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Two resistors with values of 6 Ohm and 100 Ohm are connected in parallel. Their combined resistance is:
A) 5,66 Ohm.
B) 94 Ohm.
C) 106 Ohm.
D) 0,177 Ohm.
Magnetism can be used to generate electricity by converting mechanical energy to electrical energy
by:
A) electro magnetic conversion.
B) electro magnetic induction.
C) electro motive force.
D) electro self induction.
If the power being drawn by a resistor is 100 watts from a 50V supply, what is the resistance of the
load?
A) 50 Ohms.
B) 25 Ohms.
C) 2 Ohms.
D) 4 Ohms.
A rotary valve actuator is in the closed position. Its 'OPEN' limit switch is... and its 'CLOSE' limit switch
is...
A) open, closed
B) closed, open
C) open, open
D) closed, closed
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the:
A) electrolyte to " boil" .
B) current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
C) voltage to increase due to the current available.
D) voltage to decrease under load.
With regards to a light aircraft electrical system, where is the generator switch normally located?
A) In series with the armature.
B) In series with the cut-out switch.
C) In series with the field winding.
D) In parallel with the field winding.
In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary
to ensure that:
A) their voltages are almost equal.
B) the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.
C) equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
D) adequate voltage differences exists.
The power dissipated as heat by a resistance R with an applied voltage V carrying a current I can be
expressed as:
A) V x V / I.
B) I x I x R.
C) I x I / V.
D) I x R x R.
Consider a battery voltage V, connected to R1 and R2 which are in parallel: If V is 250 volts, R1 is 500
Ohms but R2 is a very low resistance then:
A) The total current from the battery will approximate the current in R1.
B) R2 is insignificant.
C) A large total current will flow.
D) A small total current will flow.
Electrical batteries when connected in parallel provide... amp/hr capacity and... voltage.
A) increased; the same
B) reduced; increased
C) the same; increased
D) increased; reduced
The total current flow in an electrical circuit with resistors in parallel is equal to...
A) the sum of all the currents in all the components divided by the number
of components.
B) the reciprocal of the sum of the current reciprocals.
C) the sum of all the current reciprocals.
D) the sum of all the currents in all the components in the circuit.
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to earth, may be defined
as a
A) single pole circuit
B) semi-negative system
C) double pole circuit
D) complete negative system
On a self-exited DC generator, if the voltage regulator increases the current through the field windings
then:
A) The intensity of the field decreases and the output voltage increases.
B) The intensity of the field increases and the output voltage increases.
C) The intensity of the field increases and the output voltage decreases.
D) The intensity of the field decreases and the output voltage decreases.
A simple circuit has 4 amps flowing through a 5 ohm resistor. How much power is being used?
A) 20 watts.
B) 80 watts.
C) 100 watts.
D) 60 watts.
The connection in parallel of two 12 volt / 40 amp hours batteries, will create a unit with the following
characteristics:
A) 24 volt / 40 amp hours
B) 24 volt / 80 amp hours
C) 12 volt / 80 amp hours
D) 12 volt / 40 amp hours
61. A spill of electrolyte from a NiCad battery onto someone's skin should be:
A) rinsed with a weak alkali (e.g. potassium hydroxide)
B) rinsed with a concentrated acid (e.g. sulphuric)
C) rinsed with a weak acid (e.g. boric acid).
D) rinsed with water and add sodium bicarbonate
Resistance is expressed in... and the basic SI units for it are...
A) Ohms, V/A
B) Ohms, R
C) Ohms, J/C
D) Farad, F
Consider a battery voltage V, connected to four resistors R1, R2, R3, R4. They are connected as two
pairs in parallel (R1 and R2, R3 and R4). The two pairs are connected in series: If R1 and R2 are both
8 Ohms, R3 is 6 Ohms, R4 is 3 Ohms, the total resistance of the circuit is:
A) 25 Ohms.
B) 6.16 Ohms.
C) 5.33 Ohms.
D) 6 Ohms.
Consider a battery voltage V, connected to three resistors R1, R2, R3. R2 and R3 are in parallel with
one another, and the combination of them is in series with R1. If R1 is 2 Ohms and has 6 volts across
it, R2 has 2 amps running through it and R3 is 6 Ohms, what is R2?
A) 3 Ohms.
B) Impossible to tell without also knowing total current from the battery.
C) Impossible to tell without knowing V.
D) 6 Ohms.
An aircraft has three batteries, each of 12 volts with a 40 Ah capacity, connected in series. The
resultant unit has:
A) a voltage of 36 volts and a capacity of 120 Ah.
B) a voltage of 36 volts and a capacity of 40 Ah.
C) a voltage of 24 volts and a capacity of 80 Ah.
D) a capacity of 120 Ah and a voltage of 12 volts.
The output voltage of DC generators used in aircraft is normally regulated by:
A) Controlling the current in the field windings
B) Controlling the current in the armature (anker) windings
C) Varying the RPM of the generator
D) Varying the torque applied to the generator
Which of the following statements best describes two resistors connected in parallel?
A) The combined resistance is always less than the smallest individual
resistance present.
B) Resistors should never be connected in parallel.
C) The combined resistance is always greater than the largest individual
resistance present.
D) The combined resistance is equal to the average of the individual
resistances.
An aircraft has 3 navigation lights, each rated at 24 watts, which are connected in parallel and
supplied by a 12 volts battery. What would be the total current that the battery has to deliver to the
navigation lights circuit?
A) 1,5 Amperes.
B) 6 Amperes.
C) 2 Amperes.
D) 0,5 Amperes.
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by:
A) an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators,
varies the field excitation current of the generators.
B) an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.
C) carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.
D) the synchronous bus-bar.
Consider a battery voltage V, connected to four resistors R1, R2, R3, R4. They are connected as two
pairs in parallel (R1 and R2, R3 and R4). The two pairs are connected in series: If R1 is twice R2, R3 is
half R4, and the current in R1 is 9 amps, the current in R4 is:
A) 3 amps.
B) 9 amps.
C) 18 amps
D) 4.5 amps.
Two 0.03 Henry inductors are placed in series. The resulting inductance is:
A) 0,09 H.
B) 0,06 H.
C) 0,015 H.
D) 0,03 H.
An aircraft has a battery with a capacity of 60 Ah. Assuming that it will provide its normal capacity and
is discharged in 10 hours:
A) it will deliver 60 amperes for 10 hours
B) it will deliver 6 amperes for 10 hours
C) it will deliver 4.8 amperes for 10 hours
D) it will deliver 60 amperes for 1 hour
Consider a battery voltage V and two resistors (R1 and R2) which are connected in series: If R1 is 2
ohms, R2 has 3 amps through it and 3 volts across it what is V?
A) At most, 3 volts.
B) 6 volts.
C) Impossible to tell without knowing R2.
D) 9 volts.
During normal cruise flight conditions a Ni-Cd battery's ammeter shows a high rate of charge. What
does this indicate?
A) it can be ignored as it is quite normal
B) that the generator should be disconnected from the bus bar
C) that a high demand is being made on the system
D) that a possible thermal runaway exists
A circuit breaker:
A) may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.
B) can be reset on the ground only.
C) can only be reset after major maintenance.
D) is self resetting after the fault has been rectified.
The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is:
A) 2,2 V
B) 1,8 V
C) 1,4 V
D) 1,2 V
A battery is made up of 5 NiCad cells, each having a voltage of 1.2V and a capacity of 20Ah,
connected in series. What is the resulting combination?
A) 30 V, 100Ah.
B) 12 V, 20Ah.
C) 6 V, 20Ah.
D) 6 V, 100Ah.
1 ampere equals:
A) 1,000 microamps
B) 1,000 milliamps
C) 1,000,000 millicoulombs per second
D) 1,000,000 milliamps
The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:
1. Weight saving
2. Easy fault detection
3. Increase of short-circuit risk
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 3, 5
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 2, 3, 5
A 12 volt battery is connected to a 24 watt light bulb. The battery lasts for 10 hours. What is the
battery capacity?
A) 240 Wh.
B) 120 Vh.
C) 5 Ah.
D) 20 Ah.
101. 8 volts are applied to a 2 Ohm resistor. What current will flow?
A) 24 watts.
B) 4 coulombs.
C) 4 amps.
D) 6 coulombs per second.
In a multi engined aircraft, how are the ammeters usually arranged?
A) One for each load bus bar.
B) One for all generators.
C) One for each set of generators which are paralleled.
D) One for each generator.
Parallel wound motors produce a... starting torque and their speed varies... with load.
A) high, moderately
B) high, slightly
C) low, significantly
D) moderate, only very slightly
The voltage regulator of a DC generator:
A) increases voltage when engine RPM increases
B) is used to limit generator voltage only when the engine is over speeding
C) ensures a reverse current flow when the electrical circuit is broken
D) maintains a constant voltage
R1 and R2 resistances are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so
obtained is given by the following formula:
A) Req = R1 + R2
B) 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
C) Req = R1 x R2
D) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
The difference in electrical potential between two points in a circuit is measured in:
A) Amperes.
B) Coulombs.
C) Watts.
D) Volts.
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load
increases, the voltage regulator will:
A) increase the intensity of the excitation current.
B) maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
C) change the direction of the excitation current.
D) decrease the intensity of the excitation current.
A 12 volt battery has a rating of 24 Ah. If fully charged, how long can it supply current to a 12 volt, 24
watt bulb?
A) 48 hours.
B) 6 hours.
C) 12 hours.
D) 1 hour.
Which of the following is an appropriate substance to use to neutralise the electrolyte from a Nicad
cell?
A) A dilute solution of boric acid.
B) A concentrated solution of sodium bicarbonate.
C) Lead sulphate in powdered form.
D) A dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.
A 12 volt lead acid battery has a broken connection in a cell, the battery:
A) will suffer from thermal runaway
B) provides 1/12th less voltage for the same time
C) is unserviceable
D) provides 1/12th less voltage for 1/12th less time
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are-mainly Nickel-Cadmium. Their advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B) 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
D) 3, 4, 6, 7
A bus-bar is:
A) a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
B) a distribution point for electrical power.
C) a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
D) the stator of a moving coil instrument.
When being charged the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid cell:
A) increases.
B) exhibits little change.
C) depends on current flow.
D) decreases.
A 3 microfarad capacitor is in parallel with a 6 microfarad capacitor. What is the combined
capacitance?
A) 9 microfarads
B) 2 microfarads
C) 3 microfarads
D) 4.5 microfarads
12.5 watts are being consumed by a 2 Ohm resistor. What voltage has been applied?
A) 6.25 volts.
B) Impossible to tell without knowing the current.
C) 5 volts.
D) 3.125 volts.
A component that provides 115 VAC output after an input of 28 VDC is called:
A) A rotary transformer.
B) An inverter, static or rotary.
C) A transformer / rectifier unit.
D) A static rectifier.
A 2 Ohm resistor has 3 amps through it. What power is being consumed by the resistor?
A) 2 watts
B) 18 watts
C) 18 joules per second
D) 4.5 watts
Consider a battery voltage V, connected to three resistors R1, R2, R3. R2 and R3 are in parallel with
one another, and the combination of them is in series with R1. If R1 is 3 Ohms, R2 is 10 Ohms and R3
is 5 Ohms, what is the total resistance of the circuit?
A) 18 Ohms.
B) 1.58 Ohms.
C) 6.33 Ohms.
D) 7.31 Ohms.
In an electrical circuit with 28V, 7A and 4ohms, the dissipated power is equal to:
A) 28 Watts
B) 113 Watts
C) 196 Volts
D) 196 Watts
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current flowing in the
circuit will:
A) decrease.
B) remain the same.
C) increase.
D) be zero.
141. There is a maximum amount of flux which can be carried by a piece of ferromagnetic material.
This is due to:
A) energy loss due to hysteresis
B) saturation
C) residual magnetism
D) high coercivity
Electrical services are connected in parallel. When some are switched off:
A) current may increase or decrease, depending on battery internal
resistance
B) current increases
C) current decreases
D) current stays the same
Consider a battery voltage V, connected to three resistors R1, R2, R3. R2 and R3 are in parallel with
one another, and the combination of them is in series with R1. If R2 is twice R3 and has 2 amps
running through it, the power consumed by R3 is 16 watts, V is 12 volts, what is the power consumed
by R1?
A) 24 watts.
B) 48 watts.
C) Impossible to tell without knowing either R1 or R2.
D) 72 watts.
If a DC circuit with a total resistance of 2 Ohms has 12 volts DC applied, then the resulting current is:
A) 10 A.
B) 24 A.
C) 6 A.
D) 0,167 A.
Consider a battery voltage V, connected to R1 and R2 which are in parallel: If V is 12 volts and R1 is 4
Ohms, what current is flowing through R2?
A) 3 amps.
B) Impossible to tell, but must be at most 3 amps.
C) Impossible to tell without further information.
D) Impossible to tell, but must be at least 3 amps.
Alternating current (AC):
When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
A) frequency and amperage.
B) voltage and frequency.
C) amperage and kVAR.
D) voltage and amperage.
In a three phase star connected power system, to calculate phase voltage from line voltage:
A) Phase voltage is the same as line voltage in a three phase star connected power system.
B) Ufase = sqrt (3) x Uline in a three phase star connected power system.
C) The result depends on the phase angle difference.
D) Uline = sqrt (3) x Ufase in a three phase star connected power system.
If the supply frequency to an inductor is decreased, the reactance... and the current...
A) increases, decreases.
B) increases, increases.
C) decreases, decreases.
D) decreases, increases.
21. When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the
protection device opens:
A) generator breaker
B) exciter breaker and generator breaker
C) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker
D) exciter breaker
The output voltage of a transformer is twice as high as the input voltage. The transformation ratio is:
A) 50
B) 2
C) 1/2
D) depends on the number of turn of wire in the primary and secondary windings.
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
A) 800 revolutions per minute.
B) 12000 revolutions per minute.
C) 1600 revolutions per minute.
D) 6000 revolutions per minute.
When a persistent over excitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the protection device
opens the:
A) tie breaker.
B) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
C) exciter breaker and generator breaker.
D) generator breaker and tie breaker.
41. On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is activated by:
A) the main field winding.
B) the auxiliary winding.
C) a set of permanent magnets.
D) the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
In a solely inductive circuit, what is the relationship between current and voltage?
A) Current lags voltage and is proportional to frequency.
B) Current leads voltage and is proportional to frequency.
C) Current lags voltage and is inversely related to frequency.
D) Current leads voltage and is inversely related to frequency.
Can frequency wild AC generators be operated in parallel?
A) Always.
B) Only if the engines are running at the same speed.
C) In an emergency, to supply services for a limited time at risk of causing
further damage.
D) Never.
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:
A) pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.
B) pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
C) pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of
flight.
D) pilot has to throttle back.
An auto-transformer:
A) converts AC to DC.
B) has a partially shared winding.
C) has an primary winding which is isolated from the secondary winding.
D) can be used for very large voltage step ups.
For high power applications, an AC motor driving a DC generator can be used as:
A) an auto-transformer.
B) an inverter.
C) a transformer.
D) a rectifier.
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pole pairs required in an AC
generator running at 6000 rpm is:
A) 8
B) 12
C) 24
D) 4
A constant speed drive unit mounted side by side with an AC generator is known as:
A) a synchronous unit.
B) an IDG.
C) an accessory gearbox.
D) a CSDU.
In a 3 phase delta connected AC generator:
A) line current is less than phase current.
B) line current is equal to phase current.
C) line voltage is equal to phase voltage.
D) line voltage is greater than phase voltage.
Which of the following is a symptom of an open circuit on one phase in a three phase generator?
A) Two phases failed only.
B) Thermal damage to the stator.
C) An increase in neutral current.
D) One line failed only.
In the event of mechanical failure in the generator, the CSDU is protected by:
A) an automatic clutch.
B) a quill drive.
C) a manually operated dog-tooth clutch.
D) movement of the swash plate in the CSDU pump to minimise output.
Static dischargers:
1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge
3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce interference with the on-board radio communication
systems to a minimum
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified clouds
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 3,4,5
B) 2,4,5
C) 1,2,5
D) 1,3,4
Bonding is a method of:
A) ensuring that the different parts of the aircraft are maintained at the
same potential.
B) ensuring that the different parts of the aircraft are maintained at a
different potential.
C) providing an earth return.
D) ensuring structural integrity.
The aviation industry standard that has evolved for constant frequency aircraft is 115/200V AC, 3
phase, 400 Hz. The 115/200V are:
A) peak-to-peak values.
B) DC values.
C) amplitude values.
D) RMS values.
A generator has a 4 pole pair field electromagnet on its rotor. It has 3 phase output windings on its
stator. If the rotor RPM is 300, what is the output frequency?
A) 20 Hz.
B) 15 Hz.
C) 900 Hz.
D) 1200 Hz.
An aircraft without constant speed generator drive systems or VSCF's will have a...
A) random frequency supply.
B) frequency oscillating supply.
C) frequency wild supply.
D) variable amplitude supply.
A transformer has 150 turns on the primary winding with 240 volts applied. The secondary winding
has 25 turns.
If a 10 ohm resistive load is present across the secondary it will have a voltage across it of:
A) 40 V.
B) 115 V.
C) 1200 V.
D) 150 V.
High circulating currents on the real load of paralleled AC generators is the result of:
A) an out of balance reactive load control coil.
B) an imbalance of frequency between generators.
C) an imbalance of field current on the reactive load.
D) an imbalance of voltage outputs.
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of monitoring the:
A) oil temperature and synchronous speed.
B) output speed and oil pressure.
C) oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.
D) low oil temperature and low oil quantity.
How is a low reactive load on one AC generator, of paralleled AC generators, compensated for?
A) reducing the overall load.
B) increasing the real load on the other generators.
C) altering the excitation current in its field circuit.
D) increasing generator RPM.
During normal operation of a split bus bar AC supply system, the batteries are connected to:
A) the vital bus bar and are charged by the TRU's.
B) the vital bus bar and are charged by the generators.
C) the essential DC bus bar and are charged by the alternators.
D) the essential DC bus bar and are charged by the TRU's.
If the oil temperature gauge of the CSD is in the red what would action is required?
A) Auto disconnect
B) Throttle back and allow to cool down
C) Disconnect, then when cooled reconnect
D) Manually disconnect and reconnect on the ground
A transformer has 500 turns of wire on the primary winding and 50 turns of wire on the secondary
winding. If 240 Volts AC is applied across the primary, the output voltage across the secondary coil
will be:
A) 2,4 kV.
B) 218 Volts.
C) 0 Volts as transformers can only change the mean value of the voltage.
D) 24 Volts.
What is the shaft RPM of a synchronous AC motor connected to a 3 phase 200 Hz supply?
A) 600 rpm
B) 200 rpm
C) 3.3 rpm
D) 12,000 rpm
In an aeroplane equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained
from:
A) a rectifier.
B) an inverter.
C) a contactor.
D) a TRU.
When selecting a fuse for an aircraft circuit the governing factor is:
A) the voltage of the circuit.
B) the resistance of the circuit.
C) the power requirement of the circuit.
D) the energy of the circuit.
What happens to the current in a series capacitive circuit when frequency increases?
A) Increases or decreases depending on the capacity of the circuit.
B) Current increases.
C) Current decreases.
D) Current neither increases nor decreases.
101. When illuminated, what is indicated by the warning lights of an AC generators constant speed
drive?
A) Excessive voltage and current.
B) Excessive temperature and low RPM.
C) High temperature and high oil pressure.
D) Excessive temperature and low oil pressure.
The output frequency of a 3 phase AC generator with a shaft RPM of 8,000 is:
A) 24 kHz.
B) 44 Hz.
C) 133 Hz.
D) 400 Hz.
The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:
A) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
B) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
C) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.
D) drive the generator at a constant speed.
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the:
A) battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the
opposite is true
B) generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite
is true
C) battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the
opposite is true
D) alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the
opposite is true
Two AC signals that have equal amplitude and frequency may not be at the same point in their cycles
at any given moment. This is known as:
A) being in phase.
B) phase overlap.
C) being unsynchronised.
D) being out of phase.
As regards the Generator Control Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said that:
1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage
2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the failure
3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog
clutch release
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU
starts up
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
A rectifier converts:
A) a three phase input into a single phase output.
B) a single phase input into a three phase output.
C) AC to DC.
D) DC to AC.
In a star connection, line voltage equals... and line current is equal to...
A) 1.73 x phase voltage; phase current.
B) 3 x phase voltage; 1.73 x phase current.
C) phase voltage; phase current.
D) phase voltage; 3 x phase current.
Ferromagnetic materials are good at carrying magnetic flux because they have a:
A) low reluctance.
B) high resistance.
C) low resistance.
D) high reluctance.
Which of the following statements regarding external power is true for most airliners?
A) External power can not be paralleled with any of the aircraft generators
B) External power can usually be paralleled with the APU generator, but not
with the main generators
C) External power can usually be paralleled with the main generators, but
not with the APU generator
D) External power can be paralleled with all aircraft generators
When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another
AC generator, the over excitation protection device opens:
A) the tie breaker.
B) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
C) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
D) the generator breaker.
An example of a motor providing a weak rotating field by a single phase AC supply is:
A) a uni-directional motor.
B) None of the above.
C) a uni-synchronous motor.
D) an induction motor with a split phase winding.
A diode:
A) allows current to flow in one direction only
B) allows current flow if it is in phase with the voltage
C) can be used as an inverter
D) allows current flow if its lags the voltage by 90 degrees
A relay is:
A) an electrical security switch.
B) an electrical energy conversion unit.
C) an electromagnetically operated switch.
D) a switch specially designed for AC circuits.
A junction diode:
A) is a PNP junction
B) has low resistance in both directions
C) has high resistance in one direction
D) is a PNP or a NPN junction
The letters PNP when related to a transistor denote:
A) positive, negative, positive
B) polar, normal, positive
C) positive, negated, positive
D) positive, neutral, positive
How many diodes are required in a three phase full wave bridge rectifier?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 3
D) 1
A transistor has:
A) two terminals
B) a single terminal
C) no terminals
D) three terminals
Basic knowledge of computers:
The logic symbol shown represents (assuming
positive logic):
A) a NOR gate
B) an EXCLUSIVE gate
C) a NAND gate
D) an INVERT or NOT gate
A) XOR
B) NOT
C) OR
D) AND
What does the following truth table represent?
A) OR.
B) Exclusive AND.
C) Exclusive OR.
D) NOR.
A) EXNOR
B) OR
C) AND
D) NOR
Which logic gate is the equivalent of the circuit below with inputs A
and B and output C?
A) XOR
B) AND
C) OR
D) NOT
21. Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:
In which of the following logic gates are contained the six most common gates?
A) AND, NOR, NAND
B) NAND, NOR, EXOR
C) NAND, INHIBITED AND, and OR
D) OR, NAND and NOT
For this diagram, choose the answer which
correctly states the outputs from the logic
circuit shown:
A) Both C and D are equal to 0.
B) C=1 and D=0.
C) Both C and D are equal to 1.
D) C=0 and D=1.
If the strength of a radio signal decreases away from the transmitter, this effect is called:
A) attenuation.
B) refraction.
C) ducting.
D) amplification.
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:
A) UHF
B) HF
C) VHF
D) VLF
A radio signal has a frequency of 225MHz and is transmitted through a typical di-pole aerial. For it to
work efficiently what is the required length of the aerial?
A) 13 cm.
B) 2/3 m.
C) 1,3 m.
D) 0,07 m.
Skin effect:
A) is the phenomenon where the apparent resistance of a wire decreases as
the frequency increases.
B) causes the apparent resistance of a wire to increase as the frequency
increases.
C) is purely a problem concerning DC transmitters where the resistance of
the aerial increases with frequency.
D) causes a reduction in power out but does not affect the transmitted beam
shape.
Complete the following statement:... radio signals have a... range by... wave over... than over...
A) MF, shorter, sky, sea, land
B) MF, greater, ground, sea, land.
C) VHF, shorter, sky, sea, land.
D) MF, greater, ground, land, sea.
An aircraft transmits on HF from an altitude of 16000ft to an ATC which has its receiver aerial situated
on top of the control tower at a height of 120ft. At what range could the aircraft captain expect to
make radio contact?
A) 158,71 NM.
B) 1.044.500 ft.
C) 137,44 NM.
D) 171,8 NM.
21. The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:
A) 10 metres.
B) 100 metres.
C) 1 metre
D) 1000 metres.
The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths:
A) myriametric.
B) hectometric.
C) centimetric.
D) metric.
In aeronautics, the frequency range in which the reflection against the ionosphere layers is used, is:
A) SHF
B) HF
C) VHF
D) UHF
A Beat Frequency Oscillator:
A) is used to make radio reception less susceptible to interference.
B) is used to synchronise the radio receiver to the Beat Frequency of the transmitter.
C) is required only when a signal received which is an unmodulated carrier wave.
D) is required in order for a radio receiver to demodulate an amplitude
modulated signal.
The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths:
A) myriametric.
B) centimetric.
C) hectometric.
D) decimetric.
The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
A) 24.60 m
B) 2.46 m
C) 24.60 cm
D) 2.46 cm
The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths:
A) hectometric.
B) myriametric.
C) metric.
D) centimetric.
What frequency band would a signal of 40cm wavelength belong to?
A) HF.
B) SHF.
C) VHF.
D) UHF.
A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called:
A) ducting
B) attenuation
C) propagation
D) refraction
The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths:
A) hectometric.
B) metric.
C) centimetric.
D) myriametric.
An HF transmitter is tuned to a frequency that refracts from the E layer in the Ionosphere. The
maximum distance of the first returning skywave is:
A) 1500 km.
B) 599 NM.
C) 1500 NM.
D) 599 km.