Malayan Colleges Laguna

Mapua Institute of Technology at Laguna

MOCK BOARD EXAM - 5

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
(OCTOBER 2018)

Instructions:

1. You have 9 hours to work on your exam.

2. Answer all one hundred questions for a total of one hundred answers. There is no penalty for guessing.
3. Work rapidly and use your time effectively. If you do not know the correct answer, skip it and return to it later.
4. Some problems are presented in both metric and English units. Solve either problem.
5. Mark your answer sheet carefully. Fill in the answer space completely. No marks on the questioners will be
evaluated. Multiple answers receive no credit. If you make a mistake, erase completely.

Mock Board Exam Specifications: 100 Questions, 9 hours, 7 Categories

No. of Questions Categories

21 Chemical Engineering Calculations
19 Chemical Engineering Thermodynamics
5 Reaction Kinetics: Principles and Applications of Chemical Kinetics to the Design
Unit Operations: Principles of Fluid Mechanics; Heat, Mass and Momentum Transfer;
35
Separation Processes; Stage-wise Operations
Chemical Process Industries: Unit Operations and Processes involved in the Inorganic and
5
Organic Chemical Industries
10 Plant Design
5 Instrumentation and Process Control

Multiple Choices:

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 1-3:

The binodal and conjugate curves for ternary system (solute A, solvent S and raffinate solvent B are plotted in figure
below. Some tie lines are shown. 100 kg of a mixture of A and B were mixed with 100 kg of pure S and the two
conjugate phases allowed to separate. The extract layer analyzed 21% A and 67.4% B.

1. The solute mass fraction in the raffinate is very nearly

(A) 0.11 (C) 0.23
(B) 0.07 (D) 0.01

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 1

2. The amount of raffinate layer in kg is very nearly
(A) 48 (C) 67
(B) 74 (D) 56

3. The wt% concentration of A in the original mixture was very nearly

(A) 28 (C) 47
(B) 24 (D) 33

4. 2,000 lbm of sludge is extracted from a tank using a water jet. The sludge removal rate is 0.5 lbm/gal H2O used
for the first 80 wt% of sludge removed. The last 20 wt% of sludge requires (0.75Mr) gal H2O/lbm sludge, where
Mr is the percent remaining of initial sludge. What average water flow rate is required to empty the tank in 2
hours?
(A) 80 gpm (C) 50 gpm
(B) 100 gpm (D) 30 gpm

5. Pure ethane is used to fill a vessel that initially contains 99 vol% methane and 1 vol% ethane. Ethane is fed at
rate of 500 ft3/hr until the ethane concentration reaches 92 vol% in 2 hrs. What most nearly is the volume of the
vessel?
(A) 700 ft3 (C) 400 ft3
(B) 1000 ft3 (D) 250 ft3

6. Which type of pneumatic conveying flow regime should be used when a low pressure/high velocity and simple
operation is desired?
(A) Saltating Flow (C) Dilute Phase
(B) Dune Flow (D) Dense Phase

7. What is the permanent pressure drop across an orifice flow meter which indicates a 16.75 psi pressure drop? The
inlet pipe diameter is 12 in and orifice is 8 in.
(A) 20 psi (C) 9 psi
(B) 17 psi (D) 4 psi

8. The heat of reaction provides the following information.

(A) the likehood of a reaction (C) the magnitude and direction of heat transfer
(B) the energy required to initiate the reaction (D) the temperature rise of the products

9. What is the pressure inside a 1 m3 container containing 104 g-moles of nitrogen gas at a temperature of -122 0C?
The critical temperature and pressure of nitrogen are 126K and 34 bar, respectively.
(A) 150 bar (C) 73 bar
(B) 126 bar (D) 34 bar

10. A non-reacting system has a liquid and vapor phase and three degrees of freedom. How many unique chemical
species are there?
(A) 4 (C) 2
(B) 3 (D) 1

11. After a crystallization process, a solution of calcium chloride in water contains 50 parts of calcium chloride per
100 parts of water. Solubility of calcium chloride in water at 298 K is 7.38 kmol of calcium chloride per 1000 kg
of water. The weight of this solution necessary to dissolve 200 kg of CaCl2.6H2O crystals at a temperature of 298
K is close to
(A) 88 kg (C) 97 kg
(B) 121 kg (D) 56 kg

12. What is the minimum volume of dry air in cubic metres at 293 K and 740 mm of Hg necessary to evaporate 13.8
kg of ethanol, if the total pressure remains constant? Assume that the air blown over the alcohol to evaporate it
leaves at 740 mm Hg. Vapour pressure of alcohol at 293 K is 45 mm Hg.
(A) 14.4 m3 (C) 16.2 m3 Mali naman choices 114 m3 or
3
(B) 12.5 m (D) 10.3 m3 121 m3 Bakit mali nakukuha ko
tama naman eh HUHU
13. A storage tank of volume 100 m3 containing methane has to be flushed by means of nitrogen. If the flow rate of
nitrogen is 30 m3 min—1 , determine the time required to reach a gas composition of 5% methane by volume in
the tank, when the process is carried out at atmospheric pressure and 303K.
(A) 20 min (C) 15 min
(B) 5 min (D) 10 min

14. An ideal gas is isentropically compressed from 50 psig to 250 psig. The Inlet temperature is 200 0F and outlet
temperature is 701.50F. What gas is compressed?
(A) Methane (C) Butane
(B) Helium (D) Air

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 2

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 15-17:
Coke containing 85% carbon and 15% ash is burnt in a furnace. Analysis of flue gas from the chimney shows carbon
dioxide 12% and carbon monoxide 3% the balance being oxygen and nitrogen.

15. The percentage of excess air is close to

(A) 24 (C) 39
(B) 45 (D) 32

16. The weight of flue gas per kilogram of coke burnt is about
(A) 14 kg (C) 10 kg
(B) 18 kg (D) 22 kg

17. The air to fuel ratio (weight) is about

(A) 13.5 (C) 5.9
(B) 2.6 (D) 8.9

18. Dry methane at 50°C is burnt with 50% excess dry at 500°C. Assuming complete combustion, calculate the
theoretical flame of temperature. Standard heat of combustion of methane is -786.12 kJ mol-1. Mean heat
capacities of methane, air, carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor are 34, 19, 28.94, 51.79, 32.40,
32.15 and 40.19 J mol-1 K-1 respectively.
(A) 1232 0C (C) 1844 0C Hays bakit sobra yung Cp ng isa, di ko alam
0 kung alin aling Cp ang dapatt gamitin.
(B) 1766 C (D) 788 0C

19. The following are examples of ways to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, except for which?
(A) Building coal fired power plants.
(B) Building nuclear power plants as fossil fuel plants are retired.
(C) Increasing the share of total electricity generated from wind, solar, hydro, and geothermal sources.
(D) Converting a single-cycle turbine into a combined-cycle turbine.

20. A process hazard analysis on an existing process is required at least every how many years by Occupational
Safety and Health Organization (OSHA)?
(A) 7 years (C) 3 years
(B) 5 years (D) 1 year

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 21-22:

A liquid fuel having 88wt% carbon and 12wt% hydrogen is burnt to a flue gas of the following composition by
volume on dry basis: Carbon dioxide 13.4%, oxygen 3.6% and nitrogen 83.0%.

21. The amount of flue gas produced per kilogram of fuel is close to
(A) 2.55 kmol (C) 0.61 kmol
(B) 0.34 kmol (D) 1.79 kmol

22. The percentage of excess air is about

(A) 15 (C) 12
(B) 22 (D) 19

23. A polished stainless steel sphere (radius = 5cm) is at a temperature of . The ambier air is at . What is
the instantaneous heat transfer rate?
(A) 5.46 kW (C) 1.23 kW
(B) 7.11 kW (D) 0.17 kW

24. All of the following reduce the likelihood of pump cavitation except which?
(A) Reduce the number of control valves in the suction line
(B) Increase the suction fluid operating temperature
(C) Operate the suction vessel at a higher liquid level
(D) Increase pump suction diameter

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 25-26:

Natural gas containing 78.8% methane, 14% ethane, 0.4% carbon dioxide and 6.8% nitrogen by volume is burnt
with 40% excess of air. The hydrocarbons are burnt to give 74% carbon dioxide and 26% carbon monoxide.

25. The percentage of carbon dioxide in the flue gas on a dry basis is about
(A) 7.4 (C) 6.1
(B) 4.3 (D) 2.1

26. The volume of the stack gas produced for 1m3 of natural gas is about
(A) 15 m3 (C) 25 m3
3
(B) 10 m (D) 20 m3

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 3

27. A 4” thick plate of material (k = 0.416 BTU/hr-ft-°F) with 1” layer of insulation (k = 0.085BTU/hr-ft-°F) is
exposed to air at -10°F (h° = 50 BTU/hr-ft2-0F) on the insulation side. The heat flux through the plate is 50
BtU/hr-ft2. What is the temperature on the inside of the 4” thick plate?
(A) 80°F (C) 50°F
(B) 100°F (D) 60°F

28. Heat is generated at 25,000 BTU/ft3-hr inside a long aluminum cylinder and is dissipated to the surroundings.
The cylinder diameter is 20 in. The temperature of the outer cylinder surface is 80°F. Assume the thermal
conductivity of the cylinder is 125 BTU/hr-ft-°F. What is the temperature at the cylinder centerline?
(A) 115 °F (C) 95 °F
(B) 125 °F (D) 60 °F

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 29-31:

Iron pyrites are burnt in a sulfuric acid plant to give a burner gas which on Orsat analysis gives the result: Sulfur
dioxide 8.5%, oxygen 7.0% and nitrogen 84.5% (with traces of Sulfur trioxide). Pyrites contain 46% by weight of
Sulfur. Solid refuse from the burner cinder contains 3 wt% Sulphur as ferric Sulfate. The expected reactions are

4 FeS 2 + 11O2 → 2 Fe2 O3 + 8SO2

4 FeS 2 + 15O2 → 2 Fe2 O3 + 8SO3
4 FeS 2 + 3SO3 → 2 Fe2 (SO4 )3

29. The weight of cinder produced per 100 kg of pyrites burnt is close to
(A) 68 kg (C) 56 kg
(B) 84 kg (D) 77 kg

30. The number of kilo moles of air used for 100 kg of pyrites burnt is about
(A) 14.6 (C) 23.8
(B) C3H8 (D) 17.9

31. The number of kilo moles of burner gas per 100 kg of pyrites burnt is approximately
(A) 17.2 (C) 13.9
(B) 7.8 (D) 18.8

32. What type of heat exchanger is most suited for highly viscous and fouling slurry where minimal maintenance
and downtime is required?
(A) Brazed Aluminum (C) Plate-Fin
(B) Shell & Tube (D) Spiral

33. Which of the following software is not used to determine a distillation column diameter and other specifications?
(A) ANSYS Fluent (C) Koch-Glitch’s KG-TOWER
(B) Aspen’s Aspen Plus (D) sulzer’s SulCol

34. What is the maximum possible work out (HP) of a Carnot cycle using 0.3 MMBTU/hr of heat input? The cycle
operates between 20 0C and 500K.
(A) 125 HP (C) 113 HP
(B) 142 HP (D) 49 HP

35. Why are intercoolers required on multistage compressors?

(A) They are used to condense and remove any liquids that may get into the compressor
(B) They reduce the capital cost of the compressor
(C) They remove the heat of compression to reduce the actual volume of gas to the next stage, reducing the
horsepower required.
(D) They prevent the pressure of the gas from exceeding unsafe limits

36. What is the coefficient of performance (COP) for a refrigeration cycle using 6.35 tons of refrigeration? A 10 HP
motor drives the refrigerant compressor with an overall efficiency of 75%.
(A) 15 (C) 9
(B) 12 (D) 4

37. What is the isentropic efficiency for the expansion of steam through a turbine from 3000 psia/1100°F to 205
psig/500 0F?
(A) 94.5% (C) 74.5%
(B) 84.5% (D) 64.5%

38. What is the best way to increase the COP for a heat pump?
(A) Minimize (C) Minimize heat from condenser
(B) Minimize (D) Maximize compressor work

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 4

 Maliit MESH #
Mas malaki butas
39. Powdered silica is fed to a vibrating 35-mesh screen to remove undersize fine materials. The screen analysis of
the material is given below: FEED = 0.77 PDT: OVER = 0.951 REJECT: UNDER = 0
Mesh Feed, xF Oversize, xp Undersize, xR
-3+8 0.095 0.217
-8+10 0.183 0.126
-10+14 0.165 0.204
-14+20 0.131 0.162
-20+28 0.101 0.125
-28+35 0.095 0.117
-35+48 0.070 0.029 0.246
-48+65 0.047 0.015 0.183
-65+100 0.031 0.005 0.141
-100 0.082 0.430

The percentage recovery of the desired material is close to

(A) 100 (C) 93
(B) 96 (D) 89

40. Molecular sieves are primarily used for what purpose in gas processing?
(A) CO2 removal (C) Hydrogen Removal
(B) Light Hydrocarbon Removal (D) Moisture Removal

41. A Carnot heat pump is used for heating a building. The outside air is at 30 0F and is the cold reservoir. The
building is to be maintained at 75 0F. 200000 BtU/hr are required for the heating. The heat [BtU/min] taken from
outside is near to
(A) 3050 (C) 4110
(B) 4550 (D) 5670

42. A boiler is producing 5000 lb/hr of steam at 150 psig and 400 0F. Water is fed to the boiler at a temperature of 80
0
F. The boiler is operating at 80% efficiency. If the feed water is heated to 220 0F, by using a hot waste stream,
% energy savings would be near to
(A) 10 (C) 13
(B) 7 (D) 4

43. A 1000 ft. line (12” ID) and 800 ft. line (24” ID) are connected in series with a flow of 350 gpm of water. What
is the smallest pipe diameter (ID) of length 3,600 ft. that should be used so the new head loss is less than or equal
to the head loss for the existing two lines and the same flow of water? Assume the friction factors are the same.
(A) 16” (C) 14”
(B) 24” (D) 12”

44. Crystallization is impossible in what solubility zone

(A) Labile (C) Metastable
(B) Unstable (D) Stable

45. Air is compressed from 1 atm and 0 0F (H1 = 210.27 BtU/lb) to 10 atm and 40 0F (H2 = 218.87 BtU/lb). The exit
velocity of air from the compressor is 200 ft/s. Inlet air velocity is negligible. If the load is 5 lb/min of air, the
power [W] required by the compressor is
(A) 500 (C) 2000
(B) 1600 (D) 800

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 46-48:

Air at 14.7 psia and 500 (101.3 kPa and 260 ) is compressed in a centrifugal compressor to 6 atm. The isentropic
efficiency of the compression process is 65%.
46. What is the compression work?
(A) 2320 kJ/lb (C) 1190 kJ/lb
(B) 440 kJ/kg (D) 810 kJ/kg

47. What is the final temperature?

(A) 860K (C) 970K
(B) 920K (D) 1030K

48. What is the increase in entropy?

(A) 0.21 kJ/kg-K (C) 1.0 kJ/kg-K
(B) 0.47 kJ/kg-K (D) 2.1 kJ/kg-K

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 5

49. Which of the following statements is not true concerning steam added to flares?
(A) Steam injection lowers the purge gas requirements for a flare burner
(B) Steam acts to dilute the hydrocarbon fuel content, which also reduces smoking tendency
(C) Steam consumption varies widely as a function of the gas being flared and the flare manufacturer’s design
(D) Steam is often injected into the relief gas discharge at the top of a flare burner

50. The settling Formula of hydrocarbon is

(A) C2H2 (C) C2H6
(B) C3H8 (D) CH4

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 51-53:

Ammonia is used in a reversed Carnot cycle with reservoirs at 45 0C and -10 . 1000 kJ/h are to be removed.
51. The coefficient of performance is about
(A) 2.3 (C) 4.7
(B) 2.9 (D) 5.2

52. The work input is approximately equal to

(A) 210 kJ/h (C) 400 kJ/h
(B) 340 kJ/h (D) 630 kJ/h

53. The rejected heat is close to

(A) 1000 kJ/h (C) 1400 kJ/h
(B) 1200 kJ/h (D) 1600 kJ/h

54. You have been asked to design a fluidized-bed reactor. The only data available are the kinetic model and rate
equation of the gas-solid reaction. With no constraints other than the data available, the most rigorous of four
potential reactor models that you can use is:
(A) Continuous back-mix flow model
(B) Two-phase model
(C) Bubbling-bed model
(D) Continuous plug-flow model

55. What type of pressure relief valve has a value lift almost entirely unaffected by backpressure?
(A) Rupture (C) Balanced Bellows
(B) Pilot (D) Conventional

56. A turbine and the boiler feed pumps in a reheat cycle have isentropic efficiencies of 88% and 96%, respectively.
The cycle starts with water at 60 0F (16 0C) at the inlet of the boiler feed pump and produces 600 0F (300 0C),
600 psia (4 MPa) steam. The steam is reheated when its pressure drops during the first expansion to 20 psia (150
kPa). What is the thermal efficiency of the cycle?
(A) 42% (C) 34%
(B) 39% (D) 28%

57. A 10,000 kW steam turbine operates on 400 psia (3.0 MPa), 750 0F (420 0C) dry steam, expanding to 2 in Hg
(6.8 kPa) absolute. What is the adiabatic heat drop available for power production?
(A) 2200 kJ/kg (C) 1400 kJ/kg
(B) 1800 kJ/kg (D) 1100 kJ/kg

58. A line contains a viscous and corrosive fluid with suspended solids. Which type of flow measurement
device is the most likely to be implemented.
(A) Pitot Tube (C) Venturi
(B) Orifice (D) Paddle Wheel

59. Distillation column bottoms temperature should be controlled using what variable?
(A) steam floe to reboiler (C) reflux rate
(B) sidedraw rate from tray 20 (D) overhead pressure control valve

60. A 750 kW steam turbine has a water rate of 20lbm/kW-hr (2.5x10-3 kg/kW-s). Steam with 50 0F (30 0C) of
( )
superheat is expanded from 165 psia (1.0 MPa absolute) to 26 in Hg 90kPa absolute. 65 0F (18 0C) cooling
water is available. The terminal temperature difference is zero. Find the quantity of cooling water required
(A) 10 kg/s (C) 7.8 kg/s
(B) 12 kg/s (D) 5.9 kg/s

61. A reciprocating air compressor has a 7% clearance and discharges 65 psia (450 kPa) air at the rate of 48 lbm/min
(0.36 kg/s). The polytropic exponent is 1.33. What mass of air is compressed each minute?
(A) 0.55 kg/s (C) 0.38 kg/s
(B) 0.42 kg/s (D) 0.32 kg/s

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 6

62. A liquid phase reaction has a reaction rate of –rA=kCA2. At 150°C, the rate constant k is 1.583E-01 L/mol-min.
The initial concentration of A is 2M. What is the residence time for a plug-flow reactor that reacts 95% of A?
(A) 130 min (C) 80 min
(B) 110 min (D) 60 min

63. What is the maximum concentration of D for the reaction of A → D → U in a plug flow reactor? kD = 0.018
min-1, kU = 0.005 min-1. The initial concentration of A is 0.5 mol/L.
(A) 0.42M (C) 0.24M
(B) 0.31M (D) 0.16M

64. The ratio of equilibrium constants of two components is a measure of

(A) the relative amount of products (C) the rate of reaction
(B) the relative amount of reactants (D) the relative ease of separation

65. The first order liquid phase reversible reaction A ↔ R takes place in a batch reactor with k1 and k2 as the forward
and backward rate constants respectively. After 8 minutes, conversion is 33.3% while the equilibrium conversion
is 66.7%The specific rate constant [k2] for the reverse reaction is close to
(A) 0.29 (C) 0.48
(B) 0.048 (D) 0.029

66. A homogeneous liquid phase reaction: 2A → R, -rA = kCA2 is carried out in a mixed reactor. A 50% conversion
is attained. If the mixed reactor is replaced by an equal size plug flow reactor and all other factors are kept the
same, the conversion [%] attained will be nearer to
(A) 71 (C) 67
(B) 84 (D) 53

67. Ethanol is purified in a distillation column where the composition of the vapor phase leaving the top tray is
equivalent to the liquid phase composition on the top tray. An increase in the ethanol distillate mole fraction is
desired. Which of the following methods will most likely result in the desired outcome?
(A) Increase the reflux ratio (C) Increase the steam to the reboiler
(B) Add more trays (D) Add an entrainer such as benzene

68. During nucleate pool boiling, the critical heat flux (CHF) is independent of which of the following solution
properties?
(A) Heat of Vaporization (C) Liquid density
(B) Specific Heat of Liquid (D) Vapor Density

69. A shell and tube exchanger is being designed with the following conditions. The hot side inlet/outlet temperature
is 200°C/155°C. The cold side inlet/outlet temperature is 40°C/180°C. How many tube and shell passes are
recommended?
(A) 2-shell, 4-tube pass (C) 1-shell, 2-tube pass
(B) 1-shell, 3-tube pass (D) 1-shell, 1-tube pass

70. A shell and tube exchanger (with 1-shell pass and 2-tube passes) heats fuel oil (S/S) using water (T/S). The
overall heat transfer coefficient is 15 BTU/hr-ft2-F. Fuel oil (Cp=0.5 BTU/lbm-°F) enters at 30°C and 1,000
lbm/hr. Water (Cp=1.0 BTU/lbm-°F enters at 150°C and 1,000 lbm/hr. The heat exchanger area is 40ft2. What is
the exit temperature of the fuel oil? Parang kulang ng given ng T kahit tatlong T na given pede na ma-solve kaso
(A) 98°C (C) 78°C kasi yung T2 ng oil at T2 ng water alam ko di equal?, tapos pag may given
na shell and tube pass # ang alam ko:
(B) 115°C (D) 85°C Q=UA Tm = UA(F T lmtd) (Yung kinukuha muna yung F gamit yung graph
ng given na shell and tube pass)
71. Which of the following is untrue with regards to centrifugal pumps?
(A) The rotary gear pump is a commonly used class of centrifugal pump.
(B) The main reason for using head instead of pressure to measure the pump’s energy is that the pressure will
change with specific gravity of the fluid, but the head will not
(C) Flow is reduced as viscosity increases
(D) Flow varies depending on the system pressure or head

72. Increasing the tube passes from 4 to 6 in an exchanger increases the tube side pressure drop through the
exchanger by what percent? Assume turbulent flow in both scenarios.
(A) 350% (C) 124%
(B) 238% (D) 50%

73. What is the Reynolds number (Re) for water flow (avg. temp = 32 °C) through the annulus (50.8 mm clearance)
of a double pipe heat exchanger? Water flows through the annulus at 250 gpm at a velocity of 10 ft/s.
(A) 404,500 (C) 155,200
(B) 272,300 (D) 50,500

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 7

74. What is the pressure drop across a 20 ft high packed bed filled with metal spheres (sphere diameter = 50.8 mm)?
Air flows across the packed bed at 500 °F and 2000 SCFM (@ 60 °F,1 atm). The ratio of sand volume to packed
bed volume is 0.75. The bed cross sectional area is 5 ft ².
(A) 34 psi (C) 14 psi
(B) 24 psi (D) 4 psi

75. Simulation shows a certain separation in a distillation tower with a kettle reboiler and total condenser requires 35
theoretical stages. If the overall column efficiency is 54% how many total trays are required? Assume no
packing.
(A) 65 (C) 61
(B) 63 (D) 35

76. What is the minimum number of stages required for a two-component separation where the distillate is xd = 0.95
mole fraction and bottoms is mole fraction for component A? The relative volatility of A to B is 1.1 at
the bottom of the column and 3 at the top.
(A) 21 (C) 14
(B) 19 (D) 11

77. A mixture containing 0.48 mole fraction of component A is flash in a vessel. The overhead vapor flow is 300
kmol/hr and the bottoms liquid flow is 500 kmol/hr. what is the overhead composition of component B if the
bottoms mole fraction of component is 0.33?
(A) 0.73 (C) 0.45
(B) 0.67 (D) 0.27

78. Which of the following is not a type of a cooling water?

(A) natural drift flow (C) forced draft cross flow
(B) induced draft counter flow (D) hyperboloid natural draft

79. Identify the flow regime for a horizontal two-phase flow in a 4” ID pipe. The conditions are as follows:

Gas Flow Rate= 100 lb /hr

Liquid Flow Rate = 1500 lb /hr
Liquid SpG = 1.26
Gas Density = 0.014 lb /ft3
Liquid Viscosity = 1412 cP
Liquid Surface Tension = 63 dyn/cm

(A) Bubble (C) Stratified

(B) Plug (D) Slug

80. The slope of the rectifying line in a column is 0.75. The external reflux ratio is increased by 10%. The new slope
of the rectifying line is what.
(A) 0.953 (C) 0.767
(B) 0.825 (D) 0.724

81. Increasing the tray spacing in a column will help with all except which of the following:
(A) Down comer Choke Flooding (C) Froth Entrainment Flooding
(B) Down comer Backup Flooding (D) Spray Entrainment Flooding

82. How many theoretical stages are required for a stripper with a gas flow rate of 100 kmol/hr and liquid flow rate
of 50 kmol/hr? The Henry’s law constant is 29.4 L-atm/mol. The stripper operates at 20 atm absolute. The
minimum molar ratio of gas to liquid is 1.7.
(A) 8 stages (C) 5 stages Hays feeling ko kulang talaga given :(
(B) 7 stages (D) 2 stages

83. The compressibility of a fluid operating at a reduce pressure of 3.0 and a reduced temperature of 1.23 is
(A) 1.0 (C) 0.4
(B) 0.6 (D) Undetermined

84. Changing the pump speed from 1450 rpm (with a brake horsepower of 50 HP) to 1620 rpm will increase the
pump brake horsepower to what value? Assume the pump efficiency remains the same.
(A) 100 HP (C) 70 HP
(B) 80 HP (D) 50 HP

85. How long will it take a 100 micron spherical particle (3.1 SpG) to settle 1 ft in water at 205 0F?
(A) 10.1 s (C) 7.7 s
(B) 9.2 s (D) 5.2 s

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 8

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 86-88:
750kg/h of sea shore sand containing 1% by weight of salt is to be washed with 1000 kg/h of fresh water running
counter current to the sand through two classifiers in series. Assume perfect mixing of sand and water occurs in each
classifier and that the sand discharged from each classifier contain 2 parts of water for every 5 parts of sand by
weight.

86. The amount (kg) of salt in the overflow from stage 2 is about
(A) 4.4 (C) 2.2
(B) 0.7 (D) 2.9

87. The percentage removal of salt is about

(A) 91 (C) 84
(B) 97 (D) 89

88. If a single classifier is required the amount (MT/h) of washwater needed to attain the same removal efficiency is
about
(A) 1.8 (C) 2.3
(B) 3.1 (D) 2.7

89. In a plant laboratory having a floor area of 100 m2 and a ceiling height of 3 m, the temperature and relative
humidity are kept at 23.9°C and 80%, respectively. The closed loop air conditioning (AC) unit installed for the
purpose has an air handling capacity to change the air in the room of which 80% is void space, every ten
minutes. The air leaving the condenser of the AC unit has a temperature of 18.3°C. The amount (kg/h) of dry air
used is about
(A) 2322 (C) 1899
(B) 1672 (D) 1456

90. Two columns in series are employed to enact the separation of benzene (30 mol%), toluene (30 mol%), and
xylene (40 mol%). A process engineer is designing a similar process for a near identical feed. What should the
designer implement to ensure CAPEX and OPEX are reduced as compared to the initial project.
(A) Preheat the feed (C) Implement a dividing wall column
(B) Add more trays (D) Decrease the operating pressure

91. For vessel containing 50 wt% sulfuric acid at 200 0F, what material is the most corrosion resistant?
(A) polyethylene (C) zirconium
(B) aluminum (D) stainless steel

92. What type of filtration device should be selected for a 150 gpm slurry with 50 wt% suspended solids ranging
from 10 to 250 micron with a solid density comparable to the liquid density?
(A) sintered metal filter (C) cyclone
(B) gravity settler (D) cartridge filter

93. What American Petroleum Institute (API) Standard typically governs for designing large welded tanks for
storage of hydrocarbons in the 2.5 to 15 psig range?
(A) API 2000 (C) API 650
(B) API 520 (D) API 620

94. What is the best material to use as a sacrificial anode to prevent corrosion of a stainless steel tank?
(A) Nickel (C) Bronze
(B) Titanium (D) Zinc

95. MDMT represents the following on a vessel datasheet:

(A) The maximum metal required to be used for a vessel
(B) The minimum amount design margin required for the maximum operating temperature
(C) The lowest temperature the vessel metal can withstand for a chosen thickness
(D) The minimum metal thickness required for a vessel

96. Of the following four methods, the one that will actually increase the galvanic corrosion of more active metal is
(A) Using combination of two metals as close as possible in galvanic series
(B) Coupling two widely separated metals in the galvanic series
(C) Protective oxide films
(D) Insulating the two metals from each other

97. What type of valve is best suited for an application where a steady 0.5 gpm flow rate is required for a long time
and precise regulation is necessary?
(A) Needle (C) Butterfly
(B) Ball (D) Gate

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 9

98. Which of the following statements is not true concerning pressure relief valves (PRV) during a fire case
analysis?
(A) When a PRV alone is not adequate, additional protective measure such as water sprays, depressuring, and
diversion walls should be considered.
(B) Two-phase PRV sizing is often required for the fire case.
(C) If no accurate latent heat value is available for hydrocarbons near their critical point, a minimum value of
115 kJ/kg is sometimes acceptable to use.
(D) For multicomponent mixtures that have a wide boiling range, it may be necessary to develop a time
dependent model where the total heat input to the vessel not only causes vaporization but also raises the
temperature of the remaining liquid.

SITUATION FOR PROBLEMS 99-100:

A spent lye sample obtained from a soap making unit contains 14% glycerol and 12% sodium chloride by weight. It
is concentrated at the rate of 6 000 kg h-1 in a triple effect evaporator until the final solution contains 85% glycerol
and 5% sodium chloride by weight. Assuming that 6% of glycerol is lost by entrainment.

99. The amount of evaporation taken place in the system is about

(A) 93 kg/h (C) 4347 kg/h
(B) 4398 kg/h (D) 50 kg/h

100. The amount of salt crystallized out in the salt box of the evaporator is close to
(A) 625 kg/h (C) 455 kg/h
(B) 755 kg/h (D) 675 kg/h

Prepared By: Engr. Albert D.C. Evangelista 10