CHAPTER NO.

1. Plate tectonics is a result of Earth’s internal heat engine, powered by (choose all that apply)

a. the Sun. b. gravity. c. heat flowing from Earth’s interior outward.

2. A typical rate of plate motion is

a. 3–4 meters per year b. 1 kilometer per year

c. 1–10 centimeters per year d. 1,000 kilometers per year

3. Volcanic island arcs are associated with

a. transform boundaries b. divergent boundaries

c. ocean-continent convergence d. ocean-ocean convergence

4. The division of geology concerned with Earth materials, changes in the surface and interior of the
Earth, and the dynamic forces that cause those changes is

a. physical geology b. historical geology

c. geophysics d. paleontology

5. Which is a geologic hazard?

a. earthquake b. volcano c. mudflows d. floods e. wave erosion at coastlines

f. landslides g. all of the preceding

6. The largest zone of Earth’s interior by volume is the

a. crust b. mantle c. outer core d. inner core

7. Oceanic and continental crust differ in

a. composition b. density c. thickness d. all of the preceding

8. The forces generated inside Earth that cause deformation of rock as well as vertical and horizontal
movement of portions of Earth’s crust are called

a. erosional forces b. gravitational forces c. tectonic forces d. all of the preceding

9. Plate tectonics is a

a. conjecture b. opinion c. hypothesis d. theory

10. Which is a type of a plate boundary?

a. divergent b. transform c. convergent d. all of the preceding

11. The lithosphere is

a. the same as the crust b. the layer beneath the crust

c. the crust and uppermost mantle d. only part of the mantle

12. Erosion is a result of Earth’s external heat engine, powered by (choose all that apply)

a. the Sun b. gravity c. heat flowing from Earth’s interior outward

CHAPTER NO.2

13. Felsic and mafic are terms used by some geologists to describe

a. composition of continental and oceanic crust. b. behavior of earthquake waves.

c. regions in the mantle.

14. The boundary that separates the crust from the mantle is called the

a. lithosphere b. asthenosphere c. Mohorovicic discontinuity d. none of the preceding

15. The core is probably composed mainly of

a. silicon b. sulfur c. oxygen d. iron

16. The principle of continents being in a buoyant equilibrium is called

a. subsidence b. isostasy c. convection d. rebound

17. A positive gravity anomaly indicates that

a. tectonic forces are holding a region up out of isostatic equilibrium

b. the land is sinking c. local mass deficiencies exist in the crust d. all of the preceding

18. A positive magnetic anomaly could indicate

a. a body of magnetic ore b. the magnetic field strength is higher than the regional average

c. an intrusion of gabbro d. the presence of a granitic basement high

e. all of the preceding

19. Which of the following is not an example of the effects of isostasy?

a. deep mountain roots b. magnetic reversals

c. the postglacial rise of northeastern North America d. mountain ranges at subduction zones

20. The S-wave shadow zone is evidence that

a. the core is made of iron and nickel b. the inner core is solid

c. the outer core is fluid d. the mantle behaves as ductile material

CHAPTER NO. 3

21. Most ocean water probably came from

a. degassing of Earth’s interior b. outer space

22. Which is true of the continental shelf?

a. it is a shallow submarine platform at the edge of a continent

b. it inclines very gently seaward c. it can vary in width d. all of the preceding

23. The average angle of slope for a continental slope is

a. 1°–2° b. 3°–4° c. 4°–5° d. greater than 10°

24. Great masses of sediment-laden water that are pulled downhill by gravity are called

a. contour currents b. bottom currents c. turbidity currents d. traction currents

25. Oceanic trenches

a. are narrow, deep troughs b. run parallel to the edge of a continent or an island arc

c. are often 8 to 10 kilometers deep d. all of the preceding

26. Which is characteristic of mid-oceanic ridges?

a. shallow-focus earthquakes b. high heat flow c. basalt eruptions d. all of these

27. Reefs parallel to the shore but separated from it by wide, deep lagoons are called

a. fringing reefs b. barrier reefs c. atolls d. lagoonal reefs

28. Pelagic sediment could be composed of

a. fine-grained clay b. skeletons of microscopic organisms

c. volcanic ash d. all of the preceding

29. What part of the continental margin marks the true edge of the continent?

a. continental shelf b. continental slope c. continental rise d. abyssal plain

30. Distinctive rock sequences of basalt and marine sedimentary rock that may be slices of the ocean
floor are

a. guyots b. ophiolites c. seamounts d. fracture zones

CHAPTER NO.4

31. The southern supercontinent is called

a. Gondwanaland b. Pangaea c. Laurasia d. Glossopteris

32. The sliding of the sea floor beneath a continent or island arc is called

a. rotation b. tension c. subduction d. polar wandering

33. In cross section, the plates are part of a rigid outer shell of the Earth called the

a. lithosphere b. asthenosphere c. crust d. mantle

34. The Vine-Matthews hypothesis explains the origin of

a. polar wandering b. seafloor magnetic anomalies

c. continental drift d. mid-oceanic ridges

35. The San Andreas fault in California is a

a. normal fault b. reverse fault c. transform fault d. thrust fault

36. What would you most expect to find at ocean-ocean convergence?

a. suture zone b. island arc c. midocean ridge

37. What would you most expect to find at ocean-continent convergence?

a. magmatic arc b. suture zone c. island arc d. midocean ridge

38. What would you most expect to find at continent-continent convergence?

a. magmatic arc b. suture zone c. island arc d. midocean ridge

39. Passive continental margins are created at

a. divergent plate boundaries b. transform faults c. convergent plate boundaries

40. The Hawaiian Islands are thought to be the result of

a. subduction b. midocean ridge volcanic

c. mantle plumes d. ocean-ocean convergence

41. Metallic ores are created at diverging plate boundaries

a. through hydrothermal processes b. in lava flows

c. in sedimentary deposits d. through metamorphism

CHAPTER NO. 5

42. The mountain belt that forms the western part of North America is called the

a. Appalachians b. North American Cordillera c. Himalaya d. Andes

43. The North American craton

a. covers the central part of the United States and Canada

b. h as only 1,000–2,000 meters of sedimentary rock overlying basement rock

c. h as rock beneath any sedimentary rock that is old plutonic and metamorphic rock

d. all of the preceding

44. The Precambrian shield

a. contains geologically young rocks b. occurs only in mountainous regions

c. i s a complex of Precambrian metamorphic and plutonic rocks exposed over a large area

d. all of the preceding

45. Folds and reverse faults in a mountain belt suggest

a. crustal shortening b. tensional stress

c. deep-water deposition of the sediment d. all of the preceding

46. The likely reason that the Himalaya is much higher than the adjoining Tibetan Plateau is:

a. Heavy precipitation results in rapid erosion in the Himalaya.

b. T he crust of the Himalaya is less dense than that of the Tibetan Plateau.

c. T he Tibetan Plateau is being subducted.

d. T he mantle beneath the Himalaya is hotter than that beneath the Tibetan Plateau.

47. To explain fold and thrust belts, simultaneous normal faulting, and how once deep-seated
metamorphic rocks rise to an upper level in a mountain belt, geologists use a model called

a. tectonism b. gravitational collapse and spreading c. orogeny d. faulting

48. The Wilson Cycle describes

a. the cycle of uplift and erosion of mountains b. the movement of asthenosphere

c. the block-faulting that occurs at mountains

d. t he cycle of splitting of a supercontinent, opening of an ocean basin, followed by closing of the

basin and collision of continents

49. The detachment of part of the mantle portion of the lithosphere beneath a mountain belt is called

a. gravitational collapse b. rifting c. lithospheric delamination d. none of these

50. Which is not a type of terrane?

a. accumulated b. exotic c. suspect d. accreted

51. Which is a source for terranes?

a. microcontinents b. fragments of distant continents

c. island arcs d. all of the preceding

52. Which of the following is not characteristic of a mountain belt that formed through ocean-continent
convergence?

a. fold and thrust belts b. thick accumulations of marine sediment

c. prevalence of normal faults over reverse faults d. metamorphism

53. The present elevation of the Appalachian Mountains is due mainly to

a. post-orogenic uplift b. breakup of Pangaea

c. an orogeny during d. the Wilson cycle early Paleozoic time

CHAPTER NO. 6

54. Which of the statements is true?

a. when forces are applied to an object, the object is under stress

b. s train is the change in shape or size (volume), or both, while an object is undergoing stress

c. stresses can be compressive, tensional, or shear d. all of the preceding

55. The compass direction of a line formed by the intersection of an inclined plane with a horizontal
plane is called

a. strike b. direction of dip c. angle of dip d. axis

56. Folds in a rock show that the rock behaved in a _____ way.

a. ductile b. elastic c. brittle d. all of the preceding

57. An anticline is

a. a fold shaped like an arch with the youngest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

b. a trough-shaped fold with the oldest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

c. a fold shaped like an arch with the oldest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

d. a trough-shaped fold with the youngest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

58. A syncline is

a. a fold shaped like an arch with the youngest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

b. a trough-shaped fold with the oldest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

c. a fold shaped like an arch with the oldest rocks exposed in the center of the fold

d. a trough-shaped fold with the youngest rocks exposed in the center of the fold
 59. A structure in which the beds dip away from a central point and the oldest rocks are exposed in the
center is called a

a. basin b. anticline c. structural dome d. syncline

60. Which is not a type of fold?

a. open b. isoclinal c. overturned d. recumbent e. thrust

61. Fractures in bedrock along which movement has taken place are called

a. joints b. faults c. cracks d. folds

62. In a normal fault, the hanging-wall block has moved _____ relative to the footwall block.

a. upward b. downward c. sideways

63. Normal faults occur where

a. there is horizontal shortening b. there is horizontal extension

c. the hanging wall moves up d. where the footwall moves down

64. Faults that typically move older rock on top of younger rock are

a. normal faults b. thrust faults c. strike-slip faults

CHAPTER NO. 7

65. The elastic rebound theory

a. explains folding of rocks b. explains the behavior of seismic waves

c. i nvolves the sudden release of progressively stored strain in rocks, causing movement along a fault

d. none of the preceding

66. The point within Earth where seismic waves originate is called the

a. focus b. epicente r c. fault scarp d. fold

67. P waves are

a. compressional b. transverse c. tensional

68. What is the minimum number of seismic stations needed to determine the location of the epicenter
of an earthquake?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 e. 10

69. The Richter scale measures

a. intensity b. magnitude c. damage and destruction caused by the earthquake

d. the number of people killed by the earthquake

70. Benioff zones are found near

a. midocean ridges b. ancient mountain chains

c. interiors of continents d. oceanic trenches

71. Most earthquakes at divergent plate boundaries are

a. shallow focus b. intermediate focus c. deep focus d. all of these

72. Most earthquakes at convergent plate boundaries are

a. shallow focus b. intermediate focus c. deep focus d. all of these

73. A zone of shallow earthquakes along normal faults is typical of

a. divergent boundaries b. transform boundaries

c. subduction zones d. collisional boundaries

74. A seismic gap is

a. the time between large earthquakes

b. a segment of an active fault where earthquakes have not occurred for a long time

c. the center of a plate where earthquakes rarely happen

75. Which of the following is not true of tsunami?

a. very long wavelength b. high wave height in deep water

c. very fast moving d. continued flooding after wave crest hits shore
 CHAPTER NO. 8

76. “Geological processes operating at present are the same processes that have operated in the past” is
the principle of

a. correlation b. catastrophism c. uniformitarianism d. none of these

77. “Within a sequence of undisturbed sedimentary rocks, the layers get younger going from bottom to
top” is the principle of

a. original horizontality b. superposition c. crosscutting d. none of these

78. If rock A cuts across rock B, then rock A is ____ rock B.

a. younger than b. the same age as c. older than

79. Which is a method of correlation?

a. physical continuity b. similarity of rock types c. fossils d. all of these

80. Eras are subdivided into

a. periods b. eons c. ages d. epochs

81. Periods are subdivided into

a. eras b. epochs c. ages d. time zones

82. Which division of geologic time was the longest?

a. Precambrian b. Paleozoic c. Mesozoic d. Cenozoic

83. Which is a useful radioactive decay scheme?

a. 238U 206Pb b. 235U 207Pb c. 40K 40Ar d. 87Rb 87Sr e. all of these

84. C-14 dating can be used on all of the following except

a. wood b. shell c. the Dead Sea Scrolls d. granite e. bone

85. Concentrations of radon are highest in areas where the bedrock is

a. granite b. gneiss c. limestone d. black shale

e. phosphate-rich rock f. all of the preceding

86. Which is not a type of unconformity?

a. disconformity b. angular unconformity c. nonconformity d. triconformity

87. A geologist could use the principle of inclusion to determine the relative age of

a. fossils b. metamorphism c. shale layers d. xenoliths

88. The oldest abundant fossils of complex multicellular life with shells and other hard parts date from
the

a. Precambrian b. Paleozoic c. Mesozoic d. Cenozoic

89. A contact between parallel sedimentary rock that records missing geologic time is

a. a disconformity b. an angular unconformity

c. a nonconformity d. a sedimentary contact

CHAPTER NO. 9

90. A substance that cannot be broken down into other substances by ordinary chemical methods is a(n)

a. crystal b. element c. molecule d. compound

91. The subatomic particle that contributes mass and a single positive electrical charge is the

a. proton b. neutron c. electron

92. Atoms containing different numbers of neutrons but the same number of protons are called

a. compounds b. ions c. elements d. isotopes

93. Atoms with either a positive or negative charge are called

a. compounds b. ions c. elements d. isotopes

94. The bonding between Cl and Na in halite is

a. ionic b. covalent c. metallic d. male

95. Which is not true of a single silicon-oxygen tetrahedron?

a. The atoms of the tetrahedron are strongly bonded together. b. It has a net negative charge.

c. The formula is SiO4. d. It has four silicon atoms.

96. Which is not a type of silicate structure?

a. isolated b. single chain c. double chain

d. sheet e. framework f. pentagonal

97. Which of the common minerals is not a silicate?

a. quartz b. calcite c. pyroxene d. feldspar e. biotite

98. On Mohs’ hardness scale, ordinary window glass has a hardness of about

a. 2–3 b. 3–4 c. 5–6 d. 7–8

99. The ability of a mineral to break along preferred directions is called

a. fracture b. crystal form c. hardness d. cleavage

100. Striations are associated with

a. quartz b. mica c. potassium feldspar d. plagioclase

101. Glass is

a. atoms randomly arranged b. crystalline

c. ionically bonded d. covalently bonded

102. Crystalline substances are always

a. ionically bonded b. minerals

c. made of repeating patterns of atoms d. made of glass

CHAPTER NO. 10

103. Mount St. Helens

a. last erupted violently in 1980 b. is part of the Cascade Range

c. had a revival of dome growing in 2004 d. all of the preceding

104. Volcanic eruptions can affect the climate because

a. they heat the atmosphere b. they change the elevation of the land

c. v olcanic dust and gas can reduce the amount of solar radiation that penetrates the atmosphere

d. all of the preceding

105. Whether volcanic eruptions are very explosive or relatively quiet is largely determined by

a. the amount of gas in the lava or magma b. the viscosity of a lava

c. t he ease or difficulty with which the gas escapes to the atmosphere d. all of these

106. Temperatures at which lavas solidify range from about ____°C for silicic rocks to ____°C for mafic
rocks.

a. 100, 200 b. 300, 1,000 c. 700, 1,200 d. 1,000, 2,000

107. One gas typically not released during a volcanic eruption is

a. water vapor b. carbon dioxide c. sulfur dioxide

d. hydrogen sulfide e. oxygen

108. Mafic rocks contain about ____% silica.

a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 65 e. 80

109. Silicic rocks contain about ____% silica.

a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 70 e. 80

110. Which is not an extrusive igneous rock?

a. granite b. rhyolite c. basalt d. andesite

111. Which is not a major type of volcano?

a. shield b. cinder cone c. composite d. stratovolcano e. spatter cone

112. A typical example of a shield volcano is

a. Mount St. Helens b. Kilauea in Hawaii c. El Chichón d. Mount Vesuvius

113. An example of a composite volcano is

a. Mount Rainier b. Fujiyama c. Mount Vesuvius d. all of these

114. Which volcano is not usually made of basalt?

a. shield b. composite cone c. spatter cone d. cinder cone

115. An igneous rock made of pyroclasts has a texture called

a. fragmental b. vesicular c. porphyritic d. fine-grained

 CHAPTER NO.11

115. A surface separating different rock types is called a

a. xenoliths b. contact c. chill zone d. none of these

116. The major difference between intrusive igneous rocks and extrusive igneous rocks is

a. where they solidify b. chemical composition

c. type of minerals d. all of the preceding

117. Which is not an intrusive igneous rock?

a. gabbro b. diorite c. granite d. andesite

118. By definition, stocks differ from batholiths in

a. size b. shape c. chemical composition d. all of the preceding

119. Which is not a source of heat for melting rock?

a. geothermal gradient b. the hotter mantle

c. mantle plumes d. water under pressure

120. The geothermal gradient is, on the average, about

a. 1°C/km b. 10°C/km c. 30°C/km d. 50°C/km

121. The continuous branch of Bowen’s reaction series contains the mineral

a. pyroxene b. plagioclase c. amphibole d. biotite

122. The discontinuous branch of Bowen’s reaction series contains the mineral

a. pyroxene b. amphibole c. biotite d. all of these

123. The most common igneous rock of the continents is

a. basalt b. granite c. rhyolite d. ultramafic

124. Granitic magmas are associated with

a. convergent boundaries and magmatic underplating b. divergent boundaries and differentiation

c. convergent boundaries and decompression melting d. divergent boundaries and water release
125. The difference in texture between intrusive and extrusive rocks is primarily due to

a. different mineralogy b. different rates of cooling and crystallization

c. different amounts of water in the magma

126. Mafic magma is generated at divergent boundaries because of

a. water under pressure b. decompression melting

c. magmatic underplating d. melting of the lithosphere

127. A change in magma composition due to melting of surrounding country rock is called

a. magma mixing b. assimilation c. crystal setting d. partial melting

CHAPTER NO. 12

128. Physical disintegration of rock into smaller pieces is called

a. chemical weathering b. transportation

c. deposition d. mechanical weathering

129. The decomposition of rock from exposure to water and atmospheric gases is called

a. chemical weathering b. transportation

c. deposition d. mechanical weathering

130. Which is not a type of mechanical weathering?

a. frost wedging b. frost heaving

c. pressure release d. oxidation

131. The single most effective agent of chemical weathering at Earth’s surface is

a. carbonic acid H2CO3 b. water H2O

c. carbon dioxide CO2 d. hydrochloric acid HCl

132. The most common end product of the chemical weathering of feldspar is

a. clay minerals b. pyroxene c. amphibole d. calcite

133. The most common end product of the chemical weathering of quartz is

a. clay minerals b. pyroxene c. amphibole

d. calcite e. quartz does not usually weather chemically

134. Soil with approximately equal amounts of sand, silt, and clay along with a generous amount of
organic matter is called

a. loam b. inorganic c. humus d. caliche

135. Which is characteristic of soil horizons?

a. they can be distinguished from one another by appearance and chemical composition

b. boundaries between soil horizons are usually transitional rather than sharp

c. they are classified by letters d. all of the preceding

136. The soil horizon containing only organic material is the

a. A horizon b. B horizon c. C horizon d. O horizon e. E horizon

137. Hardpan forms in the

a. A horizon b. B horizon c. C horizon d. E horizon

CHAPTER NO. 13

138. What is the slowest type of mass wasting process?

a. debris flow b. rockslide c. creep d. rockfall e. avalanche

139. The largest landslides has taken place

a. on the sea floor b. in the Andes c. on active volcanoes d. in the Himalaya

140. A descending mass moving downslope as a viscous fluid is referred to as a

a. fall b. landslide c. flow d. slide

141. The driving force behind all mass wasting processes is

a. gravity b. slope angle c. type of bedrock material

d. presence of water e. vegetation

142. The resistance to movement or deformation of soil is its

a. mass b. shear strength c. shear force d. density

143. Flow of water-saturated soil over impermeable material is called

a. solifluction b. flow c. slide d. fall

144. A flowing mixture of soil and water, usually moving down a channel is called a

a. mudflow b. slide c. fall d. earthflow

145. An apron of fallen rock fragments that accumulates at the base of a cliff is called

a. bedrock b. sediment c. soil d. talus

146. How does construction destabilize a slope?

a. adds weight to the top of the slope b. decreases water content of the slope

c. adds weight to the bottom of the slope d. increases the shear strength of the slope

147. How can landslides be prevented during construction? (choose all that apply)

a. retaining walls b. cut steeper slopes

c. install water drainage systems d. add vegetation

CHAPTER NO. 14

148. Particles of sediment from 1/16 to 2 millimeters in diameter are of what size?

a. gravel b. sand c. silt d. clay

149. Rounding is

a. the rounding of a grain to a spherical shape

b. the grinding away of sharp edges and corners of rock fragments during transportation

c. a type of mineral d. none of the preceding

150. Compaction and cementation are two common processes of

a. erosion b. transportation c. deposition d. lithification

151. Which is not a chemical or organic sedimentary rock?

a. rock salt b. shale c. limestone d. gypsum

152. The major difference between breccia and conglomerate is

a. size of grains b. rounding of the grains

c. composition of grains d. all of the preceding

153. Which is not a type of sandstone?

a. quartz sandstone b. arkose c. graywacke d. coal

154. Shale differs from mudstone in that

a. shale has larger grains

b. s hale is visibly layered and fissile; mudstone is massive and blocky

c. shale has smaller grains d. there is no difference between shale and mudstone

155. The chemical element found in dolomite not found in limestone is

a. Ca b. Mg c. C d. O e. Al

156. In a graded bed, the particle size

a. decreases upward b. decreases downward

c. increases in the direction of the current d. stays the same

157. A body or rock of considerable thickness with characteristics that distinguish it from adjacent rock
units is called a/an

a. formation b. contact c. bedding plane d. outcrop

158. If sea level drops or the land rises, what is likely to occur?

a. a flood b. a regression

c. a transgression d. no geologic change will take place

159. Thick accumulations of graywacke and volcanic sediments can indicate an ancient

a. divergent plate boundary b. convergent boundary c. transform boundary

160. A sedimentary rock made of fragments of preexisting rocks is

a. organic b. chemical c. clastic

161. Clues to the nature of the source area of sediment can be found in

a. the composition of the sediment b. sedimentary structures

c. rounding of sediment d. all of the preceding

CHAPTER NO. 15

162. Which is not regarded as a low-grade metamorphic rock?

a. greenschist b. phyllite c. slate d. gneiss

163. Shearing is a type of

a. compressive stress b. confining pressure

c. lithostatic pressure d. differential stress

164. Metamorphic rocks with a planar texture (the constituents of the rock are parallel to one another)
are said to be

a. concordant b. foliated c. discordant d. nonfoliated

165. Metamorphic rocks are classified primarily on

a. texture—the presence or absence of foliation b. environment of deposition

c. mineralogy—the presence or absence of quartz d. chemical composition

166. Which is not a foliated metamorphic rock?

a. gneiss b. schist c. quartzite d. slate

167. Limestone recrystallizes during metamorphism into

a. hornfels b. marble c. quartzite d. schist

168. Quartz sandstone is changed during metamorphism into

a. hornfels b. marble c. quartzite d. schist

169. The correct sequence of rocks that are formed when shale undergoes prograde metamorphism is

a. slate, gneiss, schist, phyllite b. phyllite, slate, schist, gneiss

c. slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss d. schist, phyllite, slate, gneiss

170. The major difference between metamorphism and metasomatism is

a. temperature at which each takes place b. the minerals involved

c. the area or region involved

d. m etasomatism is metamorphism coupled with the introduction of ions from an external source

171. Ore bodies at divergent plate boundaries can be created through

a. contact metamorphism b. regional metamorphism c. hydrothermal processes

172. A schist that developed in a high-pressure, low-temperature environment likely formed

a. in the lower part of the continental crust b. in a subduction zone

c. in a mid-oceanic ridge d. near a contact with a magma body

173. A metamorphic rock that has undergone partial melting to produce a mixed igneous-metamorphic
rock is a

a. gneiss b. hornfels c. schist d. migmatite

CHAPTER NO. 16

174. The total area drained by a stream and its tributaries is called the

a. hydrologic cycle b. tributary area c. divide d. drainage basin

175. Stream erosion and deposition are controlled primarily by a river’s

a. velocity b. discharge c. gradient

d. channel shape e. channel roughness

176. What is the gradient of a stream that drops 10 vertical feet over a 2-mile horizontal distance?

a. 20 feet per mile b. 10 feet per mile c. 5 feet per mile d. 2 feet per mile

177. What are typical units of discharge?

a. miles per hour b. cubic meters

c. cubic feet per second d. meters per second

178. Hydraulic action, solution, and abrasion are all examples of stream

a. erosion b. transportation c. deposition

179. Cobbles are more likely to be transported in a stream’s

a. bed load b. suspended load c. dissolved load d. all of these

180. A river’s velocity is _____ on the outside of a meander curve compared to the inside

a. higher b. equal c. lower

181. Sandbars deposited on the inside of meander curves are called

a. dunes b. point bars c. cutbanks d. none of the preceding

182. Which is not a drainage pattern?

a. dendritic b. radial c. rectangular d. trellis e. none of these

183. The broad strip of land built up by sedimentation on either side of a stream channel is

a. a flood plain b. a delta c. an alluvial fan d. a meander

184. The average time between floods of a given size is

a. the discharge b. the gradient c. the recurrence interval d. the magnitude

185. A platform of sediment formed where a stream flows into standing water is

a. an alluvial fan b. a delta c. a meander d. a flood plain

CHAPTER NO. 17

186. Porosity is

a. the percentage of a rock’s volume that is openings b. the capacity of a rock to transmit a fluid

c. the ability of a sediment to retard water d. none of the preceding

187. Permeability is

a. the percentage of a rock’s volume that is openings b. the capacity of a rock to transmit a fluid

c. the ability of a sediment to retard water d. none of the preceding

188. The subsurface zone in which all rock openings are filled with water is called the

a. saturated zone b. water table c. unsaturated zone d. aquiclude

189. An aquifer is

a. a body of saturated rock or sediment through which water can move easily

b. a body of rock that retards the flow of ground water

c. a body of rock that is impermeable

190. Which rock type would make the best aquifer?

a. shale b. mudstone c. sandstone d. all of the preceding

191. Which of the following determines how quickly ground water flows?

a. elevation b. water pressure c. permeability d. all of the preceding

192. Ground water flows

a. always downhill b. from areas of high hydraulic head to low hydraulic head

c. from high elevation to low elevation d. from high permeability to low permeability

193. The drop in the water table around a pumped well is the

a. drawdown b. hydraulic head c. porosity d. fluid potential

CHAPTER NO. 18

194. The defining characteristic of a desert is

a. shifting sand dunes b. high temperatures

c. low rainfall d. all of the preceding e. none of the preceding

195. Which is characteristic of deserts?

a. internal drainage b. limited rainfall c. flash floods

d. slow chemical weathering e. all of the preceding

196. The major difference between a mesa and a butte is one of

a. shape b. elevation c. rock type d. size

197. The Basin and Range province covers almost all of

a. Utah b. Nevada c. Texas d. Colorado

198. A very flat surface underlain by a dry lake bed of hard, mud-cracked clay is called a

a. ventifact b. plateau c. playa d. none of the preceding

199. Rocks with flat, wind-abraded surfaces are called

a. ventifacts b. pediments c. bajadas d. none of the preceding

200. The removal of clay, silt, and sand particles from the land surface by wind is called

a. deflation b. depletion c. deposition d. abrasion

201. Which is not a type of dune?

a. barchans b. transverse c. parabolic

d. longitudinal e. all of the preceding are dunes

202. Much of the southwestern United States is desert because (choose as many as apply)

a. it is near 30° North b. the western mountains create a rain shadow

c. c old ocean currents in the Pacific cause high evaporation rates in the land

d. it is a great distance from the ocean

203. A broad ramp of sediment formed at the base of mountains when alluvial fans merge is

a. a playa b. a bajada c. a pediment d. an arroyo

204. A surface layer of closely packed pebbles is called

a. desert varnish b. deflation c. a blowout d. desert pavement

CHAPTER NO. 19

205. Alpine glaciations

a. is found in mountainous regions b. is a type of glacier

c. exists where a large part of a continent is covered by glacial ice d. none of the preceding

206. Continental glaciation

a. is found in mountainous regions b. is a glacier found in the subtropics of continents

c. exists where a large part of a continent is covered by glacial ice d. none of these
207. At present, about _____% of the land surface of the Earth is covered by glaciers.

a. 1/2 b. 1 c. 2 d. 10 e. 33 f. 50

208. Which is not a type of glacier?

a. valley glacier b. ice sheet c. ice cap d. sea ice

209. The boundary between the zone of accumulation and the zone of ablation of a glacier is called the

a. firn b. equilibrium line c. ablation zone d. moraine

210. In a receding glacier

a. ice flows from lower elevations to higher elevations b. the terminus moves upvalley

c. the equilibrium line moves to a lower elevation d. all of the preceding

211. Recently, geologists have been drilling through ice sheets for clues about

a. ancient mammals b. astronomical events c. extinctions d. past climates

212. Glacially carved valleys are usually _____ shaped.

a. V b. U c. Y d. all of the preceding

213. Which is not a type of moraine?

a. media b. end c. terminal

d. recessional e. ground f. esker

214. The last episode of extensive glaciation in North America was at its peak about _____ years ago.

a. 2,000 b. 5,000 c. 10,000 d. 18,000

215. How fast does the central part of a valley glacier move compared to the sides of the glacier?

a. faster b. slower c. at the same rate

216. During the Ice Ages, much of Nevada, Utah, and eastern California was covered by

a. ice b. huge lakes c. deserts d. the sea

 CHAPTER NO. 20

217. The path a water particle makes as a wave passes in deep water is best described as

a. elliptical b. orbital c. spherical d. linear

218. The easiest method of escaping a rip current is to

a. swim toward shore b. swim parallel to the shore c. swim away from the shore

219. Why is beach sediment typically quartz-rich sand?

a. other minerals are not deposited on beaches b. quartz is the only mineral that can be sand-sized

c. quartz is resistant to chemical weathering d. none of the preceding

220. Longshore drift is

a. t he movement of sediment parallel to shore when waves strike the shoreline at an angle

b. a type of rip current c. a type of tide d. the movement of waves

221. Which structure would interfere with longshore drift?

a. jetties b. groins c. breakwaters d. all of the preceding

222. What is the most common source of sand on beaches?

a. sand from river sediment brought down to the ocean b. land next to the beach

c. offshore sediments

223. Which would characterize an erosional coast?

a. headlands b. sea cliffs c. stacks d. arches e. all of these

224. Which would characterize a depositional coast?

a. headlands b. sea cliffs c. stacks d. arches e. barrier islands

225. A glacial valley drowned by rising sea level is

a. a fiord b. an estuary c. a tombolo d. a headland

226. The surf zone is

a. the area in which waves break b. water less than one-half wavelength in depth

c. where the longshore current flows d. all of the preceding

227. The storm surge of a hurricane is

a. the highest winds b. the dome of high water in the center of the hurricane

c. the tallest waves d. the area of high pressure within the storm

CHAPTER NO. 21

228. Which is not a type of coal?

a. natural gas b. lignite c. bituminous d. anthracite

229. Which metal would most likely be found in an ore deposit formed by crystal settling?

a. copper b. gold c. silver d. chromium

230. Which metal would not be found in hydrothermal veins?

a. aluminum b. lead c. zinc d. silver e. gold

231. Coal forms

a. by crystal settling b. through hydrothermal processes

c. by compaction of plant material d. on the ocean floor

232. The main use of lead is in

a. coins b. gasoline c. batteries d. pencils

233. What factors can increase reserves of Earth resources (choose all that apply)?

a. extraction of the resource b. new discoveries

c. price controls d. new mining technology

234. The largest use of sand and gravel is

a. glassmaking b. extraction of quartz c. construction d. ceramics

235. Oil accumulates when the following conditions are met (choose all that apply)

a. source rock where oil forms b. permeable reservoir rock

c. impermeable oil trap d. shallow burial

CHAPTER NO. 22

236. Which of the following is evidence that Jupiter’s composition is rich in hydrogen?

a. its large mass b. its large density

c. its low density d. its distance from the Sun

237. Why do Mercury and the Moon lack an atmosphere?

a. They formed after all the gas had been used up.

b. T hey are so cold that all their gases have frozen into deposits below their surface.

c. They formed before the solar nebula had captured any gas.

d. T hey are so small that their gravity is too weak to retain an atmosphere.

238. Why would it be difficult to land a spacecraft on Jupiter?

a. Jupiter has no solid surface. b. Jupiter’s immense gravity would squash it.

c. Jupiter’s intense magnetic field would destroy it.

d. The clouds are so thick it would be hard to navigate to a safe spot.

239. Scientists think that water may once have flowed on Mars. The evidence for this is

a. fossil fish found in several craters

b. channels that resemble dried-up riverbeds c. frozen lakes along the Martian equator

d. p hotographs made in the late 1800s that show blue spots that were probably lakes

240. The core of a comet is composed of

a. molten iron b. frozen gases c. liquid hydrogen d. uranium

241. Why are most asteroids not spherical?

a. Their gravity is too weak to pull them into a sphere and they have been fragmented by impacts.

b. The Sun’s gravity distorts them.

c. Strong magnetic fields in their molten core makes them lumpy.

d. The statement is false. Nearly all asteroids are spherical.

242. What causes meteor showers such as occur near August 12?

a. the breakup of an asteroid in our upper atmosphere

b. bursts of particles ejected from the Sun

c. a comet being captured into orbit around the Earth

d. the Earth passing through the trail of debris left by a comet