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1-Productivity can be increased by:

(A) eliminating wastage and economic usage of resources

(B) production control

(C) costing properly

(D) maintain accounts

2-What is bath tub curve stands for?


(A) maintenance schedule

(B) failure rate

(C) vibration chart

(D) viscosity chart

3-ABC represents
(A) fast, slow and non-moving items

(B) high, medium and low items

(C) vital, essential and desirable items

(D) moving, non-moving and ghost items

4-Identify one of the objective of work study


(A) problem solving

(B) cost effectiveness

(C) eliminates unnecessary human movements

(D) prepare balance sheet

5-Indirect inventories among are


(A) tools and supplies

(B) raw materials

(C) work in progress

(D) purchased parts and finished goods

6-Annual consumption 300; Co = Rs. 30; Cu = Rs. 36 and I = 0.2. What is EOQ?
(A) 46

(B) 50

(C) 51
(D) 60

7-Which is not work measurement?


(A) stop watch study

(B) work sampling

(C) quality circle

(D) analytical examining

8-What is Lead time:


(A) square root of average consumption

(B) requisition time + procurement time

(C) minimum inventory

(D) procurement x consumption

9-In break even analysis, total cost consists of


(A) fixed cost + sales revenue

(B) variable cost + sales revenue

(C) fixed cost + variable cost

(D) fixed cost + variable cost + profit

10-PERT stands for


(A) Program Estimation and Reporting Techniques

(B) Process Estimation and Review Technique

(C) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

(D) Planning Estimation and Resulting Technique

11-The simplex method is the basic method for:


(A) queuing theory

(B) linear programing

(C) network analysis

(D) none of the above

12-The concept of functional organization was suggested by


(A) F.W. Taylor

(B) Newton

(C) Gilberth

(D) None of the above


13-Line organization is also known as:
(A) functional organization

(B) military organization

(C) staff and functional organization

(D) none of the above

14-Following type of organization is preferred in civil construction company


(A) line organization

(B) functional organization

(C) line and staff organization

(D) none of the above

15-Slack is the difference between


(A) normal expected time and earliest completion time

(B) latest allowable time and normal expected time

(C) latest allowable time and earliest expected time

(D) earliest completion time and normal expected time

16-In the network diagram:


(A) an activity and an event are represented by a circle

(B) an activity and an event are represented by an arrow

(C) an activity is represented by a circle and event by an arrow

(D) an activity is represented by an arrow and event by a circle

17-ABC analysis
(A) is meant for relative inventory control

(B) is a basic technique of materials management

(C) does not depend upon the unit cost of the item but on its annual consumption

(D) all of the above

18-Product layout is best suited for:


(A) mass production

(B) job production

(C) batch production

(D) all of the above

19-Gantt chart is used for


(A) inventory control
(B) production schedule

(C) material handling

(D) all of the above

20-The main objectives of work measurement is to:


(A) plan and schedule of production

(B) estimate the selling prices and delivery dates

(C) formulate a proper incentive scheme

(D) all of the above

21-The time taken for the job from its arrival to the system until its departure is
(A) completion time

(B) flow time

(C) due time

(D) processing time

22-In ABC analysis, the C items are those which represents


(A) small percentage of the total annual consumption value

(B) high percentage of the total annual consumption value

(C) small percentage of closing inventory value

(D) high percentage of closing inventory value

ANSWERS:
1-(A), 2-(B), 3-(C), 4-(C), 5-(A), 6-(B), 7-(C), 8-(B), 9-(C), 10-(C), 11-(B), 12-(A), 13-(B), 14-
(A), 15-(B), 16-(D), 17-(B), 18-(A), 19-(B), 20-(D), 21-(B), 22-(D)

1-The arc welding transformer is a ___ transformer.


(A) Step up
(B) Step down
(C) One to one
(D) Increasing voltage

2-Shielded metal arc welding is classified under the process of ____ .


(A) Electric resistance welding
(B) Electric arc welding
(C) Special welding
(D) Electro slag welding

3-It is a resistance welding process in which roller type electrodes are used:
(A) Spot welding
(B) Seam welding
(C) Projection welding
(D) Flash butt welding

4-The flow of molten solder in the gap between the work pieces is driven by ____ force.
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Capillary
(C) Viscosity
(D) Wetting

5-Which one of the following is a resistance welding process?


(A) Spot welding
(B) Thermit welding
(C) Forge welding
(D) Explosive welding

6-Which of the following metal plates can not be joined by projection welding?
(A) Thin plates
(B) Copper plates
(C) Mild steel plates
(D) Stainless steel plates

7-The color code for identifying oxygen gas cylinder is


(A) Maroon
(B) Black
(C) Blue
(D) Red

8-In which position is Submerged Arc Welding is done?


(A) Flat and Horizontal
(B) Flat and Vertical
(C) Flat and Overhead
(D) Horizontal and Vertical

9-What is the purpose of copper coating on the mild steel filler wire?
(A) To heat faster
(B) To increase strength
(C) To avoid rusting
(D) For good appearance

10-Acetylene gas is dissolved in ____ liquid in cylinder.


(A) Water
(B) Acetone
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) Kerosene

ANSWERS:
1-(A), 2-(B), 3-(B), 4-(B), 5-(A), 6-(B), 7-(D), 8-(A), 9-(C), 10-(B)
11-Which type of electrode is used in Submerged Arc Welding?
(A) Cored electrode
(B) Light coated electrode
(C) Heavy coated electrode
(D) Bare wire

12-Over heating of blow pipe nozzle to be avoided because it will cause


(A) Flash back
(B) Consume more gases
(C) Create undercut
(D) Cause burn through

13-The function of gas regulator is to


(A) get different type of flame
(B) mix both gases
(C) change temperature
(D) set working pressure

14-Spot welding, Seam welding, Flash butt welding are different methods of
(A) Resistance welding
(B) Friction welding
(C) Thermit welding
(D) Electro slag welding

15-In which position is electro slag welding generally done?


(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Flat
(D) Overhead

16-Which type of flame is used to weld Brass?


(A) Air acetylene flame
(B) Neutral flame
(C) Oxidizing flame
(D) Carburizing flame

17-Advantage(s) of submerged arc welding is (are)


(A) High deposition rate and speed
(B) High quality speed
(C) Thick metal can be weld
(D) All of the above

18-Which one of the process requires bare metal electrodes and granular flux?
(A) MAG welding
(B) MIG welding
(C) Submerged arc welding
(D) Stud welding

19-Acetylene cylinder should always be kept in upright/vertical position to


(A) save floor space
(B) get uniform flow of gas
(C) help welding in vertical position
(D) avoid the flow of acetone liquid along with gas

20-Gas welding tip orifice should only be cleaned with


(A) Soft copper wire
(B) Tip cleaner
(C) A small drill
(D) Steel wire

ANSWERS:
11-(D), 12-(A), 13-(D), 14-(A), 15-(B), 16-(C), 17-(D), 18-(C), 19-(D), 20-(B)
11-Which type of electrode is used in Submerged Arc Welding?
(A) Cored electrode
(B) Light coated electrode
(C) Heavy coated electrode
(D) Bare wire

12-Over heating of blow pipe nozzle to be avoided because it will cause


(A) Flash back
(B) Consume more gases
(C) Create undercut
(D) Cause burn through

13-The function of gas regulator is to


(A) get different type of flame
(B) mix both gases
(C) change temperature
(D) set working pressure

14-Spot welding, Seam welding, Flash butt welding are different methods of
(A) Resistance welding
(B) Friction welding
(C) Thermit welding
(D) Electro slag welding

15-In which position is electro slag welding generally done?


(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Flat
(D) Overhead

16-Which type of flame is used to weld Brass?


(A) Air acetylene flame
(B) Neutral flame
(C) Oxidizing flame
(D) Carburizing flame

17-Advantage(s) of submerged arc welding is (are)


(A) High deposition rate and speed
(B) High quality speed
(C) Thick metal can be weld
(D) All of the above

18-Which one of the process requires bare metal electrodes and granular flux?
(A) MAG welding
(B) MIG welding
(C) Submerged arc welding
(D) Stud welding

19-Acetylene cylinder should always be kept in upright/vertical position to


(A) save floor space
(B) get uniform flow of gas
(C) help welding in vertical position
(D) avoid the flow of acetone liquid along with gas

20-Gas welding tip orifice should only be cleaned with


(A) Soft copper wire
(B) Tip cleaner
(C) A small drill
(D) Steel wire

ANSWERS:
11-(D), 12-(A), 13-(D), 14-(A), 15-(B), 16-(C), 17-(D), 18-(C), 19-(D), 20-(B)

1-Just-in-Time was successfully implemented by


(A) Toyota

(B) Honda

(C) Suzuki

(D) Volkswagen

2-In Just-In-Time system


(A) There is no delay

(B) Conveyance times are balanced

(C) Both (A) and (B)


(D) There is unequal production at different places

3-Such setups which have single digit (in minutes) setup times are called
(A) Single setups

(B) One touch setups

(C) Minute setups

(D) None of the above

4-POK stands for


(A) Product ordering Kanban

(B) Process Ordering Kanban

(C) Production Ordering Kanban

(D) Plan Ordering Kanban

5-In Just-In-Time the vendor is to be viewed by the company as a


(A) Manager

(B) Worker

(C) Partner

(D) None of the above

6-Just-In-Time is
(A) Single unit production

(B) Big lot size production

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

7-MRP is different from JIT in terms of


(A) Inventory

(B) Quality

(C) Human orientation

(D) All of the above


8-The following is (are) the prerequisite(s) for JIT.
(A) Multi skilled workers

(B) Vendor should produce defect free

(C) Worker should be empowered his own decision

(D) All of the above

9-Just-In-Time aimed at
(A) Zero inventories

(B) Reduced manpower

(C) Over production

(D) All of the above

10-Which of the following means ‘Ready-Set-Go’


(A) Yo-i-don

(B) Ikko Nagare

(C) Taiichi ohno

(D) None of the above

11-Just-In-Time (JIT) combines the benefits of


(A) Job order production and Line production

(B) Batch production and Line production

(C) Job order production and Batch production

(D) None of the above

12-JIT does not believe in


(A) Quality

(B) Over production

(C) Human relations

(D) All of the above


ANSWERS:
1-(A), 2-(C), 3-(A), 4-(C), 5-(C), 6-(A), 7-(D), 8-(D), 9-(A), 10-(A), 11-(A), 12-(B)
1-Just-in-Time was successfully implemented by
(A) Toyota

(B) Honda

(C) Suzuki

(D) Volkswagen

2-In Just-In-Time system


(A) There is no delay

(B) Conveyance times are balanced

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) There is unequal production at different places

3-Such setups which have single digit (in minutes) setup times are called
(A) Single setups

(B) One touch setups

(C) Minute setups

(D) None of the above

4-POK stands for


(A) Product ordering Kanban

(B) Process Ordering Kanban

(C) Production Ordering Kanban

(D) Plan Ordering Kanban

5-In Just-In-Time the vendor is to be viewed by the company as a


(A) Manager

(B) Worker

(C) Partner

(D) None of the above


6-Just-In-Time is
(A) Single unit production

(B) Big lot size production

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

7-MRP is different from JIT in terms of


(A) Inventory

(B) Quality

(C) Human orientation

(D) All of the above

8-The following is (are) the prerequisite(s) for JIT.


(A) Multi skilled workers

(B) Vendor should produce defect free

(C) Worker should be empowered his own decision

(D) All of the above

9-Just-In-Time aimed at
(A) Zero inventories

(B) Reduced manpower

(C) Over production

(D) All of the above

10-Which of the following means ‘Ready-Set-Go’


(A) Yo-i-don

(B) Ikko Nagare

(C) Taiichi ohno

(D) None of the above

11-Just-In-Time (JIT) combines the benefits of


(A) Job order production and Line production

(B) Batch production and Line production

(C) Job order production and Batch production

(D) None of the above

12-JIT does not believe in


(A) Quality

(B) Over production

(C) Human relations

(D) All of the above

ANSWERS:
1-(A), 2-(C), 3-(A), 4-(C), 5-(C), 6-(A), 7-(D), 8-(D), 9-(A), 10-(A), 11-(A), 12-(B)
1-Just-in-Time was successfully implemented by
(A) Toyota

(B) Honda

(C) Suzuki

(D) Volkswagen

2-In Just-In-Time system


(A) There is no delay

(B) Conveyance times are balanced

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) There is unequal production at different places

3-Such setups which have single digit (in minutes) setup times are called
(A) Single setups

(B) One touch setups

(C) Minute setups

(D) None of the above


4-POK stands for
(A) Product ordering Kanban

(B) Process Ordering Kanban

(C) Production Ordering Kanban

(D) Plan Ordering Kanban

5-In Just-In-Time the vendor is to be viewed by the company as a


(A) Manager

(B) Worker

(C) Partner

(D) None of the above

6-Just-In-Time is
(A) Single unit production

(B) Big lot size production

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

7-MRP is different from JIT in terms of


(A) Inventory

(B) Quality

(C) Human orientation

(D) All of the above

8-The following is (are) the prerequisite(s) for JIT.


(A) Multi skilled workers

(B) Vendor should produce defect free

(C) Worker should be empowered his own decision

(D) All of the above

9-Just-In-Time aimed at
(A) Zero inventories

(B) Reduced manpower

(C) Over production

(D) All of the above

10-Which of the following means ‘Ready-Set-Go’


(A) Yo-i-don

(B) Ikko Nagare

(C) Taiichi ohno

(D) None of the above

11-Just-In-Time (JIT) combines the benefits of


(A) Job order production and Line production

(B) Batch production and Line production

(C) Job order production and Batch production

(D) None of the above

12-JIT does not believe in


(A) Quality

(B) Over production

(C) Human relations

(D) All of the above

ANSWERS:
1-(A), 2-(C), 3-(A), 4-(C), 5-(C), 6-(A), 7-(D), 8-(D), 9-(A), 10-(A), 11-(A), 12-(B)
1-Productivity =
(A) Input / Output

(B) Output / Input

(C) Output – Input

(D) Input – Output

2-The resources utilized for production are


(A) Materials, Machines, Manpower

(B) Materials, Methods, Machines

(C) Machines, Manpower, Methods

(D) Methods, Machine, Manpower

3-Productivity is the ____ of production system.


(A) Measurement

(B) Efficiency

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

4-Productivity =
(A) 1+ (Profit/Cost)

(B) 1+ (Cost /Profit)

(C) 1- (Profit/Cost)

(D) 1- (Cost /Profit)

5-Productivity can be measured in which of the following input resource(s)


(A) Material input

(B) Labour input

(C) Capital and Land Input

(D) All of the above

6-Raw material productivity can be increased by


(A) Proper choice of design

(B) Reuse of material

(C) Scrap control

(D) All of the above

7-Preventive maintenance improves


(A) Material productivity

(B) Labour productivity

(C) Machine productivity

(D) Capital productivity

8-Productivity can be increased by


(A) By increasing the output from the same input

(B) By reducing the input for the same output

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

9-The time for which the worker or machine or both remain idle due to the shortcomings of
the management or workers is known as
(A) Excess time

(B) Idle time

(C) Ineffective time

(D) Work content

10-The elimination of which of the following will improve industrial productivity


(A) Excess time

(B) Ineffective time

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

11-Which of the following adds idle time due to short runs?


(A) Excessive product variety

(B) Lack of Standardization

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Design changes

12-Total work content =


(A) Basic work content + Excess time

(B) Basic work content – Excess time

(C) Basic work content + Ineffective time

(D) Basic work content – Ineffective time

ANSWERS:
1-(B), 2-(A), 3-(B), 4-(A), 5-(D), 6-(D), 7-(C), 8-(C), 9-(C), 10-(C), 11-(C), 12-(A)

1-Which of the following is (are) important consideration(s) concerning activity times?


(A) Activity time should be obtained from the person responsible for the completion of an
activity

(B) Activity time must be independent of any influence which the preceding or succeeding
activity may have on it.

(C) Activity time may assume that just the normal quantity of resources required to carry out the
activity are available.

(D) All of the above

2-Which of the following are assignable cause?


(A) Large variations in hardness of material

(B) Tool wear

(C) Errors in setting

(D) All of the above

3-What is the reason of excessive friction between parts?


(A) Improper or lack of lubrication

(B) Material of parts

(C) both (A) and (B)


(D) None of above

4-Which kind of labour force is required in case of Jobbing Production?


(A) Highly Skilled

(B) Semi skilled

(C) Unskilled

(D) Any of the above

5-What is the location of lower control limit in the X bar-R control chart?
(A) 3 standard deviations below central line

(B) 2 standard deviations below central line

(C) 1 standard deviations below central line

(D) Any of the above

6-Which photographic technique is used to record path of motions of the members of the
body during method study?
(A) Acrograph

(B) Cyclograph

(C) Cyclogram

(D) Cycloscope

7-The term ________ implies the foregone profit due to inability of company to produce.
(A) Opportunity cost

(B) Marginal cost

(C) Overhead cost

(D) All of the above

8-In case of an OC curve, the risk of rejecting a good quality lot may vary between
________.
(A) 0.01 to 5%

(B) 0.01 to 10%

(C) 0.01 to 15%


(D) 0.01 to 20%

9-Objective of Work Study is to improve _______


(A) Cycle time

(B) Productivity

(C) Production

(D) All of the above

10-Which of the following are activities of corrective maintenance?


(A) Overhauling

(B) Emergency repairs

(C) Modifications and improvements

(D) All of the above

11-Capacity decisions have a direct influence on performance of production system in


respect of ________
(A) Delivery performance

(B) Quality control

(C) Plant size

(D) Manpower

12-Which of the following is not the characteristic of Project Production?


(A) Continuous flow of material

(B) Highly mechanised material handling

(C) Virtually zero manufacturing cycle time

(D) All of the above

13-Which of the following Principles of Management is not advocated by F W Taylor?


(A) Selection of best worker for each particular task

(B) Division of work between worker and management

(C) Training and development of the workmen


(D) Involvement of workers in strategy planning

14-How does ‘structure’ reduce external uncertainty arising out of human behaviour
(A) Research and planning

(B) Forecasting

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) none of the above

15-The following is not a major contributor in the development of Control Charts and
Sampling plan
(A) F H Dodge

(B) H G Roming

(C) Walter Schewhart

(D) J M Juran

16-Limitations of Traditional cost accounting are


(A) Assumes factory as an isolated entity

(B) It measures only the cost of producing

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) none of the above

17-Business is rated on which dimensions


(A) Market attractiveness

(B) Business strength

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) none of the above

18-Like roots of a tree, ________of organization is hidden from direct view.


(A) goodwill

(B) core competence

(C) Higher management


(D) Capital investment

19-OC curve of ideal sampling plan suggests that all lots less than 3% defectives have the
probability of acceptance of ________.
(A) 0.25

(B) 0.5

(C) 0.75

(D) 1

20-Inadequate production capacity ultimately leads to


(A) Poor quality

(B) Poor Customer Service

(C) Poor inventory control

(D) All of the above

Answers:
1-(D), 2-(D), 3-(A), 4-(A), 5-(A), 6-(B), 7-(A), 8-(B), 9-(B), 10-(D), 11-(A), 12-(D), 13-(D), 14-
(C), 15-(D), 16-(C), 17-(C), 18-(B), 19-(D), 20-(B)

1-The EHS Model based on PDCA Cycle starts from:


(A) Planning
(B) Policy
(C) Procurement
(D) Processing

2-Elements of TQM includes


(A) Continuous improvement
(B) Customer satisfaction
(C) Leadership
(D) All the above

3-In Total Productive Maintenance, Unplanned downtime Losses include;


(A) Equipment Breakdown
(B) Shift Changes
(C) Unplanned maintenance
(D) Options (A) & (C)

4-Equipment failure is
(A) Availability loss
(B) Performance loss
(C) Quality loss
(D) OEE

5-If there is a 50 percent chance of making Rs 120,000 and a 70 percent chance of losing Rs 150,000, then
the expected monetary outcome in Rupees is:
(A) 50,000
(B) –45,000
(C) 90,000
(D) –90,000

6-If an activity on the critical path takes longer than anticipated, then:
(A) Activities not on the critical path have less slack
(B) Additional critical path activities will appear
(C) Activities not on the critical path have additional slack
(D) None of the above

7-Productivity increases when


(A) inputs increase while outputs remain the same
(B) inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
(C) outputs decrease while inputs remain the same
(D) inputs and outputs increase proportionately

8-Which item best describes a CAM technology?


(A) Numerical control
(B) Documentation
(C) Drafting
(D) Geometric modelling

9-CAE and CAM are linked through:


(A) A common database and communication system
(B) NC tape programming and automated design
(C) Assembly automation and tool production
(D) Parts production and testing

10-The person responsible for assigning the resources to a project is most often:
(A) The project management
(B) The Human Resources Department
(C) The line manager
(D) The executive sponsor

11-Three Dimensional representation of an object is termed as:


(A) Automated drafting
(B) Engineering analysis
(C) Geometric Modelling
(D) All of the above

12-Project monitoring is required:


(A) Before commencement of the project
(B) After completion of the project
(C) During implementation of the project
(D) At any stage of the project deemed necessary

13-Which of these is correct with respect to a product developed or a service performed?


(A) Neither bad grade nor quality is acceptable
(B) Grade and quality is the same thing.
(C) Bad quality is acceptable, but bad grade is not.
(D) Bad grade is acceptable, but bad quality is not.

14-Project feasibility report is aimed at;


(A) Informing the people
(B) Attracting the customer
(C) Justifying the investment
(D) Giving details of resources

15-Quality control is aimed at:


(A) Maintaining the desired quality
(B) Exceeding the desired quality
(C) Continuously improving the quality
(D) Following the quality

16-Present worth is:


(A) The opportunity cost at the present value
(B) The current market value of the investment
(C) The compounding present cash flows to the future
(D) The discounted future cash flows to the present

17-Which of the following is not a therblig?


(A) Use
(B) Hold
(C) Dispatch
(D) Inspection

18-Value for Value Engineering analysis purposes is defined as


(A) Purchase value
(B) Saleable value
(C) Depreciated value
(D) Function/Cost

19-Micromotion study is
(A) enlarged view of motion study
(B) analysis of only one stage of motion study
(C) time study of small components up to microseconds
(D) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis

20-Greater flexibility in plant layout is achieved in case of


(A) Process layout
(B) Product layout
(C) Combination layout
(D) Fixed position layout

21-Routing and Scheduling are integral part of


(A) Work study
(B) Job analysis
(C) Quality control
(D) Product planning

22-Break even point is least affected by


(A) Selling price
(B) Fixed cost
(C) Volume of production
(D) Product mix

23- Material Requirements Planning DOES NOT include


(A) Material price
(B) Bill of material
(C) Inventory level
(D) Production schedule

Answers:
1-(A), 2-(D), 3-(D), 4-(A), 5-(B), 6-(C), 7-(B), 8-(A), 9-(B), 10-(C), 11-(C), 12-(C), 13-
(D), 14-(C), 15-(A), 16-(D), 17-(A), 18-(D), 19-(D), 20-(A), 21-(D), 22-(D), 23-(A)
1-The EHS Model based on PDCA Cycle starts from:
(A) Planning
(B) Policy
(C) Procurement
(D) Processing

2-Elements of TQM includes


(A) Continuous improvement
(B) Customer satisfaction
(C) Leadership
(D) All the above

3-In Total Productive Maintenance, Unplanned downtime Losses include;


(A) Equipment Breakdown
(B) Shift Changes
(C) Unplanned maintenance
(D) Options (A) & (C)

4-Equipment failure is
(A) Availability loss
(B) Performance loss
(C) Quality loss
(D) OEE
5-If there is a 50 percent chance of making Rs 120,000 and a 70 percent chance of losing Rs 150,000, then
the expected monetary outcome in Rupees is:
(A) 50,000
(B) –45,000
(C) 90,000
(D) –90,000

6-If an activity on the critical path takes longer than anticipated, then:
(A) Activities not on the critical path have less slack
(B) Additional critical path activities will appear
(C) Activities not on the critical path have additional slack
(D) None of the above

7-Productivity increases when


(A) inputs increase while outputs remain the same
(B) inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
(C) outputs decrease while inputs remain the same
(D) inputs and outputs increase proportionately

8-Which item best describes a CAM technology?


(A) Numerical control
(B) Documentation
(C) Drafting
(D) Geometric modelling

9-CAE and CAM are linked through:


(A) A common database and communication system
(B) NC tape programming and automated design
(C) Assembly automation and tool production
(D) Parts production and testing

10-The person responsible for assigning the resources to a project is most often:
(A) The project management
(B) The Human Resources Department
(C) The line manager
(D) The executive sponsor

11-Three Dimensional representation of an object is termed as:


(A) Automated drafting
(B) Engineering analysis
(C) Geometric Modelling
(D) All of the above

12-Project monitoring is required:


(A) Before commencement of the project
(B) After completion of the project
(C) During implementation of the project
(D) At any stage of the project deemed necessary
13-Which of these is correct with respect to a product developed or a service performed?
(A) Neither bad grade nor quality is acceptable
(B) Grade and quality is the same thing.
(C) Bad quality is acceptable, but bad grade is not.
(D) Bad grade is acceptable, but bad quality is not.

14-Project feasibility report is aimed at;


(A) Informing the people
(B) Attracting the customer
(C) Justifying the investment
(D) Giving details of resources

15-Quality control is aimed at:


(A) Maintaining the desired quality
(B) Exceeding the desired quality
(C) Continuously improving the quality
(D) Following the quality

16-Present worth is:


(A) The opportunity cost at the present value
(B) The current market value of the investment
(C) The compounding present cash flows to the future
(D) The discounted future cash flows to the present

17-Which of the following is not a therblig?


(A) Use
(B) Hold
(C) Dispatch
(D) Inspection

18-Value for Value Engineering analysis purposes is defined as


(A) Purchase value
(B) Saleable value
(C) Depreciated value
(D) Function/Cost

19-Micromotion study is
(A) enlarged view of motion study
(B) analysis of only one stage of motion study
(C) time study of small components up to microseconds
(D) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis

20-Greater flexibility in plant layout is achieved in case of


(A) Process layout
(B) Product layout
(C) Combination layout
(D) Fixed position layout

21-Routing and Scheduling are integral part of


(A) Work study
(B) Job analysis
(C) Quality control
(D) Product planning

22-Break even point is least affected by


(A) Selling price
(B) Fixed cost
(C) Volume of production
(D) Product mix

23- Material Requirements Planning DOES NOT include


(A) Material price
(B) Bill of material
(C) Inventory level
(D) Production schedule

Answers:
1-(A), 2-(D), 3-(D), 4-(A), 5-(B), 6-(C), 7-(B), 8-(A), 9-(B), 10-(C), 11-(C), 12-(C), 13-
(D), 14-(C), 15-(A), 16-(D), 17-(A), 18-(D), 19-(D), 20-(A), 21-(D), 22-(D), 23-(A)

1-Probability of the event that might occur X Severity of the event if it occurs =
(A) Accident

(B) Hazard

(C) Risk

(D) None of the above

(Ans: C)

2-Industrial safety management if that branch of management which is concerned with


______ hazards from the industries.
(A) Reducing

(B) Controlling

(C) Eliminating

(D) All of the above

(Ans: D)

3-The following is indirect cost of accident


(A) Money paid for treatment of worker
(B) Compensation paid to worker

(C) Cost of lost time of injured worker

(D) All of the above

(Ans: C)

4-The following is(are) physical hazard agent(s)


(A) Falls

(B) Electricity

(C) Inhalation

(D) All of the above

(Ans: D)

5-Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of


(A) Work area, material, machine, tools

(B) Men, machine, material, tools

(C) Men, machine, work area, tools

(D) Men, work area. Material, tools

(Ans: A)

6-A safety programme consists of


(A) Three E’s

(B) Four E’s

(C) Five E’s

(D) Six E’s

(Ans: B)

7-For household wiring and small units, the following should be used for safety measure
(A) MCB

(B) ACB

(C) OCB
(D) MCCB

(Ans: A)

8-Which of the following colour is used for radiation hazard?


(A) Red

(B) Orange

(C) Green

(D) Purple

(Ans: D)

9-Decibel (db) is a unit used to measure


(A) Light

(B) Sound

(C) Frequency

(D) None of the above

(Ans: B)

10-The following is (are) are generally provided with limit switch to prevent motion beyond
preset limit
(A) Hoists

(B) Conveyors

(C) Machine tables

(D) All of the above

(Ans: D)

11-The following is (are) used as safety device(s) in machines


(A) Fail safe

(B) Safety interlocks

(C) Limit switches

(D) All of the above

(Ans: D)
12-Class-A fire consists of fire due to
(A) Wood

(B) Oil

(C) Transformer

(D) Chemical

(Ans: A)

13-Water is used to extinguish


(A) Class-A fires

(B) Class-B fires

(C) Class-C fires

(D) All of the above

(Ans: A)

14-The following class of fire occur in electrical equipment


(A) Class-A fires

(B) Class-B fires

(C) Class-C fires

(D) All of the above

(Ans: C)

15-The following extinguisher is suitable for cotton or other textile fire


(A) Water

(B) Soda acid

(C) Foam

(D) Dry chemicals

(Ans: D)

16-_____ is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fire.


(A) Soda acid
(B) Vaporizing liquid

(C) Foam

(D) Dry chemical

(Ans: C)

1-The following is the preliminary stage of Production planning


(A) Capacity planning
(B) Material requirements planning
(C) Scheduling
(D) Product development and design
(Ans: D)

2-The following is the source(s) for developing new or improved product


(A) Research and Development department of the enterprise
(B) Consumer suggestions and Complaints
(C) Other competitive products in the market
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

3-Product cost can be reduced by considering the following aspect(s) at the design stage
(A) Minimum number of operations
(B) Unnecessary tight tolerance should not be provided
(C) Design should consist of standard parts
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

4-The ultimate objective of the product is


(A) To provide a new look
(B) Utilizing existing manpower
(C) To monopolize the market
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

5-Based on their field of application, manufactured goods can be classified as


(A) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary
(B) Consumer, Capital and Defense
(C) Essential, Market and Standard
(D) Primary, Luxury and Consumer
(Ans: B)

6-The following aspect of product is concerned with the ease and efficiency of the product performance
(A) Functional aspect
(B) Operational aspect
(C) Durability aspect
(D) Aesthetic aspect
(Ans: A)

7-The “simplicity to operate and easy to understand” of product is concerned with its following aspect
(A) Functional aspect
(B) Operational aspect
(C) Durability aspect
(D) Aesthetic aspect
(Ans: A)

8-______ helps in establishing the interchangeability of products


(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Diversification
(D) Specialization
(Ans: A)

9-In which of the following type the manufacturing cost may go up


(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Diversification
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

10-Product ______ is the ultimate objective of variety reduction


(A) Simplification
(B) Standardization
(C) Specialization
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

11-The following eases the process of stock control


(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)

12-The following is the Durability aspect(s) of a product


(A) Efficiency of the product
(B) Easy to understand
(C) Ease with which a product can be maintained
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)
1-The following is the preliminary stage of Production planning
(A) Capacity planning
(B) Material requirements planning
(C) Scheduling
(D) Product development and design
(Ans: D)

2-The following is the source(s) for developing new or improved product


(A) Research and Development department of the enterprise
(B) Consumer suggestions and Complaints
(C) Other competitive products in the market
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

3-Product cost can be reduced by considering the following aspect(s) at the design stage
(A) Minimum number of operations
(B) Unnecessary tight tolerance should not be provided
(C) Design should consist of standard parts
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

4-The ultimate objective of the product is


(A) To provide a new look
(B) Utilizing existing manpower
(C) To monopolize the market
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

5-Based on their field of application, manufactured goods can be classified as


(A) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary
(B) Consumer, Capital and Defense
(C) Essential, Market and Standard
(D) Primary, Luxury and Consumer
(Ans: B)

6-The following aspect of product is concerned with the ease and efficiency of the product performance
(A) Functional aspect
(B) Operational aspect
(C) Durability aspect
(D) Aesthetic aspect
(Ans: A)

7-The “simplicity to operate and easy to understand” of product is concerned with its following aspect
(A) Functional aspect
(B) Operational aspect
(C) Durability aspect
(D) Aesthetic aspect
(Ans: A)

8-______ helps in establishing the interchangeability of products


(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Diversification
(D) Specialization
(Ans: A)

9-In which of the following type the manufacturing cost may go up


(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Diversification
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

10-Product ______ is the ultimate objective of variety reduction


(A) Simplification
(B) Standardization
(C) Specialization
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

11-The following eases the process of stock control


(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)

12-The following is the Durability aspect(s) of a product


(A) Efficiency of the product
(B) Easy to understand
(C) Ease with which a product can be maintained
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

1-Material handling consists of movement of material from


a. one machine to another
b. one shop to another shop
c. stores to shop
d. all of the above
(Ans: d)

2-Economy in material handling can be achieved by


a. employing gravity feed movements
b. minimizing distance of travel
c. by carrying material to destination without using manual labour
d. all of the above
(Ans: d)

3-Principle of ‘Unit load’ states that


a. materials should be moved in lots
b. one unit should be moved at a time
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. none of the above
(Ans: a)

4-Fork lift truck is used for


a. lifting and lowering
b. vertical transportation
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. none of the above
(Ans: c)

5-Wheel barrows is used for


a. lifting and lowering
b. vertical transportation
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. none of the above
(Ans: a)

6- Cranes are used for


a. lifting and lowering
b. vertical transportation
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. none of the above
(Ans: c)

7-Match the following


Device Purpose

A. Overhead crane 1. horizontal transportation

B. Pumps 2. lifting and lowering

C. chutes 3. lifting and transportation


The correct order is
a. A-2, B-1, C-3
b. A-1, B-2, C-3
c. A-3, B-2, C-1
d. A-2, B-3, C-1
(Ans: a)

8-Overbridge crane has


a. transverse movement
b. longitudinal movement
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above
(Ans: c)

9-The following is used to transport materials having flat bottoms


a. Belt conveyor
b. Roller conveyor
c. Chain conveyor
d. None of the above
(Ans: b)

10-The following is supported from the ceilings


a. Roller conveyor
b. Belt conveyor
c. Chain conveyor
d. All of the above
(Ans: c)

11-Special purpose material handling equipments are used in


a. Process layout
b. Line layout
c. both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above
(Ans: b)

The profit of an enterprise can be increased by


i. Reducing total costs of production
ii. Increasing sales value
iii. Increasing capital cost
iv. Increasing manpower
Which of the above are true?
a. Only i
b. i & ii
c. I, ii & iii
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Which of the following industries should be located near the vicinity of raw materials?
a. Cycles
b. Televisions
c. Sewing machines
d. Steel mills
(Ans:d)

For which of the following industry humid climate is helpful


a. Cotton
b. Steel
c. Light Bulb
d. Automobile
(Ans:a)

For good natural ventilation, the ____ type of building preferred


a. Flat roof
b. Saw tooth
c. Highbay
d. Monitor
(Ans:d)

Buildings for foundries and steel mills are often of the


a. Flat roof
b. Saw tooth
c. Highbay
d. Bow string
(Ans:c)

Which of the following is not true for Multi-storey building?


a. High heating and ventilation cost
b. Small ground runs for drainage
c. Adopted for manufacture of light goods
d. Less roof repairs
(Ans:a)

“Space available in vertical and horizontal directions is most effectively utilized” is known as principle of
a. Cubic space utilization
b. Flexibility
c. Flow
d. Minimum distance
(Ans:a)

If all the processing equipment and machines are arranged according to the sequence of operations of a
product the layout is known as
a. Product layout
b. Process layout
c. Fixed position layout
d. Combination layout
(Ans:a)

The following type of layout is preferred to manufacture a standard product in large quantity
a. Product layout
b. Process layout
c. Fixed position layout
d. Combination layout
(Ans:a)

The following type of layout is preferred for low volume production of non standard products
a. Product layout
b. Process layout
c. Fixed position layout
d. Combination layout
(Ans:b)

In ship manufacturing, the type of layout preferred is


a. Product layout
b. Process layout
c. Fixed position layout
d. Combination layout
(Ans:c)

This chart is a graphic representation of all the production activities occurring on the shop floor
a. Operation process chart
b. Flow process chart
c. Templates
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)
The profit of an enterprise can be increased by
i. Reducing total costs of production
ii. Increasing sales value
iii. Increasing capital cost
iv. Increasing manpower
Which of the above are true?
a. Only i
b. i & ii
c. I, ii & iii
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Which of the following industries should be located near the vicinity of raw materials?
a. Cycles
b. Televisions
c. Sewing machines
d. Steel mills
(Ans:d)

For which of the following industry humid climate is helpful


a. Cotton
b. Steel
c. Light Bulb
d. Automobile
(Ans:a)

For good natural ventilation, the ____ type of building preferred


a. Flat roof
b. Saw tooth
c. Highbay
d. Monitor
(Ans:d)

Buildings for foundries and steel mills are often of the


a. Flat roof
b. Saw tooth
c. Highbay
d. Bow string
(Ans:c)

Which of the following is not true for Multi-storey building?


a. High heating and ventilation cost
b. Small ground runs for drainage
c. Adopted for manufacture of light goods
d. Less roof repairs
(Ans:a)

“Space available in vertical and horizontal directions is most effectively utilized” is known as principle of
a. Cubic space utilization
b. Flexibility
c. Flow
d. Minimum distance
(Ans:a)

If all the processing equipment and machines are arranged according to the sequence of operations of a
product the layout is known as
a. Product layout
b. Process layout
c. Fixed position layout
d. Combination layout
(Ans:a)
The following type of layout is preferred to manufacture a standard product in large quantity
a. Product layout
b. Process layout
c. Fixed position layout
d. Combination layout
(Ans:a)

The following type of layout is preferred for low volume production of non standard products
a. Product layout
b. Process layout
c. Fixed position layout
d. Combination layout
(Ans:b)

In ship manufacturing, the type of layout preferred is


a. Product layout
b. Process layout
c. Fixed position layout
d. Combination layout
(Ans:c)

This chart is a graphic representation of all the production activities occurring on the shop floor
a. Operation process chart
b. Flow process chart
c. Templates
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Process control is carried out


a. before production
b. during production
c. after production control
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Low cost, higher volume items requires


a. no inspection
b. little inspection
c. intensive inspection
d. 100% inspection
(Ans:b)

High cost, low volume items requires


a. no inspection
b. little inspection
c. intensive inspection
d. 100% inspection
(Ans:c)

The mean of sampling distribution is


a. less than mean of process distribution
b. more than mean of process distribution
c. equal to mean of process distribution
d. any of the above
(Ans:c)

The percent of the sample means will have values that are within ±3 standard deviations of the
distribution mean is
a. 95.5
b. 96.7
c. 97.6
d. 99.7
(Ans:d)

The dividing lines between random and non random deviations from mean of the distribution are known
as
a. upper control limit
b. lower control limit
c. control limits
d. two sigma limits
(Ans:c)

The chart used to monitor variable is


a. Range chart
b. p-chart
c. c-chart
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

The chart used to monitor attributes is


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. All of the above
(Ans:c)

Central tendency of a process is monitored in


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:b)

Dispersion of a process in monitored in


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:a)

The control chart used for the fraction of defective items in a sample is
a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:c)
The control chart used for the number of defects per unit is
a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:d)

The process capability is calculated as


a. (USL-LSL)/3σ
b. (USL+LSL)/3σ
c. (USL-LSL)/6σ
d. (USL+LSL)/6σ
Where USL=Upper specification limit, LSL=Lower specification limit
(Ans:c)

A six sigma process has defect level below ______ defects per million opportunities.
a. 3.4
b. 4.5
c. 5.6
d. 6.7
(Ans:a)
Process control is carried out
a. before production
b. during production
c. after production control
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Low cost, higher volume items requires


a. no inspection
b. little inspection
c. intensive inspection
d. 100% inspection
(Ans:b)

High cost, low volume items requires


a. no inspection
b. little inspection
c. intensive inspection
d. 100% inspection
(Ans:c)

The mean of sampling distribution is


a. less than mean of process distribution
b. more than mean of process distribution
c. equal to mean of process distribution
d. any of the above
(Ans:c)

The percent of the sample means will have values that are within ±3 standard deviations of the
distribution mean is
a. 95.5
b. 96.7
c. 97.6
d. 99.7
(Ans:d)

The dividing lines between random and non random deviations from mean of the distribution are known
as
a. upper control limit
b. lower control limit
c. control limits
d. two sigma limits
(Ans:c)

The chart used to monitor variable is


a. Range chart
b. p-chart
c. c-chart
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

The chart used to monitor attributes is


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. All of the above
(Ans:c)

Central tendency of a process is monitored in


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:b)

Dispersion of a process in monitored in


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:a)

The control chart used for the fraction of defective items in a sample is
a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:c)

The control chart used for the number of defects per unit is
a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:d)

The process capability is calculated as


a. (USL-LSL)/3σ
b. (USL+LSL)/3σ
c. (USL-LSL)/6σ
d. (USL+LSL)/6σ
Where USL=Upper specification limit, LSL=Lower specification limit
(Ans:c)

A six sigma process has defect level below ______ defects per million opportunities.
a. 3.4
b. 4.5
c. 5.6
d. 6.7
(Ans:a)
Process control is carried out
a. before production
b. during production
c. after production control
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Low cost, higher volume items requires


a. no inspection
b. little inspection
c. intensive inspection
d. 100% inspection
(Ans:b)

High cost, low volume items requires


a. no inspection
b. little inspection
c. intensive inspection
d. 100% inspection
(Ans:c)

The mean of sampling distribution is


a. less than mean of process distribution
b. more than mean of process distribution
c. equal to mean of process distribution
d. any of the above
(Ans:c)

The percent of the sample means will have values that are within ±3 standard deviations of the
distribution mean is
a. 95.5
b. 96.7
c. 97.6
d. 99.7
(Ans:d)

The dividing lines between random and non random deviations from mean of the distribution are known
as
a. upper control limit
b. lower control limit
c. control limits
d. two sigma limits
(Ans:c)

The chart used to monitor variable is


a. Range chart
b. p-chart
c. c-chart
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

The chart used to monitor attributes is


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. All of the above
(Ans:c)

Central tendency of a process is monitored in


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:b)

Dispersion of a process in monitored in


a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:a)

The control chart used for the fraction of defective items in a sample is
a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:c)

The control chart used for the number of defects per unit is
a. Range chart
b. Mean chart
c. p-chart
d. c-chart
(Ans:d)

The process capability is calculated as


a. (USL-LSL)/3σ
b. (USL+LSL)/3σ
c. (USL-LSL)/6σ
d. (USL+LSL)/6σ
Where USL=Upper specification limit, LSL=Lower specification limit
(Ans:c)

A six sigma process has defect level below ______ defects per million opportunities.
a. 3.4
b. 4.5
c. 5.6
d. 6.7
(Ans:a)

Which of the following is not a part of Five M’s?


a. Material
b. Machine
c. Motion
d. Method
(Ans:c)

The correct sequence of operations in production planning and control is


a. Routing-Scheduling-Dispatching-Follow up
b. Scheduling-Routing- Dispatching-Follow up
c. Dispatching-Routing-Scheduling- Follow up
d. Routing-Scheduling-Follow up-Dispatching
(Ans:a)

Which of the following is true for ‘Routing’?


a. It is flow of work in the plant
b. Route sheets include list of machine tools that are to be followed
c. It depends upon material handling facilities
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

Loading may be defined as


a. Sending the raw material to the machine
b. Sending the finished material to the store
c. Assign the work to the facilities
d. Uploading a software in machine control panel
(Ans:c)

Dispatching authorizes the start of production operations by


i. Release of material and components from stores to first process
ii. Release of material from process to process
iii. Issue of drawings instruction sheets
Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Only i
b. Only ii
c. i & ii
d. i , ii & iii
(Ans:d)

The bill of material does not consists of


a. Part number
b. Specifications of part
c. Name of the part
d. Price of the part
(Ans:d)

Procurement cycle time is time consumed for


a. Receiving of raw material
b. Inspection of various raw materials
c. Inspection of purchased components parts
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

The transit time consist of


a. Time taken by raw material from machine to machine
b. Time consumed in moving the work between various departments
c. Time taken by a worker to machine a component
d. None of the above
(Ans:b)

Master schedule is prepared for


a. Single product continuous production
b. Multi product batch production
c. Assembly product continuous production
d. Single product batch production
(Ans:c)

Which of the following chart is drawn Machine vs time?


a. Man machine chart
b. The load chart
c. The progress chart
d. Curve chart
(Ans:b)

Gantt chart is mostly used for


a. Routing
b. Scheduling
c. Follow up
d. Inspection and quality control
(Ans:b)

Key to chart is provided in


a. Man machine chart
b. The load chart
c. The progress chart
d. Gantt chart
(Ans:d)

Centralized and decentralized are the types of


a. Routing
b. Dispatching
c. Scheduling
d. Follow up
(Ans:b)
Which of the following is not a part of Five M’s?
a. Material
b. Machine
c. Motion
d. Method
(Ans:c)

The correct sequence of operations in production planning and control is


a. Routing-Scheduling-Dispatching-Follow up
b. Scheduling-Routing- Dispatching-Follow up
c. Dispatching-Routing-Scheduling- Follow up
d. Routing-Scheduling-Follow up-Dispatching
(Ans:a)

Which of the following is true for ‘Routing’?


a. It is flow of work in the plant
b. Route sheets include list of machine tools that are to be followed
c. It depends upon material handling facilities
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

Loading may be defined as


a. Sending the raw material to the machine
b. Sending the finished material to the store
c. Assign the work to the facilities
d. Uploading a software in machine control panel
(Ans:c)

Dispatching authorizes the start of production operations by


i. Release of material and components from stores to first process
ii. Release of material from process to process
iii. Issue of drawings instruction sheets
Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Only i
b. Only ii
c. i & ii
d. i , ii & iii
(Ans:d)

The bill of material does not consists of


a. Part number
b. Specifications of part
c. Name of the part
d. Price of the part
(Ans:d)

Procurement cycle time is time consumed for


a. Receiving of raw material
b. Inspection of various raw materials
c. Inspection of purchased components parts
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

The transit time consist of


a. Time taken by raw material from machine to machine
b. Time consumed in moving the work between various departments
c. Time taken by a worker to machine a component
d. None of the above
(Ans:b)

Master schedule is prepared for


a. Single product continuous production
b. Multi product batch production
c. Assembly product continuous production
d. Single product batch production
(Ans:c)

Which of the following chart is drawn Machine vs time?


a. Man machine chart
b. The load chart
c. The progress chart
d. Curve chart
(Ans:b)

Gantt chart is mostly used for


a. Routing
b. Scheduling
c. Follow up
d. Inspection and quality control
(Ans:b)

Key to chart is provided in


a. Man machine chart
b. The load chart
c. The progress chart
d. Gantt chart
(Ans:d)

Centralized and decentralized are the types of


a. Routing
b. Dispatching
c. Scheduling
d. Follow up
(Ans:b)

1. Which of the following technique is used for determining allowances in time study?

a. Linear regression b. Work sampling

c. Acceptance sampling d. None of the above

2. Performance rating is equal to

a. Observed performance + normal performance b. Observed performance – normal


performance

c. Observed performance x normal performance d. None of the above

3. Breakeven point is the point where

a. Fixed and total cost lines intersect b. Fixed and variable cost lines intersect

c. Sales revenue and expensive lines intersect d. None of the above


4. The routing function is a production system design, which is concerned with

a. Man power utilization b. Machine utilization

c. Quality assurance of the product d. None of the above

5. Scheduling

a. Prescribes the sequence of operations to be performed b. Is concerned with the starting


of processes

c. Determine the programme for the operations d. None of the above

6. The production cost per unit can be reduced by

a. Producing more with the increased output b. eliminating idle time

c. Producing more with same inputs c. None of the above

7. In manufacturing management, the term dispatching is used to describe

a. Dispatch of sales order b. Dispatch of factory mail

c. Dispatch of work order through shop floor d. None of the above

8. For handling materials during manufacture of cement, a_______is widely used

a. Belt conveyor b. Bucket conveyor

c. Fork lift truck d. None of the above

9. For small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is Rs. 5000. The variable cost per
product is Rs. 20 and sales price is 30 per piece. The breakdown production per month will
be

a. 300 b. 460 c. 500 d. None of the above

10. A-B-C analysis is used for

a. CPM b. PERT c. Inventory control d. None of the above


11. According to Muther, the basic principle of best layout is

a. Principle of overall integration b. Principle of flexibility

c. Both a and b c. None of the above

12. The chart which gives an estimate about the amount of material handling between
various work stations is known as

a. Flow chart b. Travel chart

c. Process chart d. None of the above

13. Gantt chart gives information about

a. Scheduling and routing b. Sales

c. Production schedule d. None of the above

14. The aim of value engineering is to

a. Find the depreciation value of machine b. Determine the selling price


of a product

c. Minimise the cost without change in quality of the product d. None of the above

15. A device used for lifting or lowering objects suspended from a hook at the end of
retractable chains or cable is called

a. Hoist b. Jib crane c. Chain conveyor d. None of the above

16. High volume of output and high labour efficiency are achieved in case of

a. Product layout b. Process layout c. Fixed position layout d. None of


the above

17. The despatching function refers to

a. despatch of finished goods an order b. despatch of bills and invoice to the


customer

c. movement of in process material from shop to shop d. authorising a production work


order to be launched
18. Elevators are used for moving materials

a. along a fixed and horizontal paths b. along a horizontal path to any distance

c. in a vertical direction along a fixed path d. in both the planes

19. Consider the following charts:

1. Man-machine chart 2. SIMO Chart 3. Load chart

Those used in method study would include

a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

20. Therbligs are essential in

a. flow process chart b. motion economy

c. method analysis chart d. suggestion system

21. Activities involved in production, planning and control system are listed below:

1. Planning 2. Loading 3. Scheduling

4. Despatching 5. Routing 6. Follow up

The correct sequence of these activities in production planning and control system is

a. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2, 6 b. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6 c. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4, 6 d. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6

22. The fixed costs for a year is Rs. 8 lakhs, variable cost per unit is Rs. 40/- and the selling
price of each unit is Rs. 200/-. If the annual estimated sales is Rs. 20,00,000/-, then the break
even volume is

a. 2000 b. 3000 c. 3333 d. 5000

23. Consider the following principles:

1. Trying to avoid the use of hands for holding

2. Relieving the hands of work whenever possible

3. Keeping the work in the normal work area

4. Avoiding having both hands doing the same thing at the same time
Principles of motion economy would include

a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3

24. Which of the following can be considered to be the advantages of product layout

1. Reduced material handling 2. Greater flexibility

3. Lower capital investment 4. Better utilisation of men and machines

Codes:

a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4

25. There is 8 hours duty and a job should take 30 minutes to complete it. But after 8 hours,
an operator is able to complete only 14 such jobs. The operator’s performance is

a. 77.5% b. 78.5% c. 87.5% d. 97.5%

26. Standardisation of a product is done to

a. eliminate unnecessary varieties in design b. simplify manufacturing process

c. make interchangeable manufacture possible d. reduce material cost

1. Which of the following technique is used for determining allowances in time study?

a. Linear regression b. Work sampling

c. Acceptance sampling d. None of the above

2. Performance rating is equal to

a. Observed performance + normal performance b. Observed performance – normal


performance

c. Observed performance x normal performance d. None of the above

3. Breakeven point is the point where

a. Fixed and total cost lines intersect b. Fixed and variable cost lines intersect

c. Sales revenue and expensive lines intersect d. None of the above


4. The routing function is a production system design, which is concerned with

a. Man power utilization b. Machine utilization

c. Quality assurance of the product d. None of the above

5. Scheduling

a. Prescribes the sequence of operations to be performed b. Is concerned with the starting


of processes

c. Determine the programme for the operations d. None of the above

6. The production cost per unit can be reduced by

a. Producing more with the increased output b. eliminating idle time

c. Producing more with same inputs c. None of the above

7. In manufacturing management, the term dispatching is used to describe

a. Dispatch of sales order b. Dispatch of factory mail

c. Dispatch of work order through shop floor d. None of the above

8. For handling materials during manufacture of cement, a_______is widely used

a. Belt conveyor b. Bucket conveyor

c. Fork lift truck d. None of the above

9. For small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is Rs. 5000. The variable cost per
product is Rs. 20 and sales price is 30 per piece. The breakdown production per month will
be

a. 300 b. 460 c. 500 d. None of the above

10. A-B-C analysis is used for

a. CPM b. PERT c. Inventory control d. None of the above


11. According to Muther, the basic principle of best layout is

a. Principle of overall integration b. Principle of flexibility

c. Both a and b c. None of the above

12. The chart which gives an estimate about the amount of material handling between
various work stations is known as

a. Flow chart b. Travel chart

c. Process chart d. None of the above

13. Gantt chart gives information about

a. Scheduling and routing b. Sales

c. Production schedule d. None of the above

14. The aim of value engineering is to

a. Find the depreciation value of machine b. Determine the selling price


of a product

c. Minimise the cost without change in quality of the product d. None of the above

15. A device used for lifting or lowering objects suspended from a hook at the end of
retractable chains or cable is called

a. Hoist b. Jib crane c. Chain conveyor d. None of the above

16. High volume of output and high labour efficiency are achieved in case of

a. Product layout b. Process layout c. Fixed position layout d. None of


the above

17. The despatching function refers to

a. despatch of finished goods an order b. despatch of bills and invoice to the


customer

c. movement of in process material from shop to shop d. authorising a production work


order to be launched
18. Elevators are used for moving materials

a. along a fixed and horizontal paths b. along a horizontal path to any distance

c. in a vertical direction along a fixed path d. in both the planes

19. Consider the following charts:

1. Man-machine chart 2. SIMO Chart 3. Load chart

Those used in method study would include

a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

20. Therbligs are essential in

a. flow process chart b. motion economy

c. method analysis chart d. suggestion system

21. Activities involved in production, planning and control system are listed below:

1. Planning 2. Loading 3. Scheduling

4. Despatching 5. Routing 6. Follow up

The correct sequence of these activities in production planning and control system is

a. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2, 6 b. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6 c. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4, 6 d. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6

22. The fixed costs for a year is Rs. 8 lakhs, variable cost per unit is Rs. 40/- and the selling
price of each unit is Rs. 200/-. If the annual estimated sales is Rs. 20,00,000/-, then the break
even volume is

a. 2000 b. 3000 c. 3333 d. 5000

23. Consider the following principles:

1. Trying to avoid the use of hands for holding

2. Relieving the hands of work whenever possible

3. Keeping the work in the normal work area

4. Avoiding having both hands doing the same thing at the same time
Principles of motion economy would include

a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3

24. Which of the following can be considered to be the advantages of product layout

1. Reduced material handling 2. Greater flexibility

3. Lower capital investment 4. Better utilisation of men and machines

Codes:

a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2 and 4

25. There is 8 hours duty and a job should take 30 minutes to complete it. But after 8 hours,
an operator is able to complete only 14 such jobs. The operator’s performance is

a. 77.5% b. 78.5% c. 87.5% d. 97.5%

26. Standardisation of a product is done to

a. eliminate unnecessary varieties in design b. simplify manufacturing process

c. make interchangeable manufacture possible d. reduce material cost

The task of exercising control over the incoming raw materials and the outgoing finished products is
usually known as
a. Acceptance sampling
b. Process control
c. Quality control
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

The Process control is exercised over the processes operating on


i. raw materials
ii. semi finished goods
iii. finished goods
Which of the above is/are true?
a. only i
b. i & ii
c. ii & iii
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Variations in any process can be described in general in terms of


i. Central tendency
ii. Dispersion
iii. Control limits
Which of the above is/are true?
a. only i
b. i & ii
c. ii & iii
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

According to Central limit theorem in statistics, the means of samples tends to follow a simple statistical
distribution i.e.
a. Binomial distribution
b. Exponential distribution
c. Normal distribution
d. Poisson distribution
(Ans:c)

Which chart is used for keeping a control on the ‘Central tendency’?


a. x-bar chart
b. R-chart
c. P-chart
d. C-chart
(Ans:a)

Which chart is used to look for the control for the ‘dispersion’?
a. x-bar chart
b. R-chart
c. P-chart
d. C-chart
(Ans:b)

The standard deviation and range will give an indication of the


a. Dispersion
b. Central tendency
c. Number of defects
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

The assignable cause, if the size of a product is beyond the upper or lower control limit, is
a. Machine
b. Process
c. Measurement
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is fraction defective chart?


a. x-bar chart
b. R-chart
c. P-chart
d. C-chart
(Ans:c)

Which of the following is also called as Number of defects chart?


a. x-bar chart
b. R-chart
c. P-chart
d. C-chart
(Ans:d)

In acceptance sampling, when there is a finite probability that the lot may be accepted even if the quality
is not really good, is called
a. Consumer’s risk
b. Producer’s risk
c. Operator’s risk
d. Owner’s risk
(Ans:a)

In acceptance sampling, when there is a finite probability that the lot may be rejected even if the quality
is actually good, is called
a. Consumer’s risk
b. Producer’s risk
c. Operator’s risk
d. Owner’s risk
(Ans:b)

In double sampling plan, if the numbers of defects is in between the two cut off numbers C1 and C2 then
a. Accept the lot
b. Reject the lot
c. Take another sample
d. None of these
(Ans:c)

In sequential sampling plan


a. Maximum 02 samples are taken
b. Maximum 03 samples are taken
c. Maximum 04 samples are taken
d. Samples are accumulated at each stage till the decision of accepting or rejecting a lot is
taken
(Ans:d)

Which of the following includes in cost of quality?


a. Cost of appraisal
b. Cost of prevention
c. Cost of failure
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

Costs of appraisal includes


a. Monitoring and control
b. Quality planning
c. Rejection and rework
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

Costs of failure includes


a. Monitoring and control
b. Quality planning
c. Rejection and rework
d. All of the above
(Ans:c)

Which of the following is not a sampling plan?


a. Single sampling plan
b. Double sampling plan
c. Triple sampling plan
d. Sequential sampling plan
(Ans:c)
In acceptance sampling, when there is a finite probability that the lot may be accepted even if the quality
is not really good, is called
a. Consumer’s risk
b. Producer’s risk
c. Operator’s risk
d. Owner’s risk
(Ans:a)

In acceptance sampling, when there is a finite probability that the lot may be rejected even if the quality
is actually good, is called
a. Consumer’s risk
b. Producer’s risk
c. Operator’s risk
d. Owner’s risk
(Ans:b)

In double sampling plan, if the numbers of defects is in between the two cut off numbers C1 and C2 then
a. Accept the lot
b. Reject the lot
c. Take another sample
d. None of these
(Ans:c)

In sequential sampling plan


a. Maximum 02 samples are taken
b. Maximum 03 samples are taken
c. Maximum 04 samples are taken
d. Samples are accumulated at each stage till the decision of accepting or rejecting a lot is
taken
(Ans:d)

Which of the following includes in cost of quality?


a. Cost of appraisal
b. Cost of prevention
c. Cost of failure
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

Costs of appraisal includes


a. Monitoring and control
b. Quality planning
c. Rejection and rework
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

Costs of failure includes


a. Monitoring and control
b. Quality planning
c. Rejection and rework
d. All of the above
(Ans:c)

Which of the following is not a sampling plan?


a. Single sampling plan
b. Double sampling plan
c. Triple sampling plan
d. Sequential sampling plan
(Ans:c)
In acceptance sampling, when there is a finite probability that the lot may be accepted even if the quality
is not really good, is called
a. Consumer’s risk
b. Producer’s risk
c. Operator’s risk
d. Owner’s risk
(Ans:a)

In acceptance sampling, when there is a finite probability that the lot may be rejected even if the quality
is actually good, is called
a. Consumer’s risk
b. Producer’s risk
c. Operator’s risk
d. Owner’s risk
(Ans:b)

In double sampling plan, if the numbers of defects is in between the two cut off numbers C1 and C2 then
a. Accept the lot
b. Reject the lot
c. Take another sample
d. None of these
(Ans:c)

In sequential sampling plan


a. Maximum 02 samples are taken
b. Maximum 03 samples are taken
c. Maximum 04 samples are taken
d. Samples are accumulated at each stage till the decision of accepting or rejecting a lot is
taken
(Ans:d)

Which of the following includes in cost of quality?


a. Cost of appraisal
b. Cost of prevention
c. Cost of failure
d. All of the above
(Ans:d)

Costs of appraisal includes


a. Monitoring and control
b. Quality planning
c. Rejection and rework
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

Costs of failure includes


a. Monitoring and control
b. Quality planning
c. Rejection and rework
d. All of the above
(Ans:c)

Which of the following is not a sampling plan?


a. Single sampling plan
b. Double sampling plan
c. Triple sampling plan
d. Sequential sampling plan
(Ans:c)

Operations generated forecasts often not to do with


a. Inventory requirements
b. Resource needs
c. Time requirements
d. Sales
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is not true for forecasting?


a. Forecasts are rarely perfect
b. The underlying casual system will remain same in the future
c. Forecast for group of items is accurate than individual item
d. Short range forecasts are less accurate than long range forecasts
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is not a forecasting technique?


a. Judgemental
b. Time series
c. Time horizon
d. Associative
(Ans:c)

In which of the following forecasting technique, subjective inputs obtained from various sources are
analyzed?
a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

In which of the following forecasting technique, data obtained from past experience is analyzed?
a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Delphi method is used for


a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

Short term regular variations related to the calendar or time of day is known as
a. Trend
b. Seasonality
c. Cycles
d. Random variations
(Ans:b)

The demand for period t-2 and t-1 is 10 and 12 cases respectively. As per naïve method, the demand for
next period ‘t’ is
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 14
(Ans:d)

Calculate four periods moving average forecast from the last six periods
Period Demand

1 38

2 40

3 42

4 40

5 44

6 38
a. 40
b. 41
c. 42
d. 43
(Ans:b)

Calculate a weighted average forecast using a weight of .50 to the most recent period, .40 for the next
recent period and .30 for the next period
Period Demand
1 38

2 40

3 42

4 40

5 44

6 38
a. 46.6
b. 47.6
c. 48.6
d. 49.6
(Ans:c)

A linear trend equation has the form


a. F=a-bt
b. F=a+bt
c. F=2a-bt
d. F=2a+bt
(Ans:b)

If the actual demand for a period is 100 units but forecast demand was 90 units. The forecast error is
a. -10
b. +10
c. -5
d. +5
(Ans:b)

Operations generated forecasts often not to do with


a. Inventory requirements
b. Resource needs
c. Time requirements
d. Sales
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is not true for forecasting?


a. Forecasts are rarely perfect
b. The underlying casual system will remain same in the future
c. Forecast for group of items is accurate than individual item
d. Short range forecasts are less accurate than long range forecasts
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is not a forecasting technique?


a. Judgemental
b. Time series
c. Time horizon
d. Associative
(Ans:c)
In which of the following forecasting technique, subjective inputs obtained from various sources are
analyzed?
a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

In which of the following forecasting technique, data obtained from past experience is analyzed?
a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Delphi method is used for


a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

Short term regular variations related to the calendar or time of day is known as
a. Trend
b. Seasonality
c. Cycles
d. Random variations
(Ans:b)

The demand for period t-2 and t-1 is 10 and 12 cases respectively. As per naïve method, the demand for
next period ‘t’ is
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 14
(Ans:d)

Calculate four periods moving average forecast from the last six periods
Period Demand

1 38

2 40

3 42

4 40

5 44
6 38
a. 40
b. 41
c. 42
d. 43
(Ans:b)

Calculate a weighted average forecast using a weight of .50 to the most recent period, .40 for the next
recent period and .30 for the next period
Period Demand

1 38

2 40

3 42

4 40

5 44

6 38
a. 46.6
b. 47.6
c. 48.6
d. 49.6
(Ans:c)

A linear trend equation has the form


a. F=a-bt
b. F=a+bt
c. F=2a-bt
d. F=2a+bt
(Ans:b)

If the actual demand for a period is 100 units but forecast demand was 90 units. The forecast error is
a. -10
b. +10
c. -5
d. +5
(Ans:b)

Operations generated forecasts often not to do with


a. Inventory requirements
b. Resource needs
c. Time requirements
d. Sales
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is not true for forecasting?


a. Forecasts are rarely perfect
b. The underlying casual system will remain same in the future
c. Forecast for group of items is accurate than individual item
d. Short range forecasts are less accurate than long range forecasts
(Ans:d)

Which of the following is not a forecasting technique?


a. Judgemental
b. Time series
c. Time horizon
d. Associative
(Ans:c)

In which of the following forecasting technique, subjective inputs obtained from various sources are
analyzed?
a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

In which of the following forecasting technique, data obtained from past experience is analyzed?
a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:b)

Delphi method is used for


a. Judgemental forecast
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. All of the above
(Ans:a)

Short term regular variations related to the calendar or time of day is known as
a. Trend
b. Seasonality
c. Cycles
d. Random variations
(Ans:b)

The demand for period t-2 and t-1 is 10 and 12 cases respectively. As per naïve method, the demand for
next period ‘t’ is
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 14
(Ans:d)
Calculate four periods moving average forecast from the last six periods
Period Demand

1 38

2 40

3 42

4 40

5 44

6 38
a. 40
b. 41
c. 42
d. 43
(Ans:b)

Calculate a weighted average forecast using a weight of .50 to the most recent period, .40 for the next
recent period and .30 for the next period
Period Demand

1 38

2 40

3 42

4 40

5 44

6 38
a. 46.6
b. 47.6
c. 48.6
d. 49.6
(Ans:c)

A linear trend equation has the form


a. F=a-bt
b. F=a+bt
c. F=2a-bt
d. F=2a+bt
(Ans:b)

If the actual demand for a period is 100 units but forecast demand was 90 units. The forecast error is
a. -10
b. +10
c. -5
d. +5
(Ans:b)
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