MIS Chap 1: Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Which of the following is not a basic function to be performed by a manager?

a. Planning
b. Organising
c. Controlling
d. Producing

2. Management is_
a. Manage Men Technically
b. Manage Men Timely
c. Manage Men Tactfully
d. Manage Men Theoretically

3. Data is a plural of_

a. Datong
b. Datum
c. Date
d. None of the above

4. Information is_
a. A processed data
b. A raw data
c. A data itself
d. Not a data

5. Data is_
a. Collection of Dates
b. Collection of Facts and Figures
c. Collection of Files
d. Collection of Raw material

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of Information?

a. Timeliness
b. Simple and précised
c. Non-redundant
d. All of the above
7. Which of the following is a category of information?
a. Internal Information
b. External Information
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None (a) or (b)

8. SLEPT stands for_

a. System, Language, Enterprise, Production & Time management
b. Sociological, Legal, Economical, Political & Technological
c. Spanish, Latin, English, Persian & Thai
d. Segmentation, Loading, Entrepreneurial, Positioning & Targeting
9. Which of the following is not amongst the 5Ms?
a. Machine
b. Money
c. Material
d. Mobile

10. Which of the following statement is true?

a. System is a combination of Process, Procedure and Techniques
b. System is a computer only
c. Without a computerised system, an organisation can’t run
d. Organisation doesn’t need a system at all.

11. Which of the following is correct in the context of system?

a. Output >> Process >> Input
b. Input >> Process >> Output
c. Output >> Input >> Process
d. Process >> Input >> Output

12. Which of the following is not a component of a system?

a. Protection System
b. Command Interpreter System
c. Networking
d. None of the above

13. Top level Management deals with_

a. Structured decision
b. Semi-structured decision
c. Unstructured decision
d. All of the above
14. Middle level management need information for_
a. Strategic Planning
b. Technical Planning
c. Operational Planning
d. None of the above

15. Which of the following is the purpose of Information System?

a. Collection
b. Sorting
c. Synthesizing
d. All of the above

16. Which of the following is not one of the basic components of Information System?
a. Hardware
b. Network
c. Database
d. Technique

17. Kelly describes System in MIS definition as_

a. A combination of AI and computer based resources
b. A combination of human and computer based resources
c. A combination of AI and database resources
d. A combination of two or more computers

18. According to Henry C. Lucas, MIS_

a. Supports top level management
b. Supports management progress
c. Supports decision making
d. Supports profit maximization

19. According to Laudon & Laudon, Evolution of MIS in proper sequence is_
a. Mainframe/ minicomputer>> Personal computers>> Client-server>>
Enterprise>> Cloud computing
b. Cloud computing>> Enterprise>> Client-server>> Personal computers>>
Mainframe/ minicomputer
c. Mainframe/ minicomputer>> Enterprise>> Personal computers>> Cloud
computing>> Client-server
d. Enterprise>> Mainframe/ minicomputer>> Personal computers>> Cloud
computing>> Client-server
20. Which of the following is not a need of MIS?
a. Helps to evolve strategies to gain competitive advantage
b. Supports Decision Making of Management
c. Increases efficiency of management process
d. Helps management in earning more money

21. Which of the following statement is true?

a. MIS stops the Decision Making Process
b. MIS doesn’t provide requisite information to each level of management
c. MIS doesn’t mean only for the top level management
d. MIS doesn’t provide Interactive query facilities for solving the emerging problem

22. Which of the following is the characteristic of MIS?

a. Management Oriented
b. Management Directed
c. Deals with data
d. All of the above

23. Which of the following is not a limitation of MIS?

a. Expensive in Installation
b. Non-redundant data
c. Long term Planning
d. Regular modification

24. Which of the following is not possible in MIS?

a. Incorrect data recording
b. System malfunctioning
c. Theft of data
d. None of the above

25. What system can’t have?

a. Data
b. Knowledge
c. Information
d. none of the above
26. Which of the following sentences are true?
i. Office Information System enhances workflow of an organisation
ii. Office Information System facilitates communication at all levels of
management
iii. Office Information System can be utilized by all the levels of management
a. (i) & (iii)
b. (ii) & (iii)
c. (i) & (ii)
d. (i), (ii) & (iii)

27. TPS stands for_

a. Transaction Protocol System
b. Transaction Processing System
c. Translation Programming System
d. Translation Protocol System

28. _______ is not a sub-type of DSS.

a. KBES
b. EIS
c. GDSS
d. ESS

29. Expert System performs_

a. Broad Tasks
b. Narrow Tasks
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of (a) & (b)

30. Which of the following is not a use of information to gaining competitive advantage?
a. Automation
b. Organisational Learning
c. Smart Learning
d. Supporting strategies

31. Which of the following sentences is false?

a. ISA includes the hardware and software used to deliver the solution to the end
consumer of services.
b. ISA is description of the design and contents of a system.
c. ISA can work even without hardware & software support
d. ISA includes information and documentations
32. Which of the falling statement is true?
a. Mainframe computers are easy to install
b. Mainframe computers need huge investment
c. Mainframe computers cannot be modified
d. Mainframe computers don’t need a power backup.

33. Which one is true with regards to the following statement_

Modern mainframe design is less defined by single-task computational speed and more by:

i. surplus internal engineering and resulting high reliability and security

ii. extensive input-output facilities
iii. compatibility to handle older and latest software
iv. high hardware and computational utilization rates
a. (i) & (iii)
b. (ii) & (iv)
c. (i), (ii) & (iv)
d. (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

34. Which firm invented LAN?

a. Microsoft Inc.
b. XPARC
c. CERN
d. IBM

35. Client-Server ISA includes_

a. Communication Handler
b. Server Resources
c. Network
d. All of the above

36. Which of the following is not a benefit of Web-based ISA?

a. Cross Platform Compatibility
b. Efficiently manageable system
c. Data security in space
d. No use of server admin

37. Which of the following doesn’t define the property of Distributed ISA?
a. Several independent computers
b. System failure tolerance
c. Lack of communication within the system
d. Unknown advanced system architecture
38. Grid ISA is_
a. an architecture in which components located on networked
computers communicate and coordinate their actions by passing messages
b. The Client–Server ISA model is a distributed application structure that partitions
the tasks or workloads between the providers of a resource or service,
called servers, and service requesters, called clients.
c. an architecture in which components located on networked
computers communicate and coordinate their actions by passing messages
d. a computer or computer program that initiates contact with a server in order to
make use of server’s resources.

39. Which of the following is not a component of Grid ISA

a. Resource broker
b. Grid Resource
c. Information Service
d. Mobile computer

40. The cloud Section in cloud ISA is also known as_

a. Back end section
b. Front end section
c. Closed end section
d. Middleware section

41. Cloud storage is generally not deployed into which of the following?
a. Public cloud
b. VIP cloud
c. Private cloud
d. Community cloud

42. Back End is a combination of all possible computers, servers, database and data storage
systems across the world available for the cliental access.
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true partially false
d. The sentence is complicated

43. Hardware is________________________, which are required to perform a task through

computer and other relevant peripherals & devices.
a. A combination of all psychological devices
b. A combination of all sociological devices
c. A combination of all physical devices
d. A combination of all biological devices
44. Which of the following is not a component of Hardware?
a. Input device
b. Output device
c. CPU
d. Operating System

45. In context of computer hardware, SMPS stands for_

a. System Module for Prime Server
b. Switch Mode Power Supply
c. Sales management & Personal Selling
d. Strategic Management & Policy Setting

46. Which of the following is not a component of motherboard?

a. Keyboard
b. RAM
c. ROM
d. Chipset

47. RAM stands for_

a. Rome Around Memory
b. Random Application Memory
c. Random Access Memory
d. Rome Access Memory

48. ROM stands for_

a. Read Out Memory
b. Random Obsolete Memory
c. Read Only Memory
d. Read Obsolete Memory

49. Which of the following is a text input device?

a. Mouse
b. Keyboard
c. Joystick
d. Touchpad

50. Which of the following is not an input device?

a. Joystick
b. Microphone
c. Scanner
d. Projector
51. LCD stands for_
a. Low Cost Display
b. Large Clear Display
c. Liquid Crystal Display
d. Liquid Clear Display
52. Which of the following is not an output device?
a. Mic
b. Speaker
c. Monitor
d. Printer

53. Which of the following doesn’t use firmware?

a. Mobile phone
b. Traffic Signal
c. TV Remote
d. Analog Watch

54. Firmware is_

a. A hardware permanently stored in software
b. A software permanently stored in hardware
c. A hardware operated by software
d. A software operated by hardware

55. BIOS stands for_

a. Business Input/ Output System
b. Basic Internal Operation System
c. Basic Input/ Output System
d. Basic Internet Obsolete Solution

56. The basic purpose of BIOS is to_

a. Initialise and test system hardware component
b. Initialise and test networking
c. Initialise and test organisations capacity
d. Initialise and test system management

57. A boot loader is a computer program that loads the main operating system or runtime
environment for the computer after completion of the self-test.
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true partially false
d. The sentence is complicated

58. Unified Extensible Firm Interface (U)EFI is a firmware of_

a. Gigabyte
b. Intel
c. AMD
d. Soyo
59. Which of the following is not an Operating System?
a. Windows
b. Android
c. Linux
d. Kickstart

60. BSD, Google Chromium, OS X are the sub categories of_

a. Linux
b. Unix
c. Google
d. Ubuntu

61. Which of the following doesn’t fall under application software category?
a. Google Chromium Operating system
b. Application suite
c. Enterprise software
d. Content access software

62. Which of the following causes a computer to perform useful tasks beyond the running of
the computer itself?
a. Operating System
b. Firmware
c. Application Software
d. Hardware

63. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) is a type of_

a. Enterprise Information Software
b. Enterprise Software
c. Simulation Software
d. Product engineering Software

64. RAM is_

a. Primary storage device
b. Secondary storage device
c. External storage device
d. Cloud storage device

65. Which of the following is not a secondary storage device?

a. Optical Disc drive
b. USB Flash Drive
c. Solid State Drive
d. Floppy Disk Drive
66. Which of the following is not a networking device?
a. Gateway
b. Firewall
c. Router
d. Protocol converter

67. Which of the following statement is false?

a. A network is a series of points or nodes interconnected by communication paths.
b. Networks can interconnect with other networks and contain sub-networks.
c. Networks can be associated to an unconnected system as well.
d. Networking is the construction, design, and use of a network.

68. LAN lies within the area of_

a. 1km – 5km
b. 0m – 500m
c. Within a city
d. Within a state

69. CAN stands for_

a. Combined Area Network
b. Calculated Area Network
c. Campus Area Network
d. Computer Area Network

70. Delhi metro networking is an example of

a. CAN
b. MAN
c. LAN
d. WAN

71. Internet can be considered in_

a. CAN
b. MAN
c. LAN
d. WAN

72. Which of the following is a private network?

a. LAN
b. MAN
c. VAN
d. WAN

73. Which one of the following is more private network

a. VAN
b. VPN
c. Both VAN & VPN
d. None
74. Network Topology is_
a. Way of connecting hardware peripherals
b. Way of distributing hardware peripherals
c. Way of comparing hardware peripherals
d. Way of disliking hardware peripherals

75. Which of the following statement is false with the respect of Ring Topology?
a. Connection of numerous PCs is possible and easier.
b. Managing traffic is tedious job for ring topology.
c. Sharing information is secure.
d. Failure of 1 PC causes the failure of the entire network.

76. Which of the following statement is false with the respect of Bus Topology?
a. Connected with Bus (cable with node), which helps in sharing information
b. if a PC or a peripheral fails, it affects the entire network.
c. Sharing information is much secured compared to ring topology.
d. If bus fails, it causes failure of the entire network.

77. Failure which component doesn’t affect the system in Star Topology?
a. Server
b. Switch
c. Client
d. Hub

78. Which of the following statement is false with the respect of Mesh Topology?
a. Each PC is connected to every other PC and Peripherals in the network, which
helps in sharing information
b. It is cheaper compared to other topologies
c. Sharing becomes faster and secure.
d. If a PC or a peripheral fails, it doesn’t affect the network

79. Which of the following cannot be considered under Hybrid topology?

a. Bus-bus-bus
b. Bus-ring-mesh
c. Mesh-star-bus
d. None of the above
80. Tree topology is_
a. Combination of various star & bus topologies
b. Combination of various star topologies
c. Combination of various ring topologies
d. Combination of various ring & star topologies
MIS Chapter 2: Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Prior to database concept, how the data used to manage?

a. Through cybernetic process
b. Through manual process
c. Through digital process
d. Through exploratory process

2. DBMS stands for_

a. Data Based Management System
b. Data Basic Management System
c. Database Management System
d. Data Base Marketing System

3. Which of the following is not a step of data lifecycle?

a. Generate
b. Retrieve
c. Utilize
d. Simplify

4. In Data Lifecycle, which of the following step doesn’t come after Evaluation?
a. Manipulate
b. Store
c. Sort
d. Synthesize

5. What is synthesizing?
a. Process of creating information from two or more data
b. Process of dividing a data into two or more parts
c. Process of manipulating data
d. Process of utilizing two differentiated data.

6. Which of the following sentence is false with regards to database?

a. Database is a collection of information organized in such a way that a computer
program can quickly select desired piece of data.
b. Database can also be called as an electronic filing system.
c. Database is organized by fields, records & files.
d. Database stores entire data one place only.
7. Which of the following step doesn’t come in database designing?
a. Finding and organising data
b. Setting tables’ relationship
c. Evaluating data
d. Refining the database design

8. Which of the following is not a use of database?

a. To store data at a particular place.
b. To use data for obtaining information.
c. To distribute data to different users.
d. To avoid chaos while managing large data.

9. Which amongst the following is not a DBMS user?

a. Non Programming User
b. Database Compiler
c. Database Administrator
d. Programming User

10. Which of the following is a programming user?

a. Database Designer
b. Application Programmer/ Developer
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of (a) or (b)

11. DBA stands for_

a. Database Administrator
b. Database Applicant
c. Database Acceptor
d. Database Acknowledger

12. Which of the following is not a component of DBMS?

a. Data Definition Language
b. Data Manipulation Language
c. Data Complication Language
d. Data Definition

13. Which of the following is not a use of DBMS?

a. Creation
b. Deletion
c. Management
d. Utilisation

14. In regards with HDBMS, which of the following statement is false?

a. HDBMS is a tree-structure DBMS.
b. HDBMS also be called as parent-children structure.
c. HDBMS has many-to-many relationship
d. HDBMS has 1-to-many relationship
15. Which organisation developed HDBMS?
a. CERN
b. ARPA
c. IBM
d. XPARC

16. In regards with NDBMS, which of the following statement is false?

a. NDBMS is a flexible in structure compared to HDBMS.
b. NDBMS complicated in structure.
c. NDBMS has many-to-many relationship
d. NDBMS has 1-to-many relationship

17. Who has proposed RDBMS model?

a. E.F. Codd of IBM
b. Robert Metcalfe of XPARC
c. J.C.R. Licklider of ARPA
d. Tim Bernes-Lee of CERN

18. RDBMS was developed in the year_

a. 1972
b. 1967
c. 1970
d. 1960

19. Which of the following model is easiest?

a. DDBMS
b. RDBMS
c. HDBMS
d. NDBMS

20. Which of the following has highest programming complexities?

a. DDBMS
b. RDBMS
c. HDBMS
d. NDBMS

21. Which of the following Industries RDMBS is applicable at?

a. Manufacturing Industry
b. Banking Industry
c. Hospitality Industry
d. All of the above
22. Can we use RDBMS in Online Business Management?
a. Yes
b. No
c. May be
d. Wrong Question
23. What is Scema?
a. Description of data at different levels
b. Description of codes at different levels
c. Description of data only at initial level
d. Description of codes only at initial level

24. Which of the following is not a schema at DBMS architecture?

a. Physical Schema
b. Relational Schema
c. External Schema
d. Conceptual Schema

25. External level DBMS architecture use_

a. Guest language
b. Host language
c. Communication language
d. No language

26. Which of the following cannot be stored in a database?

a. Internal information
b. External information
c. Unavailable information
d. Determined information

27. Intelligence >> Design >> Choice Model is also known as_
a. Robert Metcalfe Model
b. Herbert Simon Model
c. J.C.R. Licklider Model
d. E.F. Codd Model

28. The intelligence stage include_

a. Follow up
b. Searching environment for condition
c. Evaluating Alternative
d. Implementation

29. Design stage includes_

a. Drawing alternatives
b. Evaluating alternative
c. Selecting the best alternative
d. Inventing desired outputs
30. What does Choice stage include?
a. Drawing alternatives
b. Evaluating alternative
c. Selecting the best alternative
d. Inventing desired outputs

31. Which of the following stage is not a part of Herbert Simon Model?
a. Intelligence
b. Design
c. Choice
d. Implementation

32. SDLC stands for_

a. System Development Lifecycle
b. System Deployment Lifecycle
c. Software Design Lifecycle
d. Software Deployment Lifecycle

33. Which of the following questions we have to concentrate on while defining a system?
i. ‘Why do we need a System?’
ii. ‘What are the objectives of this new system?’
a. (i)
b. (ii)
c. Both (i) & (ii)
d. None of (i) or (ii)

34. Which of the following questions system analysis ask?

a. ‘Why do we need a System?’
b. ‘What are the objectives of this new system?’
c. ‘What sort of the system is required?’
d. ‘How much cost will it incur?’

35. Feasibility analysis doesn’t evaluate_

a. Economical factor
b. Legal factor
c. X-factor
d. Operational factor

36. Which of the following questions we have to concentrate on system requirement?

i. ‘Who needs the system?’
ii. ‘What is the purpose?’
iii. ‘What type of reports should be generated?’
iv. ‘Who will maintain the system?’
v. ‘What sort of maintenance is required?’
 a. (i), (iii) & (v)
b. (ii) & (iv)
c. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
d. (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)

37. Which of the following sentence is true in case of system designing?

a. Logical design concentrates on the logic behind the system.
b. Logical design concentrates on the language in which front-end and back-
end will be designed.
c. Logical design concentrates on how the system will look.
d. Logical design concentrates on whether the system is user friendly.

38. Physical design of a system concentrates on_

i. how the system will look.
ii. how the languages can be used to design
iii. how easily it can be understand
iv. how easy it is to explore
a. (i), (iii) & (iv)
b. (ii), (iii) & (iv)
c. (i), (ii) & (iv)
d. (i), (ii) & (iii)

39. Which of the following design cannot be considered under system programming
a. Detailed design
b. Logical design
c. Broad design
d. System architecture design

40. Which of the following s not a phase of system testing

a. Unit testing
b. Whole system testing
c. Rejection testing
d. Acceptance testing

41. Which of the following system implementation approaches the riskiest?

a. Parallel Conversion
b. Departmental Conversion
c. Phased Conversion
d. Direct Cutover

42. Which of the following is not a reason for system maintenance?

a. To correct the error found after implementation
b. To keep the new system updated
c. To remove the outdated system
d. To improve the system as per the need of the user
43. Which of the following is a limitation of Classical model SDLC?
a. You can go to any stage after follow up
b. You can go to first step only after the follow up
c. You can go to any stage after any stage
d. You have to end SDLC after follow up

44. Which of the following is the edge of waterfall SDLC model over classical model?
a. You can go to any stage after follow up
b. You can go to any stage after any stage
c. You can implement SDLC anytime you want
d. You can have communication stage in between anytime

45. Davis and Olson model of SDLC was introduced in_

a. 1986
b. 1985
c. 1984
d. 1983

46. In Davis and Olson model SDLC, definition stage doesn’t include_
a. Feasibility analysis
b. Information requirement analysis
c. Conceptual design
d. Physical system design

47. Which of the following differentiate Davis & Olson model SDLC from classical model &
waterfall model SDLCs?
a. Information requirement analysis
b. Conceptual design
c. Physical database design
d. Post audit
48. Which of the following is the three staged SDLC?
a. Classical SDLC
b. Waterfall SDLC
c. Davis & Olson SDLC
d. Spiral SDLC

49. Who has proposed spiral model of SDLC?

a. Robert Metcalfe
b. Barry Boehm
c. Herbert Simon
d. J.C.R. Licklider

50. When was the spiral model SDLC introduced?

a. 1988
b. 1987
c. 1986
d. 1985
51. Which of the following stages of SDLC is considered as a value addition to spiral SDLC
over any other SDLC?
a. Planning stage
b. Analysis & Design stage
c. Implementation & Testing stage
d. Communication stage

52. Which of the following is not a stage in assessment of enterprise information

requirement?
a. Inception
b. Elicitation
c. Implementation
d. Negotiation

53. Which of the following is not a problem of elicitation in assessment of enterprise

information requirement?
a. Problem of scope
b. Problem of explanation
c. Problem of understanding
d. Problem of volatility

54. In assessment of enterprise information requirement, what we can prepare based on the
requirements identified?
a. Log table
b. Volatility table
c. Understandable table
d. Traceability table

55. Which of the following is not an alternative system building approach?

a. SDLC
b. Prototyping
c. RAD
d. CASE

56. Prototype is also known as_

a. Green print
b. Yellow print
c. Blue print
d. Red print

57. Which of the following prototype doesn’t include operational system?

a. Operational prototype
b. Discardable prototype
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of (a) or (b)
58. What allows RAD to write software faster?
a. Lack of extensive information
b. Lack of extensive knowledge
c. Lack of extensive pre-planning
d. Lack of extensive post-planning

59. Which of the following is not a stage of RAD

a. ISP
b. BAA
c. RAD
d. PAA

60. RAD works with data and activity based on available data at every stage system
development.
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true partially false
d. The sentence is complicated
61. RAD doesn’t work as an integration of Prototyping and CASE Tools
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true partially false
d. The sentence is complicated
62. CASE stands for_
a. Computer Aided Software Engineering
b. Client Applied Software Engineering
c. Computer Acknowledge System Engineering
d. Client Acknowledged System Engineering
63. Which of the following generates the codes for system development by itself?
a. Spiral SDLC
b. CASE
c. Prototype
d. OOPS
64. CASE Tools don’t need human assistance and command to work in a proper manner.
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true partially false
d. The sentence is complicated
65. In subject-oriented system, what represent the properties and functionalities of the
subject?
a. A pointer
b. A class
c. An object
d. An entity
66. With respect to Object oriented system, which of the following statements is false?
a. System Object is similar to real-worlds’
b. The behavior of the system results from the collaboration of the objects
c. Object oriented system aims on improving the clarity, quality, and
development time of a computer program by making broad use
of subroutines and block structures
d. An object has two characteristics as state and behavior

67. Object-Oriented System Analysis (OOSA) applies object-modeling techniques to analyse

the functional requirements for a system.
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true partially false
d. The sentence is complicated

68. Object-Oriented System Design (OOSD) doesn’t elaborate the analysis models that may
further produce implementation specifications
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true partially false
d. The sentence is complicated
69. Which of the following is the most complex system development
a. RAD
b. CASE Tool
c. OOPS
d. Prototype
70. Structured Programming System aims on improving the clarity, quality, and development
time of a computer program by subject in block structures.
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true partially false
d. The sentence is complicated
MIS Chap 3: Multiple Choice Questions:

1. In an organisation, what is known as a process of selecting a best solution based on given

situation?
a. Decision supporting
b. Decision making
c. Drawing alternatives
d. Evaluation of alternatives

2. What do you call to a process of identification a situation which can arise in front of
management at any point of time?
a. Problem solving
b. Problem design
c. Problem recognition
d. Problem answering

3. Which type of data is required in decision making process?

a. Internal information
b. External information
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None (a) or (b)

4. How many alternatives one can draw for single problem?

a. Single option
b. Multiple options
c. Zero option
d. None of the above

5. Which of the following questions are related to the Follow up stage in decision making
i. ‘Whether the solution selected will fulfill the management’s need?’
ii. ‘Whether is selected alternative is properly implemented or not?’
iii. ‘Whether there is any need of any modification in the selected solution?’
iv. ‘Whether the selected solution should be implemented?’
a. (i), (ii),(iii) & (iv)
b. (i), (ii) & (iii)
c. (i) & (ii)
d. (i)
6. Herbert A. Simon designed a model of_
a. Decision support
b. Problem recognition
c. Problem evaluation
d. Decision making

7. Which of the following is not a stage of Herbert Simon model?

a. Intelligence
b. Design
c. Choice
d. Implementation

8. Which of the following supports the decision taken by the management?

a. MIS
b. ERP
c. DSS
d. EIS

9. DSS stands for_

a. Designing Sub-System
b. Decision Support System
c. Decision Synthesizing Strategy
d. Decision & Strategic System

10. Which of the following statement of Sprague for DSS is false?

a. DSS tends to be aimed at the less well structured, underspecified problem that
upper level managers typically face;
b. DSS attempts to combine the use of models or analytic techniques with
traditional data access and retrieval functions;
c. DSS focuses on features for computer savvy people;
d. DSS emphasizes on flexibility and adaptability to accommodate changes in the
environment and decision making approach of the user.

11. In DSS, a user passes his command with the help of_
a. Dialogue management
b. Model management
c. Model base
d. Database management
12. In DSS, which of the following is not a component of dialogue management?
a. User interface
b. Command process
c. Dialogue control
d. Request translator

13. In DSS, which of the following is associated to model management but not a component
of the same?
a. Command process
b. Model execution
c. Model base
d. Database interface

14. In DSS, which of the following is not a database required by DBMS?

a. Enterprise database
b. Expert source
c. External database
d. Individual perception

15. Which of the following is not an advantage of DSS?

a. Supporting the decision
b. Future forecast of the effects of the decision taken
c. Decision manipulation
d. Graphical analysis of the decision

16. Which of the following is not a component of GDSS?

a. EIS
b. DSS
c. Networking Interface
d. DSS Interface

17. Which of the following is not a type of GDSS?

a. Decision Network
b. Decision Room
c. Conferencing Room
d. Tele/ Video Conferencing

18. Which of the following is not one of the prime purposes of GDSS
a. Decision making
b. Decision support
c. Policy formulation
d. Brainstorming
19. Which of the following systems is meant for top level management?
a. MIS
b. EIS
c. DSS
d. TPS

20. Which of the following is not a component of EIS?

a. User Interface
b. Request Translator
c. Executive Support
d. Executive Database

21. Which of the following is not a component of ESS?

a. Office Automation Tools
b. Analysis Support
c. Intelligence
d. Request Translator

22. What is the prime focus of DSS?

a. Capturing Transaction Data
b. Generating Summary & Reports
c. Facilitating Decision Making
d. Summarising information for top level strategic formulation

23. What is the prime focus of ESS/ EIS?

a. Capturing Transaction Data
b. Generating Summary & Reports
c. Facilitating Decision Making
d. Summarising information for top level strategic formulation

24. Nature of Decision Supported by DSS is_

a. Highly structured
b. Mostly semi structured
c. Mostly unstructured
d. Structured

25. Which of the following needs only internal data?

a. MIS
b. EIS
c. DSS
d. TPS
26. The term ‘Artificial Intelligence’ is proposed by_
a. John McCarthy
b. E. Jerome McCarthy
c. Herbert Simon
d. E.F. Codd

27. Thetem Artificial Intelligence was coined in_

a. 1957
b. 1956
c. 1955
d. 1954

28. Which of the following statement is false?

a. AI has very low ability to sense
b. AI has very high ability to learn from past experience
c. AI has a very high ability to perform a same task continuously with the same
perfection
d. AI has a very high nature of understanding the situation and draw solutions

29. Expert System is a type of_

a. MIS
b. TPS
c. AI
d. ERP

30. Which of the following is not a component of Expert System?

a. User Interface
b. Inference Engine
c. DSS Interface
d. Development Engine

31. Which of the following is the method of inputs in Expert System?

a. Menu
b. Command
c. Human Natural Language
d. All of the above
32. ES output is supplemented by
a. Explanation of question
b. Explanation of Problem Solution
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of (a) or (b)

33. Which differs KBES form ES?

a. User Interface
b. Inference Engine
c. Knowledge Base
d. Development Engine

34. ‘If A, then B’, the rule stated for_

a. ES
b. KBES
c. EIS
d. ESS

35. Geographical Information System was coined by

a. Roger Tomlinson
b. John McCarthy
c. Herbert Simon
d. E.F. Codd

36. GIS was coined in_

a. 1970
b. 1969
c. 1968
d. 1967

37. Which of the following is not a type of Ortho-rectified imagery?

a. Satellite Imagery
b. Aerial Imagery
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of (a) or (b)

38. Which of the following is not a GIS model?

a. Topological modeling
b. Cryptographic modeling
c. Geometric network
d. Cartographic modeling
39. What is Interpolating Spatial Location?
a. Geocoding
b. Cartography
c. Map Overlay
d. Hydrology

40. What do you call a satellite navigation system that provides location and time
information?
a. GPRS
b. GPS
c. GIS
d. GOS

41. Who has invented the concept of GPS?

a. Bradford Parkinson
b. Roger L. Easton
c. Ivan A
d. All of the above together

42. Which of the following statement is false?

a. BI is a set of theories, methodologies, processes, architectures, and technologies
that transform raw data into meaningful and useful information for business
purposes.
b. BI doesn’t need to perform functions like reporting, analytical processing,
data mining, complex processing, performance management, benchmarking
and predictions etc.
c. BI can handle large amounts of information to help identify and develop
opportunities, strategies and policies to gain a competitive advantage.
d. BI technology provides past, present and future views of business operations. The
future views though are the predicted views.

43. Which of the following is not a type of Business analytics?

a. Descriptive Analytics
b. Predictive Analytics
c. Discrete Analytics
d. Prescriptive Analytics
44. Which of the following is not a core component of business intelligence?
a. Master Data Management
b. Database Management System
c. Operational Data Store
d. Data Warehouse

45. Which of the following statement is true?

a. All data warehouses are databases
b. Data warehouse and database are two totally different concepts
c. Data warehouse and database are different but work the same thing
d. All databases are data warehouses

46. Which of the following s not a component of data warehouse?

a. Central Data Depository
b. Data Mart
c. Executive Source
d. Metadata

47. Which of the following is the subset of Central Data Depository?

a. Metadata
b. Data Mart
c. End User
d. Executive Source

48. Metadata is_

a. Data about users
b. Data about CDD
c. Data about data mart
d. Data about data

49. Which of the following is an element of data mining?

a. Extraction
b. Analysis
c. Accession
d. All of the above

50. Which of the following is not a step evolved in data mining?

a. Implementation
b. Validation
c. Information
d. Iteration
MIS Chap 4: Multiple Choice Questions:

1. http:// concept was introduced by_

a. J.C.R. Licklider of ARPA
b. Tim Bernes-Lee of CERN
c. Robert Metcalfe of XPARC
d. E.F. Codd of IBM

2. Who has developed ARPANET in 1969?

a. Bolt
b. Beramek
c. Newman
d. All of the above together

3. www technology was made available on royalty-free basis by CERN on_

a. 30th April 1993
b. 31st March 1993
c. 4th July 1993
d. 31st December 1993

4. Sabir Bhatia introduced hotmail on_

a. 4th July 1998
b. 4th July 1997
c. 4th July 1996
d. 4th July 1995

5. According to digital firm layout, which of the following is a component of e-commerce_

a. Customers
b. Business Partners
c. Remote Offices
d. Factories

6. Which of the following is not a advantage of digital firm?

a. 24 x 7 x 365
b. Tapping feet with market demand
c. Product delivery at doorstep
d. From globalize to localize
7. Which of the following Information System that can’t affect the organisation’s
productivity & performance?
a. GIS
b. ERP
c. CRM
d. SCM

8. At digital firm perspective, supply chain has to keep maintain the pace with_
a. Demand & supply
b. Marketing & sales
c. Materials & logistics
d. Sales & purchase

9. SCM and CRM systems are often viewed as extended systems to ERP.
a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true
d. The sentence is complicated

10. In modern process oriented digital firm, directly affecting external information is about_
a. Sociology, Legal, Economy, Politics & Technology
b. Men, Money, Machine, Method & Material
c. Customers, Suppliers & Competitors
d. Movement & Message

11. Which of the following is not MIS component of a digital firm?

a. Order Processing
b. Maintenance System
c. Delivery System
d. Billing System

12. Which of the following is not an enterprise system used by MIS model of digital firm?
a. ERP
b. CRM
c. SCM
d. VVM
13. Which of the following organisation structure shows how workflow happens in an
organisation?
a. Modular view
b. Process view
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of (a) or (b)

14. What is the advantage of Digital firm Organisation Structure?

a. It allows different department s and levels to flow information smoothly
b. It allows downward flow of information smoothly
c. It allows upward flow of information smoothly
d. It allows parallel flow of information smoothly

15. What is the relationship between e-business and e-commerce concepts?

a. E-business is a subset of e-commerce
b. E-commerce is a subset of e-business
c. E-commerce and e-business are same concepts
d. E-commerce and e- business are totally different concepts

16. Which of the following is not a model of e-business?

a. E-shop
b. E-auction
c. E-mall
d. E-commerce

17. Which of the following is not an example of e-shop?

a. Vodafone.in
b. Amway.in
c. Homeshop18.com
d. Airtel.com

18. Flipkart.com is an example of_

a. E-shop
b. E-mall
c. E-procurement
d. E-auction

19. Which of the following is not an example of e-auction?

a. OLX.in
b. Myntra.com
c. E-bay.com
d. Quikr.com
20. E-shops and e-malls are considered as_
a. B2B
b. C2B
c. B2C
d. C2C

21. Which of the following is an imitative of B2B model

a. B2C
b. B2G
c. G2B
d. C2B

22. In e-business, which of the following happen rarely?

a. B2B
b. C2C
c. B2G
d. C2B

23. VoIP stands for_

a. Voice over Internet Platform
b. Voice over Internal Protocol
c. Voice over Internet Protocol
d. Voice over Internal Platform

24. Which of the following is not a methodology of enterprise communication &

collaboration?
a. Supply Chain Management
b. Content Management System
c. Business Process Management
d. Voice Mail & Web Conferencing

25. Who invented mobile phone?

a. Graham Bell
b. Steve Jobs
c. Jorma Ollila
d. Martyn Cooper
26. Mobile phone was invented on_
a. 17th October 1983
b. 17th October 1973
c. 17th September 1973
d. 17th September 1983

27. Which of the following sentence is false in context to mobile computing?

a. It is a Human-Computer Interface.
b. It is taking a computer and all necessary files and software out into the field.
c. It is only related to mobile phones.
d. It s one of the fastest growing technology.

28. GSM stands for_

a. Global System for Mobile
b. Geographic System for Mobile
c. Global Software for Mobile
d. Global SIM card for Mobile

29. TDMA & FDMA technologies are used by_

a. CDMA
b. OFDMA
c. GSM
d. All of the above
30. CDMA stands for_
a. Crystal Display Multiple Access
b. Code Division Multiple Access
c. Code Division Mobile Access
d. Crystal Division Mobile Access

31. OFDMA stands for_

a. Ortho-Frequency Division Mobile Access
b. Operational Frequency Division Multiple Access
c. Organisation Frequency Division Multiple Access
d. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access

32. Which of the following networking technologies is not considered under Ad hoc
networking?
a. WAP
b. Wi-fi
c. Routing
d. MAC
33. Which is the first mobile OS?
a. Android OS
b. Windows OS
c. Symbian OS
d. iOS

34. Social Apps don’t need web support.

a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false
c. The sentence is partially true
d. The sentence is complicated

35. The concept of BPO in India was initiated by

a. Infosys
b. Lufthansa Airlines
c. British Airways
d. General Electrics

36. Narayan Murthy started_

a. Infosys
b. Wipro
c. Syntel
d. WNS

37. BPO contracted with neighboring country is known as_

a. Onshore
b. Offshore
c. Near-shore
d. Not-shore

38. Front office of BPO is related to_

a. Calling & Answering
b. Billing & Payment
c. Operation & Production
d. Finance & Accounting
39. Which country surpassed India as a largest BPO industry in the world?
a. Portugal
b. Philippines
c. Paraguay
d. Poland

40. Which of the following is meant for top level management?

a. Business Process Outsourcing
b. Legal Process Outsourcing
c. Knowledge Process Outsourcing
d. Human Resource Outsourcing

41. Which of the following can also be considered as a front office of BPO?
a. KPO
b. LPO
c. RPO
d. Call Centre

42. Captive & Third party Payrolls are associated to_

a. HRO
b. ITO
c. MPO
d. LPO

43. RPO is considered as a subset of_

a. LPO
b. HRO
c. MPO
d. KPO

44. Which of the following is not a reason of success of ITES in India?

a. Low cost Labour
b. High availability of experts
c. Indian accent of English
d. Various religions

45. Which of the following are considered as external threats to information security?
a. Threats of thefts
b. Threats of viruses
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of (a) or (b)
46. What do you mean by System Quality?
a. Degree of par excellence of a system
b. Smooth working of a system
c. Virus free system
d. Good system performance

47. Which of the following is not a Quality Assurance Methodology?

a. Regular feedback
b. Proper requisition
c. Proper removal
d. Proper testing

48. IPR stands for_

a. Internet Protocol Requirement
b. Information Prediction Report
c. Intellectual Property Right
d. Intellectual Property Requirement

49. IT literature can be considered in _________.

a. Copyright
b. Industrial property
c. Patent
d. Trademark

50. Which of the following can be patented?

a. E-book
b. Software
c. Hardware
d. Operating System