MCQ Ipc

7/13/2019 Objective Questions and Answers on Indian Penal Code
1. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer:
A. All the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated

in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are

incorporated in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
C. Most of the recommendations of Justice Verma Committee are incorporated

in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
D. None of the above.
Ans. D
2. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian

Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013,
namely:
A. Section 376A
B. Section 376B
C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C
D. All of the above.
Ans. D
3. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of

private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of
death or of any other harm to the assistant if the offence which
occasions the exercise of the right is the act of:
A. Stalking
B. Voyeurism
www.judicialservicesindia.com/indian-penal-code/objective-questions-and-answers-on-indian-penal-code/13253 1/37
C. Acid Attack
Ans. C
4. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence

punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
A. Section 326A
B. Section 326B
C. Section 228A
D. Section 228.
Ans. B
5. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is

punishable offence under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
A. Section 354A
B. Section 354B
C. Section 354C
D. Section 354D.
Ans. A
6. A man shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment under

section 354A of Indian Penal Code, 1860, if he commits:
(i) Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual
overtures.
(ii) A demand or request for sexual favours.
(iii) Showing pornography against the will of a woman.
(iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
Ans. D
7. A man is said to commit “rape” if he penetrates his penis, to any

extent, into the ________ of a woman:
A. Vagina
B. Mouth
C. Urethra or Anus
Ans. D
8. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the

body, not being the penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a
woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, he
commits:
A. Rape
B. Sexual Harassment
C. Sexual Assault
D. None of the above.
Ans. A
9. To establish section 34 of IPC:
A. common intention be proved but not overt act be proved
B. common intention and overt act both be proved
C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
D. all the above.
Ans. A
10. Section 34 of IPC:
A. creates a substantive offence
B. is a rule of evidence
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. B
11. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand
but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. Y killed ‘Z’:
A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z
B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act

D. both (a) & (c).
Ans. B
12. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by means

whereby a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of
employing those means, know or had reason to believe to be likely
to cause it under:
A. section 39
B. section 38
C. section 37
D. section 40.
Ans. A
13. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:
A. life of a human being
B. life of an animal
C. life of human being and of an animal both
D. life of either human being or animal.
Ans. A
14. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:
A. death of a human being
B. death of an animal
C. death of a human being and of an animal both

D. death of either human being or an animal.
Ans. A
15. Illegal signifies:
A. everything which is an offence
B. everything which is prohibited by law
C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
D. all the above.
Ans. D
16. Animal denotes:
A. any living creature including human being
B. any living creature other than a human being
C. any creature – live or dead
D. either (a) or (c).
Ans. B
17. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the
Indian Penal Code:
A. three
B. six
C. five
D. four.
Ans. C
18. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the

sentence of imprisonment:
A. has to be wholly rigorous
B. has to be wholly simple
C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
D. either (a) or (b).
Ans. C
19. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under

section 64 of IPC:
A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been

sentenced
B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
D. both (b) & (c).
Ans. A
20. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for non-

payment of fine shall be limited to:
A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence
D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence.
Ans. B
21. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment

for non-payment of fine:
A. has to be rigorous
B. has to be simple
C. can be rigorous or simple
D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple.
Ans. B
22. Under section 498A of IPC cruelty includes:
A. harassment of the woman
B. physical cruelty only
C. mental cruelty only
D. cruelty by wife.
Ans. A
23. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who

is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs.
50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:
A. two months
B. three months
C. four months
D. six months.
Ans. C
24. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who

is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs. 100, the imprisonment in
default of payment of fine shall not exceed:
A. one year
B. six months
C. four months
D. two months.
Ans. B
25. Section 64 of IPC provides for:
A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment for non-payment of
fine
D. limit of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does not prescribe the
nature of imprisonment.
Ans. C
26. Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate:
A. on payment of fine
B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment
C. both (a) & (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. C
27. In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a part of the

fine is paid, such sentence:
A. shall be reduced proportionately
B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the court as to the quantum
of reduction
D. all of the above.
Ans. A
28. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary

confinement to be:
A. one year
B. two years
C. three months
D. six months.
Ans. C
29. If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not

exceeding six months, the solitary confinement:
A. shall not exceed 15 days
B. shall not exceed one month
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed forty-five days.
Ans. B
30. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term

exceeding six months but not exceeding one year, the term of
solitary confinement:
A. shall not exceed one month
B. shall not exceed forty-five days
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed three months.
Ans. C
31. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding

one year, the term of solitary confinement shall not exceed:
A. one month
B. two months
C. three months
D. six months.
Ans. C
32. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in goodfaith

which is done or believed without due care & intention – is the
definition of goodfaith contained in:
A. section 29 of IPC
B. section 29A of IPC
C. section 52 of IPC
D. section 52A of IPC.
Ans. C
33. General exceptions are contained in:
A. chapter III of IPC
B. chapter IV of IPC
C. chapter V of IPC
D. chapter VI of IPC.
Ans. B
34. Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a

person who is or who by reason of:
A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
C. mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
D. all the above.
Ans. A
35. Under section 79, nothing is an offence which is done by a

person who is justified by law or who by reason of mistake of fact in
goodfaith believes himself to be:
A. bound by law to do it
B. justified by law to do it
C. bound by morality to do it
D. all the above.
Ans. B
36. The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means:
A. ignorance of law is no excuse
B. ignorance of fact is no excuse
C. ignorance of law is an excuse
D. ignorance of fact is an excuse.
Ans. A
37. Section 76 & section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of:
A. mistake of law
B. mistake of fact
C. both mistake of law and fact
D. either mistake of law or of fact.
Ans. B
38. Accident as an exception has been dealt with in:
A. section 77
B. section 78
C. section 80
D. section 82.
Ans. C
39. Under section 80, the exception of accident is available when an

offence is committed while:
A. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means

B. doing a lawful act in any manner by any means
C. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means
D. all the above.
Ans. A
40. The principle as to the way in which a man should behave when
he has to make a choice between two evils is illustrated in:
A. section 80 of IPC
B. section 81 of IPC
C. section 82 of IPC
D. section 78 of IPC.
Ans. B
41. Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian
Penal Code?
A. Lord William Bentinck
B. Lord Curzon
C. Lord Macaulay
D. Lord Irwin
Ans. C
42. Assault or use of criminal force on a woman with intent to

outrage her modesty is dealt under-
A. Section 354 of IPC

B. Section 355 of IPC
C. Section 356 of IPC
D. Section 357 of IPC
Ans. A
43. Under which name the Indian Penal Code came into application
in Jammu and Kashmir?
A. Indian Legislative Act
B. Ranbir Penal Code
C. Indian Penal Act
D. Mahomedan Act
Ans. B
44. Assault or use of criminal force in an attempt to wrongfully

confine a person is dealt under-
Ans. A
45. Which of the following is the principle applied in construing a

penal Act?
A. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of
ambiguity,” it will be resolved against the person who would be liable to the
penalty.
B. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of
ambiguity,” it will be resolved in the favour of the person who would be liable to
the penalty.
C. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of
ambiguity,” it will attract life imprisonment.
D. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there appears any doubt of
ambiguity,” it will attract capital punishment.
Ans. B
46. Which of the following matches is incorrect relative to the use of

the English law?
A. Sections 96 to 106 of the Code – can be interpreted on the basis of principles

governing self defence under the English law
B. Reliance on case decided under the English law – misleading
C. In defamation cases the court must with reference – Section 499
D. Indian Penal Code is based on – English Common Law in respect to the

major offences which are universally applicable
Ans. A
47. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous

hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt under-
Ans. C
48. actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means?
A. a deed, a material result of human conduct
B. the intent and act must both concur to constitute the crime
C. putting to death
D. uncommended manner
Ans. B
49. X added potassium cyanide into Y’s drink intending to kill him.
However, Z also happened to sip from Y’s glass. They both died. The
medical report claimed that Y actually died of a cardiac arrest, as
the poisonous substance administered was insufficient to cause his
death. In addition, Z died due to the effect of the poison. So:
A. X is liable for the death of Y and not for the death of Z
B. X is not liable for the death neither of Y nor of Z
C. X is liable for the death of both Y and Z
D. X is liable for the death of Z only
Ans. B
50. Cheating and thereby dishonesty inducing delivery of property,

or the making alteration or destruction of a valuable security is
dealt under-
Ans. D
51. Literally, mens rea means:
A. guilty mind
B. a guilty or a wrongful purpose
C. a criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and wilfulness
D. All of the above
Ans. D
52. The appellant stabbed the deceased in the abdomen. The

deceased was taken promptly to hospital and the wound was
stitched but few days later he died. The evidence showed that at the
time of death the wound had healed. But due to terramycin injection
being given in excess lungs had become over logged and caused
pneumonia on the question of causation:
A. The appellant can be acquitted
B. The appellant cannot be acquitted
C. The appellant and the doctor both cannot be acquitted
D. The doctor must be acquitted
Ans. A
53. Habitually dealing in stolen property is dealt under-
Ans. C
54. Cheating is dealt under-

Ans. A
55. Fraudulent removal or concealment of property of himself or

any other person or assisting in the doing thereof, or dishonesty
releasing any demand or claim to which he is entitled is dealt under-
Ans. D
56. Even though a man’s knowledge that a particular consequence

will probably result from his act is sometimes an insufficient basis
for saying that he intends it, there are strong reasons for holding
that as a legal matter he can be held to intend something that he
knows for sure he is doing. This is called:
A. skewed intent
B. oblique intent
C. hypothetical intent
D. square intent
Ans. B
57. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an essential

ingredient for offences under-
A. Revenues Acts
B. Public nuisance
C. Criminal case which are in summary mode
D. All of these
Ans. D
58. House-trespass in order to the commission of an offence

punishable with imprisonment if the offence is theft is dealt under-
Ans. D
59. During house trespass or house-breaking in order to the

commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment and if the
offence is theft is dealt under-
Ans. D
60. Defamation against the President or the Governor of a State or

Administrator of a Union Territory or Minister in respect of his
conduct in the discharge of his public functions when instituted
upon a complaint made by the Public Prosecutor is dealt under-
C. Section 498A of IPC
Ans. D
61. A had an argument with B and asked her to go leave him alone
and go home. B refused and A struck her on the head and rendered
her unconscious. A dragged B to the parking lot during which B’s
head hit the pavement which caused her death.
A. A is not responsible for her death as that was not the intent
B. A is only responsible for assaulting her
C. A is responsible for B’s death as the death was caused due A’s negligence
D. None of them
Ans. C
62. Presumption of culpable mental state of a person as per Section

10-C of the IPC includes:
I. Intention
II. Motive
III. Knowledge of fact
IV. Belief in or reason to believe a fact
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
Ans. D
63. Grievous hurt caused whilst committing lurking house trespass

or house breaking is dealt under-
Ans. B
64. Dishonesty breaking open or unfastening any closed receptacle

containing or supposed to contain property is dealt under-
Ans. D
65. A President of a Pharmaceutical Company for introducing into

interstate commerce drugs that were misbranded. The President
pleaded lack of knowledge of this fact?
A. The President must be convicted
B. The President must be acquitted
C. The President and the company must be convicted
D. none of them
Ans. A
66. False statement, rumour, etc, with intent to create enmity,

hatred or ill-will between different classes is dealt under-
Ans. B
67. X an employee of Y was driving the vehicle which was without

insurance. Y was convicted for violation of Road Traffic Act, 1988,
who was not even driving the vehicle at that time. Y appealed
against it in the court.
A. the conviction should be upheld
B. the conviction must be set aside
C. both the X and Y must be convicted
D. only X must be convicted
Ans. B
68. The question whether a corporate body should or should not be

liable for criminal action resulting from the acts of some individuals
must depend on:
A. nature of the offense disclosed by the allegations in the complaint or in the

charge sheet
B. the relative position of the officer or agent vis-a-vis the corporate body
C. other relevant facts and circumstances which could show the corporate body
as such meant or intended to commit that act
D. all of them
Ans. D
69. Automation in legal sense implies:
A. self-acting of performance or involuntary acts
B. without any knowledge of acting or action
C. with no consciousness of what is being done
D. all of them
Ans. D
70. Which of the following is false about the presumption of

innocence?
A. this holds good in all kinds of trials including criminal trials
B. in this case the crime must be brought to a prisoner
C. it can be easily rebutted
D. graver the crime, greater will be the degree of doubt that is reasonable
Ans. C
71. Which of the following is pointed out by the Supreme Court

regarding the rejection of the prosecution case on paltry ground?
A. The public are generally reluctant to come forward to depose before the
court hence it not correct to reject the prosecution version on the ground that
all witnesses to the occurrences have not been examined.
B. Invariably the witnesses add embroidery to the prosecution story, perhaps

for the fear of disbelief, which is not a ground to throw the case overboard.
C. It is not proper to reject the case for want of corroboration by the

independent witnesses if the case made out is otherwise true or acceptable.
D. All of them
Ans. D
72. Enticing or taking away or detaining with a criminal intent a

married woman is dealt under-
Ans. B
73. Which of the following is not true of the absence of explanation

from the accused?
A. it is not sufficient to rebut so strong a presumption as that of innocence
B. it is capable of being taken into account to corroborate other evidence
C. proof of guilt can be inferred from the mere absence of explanation
D. it is not material
Ans. C
74. Forgery is dealt under-
Ans. B
75. Having possession of a document, knowing it to be forged, with

intent to use it as genuine; if the document is one of the description
mentioned in section 466 of the Indian Penal Code is dealt under-
Ans. D
76. In which of the following case the Supreme Court pointed out
this fact in relation to the above question?
A. State of Punjab v. Bhajan Singh (1975)
B. M.S. Sheriff v. State of Madras (1954)
C. Tika v. State of UP (1974)
D. None of them
Ans. B
77. Attempting to commit offences punishable with imprisonment of

life or imprisonment, and in such attempt doing any act towards the
commission of the offence is dealt under-

Ans. B
78. Which of the following is the facet of audi alteram partem?
A. notice of the case to be met
B. good faith
C. opportunity to explain
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
79. In respect to cases instituted otherwise than on Police report,

under which section charges are framed?
A. Section 240 Cr. PC.
B. Section 246 Cr. PC.
C. Section 256 Cr. P.C.
D. None of them
Ans. B
80. False statement rumour, etc., made in place of worship etc, with
intent to create enmity hatred or ill-will is dealt under-
Ans. C
81. Under which section of the IPC a person irrespective of his

nationality can be held guilty and is liable to punishment for any
offence within India?
A. Section 2 of IPC
B. Section 5 of IPC
C. Section 7 of IPC
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. A
82. Mischief committed after preparation made for causing death,

or hurt, etc. is dealt under-
Ans. C
83. Being entrusted with any closed receptacle containing or

supposed to contain any property, and fraudulently opening the
same is dealt under-

Ans. A
84. Under which of the following a corporation is indictable?
A. Vicarious liability
B. Personal liability for breach of statutory duty
C. Personal liability on the basis of attributing to the corporation the conduct

and state of mind of an individual
D. All of them
Ans. D
85. X participated in the child marriage of Y in another country.

Both X and Y were still Indian citizens at the time the marriage took
place.
A. Y is liable for punishment under Section 3
B. Y is not liable as the marriage took place on a foreign soil
C. Both X and Y are liable for punishment under Section 3
D. None of them
Ans. C
86. Running vessel ashore with intent to commit theft, etc. dealt
under-
Ans. B
87. Which of the following section makes all the offences under the
Code without exception to be extra territorial?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 7
Ans. B
88. Kidnapping or abducting a woman to compel her marriage or to

cause her defilement etc. is dealt under-
Ans. B
89. Extradition is:
A. to surrender of one State to another of a person desired to be dealt with

crimes of which he has been accused or convicted and which are justifiable in
the Courts of the other countries
B. a political act done in pursuance of a treaty or an arrangement ad hoc
C. it can be sought on either in terms of treaty or on reciprocal arrangement
D. all of them
Ans. D
90. Knowingly selling goods marked with counterfeit property mark

is dealt under-
Ans. B
91. Over which of the following admiralty jurisdiction extends?
A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the seas
B. Offences committed on foreign ships in Indian territorial waters
C. Piracy
D. All of them
Ans. D
92. Which of the following is true about special law?
A. relates to a particular subject
B. applies only to a particular part of the country

C. excise, opium and cattle trespass act
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
93. On refusal to disclose the name and address of the printer is

dealt under-
A. Section 489 D of IPC
B. Section 489 E of IPC
Ans. C
94. Which of the following section of the IPC does not affect the
provisions of any Act for punishing mutiny and desertion of
officers, soldiers, sailors or airmen in the service of the Government
of India or the provisions of any special or local law?
A. Section 3 of IPC
B. Section 4 of IPC
C. Section 5 of IPC
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. C
95. The law of contempt is exercised in case of:
A. contempt committed in facie curiae
B. contempt committed in generalia specialibus non derogrant
C. contempt committed in ultra vires
D. contempt committed in ad hoc
Ans. A
96. Robbery is dealt under-
Ans. B
Ans. B
97. False statement in connection with elections is dealt under-
A. Section 170 G of IPC
B. Section 171 G of IPC
C. Section 172 G of IPC
D. Section 173 G of IPC
Ans. B
98. Promoting enmity between classes in place of worship, etc. is

dealt under-
A. Section 153A of IPC

B. Section 154A of IPC
D. Section 156A of IPC
Ans. A
99. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his opinion

that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock.
A. A is guilty as he should have withheld the communication
B. A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his duties
C. A is not guilty as he did not give any false hopes
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans. D
100. The defendant was set to watch his master’s premises. He saw a
man on the garden wall and hailed him and then shot at him aiming
at his legs. He missed and shot the deceased whom he had not seen.
A. the defendant is justified in shooting the deceased
B. the defendant is guilty of manslaughter
C. the defendant is not guilty as his own life was danger
D. none of them
Ans. B

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7/13/2019 Objective Questions and Answers on Indian Penal Code

1. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer:

A. All the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are incorporated

B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice Verma Committee are

C. Most of the recommendations of Justice Verma Committee are incorporated

D. None of the above.

2. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian

C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C

D. All of the above.

3. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the right of

D. All of the above.

4. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence

5. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is

6. A man shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment under

(ii) A demand or request for sexual favours.

(iii) Showing pornography against the will of a woman.

(iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (i), (ii) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

7. A man is said to commit “rape” if he penetrates his penis, to any

D. All of the above.

8. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the

D. None of the above.

9. To establish section 34 of IPC:

A. common intention be proved but not overt act be proved

B. common intention and overt act both be proved

C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved

D. all the above.

10. Section 34 of IPC:

A. creates a substantive offence

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b).

A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z

B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’

C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act

D. both (a) & (c).

12. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by means

13. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:

A. life of a human being

C. life of human being and of an animal both

D. life of either human being or animal.

14. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:

A. death of a human being

C. death of a human being and of an animal both

D. death of either human being or an animal.

15. Illegal signifies:

A. everything which is an offence

B. everything which is prohibited by law

C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action

D. all the above.

16. Animal denotes:

A. any living creature including human being

B. any living creature other than a human being

C. any creature – live or dead

D. either (a) or (c).

18. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the

A. has to be wholly rigorous

B. has to be wholly simple

C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple

D. either (a) or (b).

19. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under