I/A series

11. Which Are The Leading Scada Software / Mmi Providers ?


Answer :
The leading SCADA software / MMI providers include

o Wonderware : InTouch
o Intellution iFix (Earlier FixDMACS)
o Siemens : WinCC
o Allen Bradley : RS View ( Earlier Control View)
o KPIT : Astra
12. What Types Of Sensors Are Used For Measuring Different Parameters?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :

o Temperature sensors – RTD, Thermocouple, Thermister


o Pressure Sensor – Borden Tube, Bellows, Strain gauge
o Flow sensor – Pitot tube, Orifice, Ultrasonic+
o Level, Conductivity, Density, Ph
13. What Is Transmitter?
Answer :
A transmitter is an electronic device that is generally mounted in the field in close
proximity to a sensor. The sensor (also known as a transducer) measures a physical
variable such as temperature or pressure and outputs a very low level electronic signal.
The basic function of the transmitter is to provide the correct electrical power to turn
on (or excite) the sensor then to read the low level sensor signal, amplify it to a higher
level electrical signal and send that signal a long distance to a control or read-out
device.
Since low-level electrical signals do not transmit long distances with great accuracy,
installing a transmitter generally gives a tremendous improvement in the accuracy of
the information delivered to a larger control system. Typically the output form the
transmitter is 4-20 mA or 0-10 V
14. Why 4-20 Ma Preferred Over 0-10 V Signal ?
Answer :
The 0-10 V signal has tendency to drop because of line resistance. If the distance
between sensor and input card is more the signal will not properly represent the field
value. The 4-20 mA will travel a long distance without dropping signal value.
15. Why 4-20 Ma Preferred Over 0-20 Ma Signal ?
Answer :
With 0- 20 mA you can not distinguish between minimum field value and connection
break. With 4-20 mA, internal circuit can distinguish between connection break of
minimum value. Normally when the value is minimum the transmitter will give you 4
mA while in case of connection breakage it will give 0 mA.
16. Difference Between 2 Wire, 3 Wire And 4 Wire Transmitter?
Answer :

o In 2 wire transmitter the power and signal are transmitted through same cable.
o In 3 wire transmitter the data signal and power are with respect to common ground.
o In 4 wire transmitter two wires for power supply and two for signals. Only current
transmitters can be used as 2 wire transmitters.
17. What Is A “smart” Transmitter ?
Answer :
A “Smart” transmitter is a transmitter that uses a microprocessor as the heart of the
electronics. In addition, a “Smart” transmitter will output some type of remote digital
communications allowing you to read and set-up the device from a remote position.
18. What Is Field Bus ?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :
Fieldbus is a general term for a digital only, high speed communications protocol. The
key attribute to Fieldbus communications is higher speed communications with the
possibility of addressing multiple transmitters all on the same field wiring. The
Foundation Fieldbus is a specific digital protocol that is often shortened to just be called
Fieldbus. Other digital only communications such as Profibus are also Fieldbus
protocols
19. What Is Actuator ?
Answer :
In a closed-loop control system, the part of the final control element that translates the
control signal into action by the control device.
An actuator is a component of a machine that is responsible for moving or controlling
a mechanism or system. An actuator requires a control signal and a source of energy.
The control signal is relatively low energy and may be electric voltage or current,
pneumatic or hydraulic pressure, or even human power.

20. Explain Working Of Rtds?


Answer :
Resistance Temperature Device works on the principles that the resistance of the
material changes as its temperature changes. Temperature is determined by
measuring resistance and then using the RTD Resistance vs Temp characteristic to
detect temperature.
Typical elements used for RTD are Nickel, Copper and Platinum. Platinum is widely
used in RTDs because of accuracy. PT 100 means at 0 deg temp 100 ohms resistance.
A typical RTD consists of a fine platinum wire wrapped around a mandrel and covered
with a protective coating (glass or ceramic).
21. Temperature Measurement Range Supported By Rtds?

Answer :

The RTD work on temperature range between–250 to 850 deg C.

22. Explain Working Of Thermocouple?

Answer :

Thermocouple consists of two strips or wires made up of different metals and joined at
one end. The temperature at that juncture induces an electromotive force (emf)
between the other ends. As the temperature goes up the emf also increases. Through
standard charts and tables the corresponding temperature can be found out.

The relationship between the thermocouple output and the temperature is quite non
linear. Different metallurgies produce different outputs. The different metallurgies and
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

different lineararities result in different thermocou0le designations such as “J”, “K,”,


“N”, “L”, etc.

23. What Is Cold Junction Compensation?

Answer :

The industry accepted standard for the temperature at open end is 0 deg C. Therefore
most tables and chart make the assumption that the temp at open end is 0 deg C. In
industry the open ends are always at actual room temperature and not 0 deg C. The
emf adjustment because of difference between the actual temp and 0 deg C is referred
as Cold Junction Correction (CJ Correction)

24. Temperature Measurement Range Supported By Thermocouple ?

Answer :

The thermocouple work on broad temperature range ie –270 to 2300.

25. Can I Split My One T/c Signal To Two Separate Instruments?

Answer :

No. The T/C signal is a very low-level millivolt signal, and should only be connected to
one device. Splitting to two devices may result in bad readings or loss of signal. The
solution is to use a “dual” T/C probe, or convert one T/C output to a 4-20 mA signal by
using a transmitter or signal conditioner; then the new signal can be sent to more than
one instrument

26. What Are The Flow Measuring Instruments Used In Flow Measurement
?

Answer :

o Differential pressure meters


o Positive displacement
o Velocity meters
27. Explain Working Of Differential Pressure Measurement ?

Answer :

Suitable restriction placed in flow stream causes a differential pressure across it. As
flow depends upon differential pressure (Head) & area, so any of them or both can be
varied for varying flow.

28. What Are The Components Of Differential Flow Sensor ?


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :

For creating differential pressure : Orifice plate, Venturi Tube, Flow Nozzle , pitot tube

For measuring pressure : U-Tube Manometers, Ring–Balance Manometer, D.P. Cell

29. What Type Of Pressure Sensors Used In Pressure Measurement?

Answer :

o Manometers
o Bourdon tubes
o Bellow elements
o Diaphragm elements
o DP transmitters
30. Explain Working Of Differential Pressure Transmitters?

Answer :

Process pressure is transmitted through isolating diaphragms and oil fill fluid to a
sensing diaphragm. The sensing diaphragm is a stretched spring element that deflects
in response to differential pressure across it. The displacement of the sensing
diaphragm, a maximum deflection of0.004 inch (0.10 mm), is proportional to the
applied pressure. Capacitor plates on both sides of the sensing diaphragm detect the
position of the diaphragm. The transmitter electronics convert the differential
capacitance between the sensing diaphragm and the capacitor plates into a two- wire,
4-20 mA dc signal and a digital output signal.

31. What Is Control Valves ?

Answer :

The control valve, commonly named the final control element of control contains a
pneumatic device that converts the control signal from the controller in action,
regulating the flow.

A control valve is a valve used to control fluid flow by varying the size of the flow
passage as directed by a signal from a controller. This enables the direct control of
flow rate and the consequential control of process quantities such as pressure,
temperature, and liquid level.

32. What Type Of Control Valves Used In The Industry ?

Answer :

ON – OFF SERVICES :- Gate, Ball, Diaphragm, Plug, Butterfly valves.


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

THROTTLING SERVICES :- Globe, Butterfly, Diaphragm, Pinch valves.

NON – REVERSE FLOW :- Check valves.

33. What Are The Specifications Of The Control Valve ?

Answer :

Following specifications are used for control valve:

o Flow medium and operating temperature


o Flow rate kg/hr or Nm3/hr Max/Min/Normal
o Inlet and Outlet pressure : kg/cm2 Max/Min/Normal
o Max. allowable diff. Pressure : kg/cm2
o Density of medium : kg/m3
o Viscosity
o Cv : Valve Flow Coefficient
34. What Are The Components Of Control Valve ?

Answer :

Actuator, Body, Trim, Diaphragm, Diaphragm plate, Actuator stem, Actuator spring,
Seat, Travel Indicator, Valve stem, Gaskets, Yoke, Hand wheel

35. What Is Flow Coefficient ?

Answer :

It is the flow of water (G=1, T= 6 to 34 deg. C) through the valve at full lift in U.S gallon
per minute with a pressure drop across the valve of 1 psi.

1. What Is Meant By System?


Answer :
A system is defined as any physical object comprises of various components which
are inter connected with each other by some characteristics.
Example: Automobile.
2. What Is Meant By Control System?
Answer :
It is possible to vary any of the characteristics of components in a system according to
the requirements, and then the system is called a controllable system or control
system.
For example consider an automobile, where the speed can be varied by adjusting the
accelerator to the desired level.
3. What Are The Major Types Of Control System?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :
The major types of control systems are:

o Open loop control system.


o Closed loop control system.
4. What Is Time Invariant System?
Answer :
If system's output characteristics do not change with time, then it is called as time
invariant system.
A linear time invariant system can be represented by constant co-efficient differential
equations.
5. What Is Meant By Analogous Systems?
Answer :
The systems for which the differential equations have similar form are known as
analogous system.
6. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Open Loop Control
Systems?
Answer :
Advantages:

o Open loop control is much simpler and less expensive.


o No sensors are needed to control the variables.

Disadvantages:

o No accurate control.
o There is no compensation for any disturbances entering the system since it has fixed
input.
7. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Closed Loop Control
System?
Answer :
Advantages:

o More accurate control.


o It compensates for disturbances.
o Desired response can be obtained by appropriate design.

Disadvantages:

o More complex and expensive.


o Reduces the gain of the system.
o If the closed loop system is not properly designed, the feedback may lead to an
oscillatory system.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

8. What Is An Order Of A System?


Answer :
The order of the differential equation governing the system is called as the order of a
system.
From the transfer function of the given system, we can obtain the order of the system.
9. What Are Analog Input/output & Digital Input/output?
Answer :

o 4-20 mA signals from instrument (transmitters) are analog input to control system.
o 4-20 mA signals to instrument (I/p & electro pneumatic positioner) are analog output
from control system.
o Volt free (24V) contact (NO/NC) by instruments (all type of switches, ex. Limit switch,
press,temp,flow,level switch) are digital input to control system.
o All powered signals (24V, 48V, 110V….) from system to instruments (SOV) are Digital
outputs.
10. Types Of Instrument Cables?
Answer :

o IS cables & NIS cables.


o IS – Intrinsic safety & NIS – Non Intrinsic safety.
o Which cable to use, depends upon hazards condition.

11. Instrument Jb’s?


Answer :

o Instrument JB’s depending upon hazards area classification.


o JB’s also can be IS or NIS.
o For IS signal IS JB’s used for NIS signal NIS JB’s used.
o For analog I/p & o/p signal we can use same JB.
o But for Digital I/p & o/p we have to use separate JB’s. Because digital outputs are
powered signal, by wrong connection there may be chances to damage the card.
o For DCS I/p & o/p and PLC I/p & o/p we used separate JB’s.
12. What Is Open Loop & Close Loop?
Answer :
OPEN LOOP: This is nothing but to sense the process signals from the field and to
send it to the control room for operator monitoring only.
CLOSE LOOP: This is measuring the process signals for operator’s action. Means Tx
sense the process and send it to the control room. Where the PID controller takes
control action and that given to the final control element as per the process
requirement.
13. What Is Dcs & Plc?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :
Distributed control system (DCS) and Programmable logic controller. These are the
control systems which handles fields I/Os.
Basic difference between DCS & PLC is:

o DCS handles more nos of I/Os rather than PLC.


o PLC is faster system than DCS.
o DCS can handles handsome quantity of I/Os so that can be used for total plant
automation. Whereas PLC has own limitations so it generally used for small but for
important (Safety point of view) units, like boiler automations, Make-up compressor
automations Etc.
o In the above mentioned case the PLCs can be get connected with the DCS with the
help of soft link. Generally this is used to make alert to both the operator.
o As I heard the PLC used to handle the DI/DO signals so it can take fast actions. Some
of the time it is used to handle few nos of AI/AO.
o DCS & PLC’s speed depends on the scan rate of I/Os.
o For both the system Marshalling panels, Consoles and other faculties of Ethernet Etc
can be used according to the need.
o According to the Cause and effects diagrams the System programmer assigns the
control action block into the system, we can call them as memory assigning.
14. While Making Datasheets Which Things Are To Be Considered?
Answer :
Basically it depends on the instrument item for which you are preparing the datasheet.
As an Example. Temperature element. We have collect following information to
prepare D/s.

o Type of Temperature Sensor (T/C or RTD, in case of T/c which type J,K,R,S etc.)
o Head details a: Screw-cap and chain, b: material, c: conduit connections, d: terminal
block> single or duplex.
o Thermo well Details a: material, b: Construction, c: dimension, e: connection. Etc.

In case of valve:

o Process Details
o Material of construction (Valve body, Trim),
o Operating action,
o Type of operating characteristics
o Stroke time
o Accessories attached Etc.
15. What Are Temperature Elements?
Answer :
Thermocouples and rtds.
16. What Is Cable Tray? Its Type? Its Size? Its Support?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Cable tray is nothing but the way or media through which we lay the field cables in
plant.
There are two basic types:

o Ladder type (made in Rungs type construction)


o Perforated Type(Solid sheath consist of Holes for ventilation). Basically discussing
about tray support than we could say it depends on the site conditions. Only care has
to be taken considering adequate space for laying cable, considering their bends.Etc.
17. How To Decide Cable Tray Size?
Answer :
According to the no. of cable occupancy in the cable tray and available tray size we
have to choose it. They are available in all. Types 80,150,300,450,600 & 900.
18. What Is Meant By Instrument Location & Jb Location?
Answer :
This consists of Instrument location considering the piping drawing given from piping
dept. We identify the locations of the instrument in the equipment layouts and put the
bubbles and elevation and JB nos for the location. Same way depending upon the
accessibility we decide the location of JB and marking of it into the instrument location
plan is JB location. There is no need to make a different drawing for this.
19. While Locating Instrument & Jb Which Things We Have To Consider?
Answer :
Transmitter: Tube routing, maintenance area, man approach, Valve : Hand wheel
operations, Maintenance area, Etc. Loop power indicators: Man approach Illumination
from Electrical if instrument is not going to provide.

20. What Is The Use For Cable Entry In Control Room? (sleeves & Mct)
Answer :
In the process plant Control room built considering the non-hazardous area. So in case
if fire/Explosion takes place in the plant than that has to be restricted from entering into
the control room. So MCT (Multiple cables transient) blocks are used. They are
designed to sustain the fire for fixed time duration. That block holds the cables which
are entering into the CCR.
21. What Is Control System?

Answer :

A control system is an arrangement of physical components connected or related in


such a manner as to command, direct or regulate in such a manner as to command,
direct or regulate itself or another system.

Control system can be of two viz. open-loop control system and closed-loop control
system.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

22. What Is Feedback In Control System? What Are Its Characteristics?

Answer :

Feedback is that property of a closed loop control system which allows the output or
some other controlled variable of the system, to be compared with the input to the
system, so that the appropriate control action may be formed as some function of the
output and input.

A feedback is said to exist in a system if the cause and effect between variables is
interrelated.

The characteristics of feedback are: increased bandwidth, increased accuracy,


reduced distortion and non linearity and tendency towards oscillations or instability.

23. What Is System Error?

Answer :

The system error is the ideal value of the controlled variable minus the value of the
final controlled variable.

24. What Are Control System Components?

Answer :

Various components employed in control systems are servo-motors, amplidyne,


synchros, stepper motors, tachometers, gyroscopes etc.

25. Which Types Of Servo Motors Generally Lend Themselves To Small


Horse Power Requirements?

Answer :

Two phase and shaded pole type induction motor are used.

26. Give One Advantage Of The Two Phase Servomotor Over The Shaded
Pole Type?

Answer :

Better response to very small controls signals.

27. Why Are Drag-cup-construction Used In Rotors Of Certain Fhp


Machines For Control Purposes?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :

In drag-cup-construction all heavy iron lamination remain stationary and only a light
cup rotates, so the inertia is quite small.

28. Why Is Series Compensating Winding Employed In The Amplidynes?

Answer :

Compensating winding is connected in series with the power output brush terminals of
the amplidynes to neutralize the armature reaction mmf set up by the load current and
increase amplification factor.

29. Why Area Commutating Poles Required In Ampli dynes?

Answer :

Com mutating poles are required in amplidynes to give satisfactory commutation.

30. Why Amplidyne Are Not Extremely Over -compensated?

Answer :

In case of extreme over-compensation, undesirable self-excitation of the amplidyne


that is spontaneous rise in voltage and load current at constant control current (or with
the control circuit open) can occur. Self-excitation can cause considerable over-loading
of the amplidyne and totally disrupt operation of system containing the amplidyne.

31. Why Amplidynes Are Provided W ith Split-poles?

Answer :

Amplidynes are provided with split-poles to provide space for inter poles.

32. What Is Stepper Motor?

Answer :

A motor in which the rotor turns in discrete movements is called a stepper motor.

33. What Are The Two Types Of Stepper Motors?

Answer :

Permanent –magnet type and variable reluctance type motor are stepper motor.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

34. For The Same Number Of Poles Which Stepper Motor Produces?

Answer :

o Largest stepping angle.


o Smallest stepping angle.
o Permanent magnet type- largest stepping angle.
o Variable reluctance type-smallest stepping angle.
35. Where Is Stepper Motor Used?

Answer :

Super motors are used in industrial situations which call for precise positioning of an
object or precise control of speed without having to resort to closed-loop feedback. ,,
it is most important question of control system.

36. How An Ac Tachometer Is Superior To Dc Tachometer?

Answer :

AC tachometer does not cause any maintenance problem of commentators and


brushes.

37. What Is Transfer Function?

Answer :

It is the mathematical expression that relates the system output to the system input
and so describes the behavior of a system. It is expressed as ratio of the Laplace
transform of the output variable to the lap lace transform of the input variable with the
assumption that all the initial conditions are zero.

38. What Is Linear System?

Answer :

A linear system is a system that follows the law of superposition and homogeneity.

39. What Is Analogous System?

Answer :

Systems which are governed by the same types of equations are called analogous
systems. Analogous systems may have entirely different physical appearances. For
example, a given electrical circuit consisting of resistances, inductance and
capacitance may be analogous to a mechanical system consisting of a suitable
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

combination of dash pots, weights and springs or it may be analogous to an acoustical


device consisting of an appropriate arrangement of fine mesh screens, tubes and
cavities.

40. What Is Signal Flow Graph?

Answer :

A signal flow graph is pictorial representation of the simultaneous equations describing


a system. It graphically displays the transmission of signals through the system, as
does the block diagram.

41. What Is Meant By Overshoot?

Answer :

Over shoot is maximum difference between the transient and steady-state solutions
for a unit step function input.

42. Enlist The Applications Of Sampled Data Systems?

Answer :

Sampled data system finds applications in

o High speed tin plate rolling mills using quantized data for control.
o Numerically controlled machine tool operations.
o Pulse controlled or digital controlled electric drives.
o Large complex systems using telemetry links based on pulse modulation (PM)
translation of data.
43. Why Do Different Control Valves Have Different Characteristics?
Answer :

o Some valves have an inherent characteristic that cannot be changed, such


as full port ball valves and butterfly valves. For other valve types, such as
globe, the characteristic can be changed to suit the application.
o Ideally the inherent valve characteristic should be chosen to give an
installed characteristic as close as possible to linear (see inherent vs
installed characteristic). This enables the loop to remain tuned at all
conditions with the same calibration settings.
44. Definition Of Linear And Equal Percent age Characteristic?
Answer :
Linear – For equal stem movements the change of flow resulting from the movement
is constant throughout the stroke.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Equal Percentage – For equal stem movements the change of flow resulting from the
movement is directly proportional to the flow rate immediately before the change took
place.
Besides the loop gain and installed characteristic considerations, equal percentage
valve trim will generally give better rangeability and better control at low flow rates.
Linear trim will give better control at flow rates over 50% of the valve capacity.
45. What Is The Trim In A Control Valve?
Answer :
The trim consists of the parts of the valve that affect the flow through the valve. In a
standard globe valve the trim would just be the plug and seat. In a special valve the
trim would consist of the plug, seat and retainer (or disk stack).
46. Why Is Reduced Trim Required In Control Valves?
Answer :

o Control valves are sized according to the application requirements and


must satisfy both Cv and velocity criteria.
o Reduced trim is used where it is necessary for the valve to have a Cv
capacity smaller than the maximum possible in that size of valve.
o The most common reason for reduced trim is that the flow rate is low for
the size of valve required – particularly where 25mm valves have been
specified as the smallest size to be used. Some plants stipulate that no
control valve should be less than two sizes smaller than the line size, other
that the valve should not be less than half the line size.
o The second reason is that on high pressure drop gas or vapour
applications the valve invariably is sized on the outlet port velocity limits
and the Cv required is much less than the full bore Cv.
47. What Is Meant By Critical Pressure And Critical Temperature?
Answer :
Critical temperature is that above which a fluid cannot be liquefied by pressure alone.
Critical pressure is the equilibrium or vapour pressure of a fluid at its critical
temperature.
48. Are Safety Valves, Regulators And Isolating Valves All Examples
Of Control Valves?
Answer :
Normally the term control valve is used to describe a valve that controls flow with an
externally adjustable variable restriction. Safety valves and isolating valves should not
be referred to as control valves without a qualifier such as safety control valve or on/off
control valve. Regulators should be referred to as self-regulating control valves to avoid
confusion.
49. Is Flow Through A Control Valve – Turbulent Or Laminar?
Answer :

o Flow through control valves is almost always turbulent.


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Laminar flow takes place with liquids operating at low Reynolds numbers.
This occurs with liquids that are viscous, working at low velocities. Laminar
flow in gases and vapours very seldom will be experienced in process
plants.
50. What Is Cavitation?
Answer :
Cavitation is a condition that occurs in liquid flow where the internal pressure of the
liquid, at some point falls below the vapour pressure and vapour bubbles form and at
some other point downstream rises above the vapour pressure again. As this pressure
recovers so the bubbles collapse, and Cavitation takes place
It is possible to predict where cavitation will occur by looking at the pressure conditions
and the valve recovery factor. However, it is important to recognise that the damage
that occurs is dependent on the energy being dissipated and is thus flow
dependent.Cavitation sounds like stones passing through the valve.
51. What Effect Does The Positioner Cam Have On A Valve
Characteristic?
Answer :
The feedback cam in the positioner controls the relationship between the control signal
and valve position. With a linear cam at 50% signal the valve will be 50% open.
It is possible to alter the apparent characteristic of a valve by changing the shape of
the cam e.g. for a ball valve that has an inherent equal percent character it is possible
to make it appear linear so that the flow rate through the valve at 50% signal is half of
the maximum flow – the valve will however only be 25% open to achieve this result.
From the control point of view there are advantages in doing this, but changing the
valve characteristic and keeping the linear cam in the positioner is a better technical
solution if it is possible.
52. What Is Flashing?
Answer :
Flashing is a condition that occurs with liquid flow where the pressure falls below the
vapour pressure and remains below it. There are then two phases flowing (i.e. liquid
and vapour) downstream.
Severe damage can occur inside a valve due to erosion caused by the impact of liquid
droplets travelling at high speeds.

53. What Is Choked Flow?


Answer :

o Choked flow (otherwise known as critical flow) takes place in a valve when
an increase in pressure drop across the valve no longer has any effect on
the flow rate through the valve. It occurs when the velocity of the gas or
vapour reaches sonic (Mach 1) at the vena contracta.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Choked flow is not necessarily a problem in valves but does need to be


taken into account in the Cv calculations. For liquids, choked flow indicates
the onset of full cavitation, which usually requires special steps to be taken
to reduce damage.
o With clean gases there is no problem with choked flow. Use the choked
pressure drop in any equation to calculate Cv or flow rates. High noise
levels may be generated.
o Solid particles in gas flow will cause erosion due to the high velocities
involved. With liquids full cavitation will occur when the flow is choked.
o High recovery valves, such as ball and butterfly, will become choked at
lower pressure drops than low recovery valves such as globe which offer
a more restricted flow path when fully open.
54. How Can Cavitation Damage Be Contained?
Answer :
Three methods exist for treating cavitation in control valves – the first is to ensure that
the plug and seat are made of a material that can resist the damage (e.g. stellite hard
facing). The second is to control where the bubbles collapse and keep this away from
vulnerable components (see Cav Control trim). The third is to control the pressure drop
and velocities to ensure that the liquid pressure does not fall below the vapour pressure
– thus eliminating cavitation altogether.
55. How Can Flashing Damage Be Contained?
Answer :
Flashing cannot be eliminated in the valve – if the downstream pressure is less than
the vapour pressure then flashing will occur.
To minimise the damage:-

o Hard face trim (using hard facing materials such as Stellite, or Tungsten
Carbide)
o Use more erosion resistant body material
o Increase size of valve, thus reducing the velocity
o Use angle valve – flow over plug
56. Definition Of Linear And Equal Percent Characteristics?
Answer :
Equal Percent characteristics.
The change of flow resulting from a fixed increment of valve travel is directly
proportional to the flow immediately before the change took place.
Linear characteristics.
The change in flow resulting from a fixed increment of valve travel is constant
throughout the whole stroke.
General rules.

o Use Equal Percent if in doubt.


o Use Linear for level control.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Use Equal Percent for pressure control.


o Use Linear when the pressure drop across the valve is a large proportion
of the total pressure drop.
57. How Is The Characteristic Determined In A Globe Valve?
Answer :
There are several ways of altering the characteristic in a globe valve depending on the
particular design.

o The most common is to use the profile on the front of the plug head. In this
case the seat ring and retainer are not changed. If the plug is cage guided
the characteristic of the valve is usually determined by the retainer or disk
stack with the plug having a flat face. As the plug moves up, it uncovers
more flow paths.
o A series of small holes at the bottom of the retainer with larger holes at the
top will give a bi-linear characteristic, which can be designed to give results
similar to equal percent.
58. Is The Velocity Of A Fluid In A Control Valve Critical?
Answer :
The velocity is one of the more important considerations in sizing a control valve. For
long life on liquid applications the velocity at the exit of the valve body should be less
than 10 m/s. This compares with generally accepted line velocities of about 3 m/s,
which explains why control valves often are smaller than the line size.
On gases and vapours the velocity at the exit of the valve body should be less than
0.33 Mach (1/3rd of sonic) for noise control valves and less than 0,5 Mach where noise
is not a consideration.
59. What Is The Difference Between A Liquid, A Vapour And A Gas?
Answer :
These are all different states or phases in which a fluid can exist. H20 exists as a solid
(ice), liquid (water), vapour (saturated steam), and a gas (superheated steam) – it
depends on the temperature and pressure which phase is current. Practically the most
significant difference between liquids and vapours/gases is the compressibility. Liquids
are for most practical purposes incompressible where as the density of gas and
vapours varies with pressure.
60. What Is A Desuperheater And How Does It Differ From An
Attemporator?
Answer :

o A desuperheater is a device that is used to control the addition of water to


superheated steam to reduce the temperature to within 10°C of saturation.
o An attemporator also adds water to steam to control its temperature but
the set point temperature is higher and the downstream steam is still
superheated.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Generally desuperheaters are used in process plants where the steam is


used for heating. Attemporators are used more in power stations for
interstage temperature control.
61. What Is The Difference Between Installed And Inherent
Characteristics?
Answer :
The inherent characteristic is a plot of the flow rate through a valve (or Cv) against
percentage opening with a constant pressure drop across the valve.
This is the result of a workshop test where the upstream and downstream pressure are
held constant and the only variables are the flow rate and opening of the valve.
The installed characteristic is the plot of flow against opening using actual pressure
drops experienced in practice. Due to the fact that in most applications the pressure
drop increases as the flow rate drops, the installed characteristic will normally change
from =% towards linear, and from linear towards quick opening.

62. Why Are Control Valves Sometimes Very Noisy?


Answer :
Noise is created by an object vibrating. Valve components will tend to vibrate whenever
they are subjected to high velocity turbulent flow. Standard control valves will therefore
tend to be noisy on high pressure drop applications particularly where flow rates are
high, since the low pressure experienced downstream of the seat ring (at the vena
contracta) is accompanied by very high velocities reaching as high as the speed of
sound. Special low noise valves are designed to drop pressure gradually so that
velocities are controlled at low levels.
1. What Are The Characteristics Of Negative Feedback?
Answer :
Negative Feedback in a Control System has following Characteristics

o Reduction in the gain at the expense of better stability of the system


o Rejection of disturbance signals in the system
o Low Sensitivity to parameter variations
o Accuracy in tracking the steady state value
2. What Are The Basic Components Of The Feedback Control System?
Answer :
Basic components of the feedback control system are process system (open loop
system), feedback path element, error detector, and controller.
3. Define Transfer Function?
Answer :
Transfer Function of a control system is defined as:
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Ratio of Laplace transform of Output to the Laplace transform of the Input with zero
initial conditions
o Transfer function is defined as the Laplace transform of Impulse response of the
system with zero initial conditions
4. What Is Time Invariant System?
Answer :
Time Invariant System is one in which the input and output characteristics of the
system does not change with time.
5. What Is The Basic Rule For Block Diagram Reduction Technique?
Answer :
The rules of the Block Diagram reduction Techniques are designed in such a manner
that any modifications made in the diagram will not alter the input and output relation
of the system.
6. Where Servomechanism Is Used?
Answer :
Servomechanism is used in control system where the output is pertained to vary the
mechanical position of a device.
Servo Mechanism is widely used in Governor value position control mechanism used
in the power plants where speed of the turbine is taken and processed using the
transducers and final control element is brought as mechanical movement of the
value. Now a days Governor value control is done with Electronic controls using power
Thyristors. Servomechanism is also widely used in the robotic hand movements.
7. What Is Resonant Peak?
Answer :
Resonant peak is defined as the maximum value of the closed loop transfer function.A
large resonant peak corresponds to large overshoot in the transient respose
8. What Is Resonant Frequency?
Answer :
The frequency at which resonant peak occurs is called the resonant frequency.
Resonance frequency explains about the speed of the transient response.
9. What Is Cut-off Rate?
Answer :
The slope of the log-magnitude curve near the cut-off frequency is called the cut-off
rate. The cut-off rate indicates the ability of the system to distinguish between the
signal and the noise.
10. What Is Phase Cross Over Frequency?
Answer :
The frequency at which the phase of the open loop transfer function is 180o is called
the phase cross over frequency.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

11. What Is Gain Margin?


Answer :
The Gain Margin is defined as the reciprocal of the magnitude of open loop transfer
function at phase cross over frequency. The gain margin indicates the amount by which
the gain of the system can be increased without affecting the stability of the system
12. Phase Margin?
Answer :
The phase margin is the amount of additional phase lag at the gain cross over
frequency required to bring the system to the verge of instability.
13. What Is Signal Flow Graph?
Answer :
A Signal Flow Graph is a diagram that represents a set of simultaneous linear algebraic
equations. By taking Laplace transform the time domain differential equations
governing a control system can be transferred to a set of algebraic equations in s-
domain. The signal Flow graph of the system can be constructed using these
equations.
14. What Is S-domain And Its Significance?
Answer :
By taking Laplace transform for differential equation in the time domain equations in
S-domain can be obtained. L{F(t)}=F(s)
S domain is used for solving the time domain differential equations easily by applying
the Laplace for the differential equations.
15. What Are The Basic Properties Of Signal Flow Graph?
Answer :
The basic properties of the signal flow graph are:

o Signal Flow Graphs are applicable to linear systems


o It consists of nodes and branches. A node is a point representing a variable or signal.
A branch indicates the functional dependence of one signal on another
o A node adds the signals of all incoming branches and transmits this sum to all outgoing
branches
o Signals travel along branches only in a marked direction and is multiplied by the gain
of the branch
o The algebraic equations must be in the form of cause and effect relationship
16. What Is Mathematical Model Of A Control System?
Answer :
Control system is a collection of physical elements connected together to serve an
objective. The output and input relations of various physical system are governed by
differential equations. Mathematical model of a control system constitutes set of
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

differential equations. The response of the output of the system can be studied by
solving the differential equations for various input conditions.
17. Explain Mechanical Translational System?
Answer :
Model of mechanical translational system can be obtained by using three basic
elements Mass, Spring and Dash-pot.
Weight the mechanical system is represented by mass and is assumed to be
concentrated at the center of body.
The elastic deformation of the body can be represented by the spring
Friction existing in a mechanical system can be represented by dash-pot.
18. What Is Order Of The System?
Answer :
Order of the system is defined as the order of the differential equation governing the
system. Order of the system can be determined from the transfer function of the
system. Also the order of the system helps in understanding the number of poles of
the transfer function. For nth order system for a particular transfer function contains 'n'
number of poles.
19. What Is Time Response Of The Control System?
Answer :
Time response of the control system is defined as the output of the closed loop system
as a function of time. Time response of the system can be obtained by solving the
differential equations governing the system or time response of the system can also
be obtained by transfer function of the system.

20. How Time Response Of The System Is Divided?


Answer :
Time response of the system consists of two parts: 1.Transient state response 2.
Steady state response. Transient response of the system explains about the response
of the system when the input changes from one state to the other. Steady state
response of the system shows the response as the time t, approaches infinity.
21. What Are Test Signals And Their Significance?

Answer :

The knowledge of the input signal is required to predict the response of the system. In
most of the systems input signals are not known ahead of the time and it is also difficult
to express the input signals mathematically by simple equations. In such cases
determining the performance of the system is not possible.Test signals helps in
predicting the performance of the system as the input signals which we give are known
hence we can see the output response of the system for a given input and can
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

understand the behavior of the control system. The commonly used test signals are
impulse, ramp, step signals and sinusoidal signals.

22. What Is Pole Of The System?

Answer :

Pole of a function F(s) is the value at which the function F(s) becomes infinite, where
F(s) is a function of the complex variable s.

23. What Is Zero Of The System?

Answer :

Zero of a function F(s) is a value at which the function F(s) becomes zero, where F(s)
is a function of complex variables.

24. What Is A System?

Answer :

When a number of elements or components are connected in a sequence to perform


a specific function, the group of elements that all constitute a System.

25. What Is Control System?

Answer :

In a System the output and inputs are interrelated in such a manner that the output
quantity or variable is controlled by input quantity, then such a system is called Control
System.

The output quantity is called controlled variable or response and the input quantity is
called command signal or excitation.

26. What Are Different Types Of Control Systems?

Answer :

Two major types of Control Systems are

o Open loop Control Systems: The Open loop Control System is one in which the Output
Quantity has no effect on the Input Quantity. No feedback is present from the output
quantity to the input quantity for correction.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Closed Loop Control System: The Closed loop Control System is one in which the
feedback is provided from the Output quantity to the input quantity for the correction
so as to maintain the desired output of the system.
27. What Is A Feedback In Control System?

Answer :

The Feedback in Control System in one in which the output is sampled and
proportional signal is fed back to the input for automatic correction of the error ( any
change in desired output) for futher processing to get back the desired output.

28. Why Negative Feedback Is Preferred In The Control System?

Answer :

The role of Feedback in control system is to take the sampled output back to the input
and compare output signal with input signal for error ( deviation from the desired
result).

Negative Feedback results in the better stability of the system and rejects any
disturbance signals and is less sensitive to the parameter variations. Hence in control
systems negative feedback is considered.

29. What Is The Effect Of Positive Feedback On Stabil ity Of The System?

Answer :

Positive feedback is not used generally in the control system because it increases the
error signal and drives the system to instability. But positive feedbacks are used in
minor loop control systems to amplify certain internal signals and parameters.

30. What Is The Use For Cable Entry In Control Room?

Answer :

In the process plant Control room built considering the non-hazardous area. So in case
if fire/Explosion takes place in the plant than that has to be restricted from entering Into
the control room. So MCT(Multiple cable transient) blocks are used.

1. What Is A Distributed Control System ?


Answer :
A distributed control system (DCS) is a computerised control system for a process or
plant, in which autonomous controllers are distributed throughout the system, but there
is central operator supervisory control.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

2. In Split Range Control, Whether The Signal Is Splitted Through I/p Converter
Or The Converter Itself?
Answer :
This can be typically achieved by two ways:
By connecting o/p of one I/P converter to two positioners adjusted suitably for split
range operation of control valves.
Taking two AO from DCS. Split range to be defined in DCS. Both I/P converters and
positioners to be calibrated with input as 4to20 ma dc and 3to15 psi respectively.
3. What If Thermocouple Wire Is Opened In The Field? What Signal Goes To
Dcs?
Answer :In most modern instruments the signal may be programmed to go to either
maximum or minimum depending upon end user’s requirement.
4. What If The Power Supply Connections To A Two -wire Transmitter Get
Interchanged? What Signal W ill Go To Dcs?
Answer :Usually there is a blocking diode to protect the transmitter against supply
reversal and almost zero current signal should be transmitted.
5. What Is The Difference Between A Hart Patch Card And A Field Terminal
Assembly?
Answer :A field terminal assembly is a DCS component where field signals are
terminated. In a DCS using analog transmitter signals but smart remotely configured
transmitters field signals from barriers are first brought to a HART patch panel. From
here the analog signals are wired to the DCS field termination assembly or I/O card.
The digital signals are wired to the HART multiplexes who extract the digital information
and provide two way communication path between smart instruments and a computer
running suitable software.
6. What Is The Difference Between Dcs And Plc?
Answer :
Distributed control system(DCS) and Programmable logic controller. These are the
control systems which handles fields I/Os. Basic difference between DCS & PLC is

o DCS handles more nos of I/Os rather than PLC.


o PLC is faster system than DCS.
o DCS can handles handsome quantity of I/Os so that can be used for total plant
automation. Where as PLC has own limitations so it generally used for small but for
important(Safety point of view) units, like boiler automations, Make-up compressor
automations Etc.
o In the above mentioned case the these PLC’s can be get connected with the DCS
with the help of soft link. Generally this is used to make alert to both the operator.
o As I heard the PLC used to handle the DI/DO signals so it can take fast actions. Some
of the time it is used to handle few nos of AI/AO.
o DCS & PLC’s speed depends on the scan rate of I/Os.
o For both the system Marshalling panels, Consoles and other faculties of Ethernet Etc
can be used according to the need.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o According to the Cause and effects diagrams the System programmer assigns the
control action block into the system, we can call them as memory assigning.
7. When Proportional, Integral And Derivative (pid ) Controller Is Used?
Answer :
PID controller is used when system requires:

o System changes are small.


o Offset must be eliminated.
o Fast recovery time.
8. When Proportional (p) Controller Is Used ?
Answer :
Proportional (P) Controller is used during the following conditions:

o Load Changes are small.


o Offset (error exist due to difference between steady state value and desired value) can
be tolerated.
o The process reaction rate is such as to permit a narrow proportional band. Since this
reduces the amount of the offset.
9. When Proportional (p) Controller Is Used ?
Answer :
Proportional (P) Controller is used during the following conditions:

o Load Changes are small.


o Offset (error exist due to difference between steady state value and desired value) can
be tolerated.
o The process reaction rate is such as to permit a narrow proportional band. Since this
reduces the amount of the offset.
10. When Integral (i) Controller Is Used ?
Answer :
Integral (I) controller is used during:

o When the offset must be eliminated.


o Integral saturation due to sustained deviation is not objectionable.

11. When Derivative (d) Controller Is Used ?


Answer :

o Large transfer or distance velocity lags are present.


o It is necessary to minimize the amount of deviation caused by the system changes.
12. When Proportional Plus Integral (pi) Controller Is Used
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Proportional and Integral action is employed when

o System changes is small.


o Offset must be eliminated.
o No objection on the recovery duration.
13. When Proportional And Derivative (pd) Controller Is Use d ?
Answer :
PD action is employed when:

o When the system changes are small.


o Improve the recovery time.
o When system lags are high.
14. What Are The Basic Elements Of Distributed Control System?
Answer :
Basic Elements of Distributed Control System :
Distributed Control System continuously interacts with the processes in process
control applications ones it gets instruction from the operator. It also facilitates to
variable set points and opening and closing of valves for manual control by the
operator. Its human machine interface (HMI), face plates and trend display gives the
effective monitoring of industrial processes.
15. Explain Open Loop Control System ?
Answer :
Control System in which output quantity has no effect on the input quantity is called
Open Loop Control System. Open Loop Control System has no facility to correct
automatically the error generated in the output. From output of the system no feedback
is given back to the input for correction. In Open loop control system the output can be
varied by varying the input. But due the external disturbance system output may
change. Any variation in the output from the desired once again attained by varying
the inputs manually.
16. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Open Loop Control
System ?
Answer :
Advantages:

o Open loop system is simple and economical.


o Construction of open loop system is easier.
o Open loop systems are generally stable.

Disadvantages:

o Open loop systems are inaccurate and unreliable


o The changes in the outputs due to external disturbance are not corrected automatically
17. Explain Closed Loop Control System ?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :
Control system in which the output has an effect on the input quantity in such a manner
that the input quantity will adjust itself based on the output generated is called Closed
loop Control System. Open loop control system can be modified in to closed loop
control system by providing a feedback. This feedback automatically corrects the
changes in the output due to external disturbance. Hence closed loop control system
is called automatic control system.
18. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Closed Loop Control
System ?
Answer :
Advantages:

o Closed loop control systems are more accurate even in the presence of non-linearities
o The sensitivity of the system may be made small to make the system more stable
o The closed loop systems are less affected by noise.

Disadvantages:

o Closed loop control systems are costlier and complex


o The feedback in the closed loop system may lead to oscillatory response
o The feedback reduces the overall gain of the system
o Stability is the major problem in the closed loop system and more care is needed to
design a stable closed loop system.
19. What Is The Significance Of Single Ended & Differential Ended Input
For Plc? Application Wise Comparison Of These Two Types Of Inputs?
Answer :
Differential inputs provide better common mode rejection and signal-to-noise ratio.

20. What Is Ground Loop? Preventive Steps To Avoid Ground Loop?


Answer :
When ground wiring is not done properly, grounding of various points is not effective
and potential differences exist between them resulting in currents flowing between
them. This leads to measurement errors and is not desirable. It can be eliminated by
proper ground wiring.
21. In A Globe Type Control Valve, What Is The Importance Of Flow
Direction (top To Bottom Or Bottom To Top)?

Answer :

Control valves must be installed as per direction marking provided by the


manufacturers or instruction manuals. Though people tend to generalize, this is often
misleading.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

22. How Control Loop Should Be Tuned In Process Loop?

Answer :

You may use Ziegler-Nichol’s method ( open loop / closed loop ) or special tuning
software tools.

1. What Is A Thermocouple?
Answer :

o A Thermocouple is a sensor used to measure temperature. Thermocouples consist of


two wire legs made from different metals. The wires legs are welded together at one
end, creating a junction. This junction is where the temperature is measured. When
the junction experiences a change in temperature, a voltage is created. The voltage
can then be interpreted using thermocouple reference tables (linked) to calculate the
temperature.
o There are many types of thermocouples, each with its own unique characteristics in
terms of temperature range, durability, vibration resistance, chemical resistance, and
application compatibility. Type J, K, T, & E are “Base Metal” thermocouples, the most
common types of thermocouples. Type R, S, and B thermocouples are “Noble Metal”
thermocouples, which are used in high temperature applications (see thermocouple
temperature ranges (linked) for details).
o Thermocouples are used in many industrial, scientific, and OEM applications. They
can be found in nearly all industrial markets: Power Generation, Oil/Gas,
Pharmaceutical, BioTech, Cement, Paper & Pulp, etc. Thermocouples are also used
in everyday appliances like stoves, furnaces, and toasters.
o Thermocouples are typically selected because of their low cost, high temperature
limits, wide temperature ranges, and durable nature.
2. What Is A Cold (reference) Junction For Thermocou ples?
Answer :
Cold, or reference junction, is the end of a thermocouple that provides a reference
point.
Thermocouples measure the difference in temperature between two junctions. They
do NOT measure actual temperature. The sensing junction is where the thermocouple
wires are welded (or otherwise connected) together, and located at a point where the
temperature is desired. The other junction is typically located where it is connected to
instrumentation (measuring device or transmitter). This is known as the cold or
reference junction. Thermocouple millivolt tables and mathematical formulas are
based on a cold junction temperature of 0°C. To determine actual temperature, the
instrumentation must “adjust” for the difference between ambient temperature and 0°C.
This adjustment is known as cold junction compensation.
3. What Is The Difference Between A Thermocouple And Rtd?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Temperature Range: First, consider the difference in temperature ranges. Noble Metal
Thermocouples can reach 3,100 F, while standard RTDs have a limit of 600 F and
extended range RTDs have a limit of 1,100 F.
Cost: A plain stem thermocouple is 2 to 3 times less expensive than a plain stem RTD.
A thermocouple head assembly is roughly 50% less expensive than an equivalent RTD
head assembly.
Accuracy, Linearity, & Stability: As a general rule, RTDs are more accurate than
thermocouples. This is especially true at lower temperature ranges. RTDs are also
more stable and have better linearity than thermocouples. If accuracy, linearity, and
stability are your primary concerns and your application is within an RTD’s temperature
limits, go with the RTD.
Durability: In the sensors industry, RTDs are widely regarded as a less durable sensor
when compared to thermocouples. However, REOTEMP has developed
manufacturing techniques that have greatly improved the durability of our RTD
sensors. These techniques make REOTEMP’s RTDs nearly equivalent to
thermocouples in terms of durability.
Response Time: RTDs cannot be grounded. For this reason, they have a slower
response time than grounded thermocouples. Also, thermocouples can be placed
inside a smaller diameter sheath than RTDs. A smaller sheath diameter will increase
response time. For example, a grounded thermocouple inside a 1/16” dia. sheath will
have a faster response time than a RTD inside a ¼” dia. sheath.
4. What Are The Thermocouple Junction Types?
Answer :
Grounded Thermocouples: This is the most common junction style. A thermocouple is
grounded when both thermocouple wires and the sheath are all welded together to
form one junction at the probe tip. Grounded thermocouples have a very good
response time because the thermocouple is making direct contact with the sheath,
allowing heat to transfer easily. A drawback of the grounded thermocouple is that the
thermocouple is more susceptible to electrical interference. This is because the sheath
often comes into contact with the surrounding area, providing a path for interference.
Ungrounded Thermocouples (Or Ungrounded Common Thermocouples): A
thermocouple is ungrounded when the thermocouple wires are welded together but
they are insulated from the sheath. The wires are often separated by mineral insulation.
Exposed Thermocouples (or “bare wire thermocouples”): A thermocouple is exposed
when the thermocouple wires are welded together and directly inserted into the
process. The response time is very quick, but exposed thermocouple wires are more
prone to corrosion and degradation. Unless your application requires exposed
junctions, this style is not recommended.
Ungrounded Uncommon: An ungrounded uncommon thermocouple consists of a dual
thermocouple that is insulated from the sheath and each of the elements are insulated
from one other.
5. What Is M.i. Cable?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

M.I. (Mineral Insulated) cable is used to insulate thermocouple wires from one another
and from the metal sheath that surrounds them. MI Cable has two (or four when
duplex) thermocouple wires running down the middle of the tube. The tube is then filled
with magnesium oxide powder and compacted to ensure the wires are properly
insulated and separated. MI cable helps to protect the thermocouple wire from
corrosion and electrical interference.
6. How Are The Thermocouple Sheaths Different?
Answer :
316SS (stainless steel): This is the most common sheath material. It is relatively
corrosion resistant and is cost effective.
304SS: This sheath is not as corrosion resistant as 316SS. The cost difference
between 316SS and 304SS is nominal.
Inconel (registered trademark) 600: This material is recommended for highly corrosive
environments.
7. What Do Thermocouple Wire Colors Indicate?
Answer :
A thermocouple can be identified by the color of its wire insulation. For example, in the
United States a type J thermocouple grade wire has one red wire and one white wire,
typically with a brown over jacket. A type J extension grade wire also has one red wire
and one white wire, but it has a black over jacket. As a general rule the red wire of a
thermocouple or extension wire is negative and the positive wire is color coded
according to the type of thermocouple. Different countries use different color codes.
8. What Is The Difference Between Thermocouple W ire Cable And Extension
Grade Wire?
Answer :
Thermocouple grade wire is used to manufacture thermocouple probes. Thermocouple
grade wire is normally used for the junction and inside the stem sheath. This is because
the thermocouple grade wire has a better accuracy specification than extension grade
wire.
Extension grade wire is a less expensive, lower grade wire. It is used to extend the
signal from the thermocouple probe to the control system or digital display. Extension
grade wire is more economical due to a lesser grade metal being used. Extension
grade wire should not be used in the process itself and should not see the temperature
extremes & temperature cycling as standard grade wire.
9. What Is Seebeck Effect?
Answer :
When two wires of different metals or metal alloys (thermo wires) are joined together
in one end (hot junction), a thermocouple is formed. If there is a temperature difference
between the hot junction and the open ends, a thermal electromotive force (a thermal
voltage) is created in the thermocouple. This is also called the Seebeck effect.
10. What Is Cjc?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

A thermocouple measurement always needs information from joined wire end (hot
junction) and open wire end (cold junction). The cold junction is also called reference
point. Variations of reference point temperature are compensated with CJC measuring
(Cold Junction Compensation). Temperature transmitters CJC measuring can be an
internal function or a measuring resistor integrated in connectors. If the reference point
is far away from the transmitter, a separate temperature measuring of that point has to
be implemented and wired to transmitter as compensation signal.

11. What Is Compensating Cable And Extension Cable?


Answer :
Compensating cable is a thermocouple measuring circuit cable, which is identified by
the letter C (e.g. for type K cable KC). Wires of the compensating cable have the same
electrical features, but not the same materials, as the thermo wires of the TC sensor.
Compensating cable is a more cost effective solution than extension cable, but the
maximum ambient temperature allowed is lower, approximately 100…200 °C
depending on the insulation material.
Extension cable is a thermocouple cable which is identified by the letter X (e.g. for type
K cable KX). Wires of the extension cable are of exactly the same materials as the
thermo wires of the TC sensor. These cables can achieve even the same ambient
temperatures as the thermocouple can.
12. What Is Trace Heating / Sensor?
Answer :
Trace heating is a term usually used for keeping pipelines and attached devices
unfrozen. The important function of trace heating is maintaining stable temperature
and flow rate of the materials flowing through the pipeline. The most common
implementation of trace heating is electrical, which offers good adjustability. However,
for accurate process control and adjustment also precise temperature data is needed.
For these applications we have designed our high quality trace heating sensors, which
already have been available for years, also for Ex applications.
13. What Size Thermowell Is Appropriate For My Application?
Answer :
Based on the design of your system you need to know:

o Operating temperature (°C)


o Operating pressure (bar), Specific volume (m3/kg)
o Velocity (m/s)

Once those are established then you’re ready to consult ASME standard PTC 19.3
TW-2010 Thermowell section, which goes through the calculation for the design of the
well.
14. Explain Pyrometer And Its Working?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

A Pyrometer is a non-contacting device that intercepts and measures thermal


radiations. Without making any contact with the radiating body and the process is
known as pyrometry. This device is useful for determining the temperature of an
object’s surface.
Pyrometer strictly works on the principle of black body radiation. Here emissivity of the
target plays an important role, as it governs how bright the target appears to the
pyrometer. Due to its high accuracy, speed, economy and specific advantages, it is
widely being used as a standard procedure in many industrial applications.
Working:

o An optical system gathers the visible and infrared energy from an object and focuses
it to the detector.
o The detector receives the photon energy from the optical system and converts it to an
electric signal to drive a temperature display or control unit.
15. Explain Thermocouples Measuring Junction?
Answer :
An exposed (measuring) junction is recommended for the measurement of flowing or
static non-corrosive gas temperature when the greatest sensitivity and quickest
response is required.
An insulated junction is more suitable for corrosive media although the thermal
response is slower. In some applications where more than one thermocouple connects
to the associated instrumentation,insulation may be essential to avoid spurious signals
occurring in the measuring circuits. If not specified, this is the standard.
An earthed (grounded) junction is also suitable for corrosive media and for high
pressure applications. It provides faster response than the insulated junction and
protection not offered by the exposed junction.
Thermocouple Standards

o ASTM E 235: Standard Specification for Thermocouples, Sheathed, Type K and Type
N for Nuclear or for other High-Reliability Applications.
o ASTM E 839: Standard Test Methods for Sheathed Thermocouples and Sheathed
Thermocouple Materials.
o ASTM E 220: Test Methods for Calibration of Thermocouples by Comparison
Techniques
o ASTM E 230: Specification and Temperature-EMF Tables for Standardized
Thermocouples.
o ASTM E 585: Standard specification for compacted MI, MS, base metal thermocouple
cables.
o ASTM E 608: Standard specification for compacted MI, MS, base metal
thermocouples.
o ASTM E 696: Standard specifications for tungsten – rhenium alloy thermocouple wire.
o ASTM E 1652: Standard specification for Magnesium oxide & Alumina oxide powder
& crushable insulators used in metal sheathed PRT’s, base metal thermocouples &
noble metal thermocouple.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o IS 12579: Specification for Base Metal Mineral Insulated Thermocouple Cables and
Thermocouples.
o GB/T 1598- 2010: Chinese standard for platinum thermocouples.
o IEC 584: International standard for thermocouples.
16. What Are The Applications Of Thermowells?
Answer :
Thermowells provide protection for temperature probes against unfavorable operating
conditions such as corrosive media, physical impact (e.g. clinker in furnaces) and high
pressure gas or liquid. Their use also permits quick and easy probe interchanging
without the need to “open-up” the process.
The main application areas are:

o Protection tube are used in thermocouples


o Insures integrity in high pressure applications
o Smaller wells are used in low pressure applications
o Straight wells are used in corrosive and erosive environment
o For applications where a quick response to changes in temperature is required,
fabricated pockets may be fitted with a reduced tip.
o One-piece Thermowells are suited to the highest process loads, depending on their
design. Thus in the petrochemical industry, one-piece thermocouples are now used
almost exclusively.
17. What Are The Types Of Thermocouple Constructions?
Answer :
There are two types of thermocouple construction used most commonly.These are
Mineral Insulated (M.I.) Thermocouples & Non M.I. Thermocouples.
Mineral Insulated Thermocouples:

o Magnesium Oxide insulated thermocouples, are used in many process and laboratory
applications. They are rugged in nature and bendable, and their fairly high temperature
ratings make MgO thermocouples a popular choice for a multitude of temperature
measuring applications.
o MgO sensors are constructed by placing an element or elements into a sheath of a
suitable material and size, insulating the elements from themselves and the sheath
with loose filled or crushable Magnesium Oxide powder or insulators, and then swaging
or drawing the filled sheath down to its final reduced size. The swaging process
produces an element with highly compacted MgO insulation and provides high
dielectric strength insulation between the elements themselves and their sheath.
o Mineral insulated Thermocouples consist of thermocouple wire embedded in a densely
packed refractory oxide powder insulate all enclosed in a seamless, drawn metal
sheath (usually stainless steel).
o At one end cores and sheath are welded from a “hot” junction. At the other end, the
thermocouple is connected to a “transition” of extension wires, connecting head or
connector.

Non M.I. Thermocouples:


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o In Non-M.I. thermocouples, thermocouple wires are either insulated with ceramic


beads or after insulation of ceramic, covered by a metal sheath (usually stainless steel)
and some form of termination (extension lead, connecting head or connector for
example) is provided. In this type of construction thermocouple wires are protected
from the measuring environment when a sheath protection is provided. The sheath
material is dependent on the measuring environment usually stainless steel is used.
According to the corrosive environment sheath selection is changed.
o This construction does not provide flexibility & not found in small sizes. Not too good
mechanical strength.
o In Non M.I. construction sheath may be of ceramic or metal as per suitability.
o Exposed, Grounded and Ungrounded all types of junctions are formed in both the M.I,
& Non M.I. construction.
18. What Are The Principal Factors That Affect The Life Of A
Thermocouple?
Answer :
Temperature: Thermocouple life decreases by about 50% when an increase of 50 °C
occurs.
Diameter: By doubling the diameter of the wire, the life increases by 2-3 times.
Thermic cycling: When thermocouples are exposed to thermic cycling from room
temperature to above 500°C, their life decreases by about 50% compared to a
thermocouple used continuously at the same temperature.
Protection: When thermocouples are covered by a protective sheath and placed into
ceramic insulators, their life is considerably extended.
19. How To Choose A Thermocouple ?
Answer :
Because a thermocouple measures in wide temperature ranges and can be relatively
rugged, thermocouples are very often used in industry.
The following criteria are used in selecting a thermocouple:

o Temperature range
o Chemical resistance of the thermocouple or sheath material
o Abrasion and vibration resistance
o Installation requirements (may need to be compatible with existing equipment; existing
holes may determine probe diameter).

20. What Is The Response Time Of A Thermocouple?


Answer :
A time constant has been defined as the time required by a sensor to reach 63.2% of
a step change in temperature under a specified set of conditions. Five time constants
are required for the sensor to approach 100% of the step change value. An exposed
junction thermocouple offers the fastest response. Also, the smaller the probe sheath
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

diameter, the faster the response, but the maximum temperature may be lower. Be
aware, however, that sometimes the probe sheath cannot withstand the full
temperature range of the thermocouple type.
21. How Do We Know Which Junction Type To Choose?

Answer :

Sheathed thermocouple probes are available with one of three junction types:
grounded, ungrounded or exposed. At the tip of a grounded junction probe, the
thermocouple wires are physically attached to the inside of the probe wall. This results
in good heat transfer from the outside, through the probe wall to the thermocouple
junction. In an ungrounded probe, the thermocouple junction is detached from the
probe wall. Response time is slower than the grounded style, but the ungrounded
offers electrical isolation.

22. How To Choose Between Thermocouples, Resistance Temperature


Detectors (rtd’s), Thermistors And Infrared Devices?

Answer :

You have to consider the characteristics and costs of the various sensors as well as
the available instrumentation. In addition, Thermocouples generally can measure
temperatures over wide temperature ranges, inexpensively, and are very rugged, but
they are not as accurate or stable as RTD’s and thermistors. RTD’s are stable and
have a fairly wide temperature range, but are not as rugged and inexpensive as
thermocouples. Since they require the use of electric current to make measurements,
RTD’s are subject to inaccuracies from self-heating. Thermistors tend to be more
accurate than RTD’s or thermocouples, but they have a much more limited
temperature range. They are also subject to selfheating. Infrared Sensors can be used
to measure temperatures higher than any of the other devices and do so without direct
contact with the surfaces being measured. However, they are generally not as accurate
and are sensitive to surface radiation efficiency (or more precisely, surface emissivity).
Using fiber optic cables, they can measure surfaces that are not within a direct line of
sight.

23. What Are The Thermocouple Types ?

Answer :

Thermocouples are available in different combinations of metals or calibrations. The


most common are the “Base Metal” thermocouples known as Types J, K, T, E and N.
There are also high temperature calibrations – als known as Noble Metal
thermocouples – Types R, S, C and GB.

K Type Thermocouples are known as general purpose thermocouple due to its low
cost and temperature range.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

This high temperature wire/thermocouple is produced using a wide range of materials,


and is available with PVC, FEP, TFE, PFA, Fiberglass, and Ceramaflex insulation.
However, if you see it referenced by “type” on a spec sheet, the description is referring
to the kind of metal alloy used for the wire’s conductor.

o Type E = Chromel/Constantan
o Type J = Iron/Constantan
o Type K = Chromel/Alumel
o Type N = Nicrosil/Nisil
o Type T = Copper/Constantan

When an “X” follows the letter indicating which alloy was used in the cable, the cable
is extension grade. In these cases, the types of cable are listed as Type EX, Type JX,
Type KX, Type NX, or Type TX.

24. What Is The Difference Between Thermocouple Grade W ire And


Extension Grade W ire?

Answer :

Thermocouple grade wire is wire that is used to make the sensing point of the
instrument, where extension grade wire is only used to extend a thermocouple signal
from a probe back to the instrument reading the signal.

25. Explain Thermocouple Material Selection ?

Answer :

The various sheath materials are dependent upon the application. The following list
will help you make the best selection:

304 SS

Maximum temperature of 1650°F (900°C) and is the most widely used low temperature
sheath material. It offers good corrosion resistance but is subject to carbide
precipitation in the 900°F to 1600°F (480 to 870°C) range.

310 SS

Maximum temperature of 2100°F (1150°C) and offers good mechanical and corrosion
resistance similar to 304 SS. Very good heat resistance. Not as ductile as 304 SS.

316 S
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Maximum temperature of 1650°F (900°C) and has the best corrosion resistance of the
austenitic stainless steels. Subject to carbide precipitation in the 900°F to 1600°F (480
to 870°C)

Inconel®

Maximum temperature 2150°F (1175°C) and is the most widely used thermocouple
sheath material. Good high temperature strength, corrosion resistance and is resistant
to chloride-ion stress corrosion, cracking and oxidation. Do not use in sulfur bearing
environments.

Hastelloy X

Maximum temperature 2200°F (1205°C) widely used in aerospace applications.


Resistant to oxidizing, reducing and neutral atmospheric conditions. Excellent high
temperature strength.

1. What Is Plc?
Answer :
PLC are solid state members of the computer family using integrated circuit instead of
electromechanical devices to implement control functions.
2. What Are The Two Basic Sections Of Plc?
Answer :

o CPU
o The Input/Output interface system
3. Common Plc Programming Languages?
Answer :

o Ladder logic
o Functional Block diagram
o Sequential Function Chart
4. How To Select A Plc (selection Criteria )?
Answer :

o Cost of Hardware and Software


o Reliability Flexibility Scalability
o Ease of database configuration
o Graphics development
o Interlocks and batch processing
o Integration of high level application
5. What Is Sinking Input And Sourcing Input/output?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Sinking input / output provides a grounded connection to the load.


o Sourcing input / output provides to the load.
6. What Are The Different Types Of Modules Used In Plc?
Answer :

o Digital input
o Digital Output
o Analog input
o Analog output
o Pulse input
o Communication module
o Cpu
7. Explain What Are Different Components In Plc?
Answer :
1. Input Interface
2. Memory Section
3. Central Processing Unit (CPU)
4. Programmable Language
5. Programming tool
6. An output Interface
8. Explain Advantages Of Plcs Than Hard Wired Relay?
Answer :
PLCs are highly reliable, easily programmable, Small and Inexpensive, PLCs can be
designed with the communication capabilities so they can converse with the local or
remote computer, They can sustain in robust environment less maintenance.
9. Explain What Is The Programmable Language Used In Plc?
Answer :
The general language program consists of Ladder Diagrams. Relay logic control
scheme is represented in Ladder diagrams. Alternative languages uses
Boolean representation of these control schemes as base of the computer
representation.
10. Explain What Does Central Processing Unit (cpu) Of Plc Consists?
Answer :
CPU is the brain of the system and consists of

o Microprocessor: To carryout arithematic and logical operations.


o Memory: The area in the CPU in which the information is stored and reterived.
o Power Supply: The electrical supply that converts the ac voltage to various DC
operating voltages.

11. Explain What Is Scan In Plc?


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :
The sequential operation of the controller that goes through the ladder diagram from
top to bottom of the ladder. In this process it updates all the outputs corresponding to
the inputs. SCAN takes place from left to right of each rung. Usually SCAN time is in
milliseconds and it is a continuous process.
12. Difference Between Plcs And Computers?
Answer :
Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs) have basic architecture compared to normal
general purpose computers. A normal computer can be converted to PLCs
by providing a way that the computer can able to receive information or signal from the
field devices such as push buttons, switches and valve positions. Computer requires
a some software to process the information obtained from the input to generate an
output which decide whether to close or open the valve position in the process side.
Some of the important features and characteristics that distinguish between the
general purpose computers and Programmable Logic Controllers(PLCs) are given
below:

o PLCs are designed to operate under industrial environments (PLCs have to operate
under wide range of temperature conditions, humidity and other environmental
conditions). They are least affected by the electrical noise and are inherent to electrical
noise Programming in PLCs is through Relay Ladder Logic or other easily learned
language.
o PLCs comes with program language built in its memory.
o PLCs do not contain input and output devices such as keyboards, mouse, monitor, CD
drives and other hard disks. It is in simple a self contained box with communication
ports and set of terminals for input and output devices. Unlike computers which
performs numerous tasks simultaneously, PLCs execute a single program in an orderly
and sequential manner from first instruction to the last instruction PLCs have been
designed for installation and maintenance by plant electricians. Programming in PLCs
is simple (Relay Ladder Programming), it does not include any advanced code.
Troubleshooting is simpler and many PLCs are designed to include fault details and
written fault details on display screen.
13. What Are Plcs Advantages Or Benefits?
Answer :
Higher Reliability: Once the program written and tested it can be easily downloaded
into other PLC's memory. It requires lesser and simpler wiring compared to
conventional hard wired circuits employed. Hence reliability of the system increases
significantly with PLCs.
More Flexibility: It is easier to create a new program module or change an existing
program in PLC compared to hard wired circuitry system. These software program
modules can be changed whenever required. Use can modify the programs in the field
and if required, security can be enhanced by hardware interlocks such as key locks
and software features such as passwords.
Lower Cost: PLCs were originally designed to replace relay control logic which is not
economical and complex especially for large control circuits. With PLCs the cost
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

savings have been so significant that the relay control becomes uneconomical except
for some power applications. Generally if the application consists of more than half a
dozen control relays, PLCs are least expensive to install.
Communication Capability: Communication capability of PLC with the other controllers
and computers in the system is one of the main advantages compared to relay control
circuit. Functions such as Supervisory control, data acquisition from the field,
monitoring devices and process parameters associated with the field and downloading
and uploading of programs can be easily possible with the PLC compared to hardwired
circuits.
Faster Response: PLCs are designed for high speed and for the real time
applications.Response time for PLCs are much smaller compared to relay logic
circuits. The programmable controllers operates in real time i.e, an event taking
carrying out at field will result in execution of operation of output.
Easy to Troubleshoot: PLCs have inbuilt diagnostics and override functions that helps
the user to easily trance the software and hardware errors.
14. What Are The Various Criteria To Choose The Microcontroller?
Answer :
The important criteria to be considered in choosing micro controllers are:

o Availability of software development tools like compilers, debuggers, assemblers


o Meeting the computing needs of the task at hand efficiently at low-cost.
o Wide availability
o Reliable sources/manufacturers
o The amount of RAM and ROM on chip
o The number of I/O pins and the timer on the chip
o Power consumption
o Speed of the device
o Packaging
o Cost per unit.
15. List Some Of The 8051 Microcontroller Manufacturers?
Answer :

o Intel
o Philips
o Infineon
o Maxim/Dellas semiconductor
o Atmel
16. What Is Difference Between Microprocessor And Microcontroller?
Answer :
The microprocessor has no ROM, RAM and no I/O ports on the chip itself.Whereas
the microcontroller has a CPU in addition to a fixed amount of RAM,ROM, I/O ports
and a timer all on a single chip.
17. List Out Some Of The Features Of The 8051?
Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o ROM - 4K bytes
o RAM - 128 bytes
o Timer - 2 no
o I/O Pins - 32
o Serial Port - 1
o Interrupt sources - 6
18. What Are The Various Types Of Memories Used In
Microcontroller/microprocessor?
Answer :
ROM - Read Only Memory
RAM - Random Access Memory
PROM - Programmable Read Only Memory
EPROM - Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
EEROM - Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
19. What Is Meant By Flipflop?
Answer :

o A Flip-flop is a basic electronic circuit used for storing information in a digital machine.
o It is a bistable device. It means it has two stable states.
o It has one or more inputs and two complement outputs.

20. What Is A Bus?


Answer :
Group of lines connecting the microprocessor with other components of a computer
system is called a bus. It is a communication path over which electrical signals
representing binary digits ( 0, 1) are transmitted. For a single bit to transmit, one line
is used. The width of the bus is number of lines that are used to constitute that bus.
21. What Is Data Bus?

Answer :

Data Bus: Group of lines that transmit data in and out of the microprocessor is called
the data bus. Here the data can flow in both directions between the microprocessor
and the peripheral devices. Hence the data bus is bidirectional. The width of the data
bus depends on the architecture of the microprocessor. For an example, an 8 bit
processor can operate on 8 bits of data at a time and has a 8 bit wide data bus.

22. What Is Address Bus?

Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Address Bus:Group of lines used by the microprocessor to send the address of the
device or the memory location which the microprocessor needs to access.The address
bits flow in one direction, ie, from the microprocessor to the peripheral devices.Hence
the address bus is unidirectional.The width of the address bus determines the
maximum number of memory locations that the microprocessor can access.

23. What Is Multiplexing?

Answer :

Multiplexing:Using a single bus for two different functions is called multiplexing.For an


example, in 8085 microprocessor the low order 8 bits of the address and data are
transmitted using AD7- AD0 lines.These lines are also used as low order address bus
during execution of instructions.Thus the same lines are used for transmitting address
and data.This is called as multiplexing.These lines are called as multiplexed
address/data bus.

24. What Is A Microprocessor?

Answer :

Microprocessor is a program-controlled device, which fetches the instructions from


memory, decodes and executes the instructions. Most Micro Processor are single- chip
devices.

25. What Are The Flags In 8086?

Answer :

In 8086 Carry flag, Parity flag, Auxiliary carry flag, Zero flag, Overflow flag, Trace flag,
Interrupt flag, Direction flag, and Sign flag.

26. Why Crystal Is A Preferred Clock Source?

Answer :

Because of high stability, large Q (Quality Factor) & the frequency that doesn’t drift
with aging. Crystal is used as a clock source most of the times.

27. In 8085 Which Is Called As High Order / Low Order Register?

Answer :

Flag is called as Low order register & Accumulator is called as High order Register.

28. What Is Tri-state Logic?


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :

Three Logic Levels are used and they are High, Low, High impedance state. The high
and low are normal logic levels & high impedance state is electrical open circuit
conditions. Tri-state logic has a third line called enable line.

29. What Happens When Hlt Instruction Is Executed In Processor?

Answer :

The Micro Processor enters into Halt-State and the buses are tri-stated.

30. Which Stack Is Used In 8085?

Answer :

LIFO (Last In First Out) stack is used in 8085.In this type of Stack the last stored
information can be retrieved first

31. What Is Program Counter?

Answer :

Program counter holds the address of either the first byte of the next instruction to be
fetched for execution or the address of the next byte of a multi byte instruction, which
has not been completely fetched. In both the cases it gets incremented automatically
one by one as the instruction bytes get fetched. Also Program register keeps the
address of the next instruction.

32. What Are The Various Registers In 8085?

Answer :

Accumulator register, Temporary register, Instruction register, Stack Pointer, Program


Counter are the various registers in 8085

33. What Is 1st / 2nd / 3rd / 4th Generation Processor?

Answer :

The processor made of PMOS / NMOS / HMOS / HCMOS technology is called 1st /
2nd / 3rd / 4th generation processor, and it is made up of 4 / 8 / 16 / 32 bits.

34. Name The Processor Lines Of Two Major Manufacturer?

Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

High-end: Intel – Pentium (II, III, 4), AMD – Athlon. Low-end: Intel – Celeron, AMD –
Duron. 64-bit: Intel – Itanium 2, AMD – Opteron.

35. What’s The Speed And Device Maximum Specs For Firewire?

Answer :

IEEE 1394 (Firewire) supports the maximum of 63 connected devices with speeds up
to 400 Mbps. Where’s MBR located on the disk? Main Boot Record is located in sector
0, track 0, head 0, cylinder 0 of the primary active partition.

36. Where Does The Cpu Enhanced Mode Originate From?

Answer :

Intel’s 80386 was the first 32-bit processor, and since the company had to backward-
support the 8086. All the modern Intel-based processors run in the Enhanced mode,
capable of switching between Real mode (just like the real 8086) and Protected mode,
which is the current mode of operation.

37. How Many Bit Combinations Are There In A Byte?

Answer :

Byte contains 8 combinations of bits.

38. Have You Studied Buses? What Types?

Answer :

There are three types of buses.

o Address bus: This is used to carry the Address to the memory to fetch either Instruction
or Data.
o Data bus : This is used to carry the Data from the memory.
o Control bus : This is used to carry the Control signals like RD/WR, Select etc.
39. What Is The Maximum Clock Frequency In 8086?

Answer :

5 Mhz is the Maximum clock frequency in 8086.

40. What Is Meant By Maskable Interrupts?

Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer is known as Maskable interrupt.

41. What Do You Mean By The Term Embedded Controllers?

Answer :

The devices that has all the functional blocks on chip, including the program and data
memory and there is no external data/address bus provided. For example,
ATMEL89C2051.

42. Discuss The Advantages Of Microcontroller Over Microprocessor In


Control Applications?

Answer :

The first main advantage is that the ALUs can be assembled together horizontally to
form computers that can handle very large data at a time. Another advantage is bit
slice design that makes use of possible bipolar chip technology that is very fast.

43. What Are Risc And Cisc Processors?

Answer :

RISC chips requires lesser hardware implementations, which makes them simpler to
design and hence lesser costs of production.

44. Discuss The Criteria For Selecting A Micro -controller Device?

Answer :

It must have ram and rom to support its inbuilt functions. It must have +5v supply, must
be fast and should have programmable and data memory.

45. Discuss The Advantages And Disadvantages Of Harvard And Von


Neuman Architectures?

Answer :

Harvard architecture uses separate memories for program and data memory whereas
Von Neuman uses same program and data memory.Therefore Harvard is faster
compared to other one.

46. Name 2 Register That Consists Of 16 Bit?

Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

o Program counter
o Data pointer
47. Name Few General Purpose Registers?

Answer :

Accumulator, B-register, R0- R7

48. What Are Sfr?

Answer :

The 128 bytes of on-chip additional RAM locations from 80H to 0FFH are reserved for
the special functions and therefore these are called as special function register.

49. Can An Rc Circuit Be Used As Clock Source For 8085?

Answer :

Yes, it can be used, if an accurate clock frequency is not required. Also, the component
cost is low compared to LC or Crystal

50. Which Interrupt Has The Highest Priority?

Answer :

TRAP has the highest priority

51. What Are Hardware Interrupts?

Answer :

TRAP, RST7.5, RST6.5, RST5.5, INTR

52. What Does Quality Factor Mean?

Answer :

The Quality factor is also defined, as Q. So it is a number, which reflects the lossness
of a circuit. Higher the Q, the lower are the losses.

53. What Is Stack Pointer?

Answer :
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Stack pointer is a special purpose 16-bit register in the Microprocessor, which holds
the address of the top of the stack.

54. What Are Level-triggering Interrupt?

Answer :

RST 6.5 & RST 5.5 are level-triggering interrupts.

55. What Is The Difference Between Primary & Secondary Storage Device?

Answer :

In primary storage device the storage capacity is limited. It has a volatile memory. In
secondary storage device the storage capacity is larger. It is a nonvolatile memory.
Primary devices are: RAM / ROM. Secondary devices are: Floppy disc / Hard disk.

56. Name 5 Different Addressing Modes?

Answer :

o Immediate
o Direct
o Register
o Register indirect
o Implied addressing modes
57. What Is Clock Frequency For 8085?

Answer :

3 MHz is the maximum clock frequency for 8085.

58. What Is The Difference Between 8086 And 8088?

Answer :

The BIU in 8088 is 8-bit data bus & 16- bit in 8086.Instruction queue is 4 byte long in
8088and 6 byte in 8086.

59. Give Example For Non-maskable Interrupts?

Answer :

Trap is known as Non-Maskable interrupts, which is used in emergency condition.

60. What Is Sim And Rim Instructions?


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Answer :

SIM: is Set Interrupt Mask. Used to mask the hardware interrupts.

RIM: is Read Interrupt Mask. Used to check whether the interrupt is Masked or not.

61. What is a Pneumatic Signal?

Pneumatic signals are signals produced by changing the air pressure in a signal pipe in
proportion to the measured change in a process variable.

3-15 psig

What is an Electric (Analog) Signal?

Electric analog signals produced by changing the electrical property in proportion to the
measured change in a process variable.

4-20 ma,1-5 volt,

62. What is meant by Manipulated variable ?

The fuel or energy that is physically altered by the final control element.

What is a Transducer?

A transducer is device that translates a mechanical signal into an electrical signal.

What is a Transmitter?

A transmitter is a device that converts a reading from a sensor or transducer into a


standard signal and transmit that signal to a monitor or controller.

633. What is an actuator ?

An actuator is the part of a final control devices that causes a physical change in the final
control device when signaled to do so.

Eg: Valve,Motor etc..

64. What is a Distributed Control Systems ?

DCSs are controllers that,in addition to performing control functions,provide readings of


the status of the process,maintain databases and man-machine interface.

What is an Indicator?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

An indicator is a human readable device that displays information about the process.

65. What is open loop?

An open loop is more of a manually controlled control loop exists where the process
variable is not compared and action is taken not in response to feedback on the condition
of the process variable but is instead taken without regard to process variable conditions.

Whar are the common process variables used in industrial application ?

Pressure,Flow,Level,Temperature
Density,Ph,Mass,Conductivity.

What is setpoint?

Setpoint is a value for a process variable that is desired to be maintained.

What is error (Control loop) ?

Error is the difference between the measured variable and the setpoint and can be either
positive or negative.

What is controller in a Control loop?

A controller is a device that receives data from a measurement instrument,compares that


data to a programmed setpoint and if necessary signals a control element to take a
corrective action.

What is a PLC (Programmable Logic Controller ) ?

PLCs are usually computers connected to a set of input/output devices. The computers
are programmed to respond to input by sending output to maintain all processes at
setpoint.

What is calibration ?

The process of adjusting an instrument or compiling a deviation chart so that its reading
can be correlated to the actual value being measured.

What is accuracy ?

The closeness of an indication or reading of a measurement device to the actual value of


the quantity being measured.Usually expressed as ± percent of full scale.

What is error ?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

The difference between the value indicated by the transducer and the true value of the
measurand being sensed. Usually expressed in percent of full scale output.

What is repeatability ?

he ability of a transducer to reproduce output readings when the same measurand value
is applied to it consecutively, under the same conditions, and in the same direction.
Repeatability is expressed as the maximum difference between output readings.

What is range?

Those values over which a transducer is intended to measure, specified by its upper and
lower limits.

What is span?

The difference between the upper and lower limits of a range expressed in the same units
as the range.

What is Rangeability?

The ratio of the maximum flow rate to the minimum flow rate of a meter.

01. What is the classification of hazardous area?


Hazardous area classified as Zone - 0, Zone – 1 and Zone – 2.
Zone – 0 an explosive gas-air mixture is present continuously or for long period.

Zone – 1 an explosive gas-air mixture is present under normal operation.

Zone – 2 an explosive gas-air mixture is not present under normal operation and if it
occurs it exist only for short time.

02. What type of protection is used in hazardous area?

Zone – 0 Ex ‘s’ (Specifically certified for used in Zone ‘0’)


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Zone – 1 Any type of protection suitable for Zone ‘0’ and Ex ‘d’, Ex ‘I’,
Ex ‘p’, Ex ‘e’.
Zone – 2 Any type of protection suitable for Zone ‘0’ and Zone ‘1’ and
Ex ‘N’, Ex ‘O’, Ex ‘q’.

Ex ‘d’ - Flame proof or Explosion proof

Ex ‘e’ - Increased safety

Ex ‘N’ or ‘n’ - Non sparking

Ex ‘I’ Intrinsic Safety

Ex ‘p’ - Pressurization

Ex ‘O’ - Oil immersion

Ex ‘q’ - Sand or Powder filled

Ex ‘s’ - Special protection.

03. What is the definition of EExd IIB T5?


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Ex ‘d’ II B T5

Explosion Gas Group Temperature


Proof II B 1000C

04. What are the different type of work permits? What precaution you take

while doing maintenance in equipments in Hazardous area?

Cold Work, Hot Work, Vehicle Entry & Vessel Entry permit. Interinsic Safe meters only
should be used such megger, vibration meter, temperature meter and other ordinary
meters shall not used unless the Hot Work Permit is obtained.

05. Explain IP 54, IP55 and IP65?

IP means degree of protection of the enclosures for electrical equipment in accordance


with the Electrical Standards. The first numeral: - protection against solid bodies and the
second numeral: - protection against liquids.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

IP54: - 5 (indicate) Protected against dust (no harmful deposit) and


4 (indicate) Protected against projections of water from all directions
IP55: - The second 5 (indicate) Protected against jets of water from all directions
and IP65: - The first 6 (indicate) completely protected against dust.

06. Explain different Insulation classes and the corresponding temperature rise allowed?
Y – 0900C, A – 1050C, E – 1200C,
B – 1300C, F – 1550C, H – 1800C,
C – 1800C
07. What are IR, WR, KWH, OLR, MCC, MCB, MCCB, VCB, BOCB and
SF6?

IR – Insulation Resistance

WR - Winding Resistance

KWH - Kilo Watt Hour

OLR - Over Load Relay

MCC - Motor Control Center

MCB - Miniature Circuit Breaker

MCCB - Moulded Case Circuit Breaker

VCB - Vacuum Circuit Breaker


INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

BOCB - Bulk OIL Circuit Breaker

SF6 - Sulfer-Hexa Floride

08. What is the gas group classification?

Methane -I, Propane -IIA, Ethylene -IIB,

Hydrogen, Carbon disulphide and Acetylene -IIC

09. What is AVO meter?


A meter is used to measuring the electrical circuit and the value of current, voltage and
resistance is called AVO meter.
10. What is Bridge Megger? Where it is used?
Bridge Megger is used to measure the lowest value of resistances accurately and it is
used to measure the motor winding resistance and transformer winding resistance during
preventive maintenance. The winding resistance of the three windings should be equal.
11. What is the unit of Voltage, Current, Speed, and Frequency?
Voltage - Volt
Current - Ampere
Speed - Revolutions Per Minute (RPM)
Frequency - Hertz
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

12. What are the different size of the cables?


0.75, 1.5, 2.5, 4, 6, 10, 16, 25, 35, 50, 70, 95, 120, 150, 185, 240, 300, 400,
600(Dimensions are in Square mm)
13. What are the Cables used in Oil Field?
PVC - Ploy Vinyl Chloride
XLPE - Cross Linked Poly Ethylene
LC - Lead covered
SWA - Steel wire armoured
PILC - Paper Insulated Lead Covered Cable

MICC - Mineral Insulated Copper Conductor


14. What is MICC? Where it is used? What mineral used for this cable?
Mineral Insulated Copper Conductor and it is used for fire alarm systems and
Lightings systems at Hazardous area without using conduits and
Magnesium oxide is used as mineral.
15. Why Lead Covered Cables are used in Oil Fields?
Lead Covered Cables are used in Oil Fields due to avoid damages of
PVC insulation by hydro-carbon gases and chemical corrosion.
16. What is the use of cable gland?
Cable glands are used to protect from mechanical damage, to give earth continuity and
for entering in junction box, MCC etc.
17. How to check the cable fault?
Isolate the cable
Megger the cable
Trace the cable fault through cable fault locator and cable route through cable
route locator
If the cable resistance is high use the burnout test kit
Before cutting the cable use spiking gun for safety
18. What type of Cable gland used in Oil Field?
In explosion proof areas double compression glands are used to avoid the gasses
entering in the electrical apparatus.
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

19. What type of Cable joint kits used?


Cold Compound joint kits, Hot Compound joint kits and Heat
Shrinkable joint kits

20. Explain about Batteries, Voltage and Specific gravity of Cell?


Nickel Cadmium Batteries: - It is used in Refineries for its reliability, long life and less
maintenance. No need to deal with H2So4 dangerous.
Lead Acid Batteries: - It is also used but life is limited, maintenance costs are high and
handling H2So4 is too dangerous for its chemical concentration.
Nickel Cadmium Cell - 1.2 Volts, Sp. Gravity is 1200 in all conditions and Lead Acid Cell -
2.1 Volts, Sp. Gravity is in Full charge – 1280, Half charge – 1240 and Discharge - 1180
21. What will effect if you are connecting the batteries in Series and Parallel?
If the Batteries are connected in Series the voltage will be increase and the Batteries are
connected in Parallel the Current will be increase.
22. What is the maintenance procedure of Batteries?
Obtain the work permit
Clean the battery terminals and apply petroleum jelly
Check the voltage per cell
Check the specific gravity of electrolyte with hydrometer
Check the electrolyte level
Check the electrolyte temperature
Check the total cell voltage
Close the work permit.
23. What is constant current charging?
Charging method in which current does not appreciably change against battery demand.
Suitable for applications where a battery needs to be fully recharged in the short time
24. How do you decide the boost charge current rate for given 100Ampere
-hour rating of battery?
C/5 for 7 Hours
C is Ampere Hour of battery
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

i.e. 100AH / 5 = 20 Amps.


So, Keep the battery for 7 hours charging at the charging current 20 Ampere
25. What is UPS? Draw its block diagram.
Uninterrupted Power Supply is very essential for petrochemical / processing industries as
all the controls are governed by the computer which determines the operation under all
condition.
UPS have Converter, Inverter, A V R, Battery Bank, Static switch and Bypass Switch
The converter is feeding supply to the inverter
The battery bank connected in between converter and inverter
The static switch have supply on both end i.e. Converter supply and
A V R supply (Static switch is nothing - the two SCR is connected in opposite direction)

The inverter is always taking the load, the converter fails to feed supply to the inverter,
it will work with the help of battery bank
If the inverter is fails to take the load, the A V R supply will take the load without power
interruption through the static switch
During the maintenance of UPS, changeover the load to standby supply by using
Bypass switch

26. What is constant potential charging?


Charging method where constant voltage is applied and charge current is allowed to
vary against battery demand. Usually the initial current is limited this being classified as
modified constant potential charging

27. Why the battery room is normally considered for Hazardous area
classification?
Because of Hydrogen evolution and it will come under gas group II C
28. How do you check the battery condition?
By conducting Discharge Test
29. What are the parts of motor?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Parts of motor are Stator, Rotor, Winding, Shaft, End shields, Fan, Fan Cover, Terminal
Box, Bearings, Bearing housings, Lifting hook and Pulley key
30. What is the maintenance procedure of motor?
To carry out preventive maintenance of motor, the following procedures should be
adopted: -
Work Permit should be obtained
Tag Number of motor to be checked before power isolation
Starter feeder should be isolated and locked
Control circuit fuse and neutral link should be removed
Caution notice to be fixed on the feeder as well on the control station
31. How can you find a motor is good with using of Multimeter & Megger?
For good motor, the following value should be satisfied: -
Insulation Resistance value should be acceptable by using the Megger between winding
to earth
Winding Resistance value should be equal on three windings by using the Multimeter
33. What is the acceptable insulation value of motors?
Motor Voltage Testing Voltage Accepted IR Value

250 V 500 V
440 V 500V 1.5 Mega ohm
3.3 KV 1000V 4.5 Mega ohm
11 KV 1000 V 12 Mega ohm
34. What are the standard problems faced with motors?
Over load, Short circuit on motor winding, Single phasing, Loose connection of power
cables, Bearing problem and Vibration on a running motor
35. What are the protections provided for motors?
440 Volts Motors: –
Over Load Relay, Single phasing preventer, Stalling Relay, Thermal Over Load Relay
and Earth Fault (Short-circuit) Relay
3300Volts and 11000Volts Motors: –
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Over Current Relay (Instantaneous), Thermal Over Current Relay, Stalling Relay, Earth
Fault Relay, Negative Sequence Relay and Temperature Relay
36. What are the parts of Transformer?
Primary and secondary terminal boxes
Transformer main tank
Primary winding
Secondary winding
Cooling radiator tubes
Conservator tank
Explosion vent and temperature sensor
Buccholz relay
37. What are the protections of Transformer?
Buccholz relay
Over current relay
Earth fault relay
Differential relay
Restricted earth fault relay
Temperature sensor
38. What is the maintenance procedure of Transformer?
Obtain the work permit
Transfer the load to other transformer (if provided) or isolate the load
Switch ‘OFF’ the incoming supply of the transformer
Switch ‘ON’ the Earth Switch on primary and secondary side
Physically clean the transformer
Check the insulation resistance of primary and secondary winding and check the winding
resistance
Check the Terminal tightness
Check the Earth connections of Transformer and measure the earth value
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

Collect the sample of Transformer Oil and carry out B.D.V. test
Controls to be cleaned with contact cleaner
Check the silica gel condition if it is pink color, it must be replaced
Check the HT and LT bushings for cracks
Switch ‘OFF’ the Earth Switch on primary and secondary side
Switch ‘ON’ the incoming supply of the transformer and give load
Close the work permit
39. What are the light fittings used in Gathering Centers & Booster Stations?
Incandescent lamp, Mercury high discharge lamp, Fluorescent lamp and Halogen lamp
fittings are used in Gathering Centers & Booster Stations and it certified by BASEEFA
40. What is stroboscopic effect? How can you eliminate it?
In twin tube light set while glowing the lamp, ring will move one by one inside the
florescent tube this is called stroboscopic effect due to two chokes are connected nearby.
To eliminate this effect connect one capacitor in series with one light circuit
41. What is the use of AVR in Generator?
The automatic voltage regulators are usually provided to maintain the generator voltage
reasonably constant in spite of the fluctuating load i.e. to increase the voltage when the
load is high and reduce the voltage when the load comes down
42. What are reasons to produce low voltage in Generators?
The following possible reasons to produce low voltage in Generators: -
Loss of residual magnetism
Open circuit or loose connection in the exciter circuit also short circuited turns in field
windings
Reversed field windings
Open or short circuit in armature windings
Excessive contact resistance on commutator due to incorrect grade of brushes or
insufficient pressure of dirty commutator
Incorrect position of brush
43. What is use of Clip-on-meter?
INSTRUMENTATION INTERVIEW QUESTION ANSWERS

The Tong Tester is called in other words as clip on meter. In this we can measure the
current flowing in the circuit in each phase for any unbalance if is noticed. Can be used
without breaking the circuit.
44. What are the conditions of synchronous between two Generators?
The following conditions should be satisfied before synchronous generators
The frequency of both should be identical
The voltage of both must be same
The phase rotation in both machine should be same
Identical phase wire R, Y, B should be connected together al the exact instant when
there is zero phase difference between them
For satisfactory parallel operation the characteristics of the two machines should be
similar
45. How can you parallel two Power Transformers?
The following conditions to be checked for parallel operation of 2 transformers
Primary and Secondary Voltage must be same as check tap changer position
Frequency must be same
Phase sequence must be same
Impedance of both transformers must be same
Vector group of both transformers should be same

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