LEA Reviewer An - Sci

Review Questions for Agriculturists Board Exam
(Animal Science)
1. The purebred known to be the “longest breed” among purebred hogs.
a. Large White b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Pietrain
2. The earliest number of months that swine attain sexual maturity.
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
3. The weight at 8 months that the gilt can be culled
a. Less than 100 kg b. Less than 120 kg c. Less than 110 kg d. Less than 90 kg
4. The average heat period of gilts and sows.
a. 2-5 days b. 1-3 days c. 7-10 days d. 1-2 days
5. This swine is known to be the “red power” among purebred hogs.
a. Pietrain b. Hampshire c. Landrace d. Duroc
6. This is done by riding the back or pressing the loin or back of the gilt or sow
a. Haunch pressure test b. Semen-on-snout test c. Riding the back test d. teaser method
7. This swine is known to be the “mother breed” among purebred hogs
a. Large white b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Pietrain
8. This is done by applying pressure on the rump with both hands
a. Teaser method b. Semen-on-snout test c. Riding the back test d. Haunch pressure test
9. This is known to be the “muscle pigs” among purebred hogs\
a. Hampshire b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Pietrain
10. The act of giving birth to a litter of pigs
a. Flushing b. Farrowing c. Crushing d. Gestating
11. The most essential and the cheapest of all nutrients/
a. Protein b. Water c. Minerals d. Energy
12. This swine is known to be the “Belted white” among purebred hogs
a. Large white b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Hampshire
13. This is the timing or best period to breed the gilts
a. 6 monts b. 7 months c. 10 months d. 8 months

14. The percentage of crude protein for a broad sow ration
a. 14 b. 15 c. 18 d. 13
15. The percentage content of crude protein, Ca and P respectively, for a lactating sow ration
a. 14, 0.5 and 0.6 b. 18, 0.7 and 0.5 c. 15, 0.6 and 0.4 d. 13, 0.4 and 0.6
16. The length of cutting the umbilical cord of the newly born piglet from the base
a. 3 – 4 inches b. 3-5 inches c. 1.5 – 2.0 inches d. 4 – 5 inches
17. The amount of CP, Ca and P, respectively for a creep ration
a. Not less than 18, 0.7 and 0.5 b. Not less than 22, 0.8 and 0.6
c. Not less than 20, 0.8 and 0.6 d. Not less than 18, 0.6 and 0.8
18. The type of roofing that is recommended for swine buildings.
a. Monitor b. Semi-monitor c. Gable d. Gothic
19. The elevation or grade of the concrete floor for a 4-meter long pen.
a. Not less than 10 b. Not less than 8 c. Not less than 14 d. Not less than 12
20. The measurements of the door clearance of pens and the width of the door itself for breeding and growing-finishing
animals
a. 60 & 45 respectively b. 62 & 50 respectively c. 64 & 55, respectively d. 66 & 60 respectively
21. This is the height where the automatic waterer for suckling pigs is placed.
a. 5 to 8 cm from the floor b. 8 to 10 cm from the floor
c. 12 to 14 cm from the floor d. 15 to 20 cm from the floor
22. This is the height were the automatic waterer for weanling pigs is placed.
23. This is the height where the automatic waterer for grower pigs is placed
24. This is the height where the automatic waterer for finisher pigs is placed
25. The recommended quarantine period for swine
a. Not less than 20 days b. Not less than 30 days

c. Not less than 40 days d. Not less than 50 days
26. The superiority of the crossbred offspring over the average of the purebred parents.
a. close breeding b. hybrid vigor c. Inbred d. Line breeding
27. This breed has major defect on its hind legs particularly the pastern
a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Pietrain
28. Cherry red is the most common color of this breed.
29. An example of hybrid swine present in the country today
a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Nieuw Dalland
30. The ears of its kind are medium and pointing upward
a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Nieuw Dalland
31. This swine has a very thin backfat thickness among breeds
a. Pietrain b. Hampshire c. Landrace d. Duroc
32. This breed has a greater tendency to put on fat
33. This breed is black with white band around the heart girth including the front legs
a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Hampshire d/ Yorkshire
34. This breed is black colored with six (6) white points, at the forehead, the forelegs and switch
a. Berkshire b. Duroc c. Hampshire d. Yorkshire
35. This breed has a characteristic 50% black and 50% white colored body, with good mothering ability
a. Berkshire b. Hampshire c. Spotted Poland d. Yorkshire
36. This breed is well known for the “thick backfat”
a. Pietrain b. Poland China c. Spotted Poland d. Yorkshire
37. The hybridization process of mating or crossing of two different species of animals
a. Intraspecific b. Interspecific c. Criss crossing d. Two way crossing
38. The hybridization process of mating the animals belonging to different breeds or strain
a. Intraspecific b. Interspecific c. Criss crossing d. Two way crossing
39. The intensities or fixes hereditary qualities and brings about homozygosity to the hogs
a. Cross breeding b. Inbreeding c. Pure breeding d. Upgrading

40. The mating of closely related individuals such as brother to sister, sire to daughter and son to dam
a. Close breeding b. Cross breeding c. Line breeding d. Triple crossing
41. The mating of animals in a lesser degree than close breeding like between cousins, half-brother to half-sister,
grandparents to grandchildren or vice versa/
a. Close breeding b. Cross breeding c. Line breeding d. Triple crossing
42. The successive crossing of progeny to common ancestor/
a. Backcrossing b. Criss crossing c. Triple crossing d. Two way crossing
43. This refer to the mating of a purebred male to a purebred mongrel female
a. Back crossing b. Criss crossing c. Grading d. Upgrading
44. Gilts should be bred to farrow the first litter at:
a. about 1 year old b. about 2 year old c. about 3 years old d. about 4 years old
45. The lifetime reproductive performance of the sow is affect during
a. First farrowing b. Second farrowing c. Third farrowing d. Fourth farrowing
46. This refers to the application of genetics and physiology or reproduction to animal improvement or “procreation”
a. Grading b. Breeding c. Marking d. Farrowing
47. The mating of animals having diverse genotypes or genetic composition
a. Hybridization b. Outbreeding c. Pure breeding d. Inbreeding
48. The mating back of the crossbred progeny to the parental stock, using them alternately
a. Inbreedingb. Grading c. Criss crossing d. Backcrossing
49. This is done by applying pressure on the rump with both hands
a. Riding-the-Back-Test b. Hauch pressure test
c. Semen-on-Snout-Test d. Teaser Method
50. This is done by riding the back or pressing the loin or back of the animal
51. This is done by placing sample of fresh semen on the snout of the female by either plain hand or from a squeeze bottle
52. This is done by placing boar beside the gilts or sows pigpen.

53. Increasing the nutrient intake prior to breeding and during ovulation to increase the productivity of the sow or gilt
a. Flushing b. Gestating c. Breeding d. Farrowing
54. The time or period between breeding and farrowing
a. Lactation b. Gestation c. Ovulation d. Parturition
55. The act of giving birth to a litter of pigs
a. Lactating b. Barrowing c. Gestating d. Farrowing
56. The time from farrowing until weaning
a. Lactation b. Gestation c. Parturition d. Ovulation
57. The process in which certain individuals are preferred to produce in the next generation
a. Ovulation b. Lactation c. Selection d. Gestation
58. A group of proteins that are polymers
a. Amino acids b. Energy c. Vitamins d. Minerals
59. They are composed of sugar and starches and are the primary source of energy for the pigs
a. Amino acids b. Energy c. Vitamins d. Minerals
60. The indispensable amino acid
a. Cystine b. Alanine c. Tyrosin d. Lysine
61. The dispensable amino acid
a. Aspartic b. Arginine c. Leucine d. Histidine
62. They serve also as major source of energy for pigs
a. Mineral b. Fat c. Fiber d. Ash
63. It has low energy nutrient content, which is less digestible to pigs
a. Mineral b. Fat c. Fiber d. Ash
64. They are classified into complex organic compounds needed in pigs health and normal body processes
a. Mineral b. Fat c. Fiber d. Vitamins
65. They are extremely important to proper animal development
a. Mineral b. Fat c. Fiber d. Vitamins
66. The most essential and cheapest of all nutrients
a. Mineral b. Fats c. Water d. Fiber

67. The most accepted way of testing the pig for leptospirosis and brucellosis
a. Riding-the-back test b. Hauch pressure test
c. Semen-on-snout test d. Blood Test
68. The brood sow ration contains CP Equivalent to
a. 14% b. 15% c. 16% d. 17%
69. The digestible energy required in brood sow ration
a. 3,100 b. 3,200 c. 3,300 d, 3,400
70. The amount of calcium required in brood sow ration
a. 0.70 b. 0.75 c. 0.80 d. 0.85
71. The amount of phosphorous required in brood sow ration
a. 0.35 b. 0.40 c. 0.45 d. 0.50
72. The digestible energy required in pregnant gilt
a. 6,200 b. 6,400 c. 6,600 d. 6,800
73. The minimum rest in days of the farrowing pens between farrowng
a. 7 b. 14 c. 21 d. 28
74. The gestation period of sow
a. 90 days b. 100 days c. 107 days d. 114 days
75. The longest gestation period of normal pigs farrowed recorded
76. The number of hours when the milk is present in the sow that is about to farrow
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 72 hours d. 96 hours
77. The lactating ration contains CP equivalent to
a. 14 % b. 15% c. 16% d. 17%
78. The digestible energy required in lactating ration
a. 2,200 b. 2,300 c. 2,400 d. 2,500
79. The amount of calcium required in lactating ration
a. 0.60 b. 0.65 c. 0.70 d. 0.75
80. The amount of phosphorous required in lactating ration
a. 0.35 b. 0.40 c. 0.45 d. 0.50

81. Feeding of newly farrowed sow will resume when
a. on the second day b. on the third day c. on the fourth day d. on the fifth day
82. The optimum feed allowance given to the sow for piglet requirements during lactation period.
a. 0.50 kg per piglet b. 0.75 kg per piglet c. 1.00 kg per piglet d. 1.25 kg per piglet
83. The cutting of umbilical cord from the base in newly born piglet.
a. 0.60 to 0.65 inches b. 0.70 to 0.75 piglet c. 1.5 to 2.0 inches d. 2.5 to 3.0 inches
84. The good creep ration contains CP equivalent to
a. 16 % b. 18 % c. 20 % d. 22 %
85. The digestible energy required in lactating ration
a. 3,000 b. 3,500 c. 4,000 d. 4,500
86. The amount of calcium required in lactating ration
a. 0.60 b. 0.70 c. 0.80 d. 0.90
87. The amount of phosphorous required in lactating ration
a. 0.60 b. 0.70 c. 0.80 d. 0.90
88. The usual recommended reduction of a sow feed before weaning
a. 2 to 3 daysb. 4 to 5 days c. 6 to 7 days d. 8 to 9 days
89. The recommended number of days for the gradual change of feeds in the feeding
90. The recommended type of roofing in constructing piggery houses
a. semi-monitor b. monitor c. gable d. shed
91. The recommended period for the actual use of vaccines after mixing with diluents
a. 30 minutes b. 40 minutes c. 50 minutes d.60 minutes
92. The number of days after vaccination that pigs should not be bathed
a. 2 to 3 daysb. 4 to 5 days c. 6 to 7 days d. 8 to 9 days
93. The system of pig keeping wherein they are left free to find their own food
a. semi-intensive b. intensive c. extensive d. semi-extensive
94. The system of pig keeping wherein they are supplied with feeds consisting of tubers, waste byproducts and vegetable
trimmings
95. The system of pig keeping wherein they are supplied with high quality feeds, optimal utilization of housing facilities
96. The farms that develop produce and supply gilts and boars to other farms
a. Multiplication farm b. Breeding farm c. Fattening farm d. Combination Multiplication & Growing
97. The farms that aim to produce weaners for fattening pigs
a. Multiplication farm b. Breeding farm c. Fattening farm d. Combination Multiplication & Growing
98.A piggery farm that maintains purebred pigs or a specific line within a purebred.
a. Breeder farm b. Boar Service farm c. Nucleus farm d. Subnucleus farm
99. A piggery farm that multiplies purebred and lines
100. A piggery farm that maintains grandparent stocks of the pig and produces parent stocks within the pure breeds.
101. A piggery farm whose intension is to give breeding services to other farm
102. A piggery farm whose intention is to produce finished pigs for slaughter
a. Multiplier farm b. Breeding farm c. Fattening farm d. Combination Multiplier & Growing
103. The allowable sperm defects on abnormal head shape in boars
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20 %
104. The allowable sperm defects on abnormal chromosome in boars
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20 %
105. The allowable sperm defects on cytoplasmic droplets in boars
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20 %
106. The allowable sperm defects on coiled tails in boars
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20 %
107. A microcopy examination that measures the viability of the semen of boars
a. Sperm morphological test b. Semen density test
c. Sperm motility test d. Sperm evaluation test
108. A microcopy examination that measures sperm abnormalities in boars

109. A microcopy examination that measures the total number of sperm cells
110. The reusable catheter that has a spiral tip which can be sterilized and used for about two years
a. Spiral plastic catheter b. Foam catheter
c. Graded catheter d. Melrose spiral catheter
111. The catheter which is a disposable fitting on all type of boar semen containers.
112.The catheter with metric calibration to determine the length to be inserted
113. The catheter with soft tip to prevent trauma during its insertion
114. The digestible energy required in breeder ration
a. 3,000 b. 3,200 c. 3,400 d. 3,600
115. The prestarter ration contains CP equivalent to
a. 14% b. 16% c. 18% d. 20%
116. Preliminary selection of breeding pig starts at
a. 2 to 3 months b. 4 to 5 months c. 5 to 7 months d. 7 to 8 months
117. The starter ration contains CP equivalent to
a. 14% b. 16% c. 18% d. 20%
118. The average duration of pigs estrous cycle
119. The period between weaning and the next service
a. Gestation period b. Production period c. Lactation period d. Dry perio
120. The normal lactation period in pigs in the tropics
a. 28 to 42 days b. 30 to 50 days c. 35 to 60 days d. 40 to 70 days

121. The rearing period of weaner pigs
a. 20 to 30 days b. 26 to 30 days c. 30 to 40 days d. 40 to 50 days
122. The culling rate of sows population per year
a. 2 – 15% b. 4 – 20% c. 6 – 25% d. 8 – 33%
123. The culling rate of boars per year
a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%
124. The average culling rate of sows with average age in 3.33 years of production
a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%
a. 25% b. 30 % c. 35% d. 40%
a. 25% b. 30 % c. 35% d. 40%
127. The generally recommended boar to sow ratio.
a. 1:20 – 30 b. 1:35 – 40 c. 1:40 – 50 d. 1:45 – 55
128. A piglet of small size compared to its littermates
a. Barrow b. Starter c. Runt d. Suckling
129. The average weight of pig embryo within 30 days
a. 20 grams b. 30 grams c. 40 grams d. 50 grams
a. 1,000 grams b. 1,100 grams c. 1,200 grams d. 1,400 grams
133. The acceptable rate of percentage in stillborn pigs
a. 4% b. 6% c. 8 % d. 10 %
134. The acceptable rate of percentage in preweaning mortality in pigs
a. 4% b. 6% c. 8 % d. 10 %
135. The acceptable rate of percentage in postweaning mortality in pigs

a. 4% b. 6% c. 8 % d. 10 %
136. The acceptable rate of percentage in litter size at birth for sows
a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
137. The acceptable rate of percentage in litter size at birth for gilts
a. 6 b. 7 c. 9 d. 10
138. The acceptable rate or percentage in culling replacement gilts
a. 10 to 15 %b. 20 to 25% c. 30 to 35% d. 40 to 45%
\139. The target conception rater per gestation period
a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90%
140. The target lifetime farrowing per sow
a. 4 – 5 b. 8 -12 c. 12 – 15 d. 16 – 20
141. The usual or normal range of heat period of the gilts and sows
a. 1 – 3 days b. 2 – 5 days c. 6 – 8 days d. 7 – 10 days
142. The average number of pigs weaned per sow per year
a. 5.5 – 10.54 pigs b. 6.5 – 12.56 pigs c. 7.5 -14.12 pigs d. 10.37 – 23.26 o\pigs
143. The maximum average backfat thickness for breeding animals weighing 90 kg
a. 2.0 cm b, 3.0 cm c.3.2 cm d. 3.4 cm
144. The 85 kg finished hog has an initial body of 15 kg; its average daily gain is equivalent to
a. 0.52 kg ADG b. 0.62 kg ADG c. 0.72 kg ADG d.0.82 kg ADG
145. If a 90 kg finished hog has an initial body of 25 kg, its average daily gain is
a. 0.52 kg ADG b. 0.62 kg ADG c. 0.72 kg ADG d.0.82 kg ADG
146. A 200 kg feed was consumed by a 85 kg finished hog with an initial body weight of 15 kg, its feed efficiency is
equivalent to
a. 2.76 FE b. 2.86 FE c. 2.90 FE d. 3.06 FE
147. A 200 kg feed was consumed by a 90 kg finished hog with an initial body weight of 25 kg, its feed efficiency is
equivalent to
a. 2.9 FE b. 3.0 FE c, 3.1 FE d. 3.2 FE
148. The acceptable rate of percentage mortality in sows, gilts and boars per year
a. 2% b, 3 % c. 4 % d. 5%
149, The acceptable number of days interval between weaning and subsequent conception
a.166 b. 172 c. 190 d. 210
150. The acceptable farrowing index per year in a sow
a. 1.8 – 1.95 b. 2.0 – 2.25 c. 2.5 – 2.65 d. 2.7 – 2.75
151. Enhancement of soil fertility restoration and conservation of natural resources can be facilitated by
a. Animals b. Animals wastes c. Animal by products d. Animal products
152. A food of animal origin is high in
a. Energy b. Minerals c. Protein d. Vitamins
153. Meat, eggs and milk are good sources of
a. Phosphorous b. Iron c. calcium d. Magnesium
154. Animal agriculture predominates in
a. Upland ecosystems b. Hillylands c. Lowland ecosystem d. Less populated areas
155. Cattle populations concentrated in
a. Luzon b. Mindanao c. Visayas
156. The major contributor to the total livestock output is
a. Cattle b. Swine c. Carabao d. Chicken
157.The top broiler-producing region of the Philippines is
a. Southern Tagalog b. Central Visayas c. Central Luzon d. Southern Mindanao
158. Sensory organs are concentrated in the
a. Head b. Tail c. Trunk d. Abdomen
159. /The framework of hard structure which supports and protects the soft tissues of animals is
a. Bones b. Anatomy c. Skeleton d. Joints
160. The bones that protect the organ they cover are
a. Long bones b. Flat bones c. Short bones d. Irregular bones
161. One of the functions listed below is not a function of bones
a. Protection of vital organs b. Acts as a lever
c. Gives rigidity and form of the body d. /storage of minerals
162. The involuntary striated muscle is also known as
a. Skeletal muscles b. Cardiac muscle c. Cutaneous muscle d. Smooth muscle
163. The voluntary striated muscles are

a. Covering the greater part of the body b. Not requiring external stimuli for contraction
c. Found in visceral organs d. With centrally located nuclei
164. Muscles that cause body parts to bend are
a. Extensor muscles b. Abductor muscle c. Flexor muscles d. Adductor muscles
165. Muscles expel or force out secretions of organs, except
a. Accessory glands b. Sweat glands c. Endocrine glands d. Lymph gland
166. It is responsible for the highest type of mental activities
a. Pituitary gland b. Cerebrum c. Cerebellum d. Brain Stem
167. The organ that receives sensory fibers through the dorsal roots of the spinal nerves
a. Brain b. Pituitary c. Spinal cord d. Hypothalamus
168. The braidlike arrangement of nerves are
a. Sensory fibers b. Stimulus c. Motor fibers d. Plexuses
169. The system which includes all nervous structures outside the brain and spinal cord
a. Central nervous system b. Autonomic nervous system
c. Peripheral nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system
170. Parasympathetic nervous system is made up of
a. Toraco-lumbar portion b. Cranial and Sacral portion
c. Dorsal portion d. Ventral portion
171. Collectively, the pituitary gland is called
a. Hypophysis cerebri b. Neuro-hypophysis c. Adenohypophysis d. Pars intermedia
172. Ovulation is stimulated by
a. Somatotropin b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Thyrotropin d. Luteinizing hormone
173. In the pituitary gland, gonadotropins are secreted by
a. Anterior lobe b. Posterior lobe c. Intermediate lobe
174. In the pituitary glands, the special neurogial cells or pituicytes are found in
a. Anterior lobe b. Posterior lobe c. Intermediate lobe
175. The adrenal cortex secrets hormone mineralocorticoids which regulates
a. Sodium-potassium metabolism b. Sodium-carbonate metabolism
c. Sodium-chlorine metabolism d. Sodium-phosphorous metabolism

176. Glucocorticoids stimulate the conversion of protein to carbohydrates for energy in a process called
a. Glycolysis b. Gluconeogenesis c. Glucogenesis d. Hydrolysis
177. A hormone which augments the sympathetic nervous system and prepares for emergency is
a. Vasopressin b. Intermedin c. Oxytocin d. Epinephrine
178. The thyroid gland consists of colloid materials mainly protein-iodine complex called
a. Thyroxine b. Calcitonin c. Thyroglobulin d. Thyroprotein
179. Hypothyroidism does not cause
a. Critinism b. Irregular estrus c. Delayed puberty d. Irritability
180. Hyperthyroidism does not cause
a. Increased metabolic rate b. Decreased spermatogenesis c. Loss of weight d. Nervousness
181. A gonadal hormone produced by the placenta which maintains normal pregnancy
a. Progesterone b. Chronic gonadotropin c. Estrogen d. Prostaglandin
182. A structure which forms part of the heart but not a layer of the heart is
a. Pericardium b. Myocardium c. Epicardium d. Endocardium
183. The structures which carry blood away from the heart are the
a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins d. Lymph vessels
184. Red blood cells are
a. Non-nucleated b. Granulocytes c. Nucleated d. Agranulocytes
185. A wave of dilatation of an artery as blood flows into it is called
a. Respiration b. Heart beat c. Pulsed d. Breathing
186. A common passage for food and air is
a. Pharynx b. Trachea c. Larynx d. Esophagus
187. A cartilage of larynx that is in pair
a. Cricoid b. Thyroid c. Aryteriod d. Epiglotic
188. A lobe of the lungs that is present only in the right lung
a. Apical b. Diaphragmatic c. Cardiac d. Intermediate
189. Animals whose lungs have no subdivisions or lobes, except for intermediate lobe
a. Dogs b. Swine c. Cats d. Horses
190. The exchange of gases between the blood and tissues is called
a. External respiration b. Inspiration c. Internal respiration d. Expiration
191. A rapid and shallow breathing is called
a. Eupnea b. Polypnea c. Dyspnea d. Hyperpnea
192. The animal whose right and left kidneys are of different shape is
a. Swine b. Cattle c. Goat d. Horses
193. In farm animals, the seat fetal development is
a. oviduct b. Horn of uterus c. Cervix d. Body of uterus
194. Animals having bicornuate type uterus are
a. Sows b. Does c. Cows d. Ewes
195. Amullae is absent in
a. Buck b. Ram c. Boar d. Bull
196. Seminal vesicles are absent in
a. Dogs b. Ram c. Buck d. Bull
197. The stage of the estrus cycle where the female accepts the male in the act of mating
a. Proestrus b. Estrus c. Metestrus d. Diestrus
198. The region of the stomach where enzymes are secreted
a. Esophageal b. Cardiac c. Fundus d. Pyloric
199. The compartment of ruminant stomach where gastric juices and enzymes are secreted
a. Rumen b. Reticulum c. Omasum d. Abomasum
200. A natural means of alerting the body to prevent further damage to body tissues is
a. Pain b. Taste c. Smell d. Sight
201. A means of heat loss from the animals to cooler objects and heat gain by animals
a. Conduction b. Convection c. Evaporation d. Radiation
202. The cattle population in the Philippines is more of the
a. Draft type b. Beef type c. Dairy type d. Dual-purpose type
203. The multinuclear muscles whose nuclei are located near the surface are
a. Voluntary striated muscles b. Involuntary striated muscles c. Smooth muscles d. Visceral muscle
204. Bones which are similar in length, width and thickness are
a. Long bones b. Short bones c. Flat bones d. Irregular bones

205. Smooth muscles are
a. Involuntary unstriated b. Involuntary striated c. Voluntary unstriated d. Voluntary
206. A very important aid in expelling fetus at parturition
a. Muscles b. Nutrition c. Good body condition d. Reproductive organs
207. The caudal continuation of the medulla oblongata
a. Spinal cord b. Tail c. Brain stem d. Vertebral column
208. Chemical substances produced by endocrine glands
a. Hormones b. Enzymes c. Gastric juices d. Buffers
209. In the pituitary gland Melanocytes are produced at the
a. Anterior lobe b. Intermediate lobe c. Posterior lobe d. Apical lobe
210. A hormone which stimulates ovulation in females and interstitial cell secretion in males
a. Adrenalin b. Thyrotropin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Somatropin
211. The enlargement of the thyroid gland is called
a. lymphocytes b. Lymph node c. Goiter d. Thyroidities
212. Insulin is a hormone secreted by
a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Spleen d. Stomach
213. A hormone which maintains pregnancy and prepares the mammary glands for lactation
a. Progesterone b. Chronic gonadotropin c. Prolactin d. Lactogen
214. Fertilization takes place at the
a. Cervix b. Oviduct c. Body of uterus d. Horn of uterus
215. The type of uterus of rat, mice, rabbit and guinea pig is
a. Duplex b. Bicornuate c. Bipartite d. Simplex
216. Lactation is closely associated with
a. Gestation b. Parturition c. Nutrition c. Breeding
217. Homeotherms are also called
a. Warm-blooded animals b. Cold-blooded animals c. Ectotherm d. Amphibians
218. Evaporative cooking in non-sweating animals is accomplished by
a. Deep breathing b. Panting c. Fanning d. Staying under the shade
219. A physiological response to heat is

a. Sweating b. Shivering c. Increased feed intake d. Fever
220. The number of compartments of the ruminant stomach is
a. one b. two c. three d. four
221. Segment of DNA in a chromosome considered to be the smallest unit of inheritance
a. RNA b. gene c. nucleus of the cell d. none of the above
222. Genes that affect the same trait in a different way are
a. Heterozygous genes b. Homozygous genes c. structural genes d. none of the above
223. Genes that synthesize specific proteins and enzymes are
a. operator genes b. regular genes c. structural genes d. none of the above
224. The 2n chromosome number for cattle bison and goat is
a. 46 b. 64 c. 60 d. none of the above
225. The 2n chromosome number for pig is
226. The 2n chromosome number for horse is 64 and that donkey is 62 therefore, that of the mule
227. A gene is said to be
a. recessive b. dominant c. overdominant d. none of the above
228. The case when two alleles express themselves in the phenotype
a. Lack of dominace b. Overdominance c. Partial dominance d. none of the above
229. The case when the heterozyme is superior in phenotype to the homozygote
a. Lack of dominace b. Overdominance c. Partial dominance d, Epistasis
230. The mating of animals of different breeds or strains within a special
a. interspecific hybridization b. intraspecific hybridization c. inbreeding d. none of the above
231. The form of crossbreeding typified by mating back of crossbreed progeny to parents
a. single cross b. two way cross c. crisscrossing d. none of the above
232. The mating of an exotic purebred male to a mongrel or native female is
a. backcrossing b. grading c. crisscrossing d. none of the above
233. The type of selection typified by survival of the fittest is
a. artificial b. natural c. manual d. individual selection

234. A selection based on the performance of the offspring is
a. individual b. sib selection c. progeny test d. pedigree
235. A selection based on family averages is
a. between family b. within family c. pedigree d. none of the above
236. A selection which considers one trait at a time until improvement of such trait is reached
a. selection index b. independent culling level c. tandem d. none of the above
237. The setting minimum standard for traits being considered during selection is
a. selection index b. independent culling level c. tandem d. none of the above
238. It combines the value of each trait for all traits being considered into one score is
a. selection index b. independent culling level c. tandem d, individual selection
239. Defined as the physical appearance of an animal that is dependent upon its genetic make-up
a. genotype b. clne c. phenotype d. none of the above
240. The process of discriminating members or group of animals to retain the best as parents of the next generation
a. selection b. breeding c. culling d. sib selection
241. A selection based on the deviation of individuals of a particular family from the mean
a. between family b. within family c. pedigree d. none of the above
242. The age at which sperm or egg cells start to be produced is
a. puberty b. sexual maturity c. pregnancy d. none of the above
243. The process of superovulating, harvesting and implanting fertilized ova to estrous synchronized recipients to effect
multiple births
244. Chickens incubate their eggs for
a. 21 days b. 28 days c. 35-37 days d. 17-18 days
245. The state when delayed copulation occurs leading to fertilization of aged ova with several sperms entering the uteline
membrane & produce a 3n chromosome number.
a. polyspermy b. haploidy c. diploidy d. polyploidy
246. The special form or purpose for which an animal is to be used is defined as
a. variety b. type c. breed d. none of the above
247. The largest and most handsome of the Indian breed of goat
a. Jumnapari b. Toggenburg c. Jersey d. Alpine
248. A dairy cattle breed that has the highest milk fat content
a. Holstein-Friesian b. Brown Swiss c. Jersey d. none of the above
249. A dairy cattle that has the highest milk yield
a. Holstein-Friesian b. Brown Swiss c. Jersey d. none of the above
250. The breed of carabao/buffalo that produces the most milk
a. Thai buffalo b. Phil. Carabao c. Murrah buffalo d. Niti-Ravi
251. The breed of cattle consisting of ¼ Shorthorn, Y2 Brahman, and ¼ Hereford blood
a. Sta. Gertrudis b. Beefmaster c. Charbaray d. Simbrah
252. The ideal roof type for backyard or semi-commercial ruminant production is
a. gable b. monitor c. semi-monitor d. gambler
253. The type of floor considered ideal for small ruminant is
a. slatted b. clay c. concrete d. none of the above
254. The milking parlor where cows stand side-by-side with each other is
a. walk-through b. side opening c. herring bone d. abreast
255. The ceiling height (from the floor) of ruminant animal building is
a. 8-10 pt. b. 7-8 pt c. 12-14 pt d. none of the above
256. The floor area per head for dry cows or steers is
a. 20 – 30 sq.ft b. 40-50 sq.ft c. 100 – 150 sq.ft d. none of the above
257. The floor area per head for dry ewes/does is
a. 10 sq.ft b. 20-30 sq.ft c. 16 sq.ft d. none of the above
258. To start breeding caraheifer, is should weigh at least
a. 350 kg b. 250 kg c. 300 kg d. none of the above
259. It is best to breed heifers at the age of
a. 18-20 months b. 10-12 months c. 24-26 months d. none of the above
260. After calving cows and caracows, rebreeding is done from
a. one month b. 2-3 months c. 3-4 months d. none of the above
261. The most common system of feeding/raising ruminants in the backyard is
a. feedlot b. tethering c. range d. none of the above
262. Feeds that are relatively high in fiber and low in digestible nutrients are called
a. fibrous feeds b. concentrates c. roughage d. none of the above

263. The fresh grass or forage that is cut and directly fed to animals in the barn/stable is
a. straw b. hay c. silage d. soilage
264. Without adequate feeding of solid food, a calf be weaned in 3 months if given concentrate and roughage as early as
2-3 weeks , but weaning is at
a. 6-8 months b. 10-12 months c. 3-4 months d. none of the above
265. From birth until 5 days old to build up disease resistance for calf, it allows to suckle
a. whole milk b. milk replacer c. colostrums d. casein
266. The type of vaccine against tetanus is
a. tetanus toxoid b. tetanus antitoxin c. bacterin d. none of the above
267. In the Philippines, cattle and carabaos should be vaccinated against
a. foot and mouth disease b. hemorrhagic septicemia c. both a and b d. anthrax
268. Deforming in ruminants starts at the age of
a. 1 year b. 1-2 months c. 6-8 months d. none of the above
269. In carabeef population, backyard farms account for
a. 85% b. 70 % c. 99% d. none of the above
270. In the country’s total milk supply, the Philippine dairy farming sector produces about
a. 1% 2. 15% c. 5% d. 10%
271. The procedure to check embryo development within an egg is called
a. dubbing b. hatching c. pipping d. candling
272. A problem in which the funnel of the oviduct fails to pick-up or catch the yolk or ova is known as
a. internal layers b. soft-shelled eggs c. double yolked egg d. yolkless egg
273. The proper position of the chick that is ready to hatch is when the head is in the
a. small end of the egg b. air cell end of the egg c. either side of the egg d. any of the above
274. A process which reduces the tendency of the embryo to stick to the shell membranes and embryo malposition
a. turning b. marking c. warming d. none of the above
275. A rigid hierarchy in chickens which is determined simply by the problem of who can peck whom is called
a. Dominant behavior b; Order of peck c. Mating behavior d. None of the above
276. The removal of the comb and wattles form the males
a. Clipping b. Debeaking c. Clubbed down d. Dubbing
277. For highest fertility, hens should be inseminated/mated during the

a. latter part of the day b. middle part of the day c. early morning d. any of the above
278. Egg with no signs of embryonic development on candling are called
a. dead eggs b. clears c. empty eggs d. none of the above
279. It holds the yolk in place to prevent it from rising and bruising itself
a. shell membrane b. albumen c. chalazae d. vitelline membrane
280. If live sperms are present, fertilization of egg occurs in the
a. magnum b. uterus c. ovary d. funnel
281. To prevent rupture of air cells in hatching eggs, store them with
a. small end down b. large end down c. flat on either side d. none of the above
282. The desire in a hen to sit on eggs is called
a. broodiness b. incubation c. laying behavior d. none of the above
283. The elimination of unproductive or undesirable birds
a. culling b. selection c. dusting d. grading
284. Part of the digestive system of poultry which is responsible for grinding food
a. Giblets b. Gizzards c. Stomach d. Intestine
285. Removing the feathers and blood from a bird which has been killed is known as
a. Fabrication b. Bleeding c. Dressing d. Processing
286. The edible viscera of the bird comprising its heart, liver and gizzard
a. Proventriculus b. Crop c. Giblets d. Entrails
287. The total number of eggs laid on the season divided by the average number of birds in the house
a. Hen-day production b. Hen-housed average c. Fertility rate d. Hatchability rate
288. The period between setting and hatching out of eggs
a. Oviposition b. Incubation c. Laying sequence d. none of the above
289. An egg laid by the hen without fertilization from the cork
a. Infertile egg b. Dead egg c. Egg bound d. Fertile egg
290. Laying sequence is the laying of eggs by the poultry birds on consecutive days and otherwise known as
a. Series b. Chain c. Clutch d. None of the above
291. The physiological process of shedding old feathers of a hen to grow a new coat annually
a. Moulting b. Shedding off c. Dressing d. Perching

292. Birds spread oil from the uropygial gland over their feathers with it beck
a. Oiling b. Grooming c. Preening d. None of the above
293. When the beck of the chick first pierces the shell, an incubated egg is said to have
a. Pipped b. Hatched c. Picked d. None of the above
294. The period just prior to the laying of the first egg
a. Nesting period b. Reproductive stage c. Point of lay d. Roosting time
295. The regulation of feed intake to prevent excessive fat deposition is known as
a. Skip a day feeding b. Ad lib feeding c. Restricted feeding d. None of the above
296. Fleshy protuberances on the heads and wattle of Muscovy ducks
a. Caruncles b. Cap c. Cape d. Collar
297. A loose pouch of skin on the throat under the beak of geese
a. Crest b. Dewlap c. Cushion d. Down
298. A condition when each feather is turning back so that it points toward the head of the bird
a. Frizzled b. Twisted c. Booted d. None of the above
299. A layer of protective coating on the external surface of the egg
a. Shell cover b. Cuticle c. Bloom d. B and C
300. The house used for rearing day-old chicks
a. Grower house b. Brooder house c. Rearing house d. Layer house
301. To prevent cannibalism, trimming the upper mandible of the beak of poultry is done and known as
a. Trimming b. Cutting c. Debeaking d. None of the above
302. The removal and replacement of all poultry on a farm after each cycle is popularly known as
a. Replacement program b. Vaccancy period c. All-in, All-out d. None of the above
303. A management system to minimize exposure of flocks to pathogen spread by people, equipment, stray animals,
vehicles and insects
a. Biosecurity program b. Vaccination program c. Quarantine d. None of the above
304. The vacancy period required in all-in all-out management system
a. 1 month b. 1 week c. 2 weeks d. 3 days
305. Not keeping any other poultry or pet birds inside the farm is an important requisite in
a. all-in, all-out b. sanitation program c. vaccination program d. none of the above
306. As an indication of good performance under existing farm conditions, it is suggested that beginners should raise
a. Popular strain in the community b. Newly-introduced strains c. imported strains d. all of the above
307. Use of cheap, durable and locally available construction materials is related to
a. Future expansion plans b. Environmental factors c. Economy of construction d. None of the above
308. It is used to house sickly and newly acquired birds
a. Quarantine b. Emergency house c. Isolation house d. Treatment house
309. Chicks that crowd and pile up under the heater indicate
a. low brooder temperature b. correct temperature c. high brooder temperature d. none of the above
310. To allow pullets to recover their stress before the start of lay, pullets are transferred to the layer house at the proper
age
a. 17-18 weeks old b. 5 months c. 14-15 weeks old d. 150 days old
311. An indication of good layers
a. Early moulters b. Intermediate c. Late moulters d. None of the above
312. The usual practice of raising ducks in rice-growing areas
a. Range type b. Grazing type c. Pagala system d. None of the above
313. It indicates female sex in quails
a. Plain brownish b. Red over sides c. Reddish-brown, speckled breast d. Gray speckles on light colored breast
314. To recover from dehydration during transport, the chicks are given
a. Dextrose/electrolyte blend b. Immunization c. Chick booster mash d. None of the above
315. The recommended land topography for poultry farms
a. steep elevation b. Flat terrain c. Slightly rolling d. None of the above
316. The roofing design which provides best ventilation to the birds
a. Shed type b. Gable type c. Semi-monitor d. Monitor type
317. To minimize odor and flies in a broiler farm, it necessary to
a. remove manure daily b. A and C c. Keep manure dry d. None of the above
318. To avoid full-crop penalty, feeds should be withdrawn from the broilers
a. 24 hours prior to hauling time b. 2 days prior to hauling time
c. 6 hours prior to hauling time d. None of the above
319. A biosecurity measure for poultry farm entrance is to provide
a. Dipping vat b. Shower room c. Germ killer washer d. None of the above
320. To facilitate proper mating of fowls with extra heavy plumage

a. Clipping of feathers around vents b. Confine males and females in a pen
c. Clipping all feathers d. None of the above
321. Refers to the process of cutting carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts
a. Meat fabrication b. Slaughtering c. Cutting d. Slicing
322. The meat of mature sheep is called
a. lamb b. veal c. mutton d. venison
323. The color of rabbit meat
a. Cherry pink b. White c. White gray d. pinkish brown
324. The color of beef
a. bright red b. purplish brown c. dark red d. cherry pink to dark red
325. The color of cara –beef
a. dark red b. pinkish brown c. light red d. bright red
326. The following are the primal cuts of pork except
a. belly b. loin c. spare ribs d. ham
327. The following are wholesale cuts of beef carcass from the hindquarter except
a. round b. chuck c. flank d. sirloin
328. Retail cuts from pork belly
a. picnic slice b. short plate c. boneless ham d. bacon slice
329. One importance of proper meat fabrication
a. it makes everybody contented b. lowers cutting losses
c. it establishes rapport in all channels d. All of these
330. The number of hours that hogs should be fast prior to slaughter
a. 48 b. 18 c. 24 d. 36
331. The marketing of eggs is based on
a. color b. sex c. weight d. all of these
332. Its meat is colored pink
a. Venison b. Pork c. Mutton d. veal
333. Its meat is colored light red
a. lamb b. dog meat c. rabbit meat d. beef

334. The meat of a goat is known as
a. goat meat b. chevon c. mutton d. veal
335. The percentage of water in lean meat
a. 47-48 b, 83-90 c. 13-18 d. 8.5
336. It is formed one centimeter ventral to the blade bone
a. Ham b. loin c. spare ribs d. shoulder
337. The following are basic requirements for slaughtering except
a. The animals should be restrained b. anti-mortem & post-mortem examination
c. slaughter should be done rapidly and humanly d. euthanasia & slaughter should be done on public view
338. It has an acid flavor and a smooth and light custard texture
a. ice cream b. yoghurt c. butter d. cheese
339. A mixture of milkfat, buttermilk and water usually with salt and added colors is known aw
a. milk lollies b. ice cream c. butter d. cheese
340. The sudden stress of an animal before slaughter causes rapid
a. hydrolysis b. glycolysis c. loss of protein d. loss of water
341. The following are cuts from the short loin except
a. club steak b. pinbone sirloin c. t-bone steak d. porterhouse steak
342. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. gizzard b. liver c. heart d. spleen
343. Processed meat product that is made from bellies of pork minus the ribs
a. tocino b. ham c. bacon d. sausage
344. A slaughter hog of any sex weighing about 60 kgs is known as
a. piglet b. gilt c. shote d. stag
345. The meat of young cattle is called
a. lamb b. veal c. venison d. beef
346. The heating of milk at temperature of 145 – 165 °F in order to destroy germs that may be present is called
a. flash method b. butter c. pasteurization d. milk preservation
347. A high calorie dairy product containing about 80 percent milk fat
a. cheese b. butter c. yoghurt d. milk lollies

348. The ripened or unripened cure of milk produced by coagulating the milk with organic or enzymes
a. ice cream b. milk ice c. cheese d. butter
349. The product obtained by curing the loin minus the bone
a. Canadian bacon b. breakfast bacon c. jamon d. pork tapa
350. Milk contains the following except
a. water b. milk fat c. lactose d. carbohydrates
351. Milk is rendered colostrums free at
a. three days before or five days after calving b. five days before or five days after calving
c. seven days before or seven days after calving d. one week
352. The percent fat content of carabao milk
a. 12.5 b. 3.9 c. 6.5 d. 1.2
353. The percent protein content of carabao milk
a. 6.3 b. 6.0 c. 4.7 d. 4.0
354. The percent lactose content of milk
a. 7.0 b. 4.0 c. 4.7 d. 4.6
355. The percent protein content of goat milk
a. 3.3 b. 4.0 c. 3.6 d. 3.0
356. The meat of an avian species is called
a. chicken meat b. turkey meat c. poultry meat d. goose meat
357. The meat of deer is called
a. lamb b. venison c. mutton d. veal
358. The percentage of the major component of lean meat
a. 50 b. 60 c. 80 d. 83
359. The primary ingredient in curing meat
a. sugar b. salt c. nitrates d. nitrites
360. The secondary ingredient in curing meat
a. sugar b. salt c. nitrates d. nitrites
361. It is responsible for the development of proper color in cured meat products
a. Nitrates & Nitrites b. Prague powder c. Food Coloring d. A & B only

362. It acts as a preservative & color fixation agent
a. Nitrates & Nitrites b. salt c. Food coloring d. sugar
363. The major component of meat are the following except
a. fat b. lean c. blood d. bone
364. Tocino is prepared from the following except
a. pork chop b. ham c. liempo d. legs
365. The process of keeping meat to make it stay longer or to retard spoilage
a. Drying b. Salting c. Meat preservation d. Curing
366. The application of salt, sugar, salitre and other preservatives to prolong the keeping quality of the product
a. Drying b. Salting c. Meat preservation d. Curing
367. The exposure of meat to a temperature of 36-50 °F to retard mold & bacterial growth for a limited period
a. curing b. freezing c. salting d. refrigeration
368. A preservative that helps tenderize meat
a. salt b. sugar c. acids d. nitrates
369. A preservative which increase the osmotic pressure thereby withdrawing moisture from the meat
a. sugar b. salt c. acids d. nitrates
370. The exposure of meat to a temperature of 0-32 °F resulting in the crystallization of water in the tissue
a. curing b. freezing c. salting d. refrigeration
371. This is the hermetic sealing of food in jars
a. irradiation b. canning c. cooking d. curing
372. It reduces growth of molds in sausages at 0.1% level
a. spices b. nitrates c. Benzoates d. nitrites
373. The following are the principles involved in meat preservation except
a. inhibition of microbial growth b. inhibition of osmotic reaction
c. inhibition of enzymatic reaction d. inhibition of atmospheric oxidation
374. Marbling quality of meat contributes to the following except
a. Juiciness b. Flavor & appearance c. color d. palatability
375. A ham style in which the meat is tied to give a rounded appearance
a. Australian ham b. American style c. Chinese style d. Boneless ham

376. A ham style in which the top portion is made rectangular
a. Australian ham b. American style c. Chinese style d. Boneless ham
377. In order to know the exact amount of ingredients used in curing, the meat should be
a. trimmed b. weighed c. hang to drip d. all of these
378. It increases the water holding capacity of cure product
a. Nitrite b. Nitrate c. Ascorbic d. Phosphate
379. Carbohydrate products which absorb great quantities of water
a. Binders b. Extenders c. Fillers d. all of these
380. Non-meat material which helps increase the bulk of the product
a. Binders b. Extenders c. Fillers d. all of these
381. The vitamin that increases the absorption of calcium from the intestine and the deposition of calcium in the bone
a. vitamin A b. vitamin D c. vitamin E d. vitamin K
382. Roughages contain crude fiber that is higher than
a. 10% b. 12% c. 18% d. 24%
383. The substances that make up proteins
a. amino acids b. fatty acids c. nucleic acid d. simple sugars
384. Carbohydrates are made up of monosaccharides joined together by
a. peptide bonds b. glycosidic bonds c. ester bonds d. hydrogen bonds
385. They are the inorganic group of nutrients
a. Carbohydrates b. fats c. minerals d. protein
386. Organic substances that are grouped not because of similar chemical structure but because of similar regulatory
functions
a. carbohydrates b. fats c. proteins d. vitamins
387. A table that shows the requirement of the animals for the different nutrients
a. Feed Composition Table b. Feeding Standard Table c. Water Table d. Mineral Table
388. The primary nutrient requirement for work
a. energy b. fats c. minerals d. protein
389. Substances known as organic catalysts
a. carbohydrates b. enzymes c. minerals d. protein
390. The mineral that is part of vitamin B12

a. calcium b. cobalt c. copper d. iron
391. The biological storage battery
a. ATP b. DNA c. NAD d. RNA
392. One of the following is a calcium-only source
a. bone meal b. dicaphos c. monophos d. oyster shell
393. A pregnant animal will have a requirement for
a. gestation b. lactation c. maintenance d. work
394. The proximate component that represents the minerals
a. ash b. crude fiber c. crude protein d. moisture
395. The factor used to convert percent nitrogen to percent protein
a. 2.25 b. 3.25 c. 4.25 d. 6.25
396. The difference between NDF and ADF
a. cellulose b. hemicelluloses c. metabolism d. transport
397. The process that prepares food/feed for digestion
a. digestion b. ingestion c. metabolism d. transport
398. The following are cereals except
a. cassava b. corn c. rice d. wheat
399. The following are microminerals except
a. calcium b. cobalt c; copper d. iron
400. The proximate component that is not analyzed directly
a. crude fiber b. crude protein c. ether extract d. nitrogen-free extract
401. The part of the cell wall that is not digestible even by rumen microorganisms
a. cellulose b. hemicelluloses c. lignin d. pectin
402. The method used in feed formulation that is a simplified equation method
a. Chi-square b. Pearson square c. Punnet square d. Times square
403. The primary nutrient requirement for growth
a. energy b. minerals c. protein d. vitamins
404. The following are plant protein sources except
a. copra meal b. mungo meal c. skim milk d. soybean meal

405. The protein requirement of a growing pig
a. 12% b. 14% c. 16% d. 18%
406. An animal that is not growing or producing anything has nutrient requirement for
a. gestation b. lactation c. maintenance d. work
407. A pregnant animal will have nutrient requirement for
a. Fattening b. Gestation c. lactation d. work
408. The following are animal protein sources except
a. fish meal b. meat and bone meal c. skim milk d.soybean meal
409. The nutrient that is made up of amino acids
410. The nutrient that is made up of simple sugars
411. The process of bringing nutrients from the site of absorption to the site of utilization
a. diffusion b. digestion c. metabolism d. transport
412. One of the following is not an essential nutrient
a. alanine b. linoleic acid c. linoleinic acid d. methionine
413. The following are fat-soluble vitamins except
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin E
414. The amino acid essential to poultry but not to swine
a. glycine b. leucine c. lysine d. methionine
415. It is the sum of the chemical changes occurring in an organism during the breakdown of food and the synthesis of
cellular materials
a. absorption b. digestion c. metabolism d. transport
416. The movement of nutrients from the point of absorption to the point of utilization
a. absorption b. digestion c. metabolism d. transport
417. The study of processes involved in the conversion of food/feed elements to body elements
a. absorption b. digestion c. metabolism d. nutrition
418. Percent nitrogen can be converted to percent protein by multiplying it with the factor
a. 2.25 b. 4.25 c. 6.25 d. 3.26
419. The difference between NDF and ADF is

a. cellulose b. hemicelluloses c. pectin d. lignin
420. The process that prepares food/feed for absorption is
a. metabolism b. transport c. digestion d. ingestion
421. The following are cereals except
a. rice b. corn c. cassava d. wheat
422. The following are microminerals except
a. calcium b. iron c. copper d. cobalt
423. The proximate component that is not analyzed directly
a. crude protein b. crude fiber c. ether extract d. nitrogen free extract
424. The proximate component that represents the minerals
a. moisture b. crude protein c. ash d. crude fiber
425. The part of the cell wall that is not digestible even by the rumen microbes
a. cellulose b. lignin c. hemicelluloses d. pectin
426. The method of feed formulation that is simplified equation method
a. Chi-square b. Pearson method c. Punnet square d. times square
427. The primary nutrient requirement for work is
a. energy b. protein c. vitamins d. minerals
428. The primary nutrient requirement for growth is
a. energy b. protein c. vitamins d. minerals
429. The following are plant sources except
a. copra meal b. soybean meal c. skimmilk d. mungo meal
430. The protein requirement of a grower pig is
a. 12 % b. 14% c. 16% d. 18%
431. An animal that is not growing or producing anything has requirement for
a. maintenance b. work c. lactation d. gestation
432. A pregnant animal will have requirement for
a. lactation b. work c. gestation d. fattening
433. The following are animal protein sources except
a. fish meal b. meat and bone meal c. skimmilk d. soybean meal

434. The biological storage battery is
a. DNA b. ATP c. RNA d. NAD
435. The substances that are also known as organic catalysts are
a. enzymes b. vitamins c. minerals d. carbohydrates
436. The mineral that is part of vitamin B12 is
a. iron b. copper c. cobalt d. calcium
437. The nutrient made up of amino acids is
a. protein b. carbohydrates c. fats d. vitamins
438. The nutrient made up of simple sugars is
a. protein b. carbohydrates c. fats d. vitamins
439. The process of bringing nutrients from the site of absorption to the site of utilization
a. digestion b. transport c. metabolism d. diffusion
440. One of the following is not an essential nutrient
a. methionine b. alanine c. linoleic acid d/ linoleinic acid
441. The following are fat-soluble vitamins except
a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. vitamin D d. vitamin E
442. The amino acid that is essential to poultry but not to swine is
a. glycine b. lysine c. leucine d. methionine

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Review Questions for Agriculturists Board Exam

1. The purebred known to be the “longest breed” among purebred hogs.

a. Large White b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Pietrain

2. The earliest number of months that swine attain sexual maturity.

a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five

3. The weight at 8 months that the gilt can be culled

4. The average heat period of gilts and sows.

a. 2-5 days b. 1-3 days c. 7-10 days d. 1-2 days

5. This swine is known to be the “red power” among purebred hogs.

a. Pietrain b. Hampshire c. Landrace d. Duroc

7. This swine is known to be the “mother breed” among purebred hogs

a. Large white b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Pietrain

8. This is done by applying pressure on the rump with both hands

9. This is known to be the “muscle pigs” among purebred hogs\

a. Hampshire b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Pietrain

10. The act of giving birth to a litter of pigs

a. Flushing b. Farrowing c. Crushing d. Gestating

11. The most essential and the cheapest of all nutrients/

a. Protein b. Water c. Minerals d. Energy

a. Large white b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Hampshire

13. This is the timing or best period to breed the gilts

a. 6 monts b. 7 months c. 10 months d. 8 months

a. 3 – 4 inches b. 3-5 inches c. 1.5 – 2.0 inches d. 4 – 5 inches

17. The amount of CP, Ca and P, respectively for a creep ration

18. The type of roofing that is recommended for swine buildings.

a. Monitor b. Semi-monitor c. Gable d. Gothic

a. 60 & 45 respectively b. 62 & 50 respectively c. 64 & 55, respectively d. 66 & 60 respectively

a. 5 to 8 cm from the floor b. 8 to 10 cm from the floor

c. 12 to 14 cm from the floor d. 15 to 20 cm from the floor

a. 10 to 12 cm from the floor b. 14 to 16 cm from the floor

c. 18 to 20 cm from the floor d. 22 to 24 cm from the floor

a. 10 to 12 cm from the floor b. 14 to 16 cm from the floor

c. 18 to 20 cm from the floor d. 22 to 24 cm from the floor

a. 16 to 17 cm from the floor b. 18 to 19 cm from the floor

c. 20 to 21 cm from the floor d. 22 to 25 cm from the floor

25. The recommended quarantine period for swine

a. Not less than 20 days b. Not less than 30 days

a. close breeding b. hybrid vigor c. Inbred d. Line breeding

a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Pietrain

28. Cherry red is the most common color of this breed.

a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Pietrain

29. An example of hybrid swine present in the country today

a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Nieuw Dalland

a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Nieuw Dalland

a. Pietrain b. Hampshire c. Landrace d. Duroc

32. This breed has a greater tendency to put on fat

a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Pietrain

a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Hampshire d/ Yorkshire

a. Berkshire b. Duroc c. Hampshire d. Yorkshire

a. Berkshire b. Hampshire c. Spotted Poland d. Yorkshire

36. This breed is well known for the “thick backfat”

a. Pietrain b. Poland China c. Spotted Poland d. Yorkshire

a. Intraspecific b. Interspecific c. Criss crossing d. Two way crossing

a. Intraspecific b. Interspecific c. Criss crossing d. Two way crossing

a. Cross breeding b. Inbreeding c. Pure breeding d. Upgrading

a. Close breeding b. Cross breeding c. Line breeding d. Triple crossing

a. Close breeding b. Cross breeding c. Line breeding d. Triple crossing

42. The successive crossing of progeny to common ancestor/

a. Backcrossing b. Criss crossing c. Triple crossing d. Two way crossing

a. Back crossing b. Criss crossing c. Grading d. Upgrading

44. Gilts should be bred to farrow the first litter at:

45. The lifetime reproductive performance of the sow is affect during