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1. 'Punched out ulcers' in abomasum- pathognomonic lesion of ?

2. Negri bodies in cattle with rabies seen in ....

3. Father of pathological anatomy

4. Father of cellular pathology

5.Lysosome first demonstrated by.....

6. Most reactive free radical in inducing cell damage

7. Removal of damaged organelle during cell injury is called as .....

8. Component of cytoskeleton useful in tumor diagnosis

9. Eosinophilic, intracytoplasmic inclusion in liver in alcoholic liver disease

10. Condition in which impairment of phagocytic property of WBC occurs.

11. Best fixative for glycogen

12. Stains for glycogen (any two)

13. Macrophage laden with lipids in atherosclerosis called as....

14. Russel bodies seen in ....?

15. Partial or complete loss of melanocytes in the epidermis...

16.Pigments causing 'Brown Atrophy'

17. Aggregates of ferritin micelles called...

18. Heart failure cells are ......

19. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is indicative of .............jaundice.

20. Direct Van den berg reaction is indicative of ........jaundice

21. Color of faeces in obstructive jaundice

22. Hyperkeratosis in cattle common in which poisoning ?

23. Type of necrosis involved in hypoxic cell death in the CNS

24. Necrosis in which architectural details persist but cellular details are lost.

25.Enzymes important in apoptosis

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26.Conditions in which PM clotting of blood doesn't occur.

27.Pathological calcification without derangement in blood calcium levels.

28. Special stain for demonstrating Calcium in tissues.

29. 'Tophi' is related to which disease ?

30. Condition characterized by green refrigence of Congo red stained sections under
polarizing microscope.

31. Name the anaphylatoxins

32. Chemical mediators from arachidonic acid metabolism via cyclooxygenase pathway.

33. 'Triple response' in tissue inflammation was formulated by .....

34. Colloidal carbon technique is used in identifying .....

35. Name some SRS-A( slow reacting substances of anaphylaxis)

36. Cationic proteins produced by eosinophils toxic to parasites.

37. Suppurative inflammation of hair follicles caused by Staph. aureus

38. Diffuse spreading suppurative inflammation of connective tissues

39. Modified macrophages in case of granuloma are called ...

40. Granulation tissue is a hallmark of ......

41. Adhesive glycoproteins of Extra-cellular matrix.

42. Condition in which cardiac sclerosis/ cardiac cirrhosis occurs.

43. Alteration from a less specialized cell type to more specialized ones.

44. A malignant tumor which doesn't metastasize

45. Oncogenes discovered by.....

46. 'Sticker tumor' discovered by Novinsky is better known as ....

47. Reed Sternberg Cells are typical of ...

48. Horn cancer is most commonly seen in Bull or Bullocks ?

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49. Black tongue/ canine pellagra is caused by......

50. Rodent ulcer is better known as ......

Solution:

1.Theileriosis

2.Cerebellum

3.Antonio Benevieni

4.Rudolph Virchow

5.Novikoff

6.Hydroxyl radical

7.Autophagy

8.Intermediate filaments

9.Mallory body

10.Chediak Higashi syndrome

11.Non-aqueous fixatives(methyl alcohol)

12.Best carmine & PAS

13.Foam cell

14.Plasma cells

15.Vitiligo

16.Lipofuscin

17.Hemosiderin

18.Alveolar macrophage laden with Hemosiderin

19.Prehepatic jaundice

20. Obstructive jaundice

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21. Grey / Clay color

22. Chlorinated naphthalene poisoning

23.Liquefactive necrosis

24. Coagulative necrosis.

25.Caspases

26.Anthrax & Sweet clover poisoning

27.Dystrophic calcification

28. Van Kossa's Silver nitrate

29.Articular gout

30.Amyloidosis

31.C3a and C5a

32.Thromboxane A2 and Prostaglandins

33. Sir Thomas Lewis

34. Leaking vessels in inflammation

35.Leukotrienes like LTC4, LTD4, LTE4

36.Major Basic Proteins

37.Boils

38.Cellulitis

39.Epitheloid cells

40.Healing

41.Fibronectin & Laminins

42. Chronic general passive hyperemia

43.Metaplasia

44. Basal Cell Carcinoma

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45.Michael Bishop& Harold Varmus

46.Canine Transmissible Venereal Tumor.

47.Hodgkin's disease

48.Bullock

49.Niacin deficiency

50. Basal cell carcinoma

RNS - Gowda
Encircle the correct answer from the multiples choices given below

1. Absolute Polycythemia is due to


a. Deficiency of erythropoietin b. Excess of erythropoietin
c. Loss of blood d. Blood transfusion

2. Erythritol is a carbohydrate substance present in the foetal tissue of


a. Canines b. Bovines
c. Equines c. felines

3. An embolus which passes through right auricle to left auricle through persistent foramen
ovale is known as
a. Saddle embolus b. Amniotic embolus
c. Air embolus d. Paradoxical embolus

4. Specific and preferred special stain for amyloid demonstration is


a. Giemsa b. Toluidine blue
c. Congo red d. Crystal violet

5. Anthrax infection in humans is known as


a. Wool sorters disease b. Splenic fever
c. Charbon d. Malignant fever

6. Necrotic hepatitis in cattle is associated with


a. Round worms b. Tape worms
c. Liver flukes d. Amphistomes

7. Malta fever characterized by undulant fever is observed in


a. Equines b. Bovines
c. Caprines d. Ovines

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8. Cryptorchidism in canines predisposes to
a. Seminoma b. Leydig cell tumour
c. Pappillary carcinoma d. Sertoli cell tumour

9. Bouins fluid is preferred for preservation of


a. Cytoplasmic details b. Mitochondrial details
c. Golgiapparatus d. Nuclear details

10. Chronic alveolar emphysema in equines is known as


a. Roaring b. Hemiplegia
c. Bullae d. Heaves

11. Adult rickets is also known as


a. Osteomalacia b. osteoporosis
c. Osteodystrophy d. osteofibrosis

12. A fracture with splintered bone pieces is known as


a. Complex fracture b. Open fracture
c. Compound fracture c. Communited fracture

13. The feminizing tumour in canines is


a. Dysgerminoma b. Granulosa cell tumour
c. Seminoma d. Sertoli cell tumour

14. Inflammation of duramater is known as


a. Patchymeningitis b. Leptomeningitis
c. Poliomyelitis d. Encephalomyelitis

15. Schistosoma spindale is seen in


a. Superficial veins b. veins of nasal mucosa
c. Thoracic veins d. Mesentric and portal veins

16. The most important cause of death in case of animals suffering from Black
quarter is
a. Asphyxia b. Toxaemia
c. Starvation d. Inflammation

17. Species of animals which is most susceptible to tetanus


a. Horse b. Mules
c. Cattle d. Horses and mules

18. Presence of cells with cigar shaped nucleus is characteristic of


a. Rabdomyosarcoma b. Fibrosarcoma

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c. Leiomyosarcoma d. Medulloblastoma

19. Staging of the neoplasms is based on


a. Primary tumour b. Spread to regional lymphnodes
c. Metastasis to distant locations d. All of the above.

20.Inflammed and unabsorbed yolk sac is characteristic of


a. Mushy chick disease b. Hjarre’s disease
c. Gangrenous dermatitis d. infectious sinusitis

21. Premmunity is characteristic of


a. Babesiosis b. Theileriasis
c. trypanosomiasis d. Coccidiosis

22. Steely wool in sheep is due to


a. Cobalt deficiency b. Niacin deficiency
c. Zinc deficiency d. Copper deficiency

23. Chediac Higashi Syndrome is associated with


a. Abnormalities in neutrophils b. Abnormalities in eosinophils
c. Abnormalities in macrophages d. Abnormalities in lymphocytes

24. The most common gene that gets mutated by chemical carcinogens is
a. sis gene b. myc gene
c. ras gene d. fes gene

25. Cushing’s syndrome in animals is due to


a. Hyperplasia of adrenal cortex b. hyperplasia of adrenal meddula
c. Hyperplasia of chromaffin cells d. hyperplasia of nonchromaffin cells

26. Ultraviolet rays bring about mutation in host DNA by


a. Chromosomal break b. Chromosomal translocation
c. Free redical formation c. Pyrimidine dimmer formation

27. Phorbol ester is a


a. Carcinogen b. Cocarcinogen
c. Procarcinogen d. Initiator

28. p53 gene is a


a. Tumour suppressor gene b. Oncogene
c. Apoptosis gene d. Promoter gene

29. Wilm’s tumour in humans is a

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a. Renal adenoma b. Renal carcinoma
c. Nephroblastoma d. Nephroma

30. Turkey egg appearance of kidney is a lesion observed in a. Ephemeral fever


b. Splenic fever
c. Swine fever d. Swine erysepelas

31. Pantropic viral disease in canines is


a. ICH b. CD
c. Parvoviral infection d. Rabies

32. Muscular dystrophy in chicken is caused by


a. Vit B deficiency b. Vit C deficiency
c. Vit D deficiency d. Vit E deficiency

33. Anemia due to acute blood loss is


a. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia b. Macrocytic normochromic anemia
c. Microcytic hypochromic anemia d. normocytic normochromic anemia

34. Impaction of rumen associated with atony results in


a. Alkolosis b. Acidosis
c. Both a & b

35. Bran disease in horses is


a. Osteodystrophia fibrosa b. Osteolitis fibrosa cystica
c. Osteomalacia d. Osteoporosis

36. Characteristic feature if leptospirosis in canines is


a. Glomerular nephritis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
c. Acute tubular nephritis d. Chronic interstitial nephritis

37. Brooder pneumonia in chicks is


a. Aspergillosis b. Candidiasis
c. Favus d. Thrush

38. A common fungal metabolite in poultry feed which is a nephrotoxic is


a. Aflatoxin b. T-2 toxin
c. Fusarium toxin d. Ochratoxin

39. Cachexia in tuberculosis is due to


a. Interleukin -2 b. TNF –alpha
c. Interferon d. TNF – beta

40. Caisson’s disease is characterised by

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a. Fat embolism b. Air embolism
c. Amniotic embolism d. Tumour embolism

41. Drowning in lake water causes


a. Hemolysis b. Hemoconcentration
c. Pulmonary oedema d. All of the above

41. The type of hypersensitivity reaction observed in tuberculosis is


a. Type -1 b. type II
c. Type III d. Type IV

42. Proliferative tubercular nodule is a feature in


a. Bovines b. equines
c. Birds d. ovines
43. Anthracosis causes
a. Severe fibrosis of lung b. Calcification of lung
c. Predispose to tuberculosis d. No serious complications

44. Vegetative endocarditis is a feature of


a. Swine erysipelas b. Swine fever
c. Swine exanthema d. Swine anthrax

1. Morbillivirus is the cause of MCQ BY A>K>SHARMA

A. Canine distemper
B. Rinderpest
C. PPR
D. All above

2. Which clostridial toxin is responsible for pulpy kidney disease in lamgs

A. Alpha and beta


B. Beta and epsilon
C. Alpha and epsilon
D. Epsilon and iota

3. Which of the diseases cause vesicular stomatitis in cattle

A. FMD
B. RP
C. BT

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D. BVD

4. Cassion’s disease is due to formation of

A. Fat emboli
B. Air emboli
C. Tumour emboli
D. Septic emboli

5. Myeloperoxidase enzyme is present in

A. Neutrophil only
B. Macrophage only
C. Both A and B
D. None of above

6. The term used for haemorrhage in brain is

A. Hemocoel
B. Apoplexy
C. Hemoptysis
D. Epistaxis

7. Disease caused by prion

A. Scrapie
B. Cruzfelt Jacob Disease
C. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
D. All above

8. Hypomyelinogenesis is the characteristic feature in

A. Maedi
B. Scrapie
C. Canine distemper
D. Border disease

9. Abortion is not a manifestation in the following disease

A. Leptospirosis
B. Brucellosis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Caseous lymphadenitis

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10. Which typanosomal disease is not transmitted by a vector

A. Nagan
B. Dourine
C. Surra
D. Chagas

11. All the diseases in the following group can be diagnosed by peripheral
blood smear examination

A. Anthrax, Black quarter, Haemorrhagic septicaemia


B. Canine distemper, Haemorrhagic septicaemia, Anthrax
C. Trypanosomiasis, Tetanus, Babesiosis
D. Rabies, Enterotoxaemia, Leptospirosis

12 Which of the diseases does not cause non-suppurative encephalitis

A. Rabies
B. Canine distemper
C. Listeriosis
D. Louping ill

13. Mast cell granules can be stained by

A. Trypan blue
B. Toludene blue
C. Methylene blue
D.Haematoxylin

14. Epulis is the tumour of

A. Skin
B. Adipose tissue
C. Bone
D. Periodontium

15. Polyneuritis of cervical nerve in chicks is due to

A. Vit. C
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. B1
D. Vit. E

16. Inflammation of gizzard is called as

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A. Ventriculitis
B. Typhlitis
C. Sacculitis D. Ingluvitis

17. LCL bodies are found in

A. IBH
B. ILT
C. Avian pox
D. Psittacosis

18. Radial immunodiffusion test is used for the diagnosis of

A. IBH
B. CRD
C. MD
D. ILT

19. Diseases caused by rhabovirus in animals are


a. Rabies, b. Pseudorabies, c. Vesicular stomatitis, d. Ephemeral fever,
e. Swine fever, f. Malignant cartarrhal fever

A. a, b and c
B. c, d and e
C. d, e and f
D. a, c and d

20. Which one is the correct name of bursa

A. Bursa of Fabricius
B. bursa of fabricius
C.Bursa of fabricius
D. bursa of Fabricius

21. Haemorrhagic septicaemia in cattle is caused by

A. P. multocida serotype A
B. P. multocida serotype B
C. P. multocida serotype C
D. P. multocida serotype D

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22. Pleocytosis is the term used to denote increased number of
leukocytes in

A. Synovial fluid
B. Pericardial fluid
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Peritoneal fluid

23. The first antibody formed after initial antigen exposure

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM

24. Which one is not caused by Salmonella organism

A. Fowl cholera
B. Fowl typhoid
C. Pullorum disease
D. Arizonosis

25. Cretinism is the condition due to affection of

A. Adrenal
B. Thyroid
C. Pancreas
D. Parathyroid

26. Infective Marek’s disease virus is released from

A. Nasal mucosa
B. Intestinal mucosa
C. Oral mucosa
D. Feather follicle epithelium

27. Xerophthalmia and nyctalopia are characteristic clinical features in

A. Copper deficiency
B. Magnesium deficiency
C. Hypovitaminosis A
D. Hypovitaminosis D

28. The presence of taking small soluble molecule in to the cytoplasm of cells is

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A. Phagocytosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. All above

29. Tick the incorrect match

A. Swelling of wattles and comb, haemorrhages in intestine Fowl cholera


B. Paralysis of legs and wings, swelling of sciatic nerve Marek’s disease C. Sudden
drop in egg production, high mortaliy and necro- Fowl typhoid haemorrhagic
lesions in submucos of proventriculus
D. Large birds above 16 weeks of age, tumorous enlargement Lymphoid leucosis of
liver and intrafollicular proliferation of lymphoblasts in bursa of Fabricius

30. Identify mismatch

A. Paramyxovirus Fowl cholera


B. Herpesvirus Infectious laryngotracheitis
C. Mycoplasma gallisepticum Chronic respiratory disease D. Nutritional roup
Hypovitaminosis A

31. Diabetes mellitus due to type II hypersentivity reaction is

A. Insulin dependent
B. Insulin independent
C. Both A and B
D. None of above

32. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is

A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

33. Phagocytosis is

A. Passive phenomenon
B. Energy dependent phenomenon
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are incorrect

34. Arthus reaction is

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A. Immune complex mediated without complement activation
B. Immune complex mediated with complement activation
C. Complement mediated independent of immune comples
D, All above are correct

35. Hyperglycaemia with hyper insulinaemia is observed in

A. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus


B. Insulin independent diabetes mellitus
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. None of above

36. Haemolytic disease of newborn develops due to

A. Blood group incompatability


B. Rh incompatability
C. Both A and B
D.. None of above

37. Blood group incompatability is due to

A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

38. Type I hypersensitivity is triggered by

A. Unbound (free) IgE complexing with specific antigen B. IgE


bound to surface of mast cell through Fc€RI and complexing
with antigen
C. IgE bound to surface of mast cell through Fc€RI and complexing with
antigen cross linking two Fc€RI
D. All above
39.MHC-I molecules are individual specific and are present on the surface of

A. Only macrophages
B. Only lymphocytes
C. All nucleated cells of the body
D. None of above Fc€RI

40. Pus is

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A. Acidic
B. Alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Any of above

Multiple choice questions (Special pathology)


Q.1. Which of the followings is/are correct for PPR virus infection /

a. Interstitial pneumonia and syncytia formation


b. Necrotic stomatitis
c. Lympholysis
d. Necrotic hepatitis
e. Intractoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions

Answer
A. a & c
B. b & d
C. b,c, & d
D. a, b, c & e

Q.2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

a. In BHV-1 infection, foetus is expelled in advanced autolysis state


b. In EHV-1 infection foetus is expelled in advanced autolysis state
c. Mare is seriously sick before abortion in EHV-1 infection
d. Mare is absolutely normal and foetus is expelled in fresh state

Answer
A. a & c
B. b & d
C. a & d
D. a, b, c & d

Q.3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to sheep pox ?

a. Sheep pox virus is a localized infection


b. Sheep pox is a systemic infection
c. Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia of the basal layer

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d. Sheep pox cells with intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions
e. High mortality (50-100%)

Answer
A. a & c
B. b , d & e
C. b, c, & d
D. b, c, d & e

Q.4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to pox virus infection.

a. Contagious ecthyma lesions are more proliferative than sheep pox.


b. Contagious ecthyma is a localized infection
c. Gun-shot nodules are found in lungs in sheep pox
d. Contagious pustular dermatitis is systemic infection

Answer
A. a & c
B. b & d
C. a, b & c
D. a, b, c & d

Q.5. Which of the following match(s) is/are correct ?.

a. Swamp fever----------anthrax
b. Splenic fever----------equine infectious anemia
c. Carre’s disease---------canine distemper
d. Lungers-----------------HS
e. Theliriosis---------------Hyaloma

Answer
A. a & c
B. c & e
C. a, b & d
D. c, d & e

Q. 6. Which of the followings toxins from the clostridial oraganisms is/are prototoxin (s)

a. Alpha toxin
b. Beta toxin
c. Iota toxin
d. Epsilon toxin
e. Delta toxin

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Answer
A. a & c
B. c , b & c
C. c & d
D. c, d & e

Q.7. Bright red (cherry colour) arterial colour of venous blood is a characteristic features of
which of the following poisoning(s)

a. Nitrate and nitrite poisoning


b. HCN poisoning
c. Urea poisoning
d. Oak poisoning

Answer
A. a
B. b
C. b, & c
D. c, & d

Q.8. Haemoglobinuria is a characteristic feature of which of the following infection/diseases ?


a. Anaplasmosis
b. Babesiosis
c. Theiliriosis
d. Cl. hemolyticum infection
e. Equine infectious anaemia
Answer
A. a & b
B. a, c & d
C. b, & d
D. b, c, d & e
D. a, b, c, d & e

Q.9. Blue eye symptoms is seen in


A. Canine distemper
B. Infectious canine hepatitis
C. Canine parvovirus infection
D. None of the above

Q. 10. Enveloped viruses are sensitive to

a. Oxydising agents (chlorine and iodine)

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b. Chloroform and ether
c. Detergents
d. All of the above

Q. 11. Hog cholera virus affects

a. All lymphoid tissues


b. Vascular endothelium and epithelial cells
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

Q. 12. Coronotis, loss of wool, muscle necrosis and haemorrhages at the base of pulmonary
artery due to vasculitis are seen in
a. FMD
b. RP/PPR
c. Vasicular disease
d. Blue tongue
Q. 13. Oedematously thickened reddish black appearance of gall bladder is seen in

a. Infectious canine hepatitis


b. Canine distemper
c. Leptospirosis
d. Salmonellosis

Q. 14.Vesicle formation in foot and mouth disease occurs in

a. Stratum cornium
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum germinativum
d. Dermis

Q. 15. Coenurus cerebralis is the larval stage of

a. Taenia hydatiginea
b. Taenia solium
c. Muticeps multiceps
d. Taenia saginata

Q. 16. Haemorrhagic septicaemia is caused by

a. P.multocida serotype A
b. P.multocida serotype B
c. P.multocida serotype D
d. P.multocida serotype E

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Q. 17. Botryomycosis is caused by

a. Streptococcus equi
b. Sytaphylococcus aureus
c. Corynebacterium pyogenes
d. Aspergillus flavus

Q. 18. In the biological test, the intestinal supernatant killed the mice both before and after
treatment with proteases. Which type of Cl perfringens infection is suspected ?

a. Cl. Perfringens type A


b. Cl. Perfringens type B
c. Cl. Perfringens type C
d. Cl. Perfringens type D
e. Cl. Perfringens type E

Q. 19. The most consistent site/tissue for the detection of acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in Johne’s
disease is

a. Jejunum
b. Ileocaecal valve
c. Ileum
d. Cacecum

Q. 20. Which of the following is an example of pure granulomatus lesions.

a. Tuberculosis
b. Paratuberculosis
c. Aspergillosis
d. Botryomysis

Q.21. Sequestra formation is the characteristic feature of

a. Pasteurella pneumonia
b. Contagious caprine pleuropeumonia (CCPP)
c. PI-3 pneumonia
d. Contagious bovine pleuropeumonia (CBPP)

Q. 22. Which of the following toxin (s) is/are responsible for type D enterotoxaemia in sheep

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a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Epsilon
d. Iota

Q. 23. In EHV-1 abortion which of the following statement is correct

a. Mare is not sick before abortion

b. Mare shows symptoms of parturition

c. Foetus is expelled in fresh state

d. Foetus is expelled in decomposed state

Q. 24. In which of the following disease (s), abortion is generally not seen in 3rd trimester of
pregnancy in cows

a. Listeriosis
b. Brucellosis
c. BHV-1 infections
d. Campylobacteriosis

Q. 25. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct

a. Coggins’ test is an AGID test for diagnosis of equine viral arteries


b. Coggins’test is an ELISA test for diagnosis of EIA
c. Coggins’ test is a gamma-IFN based test for diagnosis of equine metritis
d. Coggins’ test is an AGID test for the diagnosis of EIA

Q. 26. Giant cell (Syncytia) formation in lunges occurs in

a. PI- 3 pneumonia
b. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)
c. PPR
d. Equine rhinotracheitis

Q.27. Microabscess in brain is a characteristic feature of

a. Tuberculosis meningitis
b. Streptococcus infection
c. Listeriosis
d. Streptococcus infection

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Q. 28. Which of the following cells is most important in immune complex- mediated disease
(Type 3 hypersensitivity).

a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. Eosinophils
d. Basophils

Q. 29. Which of the following is/are related to type1 hypersensitivity

a. Mast cells
b. Basophils
c. IgE antibody
d. All of the above

Immunopathology

Q.1. Which of the followings is/are important for type 1 hypersensistivity

a. IgE
b. Mast cells
c. Basophils
d. Eosinophils
e. All of the above

Q.2. Which of the followings is/are anaphylotoxins

a. C1a
b. C3a
c. C3b
d. C5a

Q. 3. An appropriate, useful type 1 hypersensitivity response of the immune system


accompanied by eosinophilia would most likely be directed against which of the followings ?

a. Amyloid

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b. Spirochete
c. Neoplasms
d. Liver fluke
e. Inhaled dust

Q. 4. In autoimmune thyoiditis the autoantibodies are directed against


a. thyroglobulin
b. Follicular cell miscrosomes
c. Colloid antigens
d. All of the above

Q. 5. Epstein barr virus DNA polymerase cross reacts with which of the followings ?

a. Cardiac myosin protein


b. Myelin basic protein
c. Acetyl choline receptor protein
d. Glomerular basement membrane protein

Q. 6. Blood transfusion reactions are mediated by

a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
e. Type V hypersensitivity

Q. 7. The term farmer’s lung is usually referred to


a. Hypersensitive pneumonitis
b. Brooders pneumonia
c. Lip pneumonia
d. Round worm pneumonia

Q. 8. In which of the following animal species hemolytic diseases of new born is mostly
recoded ?

a. Cattle
b. Equine
c. Ovine
d. Caprine

Q. 9. A renal biopsy from an old dog is performed and microscopic examination shows a
granular pattern of immunofluorescence staining with antibody to complement component
C1q. This pattern is most typically produced as a consequence of which of the following
immunologic mechanisms?

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a. IgE coating mast cells
b. Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody
c. Antigen- antibody complex
d. Macrophages release lymphokines
e. Release of prostglandins

Q. 10. In general in autoimmune diseases, which of the following mechanisms are involved in
tissue injuries
a. Complement mediated lysis
b. Immune complex mediated injuries
c. Effector cell mediated lysis
d. All of the above

Q. 11. The factor responsible for hemolytic disease in new born among human beings is-
a. Father and mother both Rh positive
b. Father and mother both Rh negative
c. Father is Rh positive and mother is negative
d. Father Rh negative, mother Rh positive

Answers (Special pathology)

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22. a, c
Q. 1. D 23. a, c
Q. 2. C 24. a
Q. 3. B 25. d
Q. 4. C 26. a, c
Q. 5. B 27. c
Q. 6. C 28. b
Q. 7. B 29. d
Q. 8. C
Q. 9. B Answers (Immunopathology)
Q.10. d
Q. 11. c Q. 1.e
Q. 12. d Q. 2.b, d
Q. 13. a Q. 3.d
Q.14. b Q. 4.d
Q. 15. c Q. 5.b
Q. 16. b, d Q. 6.b
Q. 17. b Q. 7.a
Q. 18. b Q. 8.b
19. b Q. 9. c
20. b Q.10. d
21. d Q.11. c

De-coded Roll number False Number allotted by the Marks scored by the
(after examination board candidate
evaluation)
………………………………
……………………… ………………………….

(Column I) (Column II) (Column III)

Row No. Questions and suggested answers Answer


1. Hydropic degeneration of epidermis involve A.
Stratum corneum
B. Stratum spinosum B
C. Stratum germinativum
D. Stratum corneum and spinosum

2. Granulomatous inflammatory lesion is primarily formed by


A. Lymphocytes

Page 25 of 48
B. Macrophages B
C. Giant cells
D. Plasma cells

3. Infectious cause of extravascular haemolysis include A.


Babesiosis
B. Theileriases B
C.Laptopirosis
D. Trypanosomiases

4. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A. Preformed chemical & Leukotrines mediator in a cell


B. Preformed chemical & Cytokines mediator in a cell D
C. Preformed chemical & Prostaglandins mediator in a cell
D. Preformed chemical & Lysosomal mediator in a cell

5. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?


A. Neurocysticercosis in man : Taenia solium
B. Neurocysticercosis in man : Taenia saginata A
C. Neurocysticercosis in man :Taenia multiceps
D. Neurocysticercosis in man :Taenia pisiformis
6. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Actnomycosis : Rarifying osteitis
B. Pasteruella hemolytica : Hematuria A
C. Anthrax in horse : Spleenomegaly
D. Actinobacillosis in sheep : Granulomatous disease

7. Consider the following statements regarding foot & mouth disease

1. Tigroid heart in young calves B


2. Disease is not seen in pigs
3. There are oral mucosal ulcers
4. The ulcers are with bran like deposits

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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8. Consider the following statements regarding Johne’s Disease, a
chronic intestinal disorder in cattle
1. Thickening and corrugation of intestinal mucosa
2. The lesions are limited to large intestine
3. Linear hemorrhages on intestinal mucosa
4. Edema of intestinal wall
A
Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
9. Consider the following statements regarding Brucellosis in cattle, a
contagious bacterial abortion
1. Abortion in last third of gestation period
2. Animal once infected becomes carrier
3. The organisms multiply within Macrophages
4. The organism is best isolated from the stomach contents
of fetus D

Which of the above statements are correct?


A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

10. Consider the following diseases


1. Polyarteritis
2. Parasitic arteritis
3. Tuberculosis
The formation of an aneurysm in an artery would include D

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
11. Consider the following microscopic features of RBCs
1. Hypochromasia D
2. Macrocytic Cells
3. Normocytic Cells

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The anemia would include:

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

12. Consider the following conditions


1. Vitamin A deficiency
2. Sheep pox
3. Bot Fly
The development of oesophagitis would include
D
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

13.
Match list I (Type) with list II (characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :

List I List II
a. Botriomycosis 1. Fungal infection
b. Histoplasmosis 2. Button ulcers in the gut
c. Canine distemper 3. Granulomatous lesion
d. Hog cholera 4. Hard pad disease

A
Suggested answers

A a
3
B a
1 b c d1 4
C a
2b c d2
2
3 4b c
D a
3 d3 4 1b
c d4 1
2

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14. Match list I (Type) with list II (characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :

List I List II
a. Inclusion body 1. Haemophillus gallinarum
hepatitis
b. Infectious coryza 2. Picorna virus
c.Infectious 3. Adenovirus
Laryngiotracheitis
d. Avian 4. Herpes virus
encephalomyelitis
D
Suggested answers

A a
4
B a
3 b c d3 2
C a 1b c d2
2
1 4b c
D a
3 d1 4 3b
c d1 4
2
15.
Match list I (Type) with list II (characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :

List I List II
a. Glanders 1. Granulomatous Mesenteric
Lymphadenitis
b. Equine Tuberculosis 2. Fistulous wither
c. Equine Brucellosis 3. Abscesses in Lymphnode
d. Strangles 4. Oily pus

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A
Suggested answers
A a b c d
4 1 2 3
B a b c d
12 3 4
C a b c d
23 4 1
D a b c d
34 2 1

16. Consider the following ‘assertion’ and the ‘reason’


C
Assertion (a) : Cirrhosis of liver causes feminization in
male
Reason (r) : Due to cirrhosis of liver there is lack of testosterone
production.

Suggested answers
A. Both Assertion (a) and Reason (r) are true and R is the
correct explanation of Reason (r)
B. Both Assertion (a) and Reason (r) are true but R is not a
correct explanation of Reason (r)
C. Assertion (a) is true but Reason (r) is false
D. Assertion (a) is false but Reason (r) is true

17. Consider the following ‘assertion’ and the ‘reason’

Assertion (a) : There is development of osteomalacia due to chronic


nephritis.
Reason(r) : There is retention of phosphorous due to chronic
nephritis which cause withdrawal of calcium from bones.

A
Suggested answers
A. Both Assertion (a) and Reason(r) are true and the
Reason(r) is the correct explanation of A
B. Both Assertion (a) and the Reason(r) are true but the
Reason (r) is not a correct explanation of the Assertion (a)
C. Assertion (a) is true but the Reason(r) is false
D. Assertion (a) is false but the Reason(r) is true

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18. Assertion (a) : Uroliths are common in animals kept on Vitamin A
deficient diet
Reason (r) : Vitamin A deficiency leads to crystallization of salts,
leading to formation of calculi

Suggested answers
(a) Both the Assertion (a) and Reason (r) are true and the C
Reason (r) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (a)
(b) Both Assertion (a) and Reason (r) are true but the Reason
(r) is not a correct explanation of the Assertion (a)
(c) Assertion (a) is true but the Reason (r) is false
(d) Assertion (a) is false but the Reason (r) is true

19. Morbillivirus is the cause of

A. Canine distemper
B. Rinderpest D
C. PPR
D. All above

20. Which clostridial toxin is responsible for pulpy kidney disease C

Page 31 of 48
in lamgs

A.Alpha and beta


B.Beta and epsilon
C.Alpha and epsilon
D.Epsilon and iota
21. Which of the diseases cause vesicular stomatitis in cattle

A. FMD A
B. RP
C. BT
D. BVD
22. Cassion’s disease is due to formation of

Fat emboli
A. B
Air emboli
B.
Tumour emboli
C.
Septic emboli
D.
23. Myeloperoxidase enzyme is present in

A.Neutrophil only A
B.Macrophage only
C.Both A and B
D.None of above
24. The term used for haemorrhage in brain is

A. Hemocoel B
B. Apoplexy
C. Hemoptysis
D. Epistaxis
25. Disease caused by prion
D
A. Scrapie
B. Cruzfelt Jacob Disease
C. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy D. All above
26. Hypomyelinogenesis is the characteristic feature in

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A. Maedi D
B. Scrapie
C. Canine distemper
D. Border disease
27. Abortion is not a manifestation in the following disease
D
A. Leptospirosis
B. Brucellosis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Caseous lymphadenitis
28. Which typanosomal disease is not transmitted by a vector

A. Nagan B
B. Dourine
C. Surra
D. Chagas
29. All the diseases in the following group can be diagnosed by
peripheral blood smear examination
B
A. Anthrax, Black quarter, Haemorrhagic septicaemia
B. Canine distemper, Haemorrhagic septicaemia, Anthrax
C. Trypanosomiasis, Tetanus, Babesiosis
D. Rabies, Enterotoxaemia, Leptospirosis
30.
Which of the diseases does not cause non-suppurative encephalitis

A. Rabies C
B. Canine distemper
C. Listeriosis
D. Louping ill
31. Mast cell granules can be stained by

B
A. Trypan blue
B. Toludene blue
C. Methylene blue
D.Haematoxylin
32. Epulis is the tumour of

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A. Skin D
B. Adipose tissue
C. Bone
D. Periodontium
33. Polyneuritis of cervical nerve in chicks is due to

A. Vit. C C
B. Vit. D
C. Vit. B1
D. Vit. E
34. Inflammation of gizzard is called as

A. Ventriculitis A
B. Typhlitis
C. Sacculitis
D. Ingluvitis
35. LCL bodies are found in
D

A. IBH
B. ILT
C. Avian pox
D. Psittacosis
36. Diseases caused by rhabovirus in animals are
a. Rabies b. Pseudorabies,
c. Vesicular stomatitis d. Ephemeral fever,
e. Swine fever f. Malignant cartarrhal fever
D
A. a, b and c
B. c, d and e
C. d, e and f
D. a, c and d
37. Which one is the correct name of bursa

A. Bursa of Fabricius D
B. bursa of fabricius
C. Bursa of fabricius
D. bursa of Fabricius

Page 34 of 48
38. Haemorrhagic septicaemia in cattle is caused by

A. P. multocida serotype A
B. P. multocida serotype B B
C. P. multocida serotype C
D. P. multocida serotype D

39. Pleocytosis is the term used to denote increased


number of leukocytes in

A. Synovial fluid C
B. Pericardial fluid
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Peritoneal fluid
40. The first antibody formed after initial antigen exposure

A. IgA D
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
41. Which one is not caused by Salmonella organism

A. Fowl cholera A
B. Fowl typhoid
C. Pullorum disease
D. Arizonosis
42. Cretinism is the condition due to affection of B

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A. Adrenal
B. Thyroid
C. Pancreas
D. Parathyroid
43. Infective Marek’s disease virus is released from

A. Nasal mucosa
D
B. Intestinal mucosa
C. Oral mucosa
D. Feather follicle epithelium
44.
45. Xerophthalmia and nyctalopia are characteristic clinical features in

A. Copper deficiency
B. Magnesium deficiency C
C. Hypovitaminosis A
D. Hypovitaminosis D

46. The presence of taking small soluble molecule in to the cytoplasm


of cells is

A. Phagocytosis C
B. Exocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. All above
47. Tick the incorrect match

A Swelling of wattles and comb, Fowl cholera


haemorrhages in intestine
B Paralysis of legs and wings, swelling Marek’s disease
of sciatic nerve
C Sudden drop in egg production, Fowl typhoid
high mortaliy and
C
necrohaemorrhagic lesions in
submucos of proventriculus
D Large birds above 16 weeks of age, Lymphoid
tumorous enlargement of liver and leucosis
intrafollicular proliferation of
lymphoblasts in bursa of
Fabricius

Page 36 of 48
48. Identify mismatch
A
A. Paramyxovirus >>>>>>>>>Fowl cholera
B. Herpesvirus>>>>>>>>>>>>>Infectious laryngotracheitis
C. Mycoplasma gallisepticum>>>>Chronic respiratory disease D.
Nutritional roup>>>>>>>>Hypovitaminosis A

49. Diabetes mellitus due to type II hypersentivity reaction is

A. Insulin dependent B
B. Insulin independent
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
50. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is

A. Type I hypersensitivity D
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
51. Phagocytosis is

Page 37 of 48
A. Passive phenomenon B
B. Energy dependent phenomenon
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are incorrect
52. Arthus reaction is

A. Immune complex mediated without complement activation B


B. Immune complex mediated with complement activation
C. Complement mediated independent of immune comples D,
All above are correct
53. Hyperglycaemia with hyper insulinaemia is observed in

Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus


A. B
Insulin independent diabetes mellitus
B.
Diabetes insipidus
C.
None of above
D.
54. Haemolytic disease of newborn develops due to

B
A. Blood group incompatability
B. Rh incompatability
C. Both A and B
D.. None of above
55. Blood group incompatability is due to

A. Type I hypersensitivity B
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
56. Type I hypersensitivity is triggered by
C
A. Unbound (free) IgE complexing with specific antigen B. IgE
bound to surface of mast cell through Fc€RI and complexing
with antigen
C. IgE bound to surface of mast cell through Fc€RI and
complexing with antigen cross linking two Fc€RI D. All above

57. MHC-I molecules are individual specific and are present on the
surface of

Page 38 of 48
A. Only macrophages C
B. Only lymphocytes
C. All nucleated cells of the body
D. None of above

58. Pus is
B
A. Acidic
B. Alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Any of above
59. What is the mechanism of necrotic stomatitis during uremia A.
Invasion by pathogenic bacteria
B. Death of mucus secreting cells of oral C
mucosa
C. Ammonia secretion through saliva
D. None of the above
60. Leptospirosis is caused by leptospira species which are spirochaetes
and are
A. Host specific
B. Species specific C
C. Not very host specific
D. Human specific

61. Pus in the uterus is termed as A.


Pyometra
B. Abscess A
C. Metritis
D. Mucometra

62. Bovine lymphangitis is a disease causing abscesses in A. Tonsils

B. Salivary glands C
C. Lymph glands
D. Endocrine glands

63. Is common tape worm of cattle, sheep and goats


A. A. galli D
B. T. hydatigana

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C. T. solium
D. M. expansa

64. Haemorrages in the proventriculus around orifices of glands is


pathognomic lesion of
A. Avian influenza
B. Marek’s disease C
C. Ranikhet
D. ALC

65. Malignant tumor of cartilage is termed as A.


Sarcoma
B. Malignant sarcoma D
C. Chondroma
D. Condrosarcoma

66. In Blue tongue, haemorrhages as a pathognomic lesion is seen in


A. Pulmonary artery

B. Renal artery A
C. Hepatic vein
D. Coronary artery

67. Inflammation of testicles is called as A.


Urethritis
B. Belanitis D
C. Prosthitis
D. Orchitis

68. Predominant cells in suppurative inflammation are


A. PMN
B. L A
C. M
D. E

69. Pustules on abdomen of pups are seen in A.


Rabies
B. Hepatitis C
C. Distemper
D. Leptospirosis

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70. Inflammation of rectum is termed as A.
Enteritis
B. Esophagitis D
C. Colitis
D. Proctitis

71. Listeria monocytogenes causes micro-abscesses in A.


Muscle
B. Liver C
C. Brain
D. Intestine

72. Glucose in the urine is detected by


A. Benedict’s test
B. Van den Berg’s test A
C. Rothra’s test
D. Sedimentation test

73. Nutritional roup in poultry is caused due to deficiency of A. Vit A

B. Vit C A
C. Vit D
D. All three

74. Decrease in number of circulating WBC is called as A.


Leucamia
B. Leucopenia B
C. Leucocytosis
D. Nutropenia

75. Bacillary White diarrhoea is disease of A. Young


chicks
B. Adult broilers A
C. Adult layers
D. All three

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76. Presence of blood in urine is called as A.
Heamoglobinuria
B. Haematuria B
C. Haematoma
D. Uremia

77. Inflammation of spinal cord is called as A.


Myelitis
B. Osteomylitis A
C. Encephalomylitis
D. Coxitis

78. Congested, abnormal ova in poultry is pathognomic of A. E. coli

B. Salmonellosis B
C. Pateurellosis
D. Tuberculosis

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79. Non-inflammatory and non-neoplastic enlargement is usually seen in
A. Thyroid
B. Thymus
C. Pancreas
D. Salivary gland

80. In mice and cat the most prominent changes associated with
amyloidosis are observed in
A. Liver
B. Kidney E
C. Spleen
D. Liver and Kidney
E. Liver and Spleen

81. In the dog the most prominent changes associated with


amyloidosis are seen in
A. Liver
B. Spleen C
C. Kidney D.
A and B
e. A and C

82. In the liver, amyloidosis is primarily seen in


A. Spaces of Disse
B. Walls of central veins
C. Interlobular connective tissue D. Vessel E
walls in portal areas
E. All the above.

83. Extramedullary haematopoesis in adult animals may result as a


result of
A. Severe Leucopaenia
B. Erythrocytopaenia E
C. Thrombocytopaenia
D. Bone marrow hypoplasia
E. All the above

84. In mice leukaemic infiltration of the liver is often confused with


A. Erythropoeisis in the liver of mice bearing myoepitheliomas

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B. Granulocytic haematopoeisis in mice with adrenal cortical C
tumors C. All the above
D. ?????

85. Minimal deviation hepatomas in rats and mice are;


A. Spontaneous tumours D
B. Induced transplantable tumours
C. Induced transplantable tumours that
maintain their characteristics through serial
transplantation.
D. Induced transplantable tumours that
maintain their characteristics through serial
transplantation and do not differ histologically
and biochemically from normal liver.

86. The difference between an induced tumour and spontaneous


tumour is
A. There is a background of liver change or
damage in induced tumours
B. Spontaneous tumours occur in relatively
normal
liver. C
C. In induced tumours, enzyme systems fail to respond normally
to inducing mechanisms or changes in hormonal environment.
D. ?????

87. To differentiate between an exocrine from an islet cell adenoma,


which one of the following criteria is used
A. Cells of exocrine adenoma stain pink with
hemotoxylin and eosin and the nucleus has less
coarse chromatin pattern and no prominent
nucleolus
B. Islet cell adenoma cells stain pink with
hematoxylin and eosin and the nucleus has
less coarse chromatin pattern and no prominent nucleolus as in F
an acinar cell.
C. In islet cell adenoma, hemorrhages often
occur due to large number of thin walled blood
vessels.
D. a&b
E. a & c F. b & c

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88. To differentiate between an exocrine from an islet cell adenoma,
which one of the following criteria is used
A. Cells of exocrine adenoma stain pink
with hemotoxylin and eosin and the nucleus has
less coarse chromatin pattern and no prominent
nucleolus
B. Islet cell adenoma cells stain pink with
hematoxylin and eosin and the nucleus has less coarse F
chromatin pattern and no prominent nucleolus as in an acinar
cell.
C. In islet cell adenoma, hemorrhages often
occur due to large number of thin walled blood
vessels.
D. a&b
E. a&c
F. b&c

89. Increased Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) activity is observed


in
A. Hepatitis, Pancreatitis
B. Shock E
C. Neoplasia
D. a&c
E. a,b & c.

90. The “Griess’s test”, used in clinical pathology for urinary nitrite is
unreliable in canine and feline urine as
A. High level of ascorbic acid in urine
inhibits conversion of nitrate to nitrities
B. Urine may not contain sufficient
quantities of
reducible nitrate E
C. Organisms such as streptococci,
staphylococci and pseudomonas spp. Found in
urine do not form nitrite from nitrate
D. a&c
E. a, b and c.

91. In the diagnosis of liver disorders involving hepatocellular


damage, the enzymes that are to be monitored are the following
(Please choose from this list: Alanine aminotransferase – ALT,
Ornithine carbamyl transferase – OCT, Sorbitol dehydrogenase
– SDH, Alkaline phosphatase – ALP, Lactate

Page 45 of 48
dehydrogenase – LDH, Aspertate transaminase –AST) A

A. ALT, OCT, SDH, Arginase


B. ALT, AST, ALP
C. ALP, ALT, LD
D. ALP, AST, LD

92. Dark red encrustations around the eyes and external nares of
rats are typically seen in
A. Mycoplasma infection
B. Sendai virus infection C
C. Sialodacryoadenitis virus infection
D. Lymphochoriomeningitis virus infection

93. The triad of organs usually affected in Tyzzer’s disease in rats


include
A. Liver, Kidney and spleen
B. Kidney, spleen and heart C
C. Intestine, liver and heart D.
Kidney, heart and spleen.

94. Foa-kurloff cells (unique mononuclear leucocytes) are found


D
routinely in certain tissues in
A. Mice
B. Rats
C. Hamsters
D. Guinea pigs
E. Rabbits

95. Microfractures of cartilaginous spicules, costochondral and


periarticular hemorrhages accompanied by significant effect on
cholesterol metabolism and blood clotting are findings in guinea
pigs due to
A. Hypovitaminosis K C
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypovitaminosis C
D. Hypothryroidism

Page 46 of 48
96. Histologic changes in rabbits such as:-
-medial degeneration and mineralization of major
arteries;
-mineralization of glomerular tufts, basement
membranes and tubules of the kidney,
-deposition of basophilic material on the periosteal and

endosteal surfaces, C
medullary trabeculae and haversian systems of long bones
denotes

A. Vitamin E deficiency
B. Hypervitaminosis A
C. Hypervitaminosis D
D. b&c

97. In the differential leucocyte counts among laboratory animals the


lymphocytes are the predominant cell type in the blood of
A. Rats and mice
B. Hamsters
C. Guinea pigs G
D. Rabbits
E. a&b
F. a, b & c
G. a, b, c & d

98. Which of the following are Sebacious glands

A. Zymbal glands of the auditory meatus of


rat
B. Supracaudal gland of Canidae and
Felidae
C. Inguinal gland of the rat, mouse and F
rabbit.
D. a+c
E. a+b
F. a+b+c

99. In which of the following animals the parietal cells of Bowman;s


B
capsule are cuboidal and histologically

Page 47 of 48
similar to the adjascent proximal tubular cells.

A. Adult male rat


B. Adult male mouse
C. Adult male hamster
D. Adult male rabbits.

100. In rhesus monkeys the most common lesions of tubercles seen


in the lungs are due to
C
A. Mycobacterium
B. Focal granulomas of unknown etiology. C.
Pneumonyssus simicola infestation
D. All the above.

Page 48 of 48