The following MCQs are related to certain basics in neurology.

Please read them

carefully and review your answers.

Dr. Osama Amin

All Rights Reserved. February 2006.
http://neurology4mrcp.orgfree.com/
Q1: Optic nerve:
a. Is located in the posterior fossa.
b. Optic neuritis causes bitemporal hemianopia.
c. Optic nerve sheath meningioma can produce proptosis of the globe.
d. Originates from the ganglion cells in the retina.
e. Leber's optic neuropathy is a form of tobacco-alcohol amblyopia.

Q2: Oculomotor nerve:

a. Originates from the upper part of pons.
b. Has many subnuclei.
c. Pupillary sparing palsy indicates a compressive lesion.
d. Can be a false localizing sign in herniation syndromes.
e. Responsible for innervating the dilator pupillae.

Q3: Trochlear nerve:

a. Originates from the midbrain.
b. The only cranial nerve that exits from the dorsal surface of the brainstem.
c. Its lesion results in paralysis of the inferior oblique muscle.
d. It supplies only 1 orbital muscle.
e. Its palsy causes horizontal diplopia.

Q4: The trigeminal nerve:

a. It is the largest cranial nerve.
b. It has 2 roots.
c. Carries parasympathetic fibers to the sublingual glands.
d. Its lesion can cause deviation of the jaw.
e. Carries the efferent elements of the corneal reflex.

Q5: The abducens nerve:

a. Can be damaged in pseudotumor cerebri.
b. It exits from the ponto-mesencephalic junction.
c. Its lesion causes vertical diplopia.
d. Enters the orbit through the inferior oblique fissure.
e. Its lesion is a part of Millard Gubler syndrome.

Q6: The facial nerve:

a. Has a long loop inside the pons.
b. Has 2 roots.
c. Attached to the ventral mid-portion of the pons.
d. A pure motor cranial nerve.
e. In Ramsay Hunt syndrome, the upper face is spared.

Q7: The vestibule-cochlear nerve:

a. Is a pure sensory nerve.
b. Its lesions can cause tinnitus.
c. Severe vertigo is seen peripheral nerve lesions.
d. The resulted nystagmus is towards the side of the lesion.
e. It leaves the posterior fossa through the foramen ovale.
Q8: The Glossopharyngeal nerve:
a. Supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle.
b. Mediates the carotid sinus reflex.
c. Carries taste sensation from the posterior 2/3rds of the tongue.
d. Exists the skull through the jugular foramen.
e. Carries general somatic sensation from the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue.

Q9: The vagus nerve:

a. Is the longest cranial nerve.
b. Can be damaged by lesions inside the chest.
c. Its nuclei are involved in lateral medullary syndrome.
d. It supplies motor innervation to platysma muscle.
e. Is damaged early in motor neuron disease.

Q10: The accessory nerve:

a. The spinal root enters the skull through the hypoglossal canal.
b. The spinal root arises for the 1st 2 cervical segments of the cord.
c. Its lesions produce weakness of neck extension.
d. commonly involved in hemispheric strokes.
e. The cranial root supplies the laryngeal muscles.

Q11: The hypoglossal nerve:

a. A pure motor nerve.
b. Its lesions cause deviation of the tongue towards the normal side.
c. Arises from the upper cervical cord.
d. Its nuclei can be involved in motor neuron disease.
e. Is involved in medial medullary syndrome.

Q12: The olfactory nerve:

a. Its sensory nuclei are in the anterior cranial fossa.
b. Can be damaged by tobacco smoke.
c. Commonly properly examined in neurology.
d. It is underneath the frontal lobe.
e. Has connections with the limbic system.

Q13: The Frontal lobe:

a. Has the Broca's area.
b. Disinhibition can be seen in its lesions.
c. The micturition center id found in the medial surface.
d. Supplied by the vertebral artery.
e. A frontal lobe abscess can be a direct complication of a mastoid sinus sepsis.

Q14: The frontal lobe:

a. A focal motor seizure arises from it.
b. Can be damaged by superior sagittal sinus thrombosis.
c. The middle cerebral artery supplies its medial surface.
d. A positive palmo-mental reflex excludes a frontal lobe lesion.
e. Bilateral lesions can cause paraplegia.
Q15: The frontal lobe:
a. Depression can be a presenting feature of its lesions.
b. A large frontal lobe tumor can cause contralateral disc swelling.
c. Is atrophied in Pick's dementia.
d. Has the hippocampus.
e. The amygdala lies in its anterior inferior surface.

Q16: The temporal lobe:

a. Has the secondary auditory association area.
b. Its damage can cause Wernike's aphasia.
c. The uncus herniates in temporal lobe abscess.
d. An episodic isolated vertigo may indicate a temporal lobe seizure.
e. Is atrophied in Pick's dementia.

Q17: The temporal lobe:

a. Lies in the anterior cranial fossa.
b. Its medial surface is supplied by the middle cerebral artery.
c. The optic radiation does not pass through it.
d. Its anterior part can be resected in primary generalized epilepsies.
e. Responsible for petit mal epilepsy generation.

Q18: The parietal lobe:

a. Has a motor cortical strip.
b. Its lesions can cause formed visual hallucinations.
c. The middle cerebral artery supplies its lateral surface.
d. Loss of 2 point discrimination can be a parietal cortical sign.
e. Gait apraxia indicates a parietal lobe dysfunction.

Q19: The followings are parts of the limbic lobe:

a. Subcallosal gyrus.
b. Cingulate gyrus.
c. Parahippocampal gyrus.
d. Upper segments of the cervical cord.
e. Uncus.

Q20: The followings are parts of the limbic system:

a. Septal nuclei.
b. Amygdala.
c. Hippocampal formation.
d. Epithalamus.
e. Hypothalamus.

Q21: The limbic system plays important roles in:

a. Motivation.
b. Sexual behavior.
c. Vision.
d. Hearing.
e. Motor coordination.
Q22: The cerebrospinal fluid:
a. Is formed by the arachnoid granulations.
b. Its volume ranges from 90-150 ml.
c. Choroid plexus papilloma causes low CSF formation.
d. Its sodium concentration is higher than that of plasma.
e. Has a specific gravity of 1.006-0.009

Q23: The CSF is absorbed by the followings:

a. Arachnoid granulations.
b. Choroid plexus.
c. Thalamus.
d. Ependyma.
e. Middle meningeal arteries.

Q24: Subarachnoid cisters:

a. Cisterna magna surrounds the midbrain.
b. Cisterna pontis lies between the pons and cvlivus.
c. Cisterna interpeduncularis lies between the pyramids of the medulla oblongata.
d. The suprasellar cistern is dorsal to the sella turcica.
e. Cisterna ambiens is dorsal and lateral to the mesencephalon.

Q25: The followings are seen in REM-sleep:

a. Erection is males.
b. Teeth grinding.
c. Regular slow respiration.
d. A decline in blood pressure.
e. Increased muscle tone.

Q26: The followings are seen in non-REM sleep:

a. Reduced muscle tone.
b. A decrease in blood pressure.
c. An increase in the heart rate.
d. An increase in the respiratory rate.
e. The presence of low voltage rapid EEG complexes.

Q27: The cerebral circulation:

a. The mid brain is partly supplied by the posterior cerebral artery.
b. The hippocampus is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.
c. The basilar artery supplies the pons.
d. Spinal cord is supplied by anterior and posterior spinal arteries only.
e. The micturition center in the frontal lobe is supplied by the middle cerebral artery.

Q28: The pyramidal tract:

a. Arises only from the prefrontal cortex.
b. Decussates in the lower pons.
c. It lesion can cause chorea.
d. Lies in the posterior column of the spinal cord.
e. It is concerned with motor control.
Q29: Upper motor neuron signs are:
a. Complete paralysis of involved muscles.
b. Dysthesic pain.
c. Ill sustained ankle clonus.
d. Positive finger flexion jerk.
e. Lead pipe rigidity.

Q30: Cerebellar lesions can cause:

a. Severe motor weakness.
b. Positive rebound phenomenon.
c. Defective saccadic eye movements.
d. Impaired pursuit eye movements.
e. Transient gaze paresis.

Q31: The spinothalamic tracts:

a. Are sensory long tracts.
b. Occupy the dorsal columns.
c. Convey Join position and vibration sensations.
d. Unilateral cord lesions produce loss of associated sensations ipsilaterally.
e. Severely involved in vitamin B12 Deficiency.

Q32: The spinal cord:

a. Occupies the whole vertebral canal.
b. It has 2 areas of enlargement.
c. The dorsal cord lesions can cause paraplegia.
d. The subpial areas are particularly involved in multiple sclerosis.
e. The upper cervical segments have a contribution to many cranial nerves.

Q33: The motor end plate:

a. Glutamate is the neurotransmitter.
b. Botulism attacks the nerve terminal side.
c. Lambert Eaton syndrome attacks the muscle side.
d. Acetylcholine receptors are functionless.
e. Wider and simplified in myasthenia gravis.

Q34: Muscle fibers:

a. Fast twitching fibers are highly rich in glycogen.
b. The erector spinae muscle is an example of fast twitching muscle.
c. Myoglobin content is low in white fibers.
d. The red fibers are fatigue resistant.
e. Steroid myopathy attacks type II fibers.

Q35: When choosing a muscle for muscle biopsy for light microscopic
examination:
a. The muscle should always be affected.
b. The deltoid, vastus medialis and calf muscles are preferred.
c. Should have a power of at least grade 3.
d. Should not be taken from a muscle recently injected by a medication.
e. Very useful in motor end plate diseases.
Q36: Muscle biopsy results:
a. Ragged red fibers are seen in mitochondrial cytopathy.
b. Ragged red fibers are seen in HIV patients on zidovudin.
c. Perifascicular atrophy is characteristically seen in dermatomyositis.
d. Rimmed vacuoles with myeloid bodies are seen in inclusion body myositis.
e. Fiber type grouping is seen in neurogenic muscular atrophy.

Q37: Muscle biopsy findings in myasthenia gravis:

a. The presence of lymphorrhages.
b. Simplification of the postsynaptic membrane.
c. Fiber type grouping.
d. Muscle fiber regeneration with fasciitis.
e. Extensive eosinophilic infiltration.

Q38: EEG waves and rhythms:

a. Alpha rhythm is normally seen mainly posteriorly.
b. The delta rhythm has a frequency of 0.5-3 cps.
c. Theta preponderance rhythms are seen in normal children.
d. Slow waves are normally seen in a wakeful adult.
e. The Beta rhythm is inhibited by sedatives.

Q39: The medulla oblongata contains the following nuclei:

a. Nucleus ambiguus.
b. Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus nerve.
c. Locus cerulus.
d. Nucleus fastigius.
e. Amygdala.

Q40: Localization in neurology:

a. Chorea is caused by lesions in the caudate nuclei.
b. Hemiballismus is seen in hypothalamic lesions.
c. Myoclonus has no specific localization.
d. Tremor is caused by over activity of the pontine nuclei.
e. Anomia is seen in lesions involving the upper midbrain.

Q41: The neuroglial cells:

a. Protoplasmic astrocytes have a phagocytic function.
b. Microglia is inactive in normal CNS.
c. Ependymocytes can absorb the CSF.
d. Oligodendrocytes from myelin in the CNS.
e. Fibrous astrocytes are electrical insulators.

Q42: Location of the various glial cells:

a. Protoplasmic astrocytes in the gray matter.
b. Ependymocytes line the central canal of the spinal cord.
c. Tanycytes in the gray matter.
d. Microglial cells are scattered through out the CNS.
e. Choroidal epithelial cells in white matter of the spinal cord.
Q43: Type of receptor and its corresponding sensory modality:
a. Pacinian corpuscles and vibration sensation.
b. Ruffini's corpuscles and skin stretching.
c. Merkel's disc and skin temperature sensation.
d. Meissner's corpuscles and muscle tension.
e. Free nerve endings and pain sensation.

Q44: Chemical compounds acting on the motor end plate:

a. Botulinum toxin reduces the release of acetylcholine.
b. d-tubocurarine blocks the acetylcholine receptors.
c. 4-aminopyridine reduces acetylcholine release.
d. Succinylcholine produces depolarization block.
e. Guanidine hydrochloride reduces acetylcholine release.

Q45: The followings are found in midbrain:

a. Oculomotor nerve.
b. Red nuclei.
c. Locus cerulus.
d. Cerebral peduncles.
e. Inferior colliculi.

Q46: The followings are found in the pons:

a. The vestibular nuclei.
b. Trapezoid body.
c. Mammillary bodies.
d. Uncus.
e. Facial nerve fasciculus.

Q47: The followings are found in the medulla oblongata:

a. Inferior olivary nuclear complex.
b. Cerebral peduncles.
c. Pineal body
d. Hypoglossal nucleus.
e. Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve:

Q48: Foramena of the skull:

a. The optic nerve passes through the superior orbital fissure.
b. The hypoglossal nerve passes through the jugular foramen.
c. The Abducens passes through the foramen rotundum.
d. The oculomotor nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure.
e. The trigeminal nerve main trunk passes through foramen ovale.

Q49: Aphasias:
a. Broca's aphasia is due to lesion in the frontal lobe.
b. Wernicke's aphasia is due to lesion in the upper parietal lobe.
c. Trans-cortical motor aphasia is due to lesion in the upper lateral frontal lobe.
d. Conductive aphasia is due to lesion in the medial temporal lobe.
e. Anomic aphasia could be lesion in pons.
Q50: Localization in clinical neurology:
a. Aphasia could be due to thalamic lesion.
b. Dysarthria could be due to cortical lesion.
c. Hemianopia is a supratentorial sign.
d. Lacunar strokes are not associated with impaired consciousness.
e. Barber chair sign indicates a local cervical cord lesion.
Answers:
Q1: Answer: F, F, T, T, F
It is (together with olfactory nerve) located supratentorially. Its lesion can cause
varieties of scotomas and unilateral blindness. Leber's optic neuropathy is a form of
mitochondrial cytopathy.

Q2: Answer: F, T, F, T, F
It originates from the upper midbrain. A compressive lesion produces pupillary
dilatation as the first sign (so-called surgical 3rd nerve palsy); the medical 3rd nerve
palsy is pupillary sparing (like the classical diabetic 3rd acute nerve palsy. It supplies
the constrictor pupillae and ciliary body with parasympathetic fibers.

Q3: Answer: T, T, F, T, F.
It supplies the superior oblique, horizontal diplopia is seen in 6th nerve palsy.

Q4: Answer: T, T, F, T, F
It is the afferent loop of the corneal reflex. It does not carry parasympathetic fibers to
any structure.

Q5: Answer: T, F, F, F, T
It exits from the ponto-medullary junction. It lesion causes horizontal diplopia. It
enters the orbit through the superior orbital fissure.

Q6: Answer: T, T, F, F, F
It is attached the lateral portion of the pontomedullary junction (the 5th cranial nerve is
attached to the ventral mid portion of the pons), it is a mixed nerve (motor, sensory,
and autonomic), and Ramsay Hunt syndrome produces complete palsy of a lower
motor neuron type (the upper face is spared in upper motor neuron lesions).

Q7: Answer: T, T, T, F, F
The resulted nystagmus is away from the side of the lesion. It leaves the posterior
fossa through the internal auditory meatus and canal.

Q8: Answer: T, T, F, T, F
It carries taste and general somatic sensations from the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue.

Q9: Answer: T, T, T, F, F
The platysma is supplied by the facial nerve, and never involved in motor neuron
disease.

Q10: Answer: F, F, F, F, T
The spinal root enters the skull through the foramen magnum afte arising from the 1st
5 cervical cord segements; its lesions cause weakness of ipsilateral trapezius and
sternomastoid (has nothing to do with neck extension). It's, rarely if ever, ivloved in
upper motor neuron lesion above the medulla.

Q11: Answer: T, F, F, T, T
It causes deviation of the tongue towards the paralyzed side (pushed by the normal
side) when damaged, and it arises from the lower medulla.
Q12: Answer: T, T, F, T, T
It is usually examined properly when the clinical picture is suggestive. eg a frontal
lobe meningioma beneath the frontal lobe.

Q13: Answer: T, T, T, F, F
It is supplied by the anterior circulation (ie carotid system), a frontal sinus abscess can
extend to the frontal lobe. A mastoid abscess usually produces cerebellar or temporal
lobe abscesses.

Q14: Answer: T, T, F, F, T
The middle cerebral artery supplies its lateral surface, and positive palmo-mental
reflex (a frontal release sign) indicates a frontal lobe lesion.

Q15: Answer: T, T, T, F, F
The hippocampus and amgdala lie in the temporal lobe (both are parts of the limbic
system).

Q16: Answer: T, T, T, T, T
Notice that vertigo can be a cortical sign (but very a rare one), and the uncus is
responsible for compressing the midbrain and 3rd cranial nerve when it herniates
through the tentorial hiatus.

Q17: Answer: F, F, F, F, F
It lies in the middle crania fossa, and its medial surface is supplied by the posterior
cerebral artery, and the optic radiation loops back around the tip of the temporal lobe,
and can be resected as a mode of treatment of medically refractory complex partial
seizures of hippocampal sclerosis. Petit mal epilepsy is a primary generalized epilepsy
(not a focal one).

Q18: Answer: F, F, T, T, F
The primary sensory cortex lies in the parietal lobe; formed visual hallucinations
indicate a temporal lobe lesion; Dressing and constructional apraxias indicate a non-
dominant parietal lobe lesion.

Q19: Answer: T, T, T, F, T
Notice that the limbic lobe is synthetic lobe, not a true lobe, composed of gray matter
structures at the medial and basal parts of the hemispheres that form a limbus (border)
around the midbrain.

Q20: Answer: T, T, T, T, T
Notice that the limbic system is "the limbic lobe and all cortical and subcortical
structures related to it". Besides the mentioned structures, the thalamus (particularly
the anterior thalamus) and the brainstem reticular formation are parts of the limbic
system.

Q21: Answer: T, T, F, F, F
It plays an important role in: Memory, emotional behavior, sexual behavior,
motivation, and integration of homeostatic responses like those related to preservation
of species, securing food, fight and flights responses…etc.
Q22: Answer: F, T, F, T, T
It is formed by the choroid plexus, and in cases of choroid plexus papilloma the CSF
is formed at a higher rate causing hydrocephalus. The concentration of sodium,
chloride, and magnesium ions in the CSF is higher that that of plasma, where its
concentration of potassium and calcium ions is lower than that of plasma.

Q23: Answer: T, F, F, T, F
It is also absorbed through perineural spaces.

Q24: Answer: F, T, F, T, T
Cisterna magna (cisterna cerebellomedullaris) is the largest of all cisterns and lies
between the medulla oblongata, cerebellum, and occipital bone. Cisterna
interpeduncularis lies between the cerebral peduncles of the midbrain. Knowing the
exact manes and locations of these cisterns is important in MRI.

Q25: Answer: T, T, F, F, F
The followings occur in the REM sleep (desynchronization sleep, dreaming sleep, and
paradoxical sleep):
1- Marked hypotonia.
2- An increase in blood pressure and heart rate with irregular respirations ( all are
decreased in non-REM sleep with regular respirations).
3- Erection in males.
4- Teeth grinding.
5- Dreaming (hence the name dreaming sleep).
6- Rapid eye movements (50-60 movements per minutes, hence the name rapid eye
movement sleep or REM sleep).
7- Rapid low voltage irregular EEG activity resembling the waking pattern (so-called
desynchronization pattern).
8- Increased threshold of arousal, hence the deep sleep.

Q26: Answer: T, T, F, F, F
In non-REM (also synchronized, light, or slow wave) sleep, we see the followings:
1- Hypotonia.
2. A decrease in heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate which regular.
3- A slow EEG activity of high voltage, hence the name slow-wave sleep.

Q27: Answer: T, F, T, F, F
The hippocampus is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery. The spinal cord is also
supplied by many local "radicular arteries" at different segments. The micturition
center in the mesial frontal lobe is supplied anterior cerebral artery.

Q28: Answer: F, F, F, F, T
The pyramidal system has contribution from the prefrontal motor cortex including
area 6 and 8, and also some contribution from the post central gyrus (area 3, 1, 2). It
decussates in the lower medulla and occupies the lateral compartment of the cord.
Chorea is caused by basal ganglia lesions.

Q29: Answer: F, F, F, T, T
Notice that complete paralysis is not consistent with pyramidal lesions; instead they
cause paresis of the muscles not paralysis. Although cord lesions can cause painful
flexor or extensor spasms, dysthesic pain indicates sensory system dysfunction. Ill
sustained clonus could be a normal finding, especially in anxious people; a
pathological clonus (more that 3 sustained beats) is consistent with pyramidal lesions.
Clasp knife, not lead pipe rigidity, is an upper motor neuron sign.

Q30: Answer: F, T, T, T, T
Notice that cerebellar lesions cause incoordination of motor movements, not a severe
weakness, with pendular knee jerk. Eye signs in cerebellar diseases are almost always
overlooked in clinical practice; these are apart from nystagmus: defective saccadic
eye movements, impaired pursuit eye movements, transient gaze paresis, inability to
maintain an eccentric gaze, failure to suppress the optokinetic nystagmus upon
fixation, moderate increase in vestibule-ocular reflexes.

Q31: Answer: T, F, F, F, F
The anterior and lateral spinothalmics occupy the anterior and lateral columns, and
convey crude touch, pressure, pain and thermal sensations. They are characteristically
spared in vitamin B12 deficiency, and unilateral cord lesions produce contralateral
signs, 2-3 segments below the level of the lesion.

Q32: Answer: F, T, T, T, F
It extends from the foramen magnum to the level of lower border of L2 vertebra in
adults. It has 2 normal enlargements; the lower cervical and lumbosacral enlargements
corresponding to the brachial and lumbosacral plexuses. The upper cervical segments
give rise to spinal accessory nerve, which is the only cranial nerve that has a cord
contribution.

Q33: Answer: F, T, T, F, T
Lambert Eaton syndrome (like botulism) attacks the nerve terminal (presynaptic) side;
while myasthenia gravis attacks the muscle (postsynaptic) side. Acetylcholine is the
neurotransmitter which acts on acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic side.

Q34: Answer: F, F, T, T, T
Our muscles have 2 types of fibers:
1- Type I: slowly contracting, red, fatigue resistant, rich in oxidative enzymes (and
myoglobin, mitochondria, lipids, and local capillary density) but has low
phosphorylase and glycogen contents. It has an oxidative metabolism. The erector
spinae is an example.
2- Type IIa: Very rare human.
3- Type IIb: Fast twitching and fatigable, white, rich in phosphorylase and glycogen
and it has a glycolytic metabolism.

Q35: Answer: F, T, T, T, F
It is preferred to be taken from a muscle that is clinically affected but not severely as
we may see only atrophy or fibrosis; however, we can choose other subclinically
muscles because the affected muscles might be severely weakened by that disease
under investigation. It is generally useless in motor end plate diseases to be examined
by light microscope (EM is useful here).
Q36: Answer: T, T, T, T, T
Notice that these "pictures" are commonly seen in the MRCP examination and you
should know them.

Q37: Answer: T, T, F, F, F
Notice that the biopsy findings in most neuromuscular diseases are not that
pathognomonic or diagnostic. Lymphorrhages are localized collection of lymphocyte
(similar to that of Hashimoto's thyroiditis). Fiber type grouping is seen in neurogenic
atrophy with re-innervation. Muscle fiber regeneration is against myasthenia gravis,
and indicates an ongoing process of fiber necrosis and regeneration due to for
example polymyositis. Extensive eosinophilic infiltration is seen in eosinophilic
myositis.

Q38: Answer: T, T, F, F, F
Normal brain waves and rhtytms:
1-Alpha rhythm: between 8-13 cps, mainly seen at the posterior hemispheres.
2- Beat rhythm: between 14-30 cps, seen over wide areas of the hemispheres, and
accentuated in those taking sedatives.
3- Theta rhythm: between 4-7 cps, normally seen at the temporal lobes mainly in old
people.
4- Delta rhythm: between 0.5-3 cps, normally seen in the non-REM sleep. The
presence of a focal slowing in a fully alert person always indicates a local lesion like a
tumor, and diffuse slowing is usually seen in encephalopathies.

Q39: Answer: T, T, F, F, F
Locus cerulus is found in the lower midbrain; nucleus fastigius is one of the deep
cerebellar nuclei; the amygdala is located in the medial temporal lobe.

Q40: Answer: T, F, T, F, F
Hemiballismus is seen in lesions of the nucleus subthalamicus; anomia is a cortical
sign.

Q41: Answer: T, T, T, T, T
Notice that the microglial cells proliferate in CNS diseases; the choroidal epithelial
cells secrete the CSF; astrocytes provide a supporting framework.

Q42: Answer: T, T, F, T, F
Tanycytes line the floor of the 3rd ventricle; choroidal epithelial cells cover the
surface of the choroid plexuses. Notice that the fibrous astrocytes are found in the
white matter.

Q43: Answer: T, T, F, F, T
Merkel's disc is related to touch sensation; skin temperature sensation is mediated by
free nerve endings; Meissner's corpuscles is related to touch sensation; muscle tension
is mediated neuron-tendinous spindles.

Q44: Answer: T, T, F, T, F
Both 4-aminopyridine and Guanidine hydrochloride increases the release of
acetylcholine at the motor end plate, hence their use in Lambert Eaton syndrome.
Q45: Answer: T, T, T, T, T
Also; the substantia nigra, superior colliculi, and the 4th cranial nerve.

Q46: Answer: T, T, F, F, T
The uncus is in the medial temporal lobe; the mammillary bodies are part of the
hypothalamus.

Q47: Answer: T, T, F, T, F
Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve is found in the midbrain.

Q48: Answer: F, F, F, F, F
The optic nerve passes through the optic foramen and canal. The hypoglossal nerve
passes through the hypoglossal foramen. The Abducens passes through the superior
orbital fissure. The oculomotor nerve passes through the superior orbital fissure. The
trigeminal nerve main trunk does not pass through any foramen.

Q49: Answer: T, F, T, F, F
Wernicke's aphasia is due to lesion in the upper lateral temporal lobe. Conductive
aphasia is due to lesion in the in the arcuate fasciculus in the insula. Anomic aphasia
is a cortical sign.

Q50: Answer: T, T, T, T, T
Thalamic aphasia has an excellent prognosis; cortical dysarthria is rare and has a
better prognosis also. Lacunar strokes are not associated with seizures, impaired
consciousness, hemianopia, or aphasia.

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