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Department of Education

SCHOOLS DIVISION OF SURIGAO CITY


District II
LIPATA NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

First Quarter Examination


SY 2018 - 2019
Earth Science

Name: Date: Score:

I. MULTIPLE CHOICES. Read each test item carefully and write the letter of the correct answer on the
space provided before each number.
1. What does Big Bang Theory explains?
A. Origins of the universe C. why the universe was created
B. Law of Gravity D. the beginning of life
2. Which of the following best explains Edwin Hubble’s significant discovery of the redshift?
A. The galaxies are moving away from each other.
B. The galaxies are moving closer to each other.
C. The solar system is getting bigger.
D. The solar system is getting smalles.
3. What is the theory of monotheistic religions such as Judaism, Christianity, and Islam claim about the
origin of the universe?
A. The gods sacrificed Purusha, whose head, feet, eyes, and mind became the sky, earth, and
moon
B. There is a creator named Mbombo who felt an intense stomach pain and then vomited the
stars, sun, and moon
C. There is a supreme being created the universe, including man and other living organism.
D. The world arose from an infinite sea at the first rising of the sun.
4. Which among the following best describes Nebular Hypothesis as the origin of the solar system?
A. Colliding gases that breaks up to form planets
B. The Sun drags from a near proto-star filament of material which becomes the planets.
C. There is a rotating gaseous cloud that cools and contracts in the middle.
D. There a star bigger than the Sun pass by the Sun and draws gaseous filaments where planets are
formed.
5. Which among the following statements best explains why Earth is the only planet that can hold life?
A. Earth has enough greenhouse gases that keeps its warm for organism’s survival
B. Earth has water
C. Earth external & internal structures are interrelated and functions together
D. All of the above
6. From the data given below, which of the 7 planets is best to hold life?
Planet 1 (closest to the Planet 2 Planet 3 Planet 4
star) Mass: 0.5 Mass: 1 Mass: 1.5
Mass: 1.5 (Earth = 1) Tectonics: No activity Tectonics: active Tectonics: Active
Tectonics: active detected volcanoes and seismic volcanoes and seismic
volcanoes and seismic Atmosphere: Thin CO2 activity detected activity detected
activity detected atmosphere detected Atmosphere: CO2, H2O Atmosphere: N, O2,
Atmosphere: CO2, N, Average Temperature: Temperature: 30oC and ozone layer
and H2O 10oC Description: Liquid Average Temperature:
Description: Thick Description: Polar ice water oceans cover 2oC
clouds surround the caps, dry riverbeds much of the surface. Description : Cold
planet. No surface is Volcanic island chains oceans, covered with
visible through the make up most of the ice along much of the
clouds. dry land. globe, some open
water around equator
Planet 5 Planet 6 Planet 7 (furthest from the star)
Gas giant with one Gas giant with four Gas giant with two large moons
large moon. large, rocky satellites Moon 1: Thick methane atmosphere with
Moon: Sulfur dioxide (moons). pressure high enough to keep a potential
(SO2) atmosphere. Moons have no methane ocean liquid underneath.
Many volcanoes and appreciable Temperature: -200oC
hot springs on surface. atmosphere. Ice Moon 2: Covered in water ice. Ice appears
Temperatures in hot detectable on one. cracked and re-frozen in parts, indicating a
spots can be to 600oC. potential liquid ocean underneath.
Other spots ways from Surface temperature -100oC
volcanic heat can get
as low in temperature
as 145oC.
7. Which geologic subsystem is comprised of all of the waters on Earth, including subsurface and
atmospheric water?
A. Watershpere B. Oceanosphere C. Rainosphere D. Hydrosphere
8. Which of the following situations best describes the working together of Earth’s subsystems?
A. Constructing a building C. Forest
B. Plowing rice fields D. all of these
9. What hypothesis about the Earth subsystems states that the biosphere is a self-regulating system that
is capable of controlling its physical and chemical environement?
A. Gaia Hypothesis C. Encounter Hypothesis
B. Nebular Hypothesis D. None of the above
10. What are the layers of the Earth?
A. Crust B. Mantle C. Core D. all of them
11. What is the correct order of the layers of Earth?
A. Outer and inner core, upper and lower mantle, lithosphere, asthenosphere
B. Upper and lower mantle, lithosphere, asthenosphere, outer and inner core
C. Lithosphere, asthenosphere, upper and lower mantle, outer and inner core
D. Lithosphere, upper and lower mantle, asthenosphere, outer and inner core
12. The core of the Earth is responsible for which physical properties of the Earth?
A. Heat C. Electromagnetic field
B. Gravity D. all of the preceding choices
13. Which of the following DOESN’T define a mineral?
A. An aggregate of rocks C. A homogeneous solid
B. A naturally occurring matter D. Has definite chemical composition
14. Dora wrote down some observations of four rock samples she was studying. Based on her
observations, which of the following rock samples is most likely a sedimentary rock?
A. . C.

B. . D.

15. What type of rock is formed from erosion and weathering of volcanic rocks on the surface of the
Earth?
A. Igneous rock C. Sedimentary rock
B. Metamorphic rock D. Plutonic rock
16. What type of rock is formed from the cooling and solidification of magma or lava?
A. Igneous rock C. Sedimentary rock
B. Metamorphic rock D. Plutonic rock
17. What exogenic process is generally driven by gravity?
A. Flood B. Mass wasting C. Typhoon D. Earthquake
18. What the main source of energy that drives all Earth’s processes?
A. Solar energy from the Sun C. flow in the molten outer core
B. Radioactive decay within the Earth D. seismic energy from earthquakes
19. What is the process that describes weathered material moving to a new location?
A. Erosion C. abrasion
B. Oxidation D. deposition
20. It is described as the disintegration and decomposition of rock at or near the Earth surface.
A. Erosion B. weathering C. abrasion D. oxidation
21. Temperature _______________________ as you move towards the center of the Earth.
A. Decrease B. does not change C. increase D. stay the same
22. What happens when there is a decrease in pressure that affects the hot mantle rock which permits
forming of more magma?
A. Flux melting C. Crust melting
B. Decompression melting D. Compression melting
23. What heat transfer is present between objects in contact with each other?
A. Conduction B. Convection C. radiation
24. Which of the following is true about magma?
A. It is a melted rock C. It is the reason volcanoes form
B. It is the source of all igneous rocks D. All of the above
25. Statements below describes condition that allow formation of magma, which is NOT?
A. Melting of hot mantle rock as pressure and temperature increases.
B. Addition of volatiles to decrease chemical bonds in rocks to allow melting.
C. Heat transfer between rocks as hot magma rises to shallower depths in the Earth.
D. It is the decrease in pressure affecting a hot mantle rock at a constant temperature permits
melting.
26. Complete the statement:
Magmatic differentiation is the process of creating one or more secondary magmas from
__________.

A. Single parent magma C. extruded lava


B. Molten rock D. none of the above
27. When rocks are metamorphosed, the mineral components of the rock are __________.
A. transformed in the solid state
B. melted first, then crystallized again to form a new rock
C. shattered by mechanical processes
D. ugly first, then beautiful
28. What is formed when the pressure applied to a rock at depth is not equal in all direction.
A. Compressional stress C. Shear stress
B. Differential stress D. Tension stress
29. Which of the following is NOT a magmatic differentiation process?
A. Crystal formation C. Magma mixing
B. Partial melting D. explosion of rocks
30. What is formed when hot rocks in the mantle slowly rise and encounter lower pressures?
A. Basalt B. Andesite C. Rhyolite D. gneiss
31. What type of stress is described when two rocks collides each other?
A. Compression B. Tension C. Shear D. Any of them
32. What is the theory of Alfred Wegener that says continents were actually as one land mass?
A. Relative Humidity Theory C. The Origin of Continents and Oceans
B. Continental Drift Theory D. Theory of General Relativity
33. Continental drift was not widely accepted when it was first proposed because ____.
A. Wegener couldn’t explain why or how the continents moved
B. continental landmasses were too big to move slowly over Earth’s surface
C. magnetic and sonar data proved that Wegener’s hypothesis was incorrect
D. mantle convection currents weren’t in motion at that time
34. Which of the following was NOT used by Wegener as evidence of continental drift?
A. Fossils that was common to many continents.
B. Evidence of glaciation on widely separated continents.
C. The geometric fit of the continents.
D. Magnetic anomalies on the seafloor.
35. What are the three types of plate boundaries?
A. Convergent plate boundary C. Transform plate boundary
B. Divergent plate boundary D. all of them
36. What type of stress is experienced by the lithosphere along plate boundaries that result in
earthquake?
A. Shear stress C. tension stress
B. Compression stress D. all of these
37. The process of ___________ continually adds new crust to the ocean floor along both sides of the
mid-ocean ridge.
A. Convection C. continental drift
B. Plate tectonics D. sea-floor spreading
38. What is Pangea?
A. The large landmass in which all continents once were connected
B. The large landmass that all continents are currently forming
C. The largest fault found on Earth
D. Earth’s inner core
39. It is the submerged outer edge of the continent where continental crust transitions into oceanic
crust.
A. Continental margin C. Deep ocean trneches
B. Abyssal plains D. Mid-ocean ridges
40. Fossils are very important for the determination of the possible of age of formation of ________ rocks.
A. Igneous rock B. Sedimentary rock C. Metamorphic rock D. None
41. What is considered as recorders of time?
A. Rocks B. Minerals C. Fossils D. Sediments
42. These are preserved remains or traces of organisms.
A. Rocks B. Minerals C. Fossils D. Sediments
43. What is one of the most importatnt actions to take before an earthquake?
A. Locate safe spots in each room C. Place large items in high places
B. Move to higher ground D. all of the above
44. Which of the following can triggers landslide?
A. Execessive rainfall B. earthquake C. volcanic eruption D. all of them
45. Below are ways in mitigating landslide, which is NOT?
A. Information dissemination C. Cutting down old trees that can’t hold water
B. Terracing or benching D. Ground monitoring
46. Which of the following is NOT a hazard if a tropical cyclone hits your locality?
A. Fire B. flood C. storm surge D. tidal flooding
47. In the event of tropical cyclone in your locality, what should you do?
A. Play in the rain. C. sleep all day, it’s your time to relax
B. Swim in the flood. D. listen to news and prepare for evacuation
48. Which among the following is NOT a hazard associate with living near the coast?
A. Tides B. Beach erosion C. Storm surge D. none of them
49. What is caused by excessive amount of rain that associated with cyclones and monsoon change?
A. Floods B. strong winds C. tides D. storm surge
50. What department announces the event of a tropical cyclone?
A. DOST B. PHILVOCS C. PAG-ASA D. DepEd

GOD BLESS YOU!


Remember that God is watching over you; be honest.
mdrcc

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