DATE : 05/05/2019 Test Booklet Code

Q2
ESURYA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2019
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

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1

1. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the
construction of genetic maps?
(1) A unit of distance between two expressed
genes representing 100% cross over.
(2) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 1% cross
over.
(3) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 50% cross
over.
(4) A unit of distance between two expressed
genes representing 10% cross over.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . 1 map unit represent 1 % cross over.
Map unit is used to measure genetic distance.
This genetic distance is based on average
number of cross over frequency.
2. Select the correct group of biocontrol
agents.
(1) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
thuringiensis
(2) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(3) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic
virus, Aphids
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Fungs Trichoderma, Baculoviruses (NPV) and
Bacillus thuringiensis are used as biocontrol
agents.
Rhizobium, Nostoc, Azospirillum and
Oscillatoria are used as biofertilisers,
whereas TMV is a pathogen and aphids are
pests that harm crop plants.
3. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to
move particles or mucus in a specific
direction. In humans, these cells are mainly
present in
(1) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
(2) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
(3) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(4) Bile duct and Bronchioles
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes are lined with
ciliated epithelium to move particles or mucus
in a specific direction.
2
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )
4. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then
what will be the frequency of homozygous
dominant, heterozygous and homozygous
recessive individuals in the population?
(1) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(2) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(3) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(4) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = 0.4
Frequency of recessive allele (say q)
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
 Frequency of homozygous dominant
individuals (AA)
= p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16
Frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa)
= 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48
Frequency of homozygous recessive
individuals (aa)
= q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36
5. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines
in any animal.
(2) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive
genes that reduce fertility and productivity
(3) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of
superior genes and elimination of
undesirable genes
(4) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes
that are eliminated by selection. It also helps
in accumulation of superior genes and
elimination of less desirable genes. Therefore
this is selection at each step, increase the
productivity of inbred population. Close and
continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility
and even productivity.
6. Which of the following factors is responsible
for the formation of concentrated urine?
(1) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards
inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
(2) Secretion of erythropoietin by
Juxtaglomerular complex
(3) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular
filtration
(4) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
Answer ( 1 )
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

S o l . The proximity between loop of henle and vasa 9. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry
recta as well as counter current in them help weather. Select the most appropriate reason
in maintaining an increasing osmolalrity from the following
towards the inner medullary interstitium. This (1) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
mechanism help to maintain a concentration
gradient in medullary interstitium so human (2) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy
urine is nearly four times concentrated than mesophyll
initial filtrate formed. (3) Tyloses in vessels
7. Match Column - I with Column - II (4) Closure of stomata
Column - I Column - II Answer ( 1 )
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association S o l . Bulliform cells become flaccid due to water
of fungi with plant loss. This will make the leaves to curl inward
roots to minimise water loss
(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of 10. Concanavalin A is
dead organic
(1) an essential oil (2) a lectin
materials
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living (3) a pigment (4) an alkaloid
plants or animals Answer ( 2 )
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic S o l . Concanavalin A is a secondary metabolite e.g
association of algae is lectin, it has the property to agglutinates
and fungi RBCs.
Choose the correct answer from the option 11. Select the incorrect statement.
given below
(1) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have
(a) (b) (c) (d) no sex-chromosome
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (2) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) depends on the type of sperm rather than
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) egg
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) Human males have one of their sex-
chromosome much shorter than the other
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Saprophytes - Decomposition of dead (4) Male fruit fly is heterogametic
organic materials Answer ( 2 )
Parasites - Grow on/in living plants and S o l . In birds female heterogamety is found thus sex
animals of progeny depends on the types of egg rather
Lichens - Symbiotic association of than the type of sperm.
algae and fungi
eg.
Mycorrhiza - Symbiotic association of fungi
 sperm = A + Z type (100%)
with plant roots
Birds
8. Which of the following glucose transporters is (fowls) A + Z (50%)
insulin-dependent?  eggs
A + W (50%)
(1) GLUT II (2) GLUT III
(3) GLUT IV (4) GLUT I 12. Which one of the following is not a method of
Answer ( 3 ) in situ conservation of biodiversity?
S o l . GLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is (1) Wildlife Sanctuary
responsible for majority of glucose transport (2) Botanical Garden
into muscle and adipose cells in anabolic
(3) Sacred Grove
conditions. Whereas GLUT-I is insulin
independent and is widely distributed in (4) Biosphere Reserve
different tissues. Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

S o l . Botanical garden - ex - situ conservation (off- Select the correct option from the following :
site conservation) i.e. living plants (flora) are (a) (b) (c) (d)
conserved in human managed system.
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
13. Which of the following statements is
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
incorrect?
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(1) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids
and LSD. (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) Conidia are produced exogenously and Answer ( 1 )

ascospores endogenously.
(3) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long
thread-like hyphae.
(4) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Yeast is an unicellular sac fungus. It lacks
filamentous structure or hyphae.
14. Which of the following contraceptive methods
do involve a role of hormone?
(1) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea,
Pills.
(2) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives.
(3) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier
methods.
(4) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency
contraceptives.
S o l . (a) Pila is a Mollusc. The mouth contains a file
- like rasping organ for feeding called
radula.
(b) Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx
excretion takes place through malpighan
tubules.
(c) Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The body
bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
plates, which help in locomotion.
(d) Taenia is a platyhelminth specialised cells
called flame cells helps in osmoregulation
and excretion
16. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by
(1) acetylation of morphine
(2) glycosylation of morphine
(3) nitration of morphine
(4) methylation of morphine

Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 1 )

S o l .  In lactational amenorrhoea, due to high S o l . Heroin, commonly called smack and is

prolactin level, gonadotropin level chemically diacetylmorphine which is
decreases. synthesized by acetylation of morphine.
17. Match the following organisms with the
 Oral pills are either progestogens or
products they produce
progestogen-estrogen combinations used
by the females. (a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese

 Emergency contraceptives includes the (b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd

administration of progestogens or cerevisiae
progestogen-estrogen combination or
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
IUDs within 72 hour of coitus.
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
So, lactational amenorrhoea, oral pills and
emergency contraceptives involve a role of (v) Acetic Acid
hormone. Select the correct option.
15. Match the following organisms with their (a) (b) (c) (d)
respective characteristics : (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
(a) Pila (i) Flame cells (2) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates (3) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
(c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula (4) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules Answer ( 1 )

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

S o l . Microbes are used in production of several S o l . The given data shows stabilising selection as
household and industrial products – most of the newborn having average weight
Lactobacillus – Production of curd between 3 to 3.3 kg survive and babies with
less and more weight have low survival rate.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread making
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid production 22. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower
was crossed with a white flower and in F 1
Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid
generation pink flowers were obtained. When
18. What is the site of perception of photoperiod pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation
necessary for induction of flowering in showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose
plants? the incorrect statement from the following :
(1) Pulvinus (2) Shoot apex
(1) Pink colour in F 1 is due to incomplete
(3) Leaves (4) Lateral buds dominance.
Answer ( 3 ) 1 2 1
S o l . During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus is (2) Ratio of F 2 is (Red) : (Pink) :
4 4 4
perceived by leaves of plants. (White)
19. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume (3) Law of Segregation does not apply in this
of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, experiment
respectively. What will be his Expiratory
(4) This experiment does not follow the
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
Principle of Dominance.
(1) 1700 mL (2) 2200 mL
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 2700 mL (4) 1500 mL
S o l . Genes for flower colour in snapdragon shows
Answer ( 4 )
incomplete dominance which is an exception
S o l . Tidal Volume = 500 ml
of Mendel's first principle i.e. Law of
Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml dominance.
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV Whereas Law of segregation is universally
= 500 + 1000 applicable.
= 1500 ml 23. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :
20. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in (1) Polypeptide expression
carrying out
(2) DNA polymorphism
(1) Chemoautotrophic fixation
(3) Novel DNA sequences
(2) Nitrification
(3) Denitrification (4) Genes expressed as RNA
(4) Nitrogen fixation Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are DNA
S o l . Thiobacillus denitrificans cause denitrification sequences (genes) that are expressed as
i.e., conversion of oxides of nitrogen to free mRNA for protein synthesis. These are used in
N2. human Genome Project.
21. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges 24. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the
from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive enzymes.
whereas 99% of the infants born with weights (1) Goblet Cells (2) Oxyntic Cells
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type
(3) Duodenal Cells (4) Chief Cells
of selection process is taking place?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Stabilizing Selection
(2) Disruptive Selection S o l . Goblet cells secrete mucus and bicarbonates
present in the gastric juice which plays an
(3) Cyclical Selection
important role in lubrication and protection of
(4) Directional Selection the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by
Answer ( 1 ) the highly concentrated HCl.

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

25. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
nucleus occurs :
(1) after fertilization
(2) before entry of sperm into ovum
(3) simultaneously with first cleavage
S o l . Lysosomes bud off from trans face of Golgi
bodies.
Precursor of lysosomal enzymes are
synthesised by RER and then send to Golgi
bodies for further processing.

(4) after entry of sperm but before fertilization 28. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine
Devices.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Extrusion of second polar body from egg (1) Multiload 375, Progestasert
nucleus occurs after entry of sperm but (2) Progestasert, LNG-20
before fertilization.
(3) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
The entry of sperm into the ovum induces
completion of the meiotic division of the (4) Vaults, LNG-20
secondary oocyte. Answer ( 2 )
Entry of sperm causes breakdown of S o l . Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
metaphase promoting factor (MPF) and turns releasing IUDs which make the uterus
on anaphase promoting complex (APC). unsuitable for implantation and the cervix
26. Match the hominids with their correct brain hostile to sperms.
size :
29. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc is
(b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc (1) 0.7 (2) 0.07
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
(3) 0.09 (4) 0.9
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
Answer ( 1 )
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Amount of CO2 released
Sol. Respiratory Quotient 
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) RQ  Amount of O2 consumed
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2  102CO2 + 98H2O
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Tripalmitin + Energy
Answer ( 2 ) 102 CO2
S o l . The correct match of hominids and their brain RQ   0.7
145 O2
sizes are :
Homo habilis — 650-800 cc 30. Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish
without fungal association. This is because :
Homo neanderthalensis — 1400 cc
Homo erectus — 900 cc (1) it has obligate association with
mycorrhizae.
Homo sapiens — 1350 cc
(2) it has very hard seed coat.
27. Which of the following statements is not
correct? (3) its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent
(1) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are germination.
active under acidic pH (4) its embryo is immature.
(2) Lysosomes are membrane bound Answer ( 1 )
structures
S o l . Fungus associated with roots of Pinus
(3) Lysosomes are formed by the process of
increases minerals & water absorption for
packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum
the plant by increasing surface area and in
(4) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic turn fungus gets food from plant. Therefore,
enzymes mycorrhizal association is obligatory for Pinus
Answer ( 3 ) seed germination
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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

31. Select the correct sequence of organs in the S o l . In Pteridophyte, megaspore is retained for
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from some times in female gametophyte, however
mouth the permanent retention is required for seed
(1) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Crop formation in Gymnosperms.
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum That's why Pteridophytes exhibit precursor to
seed habit only.
(2) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard 
Ileum  Crop  Colon  Rectum 34. Match the following hormones with the
respective disease
(3) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Ileum  Crop
 Gizzard  Colon  Rectum (a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
(4) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Gizzard
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum (c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly

Answer ( 4 ) (d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre

(v) Diabetes mellitus
S o l . The correct sequence of organs in the
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from Select the correct option.
mouth is : (a) (b) (c) (d)
Pharynx  Oesophagus Crop  Gizzard  (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Ileum  Colon  Rectum (2) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
32. Under which of the following conditions will (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
there be no change in the reading frame of (4) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
following mRNA?
Answer ( 2 )
5AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3 Sol.  Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes
(1) Deletion of G from 5th position mellitus
(2) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions  Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of
respectively thyroxine can be associated with
enlargement of thyroid gland called goitre
(3) Deletion of GGU from 7 th , 8 th and 9 th
positions  Deficiency of corticoids (Glucocorticoid +
mineralocorticoid) leads to Addison's
(4) Insertion of G at 5th position
disease
Answer ( 3 )  Growth hormone hypersecretion in adults
Sol. leads to Acromegaly
35. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
5 3 regarding cell division was first proposed by
m-RNA - A A C A G C G G U G C U A U U (1) Theodore Schwann (2) Schleiden
(3) Aristotle (4) Rudolf Virchow
Deletion Answer ( 4 )
5 3 S o l . Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
regarding cell division was proposed by
A A C A G C G C U A U U
Rudolf Virchow.
36. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by
No change in reading frame of m-RNA. mother during the initial days of lactation is
33. From evolutionary point of view, retention of very essential to impart immunity to the new
the female gametophyte with developing born infants because it contains
young embryo on the parent sporophyte for (1) Monocytes
some time, is first observed in
(2) Macrophages
(1) Mosses (2) Pteridophytes (3) Immunoglobulin A
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Liverworts (4) Natural killer cells
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 3 )
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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

S o l . Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the S o l . Relative contribution of various greenhouse
mother during initial days of lactation is very gases to total global warming is
essential to impart immunity to the new born  CO2 = 60%
infant because it contains Immunoglobulin A.
 CH4 = 20%
It will impart naturally acquired passive
immunity to the newborn  CFC = 14%

37. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified  N2O = 6%

plastic, has proved to be a good material for  Therefore CO 2 and CH 4 are the major
greenhouse gases
(1) Use as a fertilizer
41. Match the following genes of the Lac operon
(2) Construction of roads
with their respective products :
(3) Making tubes and pipes
(a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
(4) Making plastic sacks
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
Answer ( 2 )
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor
S o l . Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled
(d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
modified plastic waste. The mixture is mixed
with bitumen that is used to lay roads Select the correct option.

38. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to (a) (b) (c) (d)
produce flowers. Which combination of (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
hormones can be applied to artificially induce (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
flowering in pineapple plants throughout the (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
year to increase yield?
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Gibberellin and Cytokinin
Answer ( 2 )
(2) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid
S o l . In lac operon
(3) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
i gene Repressor
(4) Auxin and Ethylene
z gene -galactosidase
Answer ( 4 )
y gene Permease
S o l . Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in
a gene  Transacetylase
pineapple. Ethylene also helps in
synchronization of flowering and fruit set up 42. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of
in pineapple. biomolecules can be achieved by treatment
with
39. Which part of the brain is responsible for
(1) Chilled ethanol
thermoregulation?
(2) Methanol at room temperature
(1) Hypothalamus
(3) Chilled chloroform
(2) Corpus callosum
(4) Isopropanol
(3) Medulla oblongata
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Cerebrum
S o l . During the isolation of desired gene, chilled
Answer ( 1 )
ethanol is used for the precipitation of DNA.
S o l . Hypothalamus in the thermoregulatory centre
43. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle
of our brain. It is responsible for maintaining
is
constant body temperature.
(1) G1  G2  S  M
40. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly
responsible for green house effect? (2) S  G1  G2  M
(3) G1  S  G2  M
(1) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(4) M  G1  G2  S
(2) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Carbon dioxide and Methane
S o l . The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
(4) Ozone and Ammonia
Answer ( 3 ) G1  S  G2  M

8
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)
44. Which of the following statements regarding
mitochondria is incorrect?
(1) Enzymes of electron transport are
embedded in outer membrane.
(2) Inner membrane is convoluted with
infoldings.
(3) Mitochondrial matrix contains single
circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
(4) Outer membrane is permeable to
monomers of carbohydrates, fats and
proteins.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In mitochondria, enzymes for electron
transport are present in the inner membrane.
45. The frequency of recombination between
gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes was
explained by :
(1) Gregor J. Mendel (2) Alfred Sturtevant
(3) Sutton Boveri (4) T.H. Morgan
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Alfred Sturtevant explained chromosomal
mapping on the basis of recombination
frequency which is directly proportional to
distance between two genes on same
chromosome
46. Identify the correct pair representing the
causative agent of typhoid fever and the
confirmatory test for typhoid.
(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
(2) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(3) Salmonella typhi / Widal test
(4) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Salmonella typhi is the causative agent.
Confirmatory test = Widal test, it’s based on
antigen antibody reaction.
47. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in
1992 was called
(1) for conservation of biodiversity and
sustainable utilization of its benefits
(2) to assess threat posed to native species
by invasive weed species
(3) for immediate steps to discontinue use of
CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
(4) to reduce CO 2 emissions and global
warming
Answer ( 1 )
9
S o l . Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called upon
all nations to take appropriate measures for
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable
utilisation of its benefits
48. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
Hugo de Vries are
(1) random and directionless
(2) small and directional
(3) small and directionless
(4) random and directional
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are
random and directionless.
Devries believed mutation caused speciation
and hence called saltation (single step large
mutation).
49. Which of the following can be used as a
biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant
disease?
(1) Chlorella (2) Anabaena
(3) Lactobacillus (4) Trichoderma
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control
agent being developed for use in the
treatment of plant diseases.
50. Which of the following immune responses is
responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(1) Humoral immune response
(2) Inflammatory immune response
(3) Cell-mediated immune response
(4) Auto-immune response
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The body is able to differentiate self and
nonself and the cell-mediated response is
responsible for graft rejection.
51. Cells in G0 phase :
(1) enter the cell cycle
(2) suspend the cell cycle
(3) terminate the cell cycle
(4) exit the cell cycle
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Cells in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle.
These are at quiescent stage and do not
proliferate unless called upon to do so.
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

52. Which of the following is a commercial blood • Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not
cholesterol lowering agent? connected ventrally and are therefore,
(1) Statin (2) Streptokinase called floating ribs.
(3) Lipases (4) Cyclosporin A • Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally
connected to the sternum.
Answer ( 1 )
55. Which of the following statements is
Sol.  Statin is obtained from a yeast (Fungi)
correct?
called Monascus purpureus
(1) Cornea consists of dense connective
 It acts by competitively inhibiting the tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
enzyme responsible for synthesis of
(2) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which
cholesterol.
is highly vascularised.
53. Which of the following muscular disorders is
(3) Cornea consists of dense matrix of
inherited?
collagen and is the most sensitive portion
(1) Muscular dystrophy the eye.
(2) Myasthenia gravis (4) Cornea is an external, transparent and
(3) Botulism protective proteinacious covering of the
(4) Tetany eye-ball.
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle S o l . Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen
mostly due to genetic disorder is muscular and corneal epithelium. It is the most
dystrophy where as tetany is muscular spasm sensitive part of eye.
due to low calcium in body fluid. Myasthenia 56. Following statements describe the
gravis is an anto immume disorder leading to characteristics of the enzyme Restriction
paralysis of skeletal muscles. Botulism is rare Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
and dangerous type of food poisoning caused statement.
by bacterium Clostridium Botulinum. (1) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
54. Select the correct option. and cuts only one of the two strands.
(1) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to (2) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
the sternum with the help of hyaline backbone at specific sites on each strand.
cartilage. (3) The enzyme recognizes a specific
(2) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs palindromic nucleotide sequence in the
are connected dorsally to the thoracic DNA.
vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum. (4) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
identified position within the DNA.
(3) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal,
three pairs of vertebrochondral and two Answer ( 1 )
pairs of vertebral ribs. S o l . Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at a
(4) 8th , 9 th
and 10 th
pairs of ribs articulate particular point by recognising a specific
directly with the sternum. sequence. Each restriction endonuclease
functions by inspecting the length of a DNA
Answer ( 3 )
sequence. Once it finds its specific
Sol. • Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA
they are attached to the thoracic and cut each of the two strands of the double
vertebrae and ventrally connected to the helix at specific points in their sugar-
sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage. phosphate backbone.
First seven pairs of ribs are called true
57. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :
ribs.
(1) Sieve tubes only
• 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs do not
(2) Companion cells only
articulate directly with the sternum but
join the seventh ribs with the help of (3) Both sieve tubes and companion cells
hyaline cartilage. These are (4) Albuminous cells and sieve cells
vertebrochondral or false ribs. Answer ( 3 )
10
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)
S o l . Phloem in Gymnosperms lacks both sieve S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
tube and companion cells. wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
58. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis bronchioles. It can be due to increasing air
may result in : born allergens and pollutants. Asthma is an
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body allergic condition. Many people in urban areas
are suffering from this respiratory disorder.
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
61. Which of the following sexually transmitted
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from
diseases is not completely curable?
gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production (1) Genital warts
Which of the following options is the most (2) Genital herpes
appropriate? (3) Chlamydiasis
(1) (b) and (c) are correct (4) Gonorrhoea
(2) (c) and (d) are correct
Answer ( 2 )
(3) (a) and (d) are correct
S o l . Genital herpes is caused by type-II-herpes
(4) (a) and (b) are correct
simplex virus. At present there is no cure for
Answer ( 2 ) type-II-herpes simplex virus and therefore the
S o l . (a) and (b) statements are incorrect because disease caused, genital herpes. Other non-
dialysis eliminates urea and potassium from curable STIs are hepatitis-B and HIV.
the body whereas, c and d are correct. As 62. How does steroid hormone influence the
phosphate ions are eliminated during dialysis,
cellular activities?
along with that calcium ions are also
eliminated. So, there will be reduced (1) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-
absorption of calcium ions from hormone complex
gastrointestinal tract. RBC production will be (2) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell
reduced, due to reduced erythropoietin membrane
hormone.
(3) Using aquaporin channels as second
59. Which of the following statements is messenger
incorrect?
(4) Changing the permeability of the cell
(1) Viruses are obligate parasites.
membrane
(2) Infective constituent in viruses is the
Answer ( 1 )
protein coat.
(3) Prions consist of abnormally folded S o l . Steroid hormones directly enter into the cell
proteins. and bind with intracellular receptors in
nucleus to form hormone receptor complex.
(4) Viroids lack a protein coat.
Hormone receptor complex interacts with the
Answer ( 2 ) genome
S o l . Infective constituent in viruses is either DNA
63. Which of the statements given below is not
or RNA, not protein.
true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?
60. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and
(1) Differential activity of cambium causes
pollutants, many people in urban areas are
light and dark bands of tissue early and
suffering from respiratory disorder causing
late wood respectively.
wheezing due to
(1) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles (2) Activity of cambium depends upon
variation in climate.
(2) proliferation of fibrous tissues and
damage of the alveolar walls (3) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of
(3) reduction in the secretion of surfactants temperate region.
by pneumocytes. (4) Annual ring is a combination of spring
(4) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal wood and autumn wood produced in a
cavity year
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )

11
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

S o l . Growth rings are formed by the seasonal 67. Match the Column-I with Column-II
activity of cambium. In plants of temperate Column-I Column-II
regions, cambium is more active in spring and
(a) P - wave (i) Depolarisation of
less active in autumn seasons. In temperate
ventricles
regions climatic conditions are not uniform
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of
throughout the year. However in tropics
ventricles
climatic conditions are uniform throughout
the year. (c) T - wave (iii) Coronary ischemia
(d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of
64. What is the direction of movement of sugars
in phloem? size of T-wave atria

(1) Upward (v) Repolarisation of

atria
(2) Downward
Select the correct option.
(3) Bi-directional (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Non-multidirectional (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
Answer ( 3 ) (2) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)
S o l . The direction of movement of sugar in phloem (3) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
is bi-directional as it depends on source-sink (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
relationship which is variable in plants. Answer ( 4 )
65. The shorter and longer arms of a S o l . In ECG P-wave represents depolarisation of
submetacentric chromosome are referred to atria. QRS complex represents depolarisation
as of ventricles. T-wave represents
repolarisation of ventricle i.e. return from
(1) p-arm and q-arm respectively
excited to normal state. Reduction in the size
(2) q-arm and p-arm respectively of T-wave i.e. if the T-wave represents
(3) m-arm and n-arm respectively insufficient supply of oxygen i.e. coronary
ischaemia.
(4) s-arm and l-arm respectively
68. Which one of the following statements
Answer ( 1 ) regarding post-fertilization development in
S o l .  Sub metacentric chromosome is flowering plants is incorrect?
Heterobrachial. (1) Zygote develops into embryo
 Short arm designated as 'p' arm (2) Central cell develops into endosperm

(p = petite i.e. short) (3) Ovules develop into embryo sac

(4) Ovary develops into fruit
 Long arm designated as 'q' arm
Answer ( 3 )
66. Which of these following methods is the most
S o l . Following are the post-fertilisation changes.
suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
• Ovule  Seed
(1) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
• Ovary  Fruit
(2) Dump the waste within rocks under deep • Zygote  Embryo
ocean
• Central cell  Endosperm
(3) Bury the waste within rocks deep below 69. Select the correctly written scientific name of
the Earth's surface Mango which was first described by Carolus
(4) Shoot the waste into space Linnaeus
Answer ( 3 ) (1) Mangifera indica Linn.
(2) Mangifera indica
S o l . Storage of nuclear waste should be done in
suitably shielded containers and buried within (3) Mangifera Indica
rocks deep below the earth's surface (500 m (4) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
deep) Answer ( 1 )
12
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

S o l . According to rules of binomial nomenclature, S o l . The phenomenon in which female gamete

correctly written scientific name of mango is develops into embryo without getting fused
Mangifera indica Linn. with male gamete (fertilisation) is called
parthenogenesis.
70. What is the fate of the male gametes
discharged in the synergid? 74. Consider the following statement :
(1) All fuse with the egg. (A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly
(2) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) bound to enzyme protein is called
with synergid nucleus. prosthetic group.
(3) One fuses with the egg and other fuses (B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with
with central cell nuclei. its bound prosthetic group is called
(4) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate apoenzyme.
(s) in the synergid. Select the correct option.
Answer ( 3 ) (1) (A) is true but (B) is false.
S o l . In flowering plants, out of the two male (2) Both (A) and (B) are false.
gametes discharged in synergids, one fuses
(3) (A) is false but (B) is true.
with the egg and other fuses with the
secondary or definitive nucleus present in (4) Both (A) and (B) are true.
central cell. Answer ( 1 )
Egg (n) + 1st male gamete (n)  Zygote (2n) S o l . Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to
Secondary nucleus  2 nd
male gamete (n) 
 enzyme protein is called prosthetic group. A
(2n)
(central cell nuclei)
complete catalytic active enzyme with its
PEN (3n) bound prosthetic group is called holoenzyme.
71. Which of the following features of genetic 75. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate,
code does allow bacteria to produce human the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is
insulin by recombinant DNA technology? catalyzed by
(1) Genetic code is redundant (1) Hexokinase
(2) Genetic code is nearly universal (2) Enolase
(3) Genetic code is specific (3) Phosphofructokinase
(4) Genetic code is not ambiguous (4) Aldolase
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In recombinant DNA technology bacteria is
S o l . Hexokinase catalyse the conversion of
able to produce human insulin because
Glucose to Glucose-6 phosphate. It is the first
genetic code is nearly universal.
step of activation phase of glycolysis.
72. Which of the following pair of organelles does
not contain DNA? 76. Which of the following ecological pyramids is
generally inverted?
(1) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(1) Pyramid of energy
(2) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
(3) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria (2) Pyramid of biomass in a forest

(4) Mitochondria and Lysosomes (3) Pyramid of biomass in a sea

Answer ( 2 ) (4) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
S o l . Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have DNA. Answer ( 3 )
73. In some plants, the female gamete develops S o l . In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of
into embryo without fertilization. This biomass is generally inverted.
phenomenon is known as
TC = Large fishes
(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Syngamy
SC = Small fishes
(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Autogamy PC = Zooplanktons
Answer ( 3 ) PP = Phytoplanktons

13

77. Consider following features
(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of
body
Select the correct option of animal groups
which possess all the above characteristics
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(3) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . True segmentation is present in Annelida,
Arthropoda and Chordata. They also have
organ system level of organisation, bilateral
symmetry and are true coelomates
78. What is the genetic disorder in which an
individual has an overall masculine
development gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome
(2) Edward syndrome
(3) Down's syndrome
(4) Turner's syndrome
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have
trisomy of sex chromosome as 44 + XXY (47).
They show overall masculine development,
gynaecomastia and are sterile.
79. Which of the following is the most important
cause for animals and plants being driven to
extinction?
(1) Drought and floods
(2) Economic exploitation
(3) Alien species invasion
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most
important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction.
eg: Loss of tropical rainforest reducing the
forest cover from 14 % to 6 %.
80. What triggers activation of protoxin to active
Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll
worm?
(1) Moist surface of midgut
(2) Alkaline pH of gut
(3) Acidic pH of stomach
(4) Body temperature
Answer ( 2 )
14
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )
S o l . Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals
during a particular phase of their growth.
These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal
protein. These protein exist as inactive
protoxins but once an insect ingest the
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active
form of toxin due to alkaline pH of the gut
which solubilize the crystals. The activated
toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial
cells and create pores that cause cell
swelling and lysis and eventually cause death
of insect.
81. Select the correct sequence for transport of
sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(1) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis 
Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas
deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Urethra 
Urethral meatus
(2) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia 
Epididymis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
(3) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct 
Inguinal canal  Urethra  Urethral
meatus
(4) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
Rete testis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . The correct sequence for transport of sperm
cells in male reproductive system is
Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa
efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens 
Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  Urethral
meatus
82. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as
(1) Perisperm (2) Hilum
(3) Tegmen (4) Chalaza
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Persistent Nucellus is called Perisperm
e.g.: Black pepper, Beet
83. Which one of the following equipments is
essentially required for growing microbes on
a large scale, for industrial production of
enzymes?
(1) Sludge digester (2) Industrial oven
(3) Bioreactor (4) BOD incubator
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . To produce enzyme in large quantity
equipment required are bioreactors. Large
scale production involves use of
bioreactors.
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

84. Match the following structures with their S o l . Xylem is associated with tanslocation of
respective location in organs mainly water, mineral salts, some organic
(a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas nitrogen and hormones.
(b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum 87. Which of the following is true for Golden
(c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small rice?
intestine (1) It is pest resistant, with a gene from
(d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver Bacillus thuringiensis
Select the correct option from the following (2) It is drought tolerant, developed using
(a) (b) (c) (d) Agrobacterium vector

(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (3) It has yellow grains, because of a gene
introduced from a primitive variety of rice
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from
daffodil
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in small S o l . Golden rice is vitamin A enriched rice, with a
intestine. Glisson's capsule is present in liver. gene from daffodil and is rich in carotene.
Islets of langerhans constitutes the endocrine 88. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are
portion of pancreas. Brunner's glands are
(1) Adenine and guanine
found in submucosa of duodenum.
(2) Guanine and cytosine
85. What would be the heart rate of a person if
the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the (3) Cytosine and thymine
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and (4) Adenine and thymine
at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) 75 beats per minute
S o l . Purines found both in DNA and RNA are
(2) 100 beats per minute
Adenine and guanine
(3) 125 beats per minute
89. Which of the following protocols did aim for
(4) 50 beats per minute
reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into
Answer ( 2 ) the atmosphere?
S o l . Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart rate
(1) Kyoto Protocol
 Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml
(2) Gothenburg Protocol
 Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
diastole = 100 ml (3) Geneva Protocol
 Blood volume in ventricles at the end of (4) Montreal Protocol
systole = 50 ml Answer ( 4 )
Stroke volume = 100 – 50 S o l . To control the deleterious effect of the
= 50 ml. stratospheric ozone depletion an
So, international treaty was signed at Montreal,
5000 ml = 50 ml × Heart rate Canada in 1987. It is popularly known as
Montreal protocol.
So, Heart rate = 100 beats per minute.
86. Xylem translocates 90. Placentation in which ovules develop on the
inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is
(1) Water and mineral salts only
(2) Water, mineral salts and some organic (1) Axile (2) Parietal
nitrogen only (3) Free central (4) Basal
(3) Water, mineral salts, some organic Answer ( 2 )
nitrogen and hormones
S o l . In parietal placentation the ovules develop on
(4) Water only the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral part.
Answer ( 3 ) eg. Mustard, Argemone etc.

15
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )
91. The most suitable reagent for the following
0.059
conversion, is : 0 = E°cell – log Keq (from equation (i))
1
H3 C CH3
E°cell 0.59
H 3C C C CH3 log Keq = = = 10
H H 0.059 0.059
cis-2-butene
Keq = 1010 = 1 × 1010
(1) H2, Pd/C, quinoline 94. The structure of intermediate A in the
(2) Zn/HCl following reaction, is

(3) Hg2+/H+, H2O CH3

CH OH
(4) Na/liquid NH3 CH3 O
+
O2 H
A + H3C CH3
Answer ( 1 ) H2 O

H3C CH3 CH3

H2, Pd/C, CH3
S o l . H3C C C CH3 C C H3C – C – O – O – H
quinoline O – O – CH
H H
cis-2-butene
CH3
(1) (2)
92. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is
CH3
O O O O – CH2 – O – O – H
O O
CH
– –
(1) O = Br – Br – Br – O (2) O – Br – Br – Br = O HC O– CH3
– – – CH3
O O
– O O O O
(3) (4)
–
O O O O O O
–
(3) O = Br – Br – Br – O (4) O = Br – Br – Br = O Answer ( 1 )
O O
– O O O O CH3
CH3
Answer ( 4 ) CH H3C – C – O – O – H
CH3
+
O2 H
S o l . The correct structure is Sol.
H 2O

O O O Cumene (A)
O = Br – Br – Br = O Cumene
hydroperoxide
O O O
OH
Tribromooctaoxide O

93. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V + H3C – C –CH3
at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell
reaction is : 95. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
required to produce 20 moles of ammonia
 2.303 RT  through Haber's process is :
Given that  0.059 V at T = 298 K 
F 
(1) 20 (2) 30
(1) 1.0 × 105 (3) 40 (4) 10
(2) 1.0 × 1010 Answer ( 2 )
(3) 1.0 × 1030 S o l . Haber's process
(4) 1.0 × 102 N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
Answer ( 2 )
20 moles need to be produced
0.059 2 moles of NH3  3 moles of H2
S o l . Ecell = E°cell – log Q ...(i)
n
3  20
(At equilibrium, Q = Keq and Ecell = 0) Hence 20 moles of NH3   30 moles of H2
2
16
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)
96. The non-essential amino acid among the 7 6

following is: (c) 2KMnO42   K2MnO4 
(1) Leucine
4 0
(2) Alanine MnO2  O2 }  Not a disproportionation
(3) Lysine 7 2
(d) 2MnO 4  3Mn2(  )  2H2 O 

(4) Valine
Answer ( 2 ) 4
5MnO2  4H }
S o l . Alanine
99. Which is the correct thermal stability order
97. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
under the same conditions. The correct (1) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
option about the gas and its compressibility (2) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
factor (Z) is :
(3) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
(1) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(4) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(2) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
(4) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant S o l . On going down the group thermal stability
order for H2E decreases because H–E bond
Answer ( 2 ) energy decreases
Vreal  Order of stability would be:-
Sol. • Compressibility factor(Z) =
Videal H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
∵ Vreal < Videal; Hence Z < 1 100. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the
order of decreasing energy. The correct
• If Z < 1, attractive forces are dominant
option is
among gaseous molecules and
liquefaction of gas will be easy. (1) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
98. Which of the following reactions are (2) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
disproportionation reaction?
(3) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
 2 0
(a) 2Cu 
 Cu  Cu (4) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
Answer ( 4 )
(b) 3MnO24  4H 
 2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O
S o l . (n + l) values for, 4d = 4 + 2 = 6

(c) 2KMnO 4 
 K2MnO 4  MnO2  O2 5p = 5 + 1 = 6
5f = 5 + 3 = 8
(d) 2MnO4  3Mn2   2H2 O 
 5MnO2  4H
6p = 6 + 1 = 7
Select the correct option from the following
 Correct order of energy would be
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (a) and (b) only
101. Which will make basic buffer?
Answer ( 4 )
1 (1) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M
S o l . (a) 2Cu1 
 NaOH

2 0 (2) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M

2(  ) 0
Cu  Cu } Disproportionation NH4OH
6 (3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M
) ()
(b) 3MnO2(
4  4H 
 NaOH
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M
7 4
2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O} Disproportionation CH3COOH

17
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )
Answer ( 2 ) 103. Identify the incorrect statement related to
PCl5 from the following:
Sol.
(1) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of
(1) CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O 180° with each other
Before 100 mL 100 mL
0 (2) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M equatorial P–Cl bonds
 10 mmol  10mmol
(3) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive
After 0 0 10 mmol
(4) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an
Hydrolysis of salt takes place. angle of 120° with each other
This is not basic buffer. Answer ( 3 )

(2) HCl  NH4OH  NH4Cl  H2O Axial bond

Cl
Before 100 mL 200 mL 240 pm
0 90°
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M Cl
Sol. 120° P Cl Equatorial bond
 10 mmol  20 mmol Cl 202 pm
After 0 10 mmol 10 mmol
Cl
This is basic buffer
Cl
(3)
HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H2O
(1) True P 180°
Before 100 mL 100 mL
0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
Cl
 10 mmol  10 mmol
After 0 0 10 mmol (2) True
Axial bond : 240 pm
 Neutral solution
Equatorial bond : 202 pm
(4)
CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O
(3) False
Before 25 mL 50 mL
0 Due to longer and hence weaker axial
× 0.1 M × 0.1M
bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.
= 2.5 mmol = 5 mmol
After 0 2.5 mmol 2.5 mmol (4) True
104. Which of the following diatomic molecular
This is basic solution due to NaOH. species has only  bonds according to
Molecular Orbital Theory?
This is not basic buffer.
(1) N2
102. For the second period elements the correct
(2) C2
increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
(3) Be2
(1) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(4) O2
(2) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne S o l . MO configuration C2 is:
(4) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne 2 2
1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2p x  2p y
Answer ( 1 )
105. The number of sigma () and pi () bonds in
S o l . ‘Be’ and ‘N’ have comparatively more stable pent-2-en-4-yne is
valence sub-shell than ‘B’ and ‘O’. (1) 8 bonds and 5 bonds
 Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy (2) 11 bonds and 2 bonds
is: (3) 13 bonds and no  bonds
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne (4) 10 bonds and 3 bonds

18
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)
Answer ( 4 ) 109. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
azeotrope is:
H H
 (1) Ethanol + Water

S o l . H – C – C =
 C – C 


C – H
  (2) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
H H
(3) Heptane + Octane
Number of  bonds = 10
(4) Water + Nitric acid
and number of  bonds = 3
Answer ( 4 )
106. Among the following, the one that is not a
S o l . Solutions showing negative deviation from
green house gas is
Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope
(1) Methane
Water and Nitric acid  forms maximum
(2) Ozone boiling azeotrope
(3) Sulphur dioxide 110. The biodegradable polymer is:
(4) Nitrous oxide (1) Nylon-2-Nylon 6
Answer ( 3 ) (2) Nylon-6
S o l . Fact (3) Buna-S
SO2 (g) is not a greenhouse gas. (4) Nylon-6,6
107. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K Answer ( 1 )
expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a
S o l . Nylon-2-Nylon 6
constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work
done by the gas is 111. Which of the following series of transitions in
the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible
(Given that 1 L bar = 100 J)
region?
(1) 5 kJ (1) Balmer series
(2) 25 J (2) Paschen series
(3) 30 J (3) Brackett series
(4) –30 J (4) Lyman series
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 1 )
S o l .  Wirr = – Pext V S o l . In H-spectrum, Balmer series transitions fall
= – 2 bar × (0.25 – 0.1) L in visible region.

= – 2 × 0.15 L-bar 112. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :

= – 0.30 L-bar (1) mix V  0 at constant T and P

= – 0.30 × 100 J (2) mix H = 0 at constant T and P

= – 30 J (3) mix G = 0 at constant T and P

108. Which one is malachite from the following? (4) mix S = 0 at constant T and P

(1) Cu(OH)2 Answer ( 2 )

(2) Fe3O4 S o l . For ideal solution,

(3) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 mixH = 0

(4) CuFeS2 mixS > 0

Answer ( 3 ) mixG < 0

S o l . Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (Green colour) mixV = 0

19
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

113. Which of the following is an amphoteric Answer ( 2 )

hydroxide?
–
OH Conjugate base
(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) Mg(OH)2
S o l . H2O
(3) Be(OH)2 (4) Sr(OH)2 +
H3O Conjugate acid
Answer ( 3 )
HF on loss of H + ion becomes F – is the
S o l . Be(OH)2 amphoteric in nature, since it can conjugate base of HF
react both with acid and base
Example :
Be(OH)2 + 2HCl  BeCl2 + 2H2O – +
HF + H2O F + H3O
Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH  Na2 [Be(OH)4] Acid Base Conjugate Conjugate
base acid
114. If the rate constant for a first order reaction
116. The major product of the following reaction
is k, the time (t) required for the completion is:
of 99% of the reaction is given by:
COOH
(1) t = 6.909/k strong heating
+ NH3
(2) t = 4.606/k COOH
(3) t = 2.303/k
O
(4) t = 0.693/k COOH
Answer ( 2 ) (1) NH (2)

S o l . First order rate constant is given as, NH2

O
2.303 [A ]
k log 0 NH2
t [A]t COOH
(3) (4)
99% completed reaction,
NH2 CONH 2
2.303 100
k log Answer ( 1 )
t 1
– +
2.303 COOH COO NH4
 log102
t Sol. + NH3
– +
2.303 COOH COO NH4
k  2log10
t – 2H2O 
2.303 4.606
t 2  CONH 2
k k

4.606
t CONH 2
k
– NH3 Strong heating
ii
115. Conjugate base for Br onsted acids H2O and
O
HF are :
C
(1) H3O+ and F–, respectively
NH
(2) OH– and F–, respectively
C
(3) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
O
(4) OH– and H2F+, respectively Phthalimide
20
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)
117. The compound that is most difficult to Answer ( 3 )
protonate is :
Sol. •  H2 O  v  , S  0
H2 O    
O
(1) H3C H • Expansion of gas at constant
temperature, S > 0
O
(2) H3C CH3 • Sublimation of solid to gas, S > 0

O • 2H(g) 
 H2(g), S < 0 (∵ ng < 0)
(3) Ph H 120. The correct order of the basic strength of
O methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution
(4) H H is :

Answer ( 3 ) (1) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH

S o l . Due to involvement of lone pair of electrons in (2) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
resonance in phenol, it will have positive (3) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
charge (partial), hence incoming proton will
(4) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
not be able to attack easily.
Answer ( 4 )
118. For the chemical reaction
S o l . In aqueous solution, electron donating
 2NH3 (g) inductive effect, solvation effect (H-bonding)
N2 (g)  3H2 (g) 
and steric hindrance all together affect basic
The correct option is: strength of substituted amines
Basic character :
d[N2 ] d[NH3 ]
(1)  2 (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
dt dt
2° 1° 3°
d[N2 ] 1 d[NH3 ] 121. For the cell reaction
(2)  
dt 2 dt
2Fe3 (aq)  2I (aq)  2Fe2 (aq)  I2 (aq)
d[H2 ] d[NH3 ]
(3) 3 2 EΘ
cell  0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs
dt dt
energy (r GΘ ) of the cell reaction is :
1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
(4)   [Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1]
3 dt 2 dt
(1) – 23.16 kJ mol–1 (2) 46.32 kJ mol–1
Answer ( 2 )
(3) 23.16 kJ mol–1 (4) – 46.32 kJ mol–1
 2NH3
S o l . N2  3H2  Answer ( 4 )

Rate of reaction is given as S o l . GΘ =  nF Ecell

Θ

= – 2 × 96500 × 0.24 J mol–1

d[N2 ] 1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
  
dt 3 dt 2 dt = – 46320 J mol–1
= – 46.32 kJ mol–1
119. In which case change in entropy is negative?
122. What is the correct electronic configuration
(1) Expansion of a gas at constant
of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on
temperature crystal field theory?
(2) Sublimation of solid to gas 6 0
(1) t 2g e g (2) e3 t 32
(3) 2H(g)  H2(g)
(4) Evaporation of water (3) e 4 t 22 4
(4) t 2g e2g

21
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )
Answer ( 1 ) 125. The manganate and permanganate ions are
S o l . K4[Fe(CN)6] tetrahedral, due to :
Fe ground state: [Ar]3d64s2 (1) There is no -bonding
Fe2+: 3d64s0 (2) The -bonding involves overlap of
eg p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
manganese
(3) The -bonding involves overlap of
In d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
Energy
Spherical t2g
manganese
2+ field
Fe
(4) The -bonding involves overlap of
t 62g e0g In the presence of
–
6CN strong field p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
123. A compound is formed by cation C and manganese
anion A. The anions form hexagonal close Answer ( 4 )
packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy
75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the O
compound is :
S o l . • Manganate (MnO42–) : Mn O
(1) C3A2 (2) C3A4 –
O –
(3) C4A3 (4) C2A3 O
Answer ( 2 )  -bonds are of d–p type
Sol. • Anions(A) are in hcp, so number of anions
O
(A) = 6
Cations(C) are in 75% O.V., so number of • Permanganate (MnO4–) : Mn O
cations (C) O –
O
3 18 9  -bonds are of d–p type
= 6× = =
4 4 2
126. Among the following, the reaction that
• So formula of compound will be proceeds through an electrophilic
substitution, is:
C 9 A6  C9 A12
2 AlCl 3
(1) + Cl2 CI + HCl
C9A12  C3A4
124. The method used to remove temporary
hardness of water is : CI CI

(1) Clark's method

UV light
(2) Ion-exchange method (2) + Cl2 CI CI

(3) Synthetic resins method

(4) Calgon's method CI CI

Answer ( 1 )
heat
S o l . Clark's method is used to remove temporary (3) CH 2OH + HCl
hardness of water, in which bicarbonates of
calcium and magnesium are reacted with
CH 2Cl + H 2O
slaked lime Ca(OH)2
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + 2H2O
+ Cu 2Cl2
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3  + Mg(OH)2  (4) N 2CI
–
CI + N 2

+ 2H2O

22
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)
Answer ( 1 )
F
Cl
F F
(b) XeF6 : Xe  Distorted
AlCl 3 octahedral
Sol. + Cl2 + HCl F F
F
Generation of electrophile:
F F
.. + –
Cl Cl Xe  Square
.. + AlCl3 Cl Cl AlCl3 (c) XeOF4 :
..

F F pyramidal
O
.. + –
Cl
.. + AlCl4
..

Electrophile

Xe O
(d) XeO3 : Pyramidal
Cl H O
O
+ +
Cl 128. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(i) etc
(1) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
(2) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than
Cl Cl
H GeX2
+ (3) SnF4 is ionic in nature
(ii)
(4) PbF4 is covalent in nature
Answer ( 4 )
127. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I
S o l . PbF4 and SnF4 are ionic in nature.
with its structure in Column-II and assign the
correct code: 129. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O
gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar
Column-I Column-II ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B"
(a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal as the major product. The structure of
product "B" is:
(b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
CH2Cl
(c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
(d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal (1) H3 C–CH2 –CH–CH3

Code: CH3
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) H3C–CH2–C–CH3
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Cl
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
CH3
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) H3C–CH–CH
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Cl CH3
Answer ( 1 )
CH3
F F
S o l . (a) XeF4 : Xe  Square planar (4) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH
F F
CH3

23
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )
Answer ( 2 ) 132. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer
require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the
Sol. cofactor. M is :
(1) Mg (2) Ca
(3) Sr (4) Be
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate
transfer require magnesium(Mg) as the
co-factor.
133. Among the following, the narrow spectrum
antibiotic is :
(1) Ampicillin
(2) Amoxycillin
130. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the
formation of negatively charged colloidal (3) Chloramphenicol
[Agl]l– sol ? (4) Penicillin G
(1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI Answer ( 4 )
(2) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
S o l . Penicillin G
(3) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
134. Which of the following species is not stable?
(4) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(1) [GeCl6]2– (2) [Sn(OH)6]2–
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Generally charge present on the colloid is due (3) [SiCl6]2– (4) [SiF6]2–
to adsorption of common ion from dispersion Answer ( 3 )
medium. Millimole of KI is maximum in
option (2) (50 × 2 = 100) so act as solvent and S o l . • Due to presence of d-orbital in Si, Ge and
anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid AgI formed Sn they form species like SiF62–, [GeCl6]2–,
[Sn(OH)6]2–
• SiCl 62– does not exist because six large
chloride ions cannot be accommodated
around Si4+ due to limitation of its size.
131. Match the following : 135. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The
(a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is:
(b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid (1) 0.25 × 10–10 (2) 0.125 × 10–15
(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia (3) 0.5 × 10–10 (4) 0.5 × 10–15
(d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or
Answer ( 4 )
Barium azide
 2 
Which of the following is the correct option? S o l . Ca(OH)2  Ca  2OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) pH = 9 Hence pOH = 14 – 9 = 5
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) [OH–] = 10–5 M
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
105
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Hence [Ca2+] =
2
Answer ( 3 )
Thus Ksp = [Ca2+][OH–]2
S o l . (a) Pure nitrogen : Sodium azide or
Barium azide
 105  5 2
(b) Haber process : Ammonia =   (10 )
 2 
(c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid
(d) Deacon’s process : Chlorine = 0.5 × 10–15

24
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)
137. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y-
136. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly
direction where F is in newton and y in meter.
charged. The electric field due to the sphere
Work done by this force to move the particle
at a distance r from the centre
from y = 0 to y = 1 m is
(1) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
(1) 5 J (2) 25 J
r increases for r > R
(3) 20 J (4) 30 J
(2) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as
r increases for r > R Answer ( 2 )
(3) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for S o l . Work done by variable force is
r>R
yf
(4) Increases as r increases for r < R and for
r>R
W  Fdy
yi
Answer ( 1 )
Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m
Sol. + Q
+ + 1
1
R  10y2 
r  W   (20  10y)dy  20y   = 25 J
+ + 0
 2 0
C

+ + 138. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in

+ the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero
internal resistance.
Charge Q will be distributed over the surface
of hollow metal sphere. The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs
when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation
(i) For r < R (inside)
when two from section A and one from section
  qen B are glowing, will be :
By Gauss law,  Ein · dS  0
0
A B
 Ein = 0 (∵ qen  0)
(ii) For r > R (outside)

+
+ +
r
+ +
E
+ +
+ (1) 9 : 4 (2) 1 : 2

E (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 9
Answer ( 1 )
1
E0  S o l . (i) All bulbs are glowing
r2
R R
Ein = 0
r R R
O R
  qen R R
 E0 · dS  0

Here, qen = Q (∵ qen  Q) E

Q R R 2R
 E0 4 r 2  Req   
0 3 3 3

1 E2 3E2
 E0  i 
Power (P)  ...(1)
r 2 Req 2R

25
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

(ii) Two from section A and one from section Answer ( 3 )

B are glowing. Sol. g
R
R R d

g
R
C

E
R 3R Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from
Req  R 
2 2 surface of earth
2E2  d
Power (Pf )  ...(2) g  g  1   ...(1)
3R  R
Where g = acceleration due to gravity at
Pi 3E 2 3R
  9:4 earth's surface
Pf 2R 2E 2
Multiplying by mass 'm' on both sides of (1)
139. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown
 d  R
from a detergent solution having a surface mg  mg  1   d  
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside  R  2
the bubble equals at a point Z 0 below the  R  200
 200  1    100 N
free surface of water in a container. Taking
 2 R  2
g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the
142. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is
value of Z0 is :
present near the bottom of a fully filled open
(1) 10 cm (2) 1 cm tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate
(3) 0.5 cm (4) 100 cm of flow of water through the open hole would
Answer ( 2 ) be nearly
(1) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s
4T
S o l . Excess pressure = , Gauge pressure (2) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s
R
(3) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s
= gZ0
(4) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
4T
P0   P0  gZ0 Answer ( 4 )
R
4T Sol.
Z0 
R  g
4  2.5  102 2m
Z0  m
103  1000  10
a = 2 mm2
Z0 = 1 cm
Rate of flow liquid
140. Which colour of the light has the longest
wavelength? Q  au  a 2gh
(1) Blue (2) Green  2  106 m2  2  10  2 m/s
(3) Violet (4) Red = 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s
Answer ( 4 ) = 12.56 × 10–6 m3/s
S o l . Red has the longest wavelength among the = 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
given options. 143. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on
141. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed
earth. How much will it weigh half way down of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop
to the centre of the earth ? it?
(1) 200 N (2) 250 N (1) 30 kJ (2) 2 J
(3) 100 N (4) 150 N (3) 1 J (4) 3 J
26
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

Answer ( 4 ) 145. In an experiment, the percentage of error

occurred in the measurement of physical
S o l . Work required = change in kinetic energy
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4%
Final KE = 0 respectively. Then the maximum percentage of
1
1 2 1 2 3 2 A2B 2

Initial KE = mv  I  mv error in the measurement X, where X  1

,
2 2 4 C 3D3
will be
3
  100  (20  102 )2  3 J (1) 16% (2) – 10%
4
 3 
(3) 10% (4)  %
|KE| = 3 J  13 
144. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal Answer ( 1 )
length f each, are kept coaxially in contact S o l . Given
with each other such that the focal length of
1
the combination is F 1 . When the space
A 2B 2
between the two lenses is filled with X 1
glycerine (which has the same refractive index C 3 D3
( = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent
X A 1 B
focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be : % error,  100  2  100  
X A 2 B
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
1 C D
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 2 : 1 100   100  3  100
3 C D
Answer ( 1 )
1 1
 2  1%   2%   3%  3  4%
Sol. 2 3

 2%  1%  1%  12%
= 16%
146. The unit of thermal conductivity is :
(1) J m–1 K–1 (2) W m K–1
(3) W m–1 K–1 (4) J m K–1
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The heat current related to difference of
temperature across the length l of a
conductor of area A is

dH KA
 T (K = coefficient of thermal
dt 
conductivity)
1 1 1 2
Equivalent focal length in air     dH
F1 f f f  K
A dt T
When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin lens
behaves like a diverging lens of focal length (–f) Unit of K = Wm–1 K–1
147. The work done to raise a mass m from the
1 1 1 1
   surface of the earth to a height h, which is
F2 f f f
equal to the radius of the earth, is:
1 1
 (1) 2mgR (2) mgR
f 2
F1 1 3
 (3) mgR (4) mgR
F2 2 2

27
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

Answer ( 2 ) kqA qB
F1 
Sol. r2

M R 2
 3Q 
h=R k 
F1   42 
r
Initial potential energy at earths surface is
9 kQ
GMm F1 
Ui  16 r 2
R
Final potential energy at height h = R 9F
F1 
16
GMm
Uf  +6 V
2R 150. 0 R
As work done = Change in PE A 1
LED (Y)
 W = Uf – Ui
R
0
GMm gR2m mgR
   (∵ GM = gR2) B 1
2R 2R 2

148. In which of the following processes, heat is The correct Boolean operation represented by
neither absorbed nor released by a system? the circuit diagram drawn is :
(1) Adiabatic (2) Isobaric (1) OR
(3) Isochoric (4) Isothermal (2) NAND

Answer ( 1 ) (3) NOR

S o l . In adiabatic process, there is no exchange of (4) AND

heat. Answer ( 2 )
149. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q S o l . From the given logic circuit LED will glow,
and –Q respectively, are placed at certain when voltage across LED is high.
distance apart and force acting between them +6 V
is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then R
force between the charges becomes : A

9F 16F
(1) (2)
16 9

4F B
(3) (4) F
3 Truth Table
Answer ( 1 ) A B Y
A B 0 0 1
S o l . +Q –Q 0 1 1
r
1 0 1
kQ 2 1 1 0
F
r2
This is out put of NAND gate.
If 25% of charge of A transferred to B then
151. Which of the following acts as a circuit
Q 3Q Q 3Q protection device?
qA  Q   and q B  Q  
4 4 4 4 (1) Inductor (2) Switch
qA qB (3) Fuse (4) Conductor
r
28
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Fuse wire has less melting point so when
excess current flows, due to heat produced
in it, it melts.
152. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of
unknown length have their increase
in length independent of increase in
temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :
(Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)
(1) 113.9 cm (2) 88 cm
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . -particle is nucleus of Helium which has two
protons and two neutrons.
155. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the
inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between
the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for
the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its

(3) 68 cm (4) 6.8 cm axis, will be : (g  10 m/s2 )

Answer ( 3 ) 10
(1) rad/s (2) 10 rad/s
S o l . CuLCu   AlL Al 2

1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × LAl (3) 10rad/s (4) 10 rad/s

1.7  88 Answer ( 2 )
LAl   68 cm
2.2
Sol.
153. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F
is being charged by a voltage source whose fL
2
potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The N mr
conduction current through the connecting mg
wires, and the displacement current through
the plates of the capacitor, would be,
respectively. For equilibrium of the block limiting friction

(1) 60 A, 60 A (2) 60 A, zero fL  mg

(3) Zero, zero (4) Zero, 60 A  N  mg

Answer ( 1 )  mr2  mg

S o l . Capacitance of capacitor C = 20 F g

= 20 × 10–6 F r

 dV  g
Rate of change of potential    3 v/s min 
 dt  r
q = CV
10
min  = 10 rad/s
dq
C
dV 0.1 1
dt dt
156. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a
ic = 20 × 10–6 × 3 container would lead to :
= 60 × 10–6 A (1) Increase in its kinetic energy
= 60 A (2) Decrease in its pressure
As we know that id = ic = 60 A (3) Decrease in intermolecular distance
154. -particle consists of : (4) Increase in its mass
(1) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons Answer ( 1 )
(2) 2 electrons and 4 protons only S o l . Increase in temperature would lead to the
increase in kinetic energy of gas (assuming
(3) 2 protons only
F
(4) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only far as to be ideal) as U  nRT
2
29
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

157. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept   ˆ

perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When E1  i N/C
2  0R
the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around
any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf
Electric field due to line charge (2)
induced in the coil will be:
(1) 0.2 V (2) 2 × 10–3 V   ˆ
E2  i N/C
2 0R
(3) 0.02 V (4) 2 V
Answer ( 3 )   
Enet  E1  E2
S o l . Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T
 ˆ  ˆ
Number of turns in coil N = 800 = i i
2  0R 2 0R
Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
Time taken to rotate t = 0.1 s 
= î N / C
Initial angle 1 = 0°  0R

Final angle 2 = 90° 159. In total internal reflection when the angle of
Change in magnetic flux  incidence is equal to the critical angle for the
pair of media in contact, what will be angle of
= NBAcos90° – BAcos0° refraction?
= – NBA (1) 0°
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05 (2) Equal to angle of incidence
= – 2 × 10–3 weber (3) 90°

 ()2  103 Wb (4) 180°

e–   0.02 V
t 0.1 s Answer ( 3 )
158. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear Sol.
charge densities + C/m and – C/m are
placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What
90°
is the electric field mid-way between the two
line charges?
iC
2 
(1) N/C (2) N/C
 0R  0R
At i = i c , refracted ray grazes with the
 surface.
(3) N/C (4) Zero
20R
So angle of refraction is 90°.
Answer ( 2 )
160. An electron is accelerated through a potential
(2) (1) dif ference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie
S o l . + + – –
– wavelength is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg)
+ –
+ E1
– (1) 12.2 × 10–12 m (2) 12.2 × 10–14 m
+ E2 –
+ R –
– (3) 12.2 nm (4) 12.2 × 10–13 m
+ –
+ – Answer ( 1 )
+ –
S o l . For an electron accelerated through a
–X X potential V

12.27 12.27  1010

 Å  12.27  1012 m
Electric field due to line charge (1) V 10000

30
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)
161. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying Answer ( 2 )
a constant current. The plot of the magnitude
S o l . Rainbow can't be observed when observer
of the magnetic field, B with the distance d
faces towards sun.
from the centre of the conductor, is correctly
represented by the figure : 163. The total energy of an electron in an atom in
B B an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential
energies are, respectively:
(1) (2)
(1) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV (2) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
R d R d
B (3) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV (4) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
B
(3) (4) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . In Bohr's model of H atom
R d R d
Answer ( 2 ) U
 K.E.  TE 
2
Sol.
 K.E. = 3.4 eV
U = –6.8 eV
d
164. The displacement of a particle executing
simple harmonic motion is given by
y = A0 + Asint + Bcost

B Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given

by :

(1) A 2  B2 (2) A20  (A  B)2

O R d
Inside (d < R) (3) A + B (4) A0  A2  B2
Magnetic field inside conductor Answer ( 1 )
0 i
B d Sol. B
2  R2 A 2 B 2

or B = Kd ...(i)
Straight line passing through origin
At surface (d = R)
A
 i
B 0 ...(ii) y = A0 + Asint + Bsint
2 R
Maximum at surface Equate SHM
Outside (d > R) y = y – A0 = Asint + Bcost
0 i Resultant amplitude
B
2 d R  A2  B2  2ABcos90
1
or B  (Hyperbolic)
d  A 2  B2
162. Pick the wrong answer in the context with 165. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
rainbow. following statements is true ?
(1) The order of colours is reversed in the (1) Holes are the majority carriers and
secondary rainbow trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(2) An observer can see a rainbow when his (2) Holes are the majority carriers and
front is towards the sun
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(3) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion
refraction and reflection of sunlight (3) Electrons are the majority carriers and
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
(4) When the light rays undergo two internal
reflections in a water drop, a secondary (4) Electrons are the majority carriers and
rainbow is formed trivalent atoms are the dopants.
31
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )

Answer ( 1 ) 1
(1) MgL (2) Mgl
S o l . In p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic 2
semiconductor is doped with trivalent 1
(3) MgL (4) Mgl
impurities, that creates deficiencies of 2
valence electrons called holes which are Answer ( 2 )
majority charge carriers. Sol.
166. In which of the following devices, the eddy
current effect is not used? L
(1) Magnetic braking in train
(2) Electromagnet
l
(3) Electric heater
(4) Induction furnace
Mg
Answer ( 3 )
1
S o l . Electric heater does not involve Eddy U (work done by gravity)
2
currents. It uses Joule's heating effect.
1
167. The speed of a swimmer in still water is U  Mgl
2
20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and
169. In the circuits shown below, the readings of
is flowing due east. If he is standing on the
voltmeters and the ammeters will be
south bank and wishes to cross the river along
the shortest path the angle at which he should 10  i 1

make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by :

(1) 0° (2) 60° west
V1 A1
(3) 45° west (4) 30° west
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . VSR  20 m/s
VRG  10 m/s 10 V
Circuit 1
N 10  i2
V RG

V SG 10 
W E V2
 A2
V SR

S
  
VSG  VSR  VRG 10 V
Circuit 2

VRG (1) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2 (2) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
sin   
VSR (3) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2 (4) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
Answer ( 2 )
10 S o l . For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite and
sin  
20 for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero.
1 10
sin   V1  i1  10   10  10 volt
2 10
 = 30° west 10
V2  i2  10   10  10 volt
168. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long 10
wire of length L, the length of the wire V1 = V2
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy 10 V
i1  i2  1 A
stored in the extended wire is : 10 
32
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

170. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u
collides with another body B of mass 2m, at
rest. The collision is head on and elastic in
nature. After the collision the fraction of
energy lost by the colliding body A is :
172. The radius of circle, the period of revolution,
initial position and sense of revolution are
indicated in the fig.
y

8 4 P(t = 0)
(1) (2)
9 9 T=4s
5 1
(3) (4) x
9 9
3m
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Fractional loss of KE of ccolliding body

KE 4  m1m2 
 y - projection of the radius vector of rotating
KE  m  m 2 particle P is :
1 2

4  4m  2m
  t 
 4m  2m 2 (1) y(t)  4 sin   , where y in m
2
32m2 8
 2

36m 9  3t 
 (2) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
171. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by  2 
three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR.
The velocity of the particle will :  t 
(3) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
P 2

(4) y(t) = –3 cos2t, where y in m

Answer ( 3 )
S o l . At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so
equation will be cosine function.
R Q
(1) Decrease y

(2) Remain constant Pt=0

(3) Change according to the smallest force T=4s


QR x
(4) Increase
Answer ( 2 )

Sol. P T=4s
2 2 
   rad/s
T 4 2
y = a cost


R Q y  3cos t
2
As forces are forming closed loop in same
order 173. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm
 is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm.
So, Fnet  0 The torque required to stop after 2
 revolutions is
dv
 m 0 (1) 2 × 10–3 N m (2) 12 × 10–4 N m
dt

 v  cons tant (3) 2 × 106 N m (4) 2 × 10–6 N m

33
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2 )
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Work energy theorem. p
S o l . rH 
eB
1 2
W I(f  i2 )  = 2 revolution p
2 r 
= 2 × 2 = 42 rad 2eB
p
2 rH
Wi  3 
60
rad / s  eB
r p
1 1 2 2 2eB
 –    mr (0  i2 )
2 2 rH 2

r 1
2
1 1  2 
  2  (4  10 2 )  3   176. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and
 – 2 2  60  whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most
2
4 likely to break when:
(1) the wire is horizontal
   2  106 N m
(2) the mass is at the lowest point
174. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform (3) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA (4) the mass is at the highest point
and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their
Answer ( 2 )
time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of
angular speed of A to that of B will be : Sol.
(1) vA : vB (2) rB : rA
(3) 1 : 1 (4) rA : rB
T
Answer ( 3 )
u
Sol. rB mg

mu2
rA T  mg 
l

mu2
T  mg 
l
The tension is maximum at the lowest
TA = TB = T
position of mass, so the chance of breaking is
2 maximum.
A 
TA 177. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle
of dip,  = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s
2 surface the angle of dip,  = –25°. We can
B 
TB interpret that:
(1) A is located in the southern hemisphere
 A TB T and B is located in the northern
  1
B TA T hemisphere.
(2) A is located in the northern hemisphere
175. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles with and B is located in the southern
same momenta enters perpendicular to a hemisphere.
constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their
(3) A and B are both located in the southern
radii of their paths rH : r will be :
hemisphere.
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
(4) A and B are both located in the northern
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1 hemisphere.
34
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-Q2)

Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Angle of dip is the angle between earth's
resultant magnetic field from horizontal. Dip Sol.
is zero at equator and positive in northern
hemisphere.
BH
BV B u
 = (+) ve 60°

g sin60°
B  = (–) ve
BH
BV u
30°
In southern hemisphere dip angle is
considered as negative. g sin30°

178. In a double slit experiment, when light of

wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular
width of the first minima formed on a screen u2
(Stopping distance) x1 
placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What 2gsin60
will be the angular width of the first minima, if
the entire experimental apparatus is immersed
u2
in water? (water = 4/3) (Stopping distance) x2 
2gsin30
(1) 0.15° (2) 0.05°
(3) 0.1° (4) 0.266° x1 sin30 1 2
    1: 3
Answer (1) x2 sin60 2  3

S o l . In air angular fringe width 0  180. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in
D
one complete vibration is :
Angular fringe width in water
(1) A
 
w   0
D 
A2
0.2 (2)
 = 0.15° 2
4
3
  (3) Zero
179. When an object is shot from the bottom of a
A
long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° (4)
with horizontal, it can travel a distance x 1 2
along the plane. But when the inclination is Answer ( 3 )
decreased to 30° and the same object is shot
with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. S o l . In one complete vibration, displacement is
Then x1 : x2 will be: zero. So, average velocity in one complete
vibration
(1) 2:1 (2) 1: 3
Displacement y f  yi
  0
(3) 1: 2 3 (4) 1: 2 Time interval T

‰‰‰

35