Data Communication

CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION 10.
In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single

link.
1. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels. A) point-to-point
A) Protocol B) multipoint
B) Medium C) primary
C) Signal D) secondary
D) All the above
11. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both
2. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is communicating devices at all times.
the _______. A) simplex
A) Medium B) half-duplex
B) Protocol C) full-duplex
C) Message D) half-simplex
D) Transmission
12. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together.
3. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are A) IMPs
measures of the _______ of a network. B) host computers
A) Performance C) networks
B) Reliability D) routers
C) Security
D) Feasibility 13. This was the first network.
A) CSNET
4. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue. B) NSFNET
A) Performance C) ANSNET
B) Reliability D) ARPANET
C) Security
D) All the above 14. Which organization has authority over interstate and international
commerce in the communications field?
5. Which topology requires a central controller or hub? A) ITU-T
A) Mesh B) IEEE
B) Star C) FCC
C) Bus D) ISOC
D) Ring
15. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and
6. Which topology requires a multipoint connection? standardize new technologies.
A) Mesh A) Forums
B) Star B) Regulatory agencies
C) Bus C) Standards organizations
D) Ring D) All of the above
7. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves 16. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and
______________ transmission. electronic signaling specifications?
A) simplex A) EIA
B) half-duplex B) ITU-T
C) full-duplex C) ANSI
D) automatic D) ISO
8. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission. 17. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet.
A) simplex A) TCP/IP
B) half-duplex B) NCP
C) full-duplex C) UNIX
D) automatic D) ACM
9. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices. 18. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the
A) point-to-point order in which they are presented.
B) multipoint A) Semantics
C) primary B) Syntax
D) secondary C) Timing
D) All of the above
19. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what 28. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.
action is to be taken based on that interpretation. A) A WAN
A) Semantics B) An internet
B) Syntax C) a LAN
C) Timing D) None of the above
D) None of the above
29. There are ______________ Internet service providers.
20. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and A) local
how fast it can be sent. B) regional
A) Semantics C) national and international
B) Syntax D) all of the above
C) Timing
D) none of the above 30. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.
A) forum
21. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way. B) protocol
A) simplex C) standard
B) half-duplex D) none of the above
C) full-duplex
D) all of the above 31. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet
standard.
22. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a A) RCF
dedicated link. B) RFC
A) multipoint C) ID
B) point-to-point D) none of the above
C) (a) and (b)
D) none of the above
23. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.

A) multipoint
B) point-to-point
C) (a) and (b)
24. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.
A) Data flow
B) Mode of operation
C) Topology
25. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.

A) mesh
B) ring
C) bus
D) all of the above
26. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or

campus, or between nearby buildings.
A) MAN
B) LAN
C) WAN
27. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or

the whole world.
A) MAN
B) LAN
C) WAN
CHAPTER 2: NETWORK MODELS 10. Which of the following is an application layer service?
A) Remote log-in
1. The Internet model consists of _______ layers. B) File transfer and access
A) Three C) Mail service
B) Five D) All the above
C) Seven
D) Eight 11. Why was the OSI model developed?
A) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite.
2. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility B) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially
of the _______ layer. C) Standards were needed to allow any two systems
A) Network to communicate
B) Transport D) None of the above
C) Application
D) Physical 12. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer
ought to be organized.
3. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium. A) CCITT
A) Physical B) OSI
B) Data link C) ISO
C) Network D) ANSI
D) Transport
13. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over
4. Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer. the physical medium.
A) Data link A) programs
B) Physical B) dialogs
C) Transport C) protocols
D) Application D) bits
5. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are 14. The OSI model consists of _______ layers.
_______. A) three
A) Added B) five
B) Removed C) seven
C) Rearranged D) eight
D) Modified
15. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper
6. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layers, headers are _______.
layer. A) added
A) Physical B) removed
B) Data link C) rearranged
C) Transport D) modified
16. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the
7. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer. header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A) Network A) physical
B) Data link B) transport
C) Transport C) session
D) None of the above D) presentation
8. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's 17. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer?
layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer. A) node-to-node delivery
A) Physical B) process-to-process message delivery
B) Transport C) synchronization
C) Application D) updating and maintenance of routing tables
18. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the
9. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals. ________ layer.
A) Physical A) transport
B) Data link B) session
C) Transport C) presentation
D) None of the above D) application
19. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which 28. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications.
address does the router look at? A) TCP
A) port B) UDP
B) logical C) ARP
C) physical D) none of the above
29. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address
20. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
the _______ address must be consulted. A) port
A) port B) physical
B) IP C) logical
C) physical D) none of the above
30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the
21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses. network interface card (NIC).
A) 32 A) 32-bit
B) 64 B) 64-bit
C) 128 C) 6-byte
D) variable D) none of the above
22. ICMPv6 includes _______. 31. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.
A) IGMP A) 32
B) ARP B) 48
C) RARP C) 16
D) a and b D) none of the above
23. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) 32. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection,
to the next. which allows diverse systems to communicate.
A) physical A) OSI
B) data link B) ISO
C) transport C) IEEE
D) none of the above D) none of the above
24. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper 33. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development
layer that includes the logical addresses of the sender and receiver. of universally compatible networking protocols.
A) physical A) OSI
B) data link B) ISO
C) network C) IEEE
25. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message 34. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support
from one process to another. layers.
A) physical A) user
B) transport B) network
C) network C) both (a) and (b)
D) none of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)
26. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol. 35. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support
A) reliable layers.
B) connection-oriented A) user
C) both a and b B) network
D) none of the above C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
27. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port
addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from 36. The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user
the upper layer. support layers.
A) TCP A) transport
B) UDP B) network
C) IP C) data link
D) none of the above D) session
37. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit 45. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session,
stream over a physical medium. presentation, and application layers of the OSI model.
A) transport A) application
B) network B) network
C) data link C) data link
D) physical D) physical
38. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one 46. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address
station to the next without errors. of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A) transport A) physical
B) network B) IP
C) data link C) port
D) physical D) specific
39. The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery 47. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet.
of a packet across multiple network links. A) physical
A) transport B) IP
B) network C) port
C) data link D) specific
D) physical
48. The_____ address identifies a process on a host.
40. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery A) physical
of the entire message. B) IP
A) transport C) port
B) network D) specific
C) data link
D) physical
41. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the

interactions between communicating devices.
A) transport
B) network
C) session
D) physical
42. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating

devices through transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format.
A) transport
B) network
C) data link
D) presentation
43. The _________ layer enables the users to access the network.
A) transport
B) application
C) data link
D) physical
44. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI
model.
A) seven-layer; before
B) five-layer; before
C) six-layer; before
D) five-layer; after
CHAPTER 3: DATA AND SIGNALS 10. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude
is ________ V.
1. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________. A) 2
A) periodic signals B) 1
B) electromagnetic signals C) -2
C) aperiodic signals D) between -2 and 2
D) low-frequency sine waves
11. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first
2. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency? point and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________.
A) 1 Hz A) P2 is zero
B) 100 Hz B) P2 equals P1
C) 1 KHz C) P2 is much larger than P1
D) 1 MHz D) P2 is much smaller than P1
3. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________. 12. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal
A) peak amplitude loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium.
B) frequency A) Attenuation
C) phase B) Distortion
D) slope C) Noise
D) Decibel
4. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________.
A) signal amplitude 13. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal
B) frequency loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that
C) phase makes up the signal.
D) time A) Attenuation
B) Distortion
5. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, C) Noise
what is the highest frequency? D) Decibel
A) 5 KHz
B) 10 KHz 14. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside
C) 47 KHz source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal.
D) 57 KHz A) Attenuation
B) Distortion
6. What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz? C) Noise
A) 4 MHz D) Decibel
B) 1 KHz
C) 3 MHz 15. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the
D) none of the above ________.
A) throughput
7. As frequency increases, the period ________. B) wavelength of the signal
A) decreases C) distortion factor
B) increases D) distance a signal or bit has traveled
C) remains the same
D) doubles 16. Data can be ________.
A) analog
8. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then B) digital
the period of B is ________ that of A. C) (a) or (b)
A) one-half D) none of the above
B) twice
C) the same as 17. _______ data are continuous and take continuous values.
D) indeterminate from A) analog
B) digital
9. A sine wave is ________. C) (a) or (b)
A) periodic and continuous D) none of the above
B) aperiodic and continuous
C) periodic and discrete 18. _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values.
D) aperiodic and discrete A) Analog
B) Digital
C) (a) or (b)
19. Signals can be ________. 28. A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite
A) analog bandwidth.
B) digital A) digital
C) either (a) or (b) B) analog
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) either (a) or (b)
20. _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range.
A) Analog 29. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a
B) Digital ____ channel.
C) (a) or (b) A) low-pass
D) None of the above B) bandpass
C) low rate
21. _______ signals can have only a limited number of values. D) high rate
A) Analog
B) Digital 30. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital
C) (a) or (b) signal directly to the channel.
D) None of the above A) low-pass
B) bandpass
22. Frequency and period are ______. C) low rate
A) inverse of each other D) high rate
B) proportional to each other
C) the same 31. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the
D) none of the above theoretical maximum bit rate.
A) noisy
23. ________is the rate of change with respect to time. B) noiseless
A) Amplitude C) bandpass
B) Time D) low-pass
C) Frequency
D) Voltage 32. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the
maximum bit rate.
24. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0. A) noisy
A) Frequency B) noiseless
B) Phase C) bandpass
C) Amplitude D) low-pass
D) Voltage
33. _________ can impair a signal.
25. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single A) Attenuation
spike in the _____ domain. B) Distortion
A) time; frequency C) Noise
B) frequency; time D) All of the above
C) time; phase
D) phase; time 34. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the
link.
26. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need A) bandwidth-period
to send a _______ signal. B) frequency-amplitude
A) composite; single-frequency C) bandwidth-delay
B) single-frequency; composite D) delay-amplitude
C) single-frequency; double-frequency
27. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest
and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal.
A) frequency
B) period
C) bandwidth
D) amplitude
CHAPTER 4: DIGITAL TRANSMISSION 9. Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the
signal?
1. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding. A) 2
A) line B) 8
B) block C) 16
C) NRZ D) 32
D) Manchester
10. Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.
2. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. A) Synchronization
A) RZ B) Error detection
B) Manchester C) Attenuation
C) Differential Manchester D) (a) and (b)
D) All the above
11. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each
3. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit. across its own wire.
A) RZ A) Asynchronous serial
B) Manchester B) Synchronous serial
C) Differential Manchester C) Parallel
D) All the above D) (a) and (b)
4. PCM is an example of _______ conversion. 12. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one
A) digital-to-digital at a time.
B) digital-to-analog A) asynchronous serial
C) analog-to-analog B) synchronous serial
D) analog-to-digital C) parallel
D) (a) and (b)
5. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the
highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to 13. In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character
the Nyquist theorem? byte.
A) 200 samples/s A) asynchronous serial
B) 500 samples/s B) synchronous serial
C) 1000 samples/s C) parallel
D) 1200 samples/s D) (a) and (b)
6. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to 14. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______.
be_______. A) fixed
A) equal to the lowest frequency of a signal B) variable
B) equal to the highest frequency of a signal C) a function of the data rate
C) twice the bandwidth of a signal D) zero
D) twice the highest frequency of a signal
15. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block
7. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for coding, and scrambling.
synchronization? A) Analog-to-digital
A) NRZ-L B) Digital-to-analog
B) RZ C) Analog-to-analog
C) NRZ-I D) Digital-to-digital
D) Manchester
16. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal.
8. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for A) Block coding
1s? B) Line coding
A) NRZ-I C) Scrambling
B) RZ D) None of the above
C) Manchester
D) AMI 17. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent
error detection.
A) Block coding
B) Line coding
C) Scrambling
18. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m- 27. In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without
bit group with an n-bit group. start or stop bits or gaps. It is the responsibility of the receiver to group the
A) Block coding bits.
B) Line coding A) synchronous
C) Scrambling B) asynchronous
D) None of the above C) isochronous
19. ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of
bits. 28. The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of
A) Scrambling bits must. In other words, it guarantees that the data arrive at a fixed rate.
B) Line coding A) synchronous
C) Block coding B) asynchronous
D) None of the above C) isochronous
20. Two common scrambling techniques are ________.
A) NRZ and RZ 29. A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data
B) AMI and NRZ being transmitted.
C) B8ZS and HDB3 A) self-synchronizing
D) Manchester and differential Manchester B) self-modulated
C) self-transmitted
21. The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is D) none of the above
called __________.
A) PAL 30. In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of
B) PCM the received signal power, called the _______.
C) sampling A) baseline
D) none of the above B) base
C) line
22. The first step in PCM is ________. D) none of the above
A) quantization
B) modulation 31. The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the
C) sampling ______ rate is the number of signal elements sent in 1s.
D) none of the above A) data; signal
B) signal; data
23. There are three sampling methods: __________. C) baud; bit
A) quantized, sampled, and ideal D) none of the above
B) ideal, sampled, and flat-top
C) ideal, natural, and flat-top 32. The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate.
D) none of the above A) baud
B) bit
24. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ C) signal
finds the change from the previous sample. D) none of the above
A) DM; PCM
B) PCM; DM 33. The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate.
C) DM; CM A) baud
D) none of the above B) bit
C) signal
25. While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is D) none of the above
(are) three subclass(es) of serial transmission.
A) one; two 34. In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis,
B) two; three either above or below.
C) one; three A) polar
D) none of the above B) bipolar
C) unipolar
26. In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 D) all of the above
or more stop bits (1s) at the end of each byte.
A) synchronous
B) asynchronous
C) isochronous
35. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. 43. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is
For example, the voltage level for 0 can be positive and the voltage level for ____ that of NRZ.
1 can be negative. A) the same as
A) polar B) twice
B) bipolar C) thrice
C) unipolar D) none of the above
D) all of the above
44. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative.
36. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. A) unipolar
A) NRZ-I B) bipolar
B) NRZ-L C) polar
C) both (a) and (b) D) none of the above
45. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit
37. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level signal.
determines the value of the bit. A) 4B5B
A) NRZ-I B) 2B1Q
B) NRZ-L C) MLT-3
46. The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three
38. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________ transition rules to move between the levels.
scheme. A) 4B5B
A) Manchester B) 2B1Q
B) differential Manchester C) MLT-3
47. ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB.
39. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________ A) B4B8
scheme. B) HDB3
A) Manchester C) B8ZS
B) differential Manchester D) none of the above
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) 48. ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V
A) B4B8
40. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. B) HDB3
The voltage remains at one level during the first half and moves to the other C) B8ZSf
level in the second half. The transition at the middle of the bit provides D) none of the above
synchronization.
A) Manchester
B) differential Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
41. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit,

but the bit values are determined at the beginning of the bit. If the next bit is
0, there is a transition; if the next bit is 1, there is none.
A) Manchester
B) differential Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
42. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the

middle of the bit is used for __________.
A) bit transfer
B) baud transfer
C) synchronization
CHAPTER 5: ANALOG TRANSMISSION 10. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the
characteristics of an analog signal based on the information in the digital
1. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion. data.
A) digital-to-digital A) Digital-to-analog
B) digital-to-analog B) Analog-to-analog
C) analog-to-analog C) Analog-to-digital
D) analog-to-digital D) Digital-to-digital
2. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion. 11. Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion?
A) digital-to-digital A) ASK
B) digital-to-analog B) PSK
C) analog-to-analog C) FSK
D) analog-to-digital D) AM
3. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied. 12. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create
A) frequency and amplitude signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant.
B) phase and frequency A) ASK
C) amplitude and phase B) PSK
D) none of the above C) FSK
D) QAM
4. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps.
A) 100 13. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to
B) 400 represent data. Both peak amplitude and phase remain constant.
C) 800 A) ASK
D) 1600 B) PSK
C) FSK
5. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. D) QAM
A) 300
B) 400 14. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or
C) 600 more different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain
D) 1200 constant.
A) ASK
6. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. B) PSK
A) 300 C) FSK
B) 400 D) QAM
C) 600
D) 1200 15. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal
element, particularly when we are using two carriers (one in-phase and one
7. If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate? quadrature).
A) 300 A) amplitude and phase
B) 400 B) amplitude and frequency
C) 1000 C) frequency and phase
D) 1200 D) none of the above
8. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate? 16. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of
A) 300 ___________.
B) 400 A) ASK and FSK
C) 1000 B) ASK and PSK
D) 12000 C) PSK and FSK
9. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-
frequency component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal? 17. ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature.
A) 700 KHz A) ASK
B) 705 KHz B) PSK
C) 710 KHz C) FSK
D) Cannot be determined from given information D) QAM
18. _________ conversion is the representation of analog information by 26. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?
an analog signal. A) 2
A) Digital-to-analog B) 1
B) Analog-to-analog C) 0
C) Analog-to-digital D) none of the above
D) Digital-to-digital
27. How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK?
19. Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is A) 2
_______. B) 1
A) low-pass C) 0
B) band-pass D) none of the above
C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) 28. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK?
A) 2
20. Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion? B) 1
A) AM C) 0
B) PM D) none of the above
C) FM
D) QAM 29. The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots.
A) 2
21. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its B) 1
amplitude varies with the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal. C) 0
A) AM D) none of the above
B) PM
C) FM 30. The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots.
D) none of the above A) 2
B) 1
22. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated C) 0
to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The D) none of the above
peak amplitude and phase of the carrier signal remain constant, but as the
amplitude of the information signal changes, the frequency of the carrier 31. The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots.
changes correspondingly. A) 2
A) AM B) 1
B) PM C) 4
C) FM D) none of the above
32. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots.
23. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to A) 4
follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. B) 16
A) AM C) 8
B) PM D) none of the above
C) FM
D) none of the above 33. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for
each AM station.
24. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the A) 5
same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency. B) 10
A) PSK C) 20
B) OOK D) none of the above
C) FSK
D) none of the above 34. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for
each FM station.
25. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK? A) 20
A) 2 B) 100
B) 1 C) 200
C) 0 D) none of the above
CHAPTER 6: BANDWIDTH UTILIZATION: MULTIPLEXING 9. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be
AND SPREADING achieved by using spreading.
A) Efficiency; privacy and antijamming
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called B) Privacy and antijamming; efficiency
_______. C) Privacy and efficiency; antijamming
A) modulation D) Efficiency and antijamming; privacy
B) encoding
C) line discipline 10. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous
D) multiplexing transmission of multiple signals across a single data link.
A) Demodulating
2. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? B) Multiplexing
A) FDM C) Compressing
B) TDM D) None of the above
C) WDM
D) (a) and (c) 11. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link.
A) 1; n
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? B) 1; 1
A) FDM C) n; 1
B) TDM D) n; n
C) WDM
D) None of the above 12. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a
transmission.
4. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier A) channel; link
frequency? B) link; channel
A) FDM C) line; channel
B) TDM D) line; link
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of the above 13. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater
than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted.
5. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame A) TDM
contains _______ slots. B) FDM
A) n C) Both (a) or (b)
B) n+1 D) Neither (a) or (b)
C) n-1
D) 0 to n 14. FSM is an _________technique.
A) analog
6. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ B) digital
the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources. C) either (a) or (b)
A) greater than D) none of the above
B) less than
C) equal to 15. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic
D) not related to cable.
A) FDM
7. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams? B) TDM
A) FDM C) WDM
B) TDM D) None of the above
C) WDM
D) none of the above 16. ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals.
A) FDM
8. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve B) TDM
specific goals. C) WDM
A) Frequency D) None of the above
B) Bandwidth
C) Amplitude 17. _____ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the
D) None of the above high bandwidth of a link.
A) FDM
B) TDM
C) WDM
18. _____ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate CHAPTER 7: TRANSMISSION MEDIA
channels into one high-rate one.
A) FDM 1. Transmission media are usually categorized as _______.
B) TDM A) fixed or unfixed
C) WDM B) guided or unguided
D) None of the above C) determinate or indeterminate
D) metallic or nonmetallic
19. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or
statistical. 2. Transmission media lie below the _______ layer.
A) FDM A) physical
B) TDM B) network
C) WDM C) transport
D) none of the above D) application
20. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output 3. _______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting
even if it is not sending data. outer sheath.
A) synchronous A) Twisted-pair
B) statistical B) Coaxial
C) isochronous C) Fiber-optic
D) none of the above D) Shielded twisted-pair
21. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve 4. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves.
bandwidth efficiency. A) light
A) synchronous B) radio
B) statistical C) infrared
C) isochronous D) very low-frequency
5. Which of the following primarily uses guided media?
22. In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a A) cellular telephone system
larger bandwidth. B) local telephone system
A) spread spectrum C) satellite communications
B) line coding D) radio broadcasting
C) block coding
D) none of the above 6. Which of the following is not a guided medium?
A) twisted-pair cable
23. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which B) coaxial cable
stations must be able to share the medium without interception by an C) fiber-optic cable
eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious D) atmosphere
intruder.
A) Spread spectrum 7. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise
B) Multiplexing than twisted-pair cable?
C) Modulation A) inner conductor
D) None of the above. B) diameter of cable
C) outer conductor
24. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are D) insulating material
modulated by the source signal. At one moment, the sign modulates one
carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier 8. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding.
frequency. A) denser than
A) FDM B) less dense than
B) DSSS C) the same density as
C) FHSS D) another name for
D) TDM
9. The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition.
25. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing A) glass or plastic
each data bit with n bits. B) copper
A) FDM C) bimetallic
B) DSSS D) liquid
C) FHSS
D) TDM
10. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if 19. __________ consists of a central conductor and a shield.
the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs. A) Coaxial
A) reflection B) Fiber-optic
B) refraction C) Twisted-pair
C) incidence D) none of the above
D) criticism
20. _____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _____
11. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light cable.
beam bends along the interface. A) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic
A) more than B) Coaxial; fiber-optic
B) less than C) Coaxial; twisted-pair
C) equal to D) none of the above
21. ______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded
12. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation. by cladding, all encased in an outside jacket.
A) ground A) Coaxial
B) sky B) Fiber-optic
C) line-of-sight C) Twisted-pair
13. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use ______ 22. ______ cables carry data signals in the form of light.
propagation. A) Coaxial
A) ground B) Fiber-optic
B) sky C) Twisted-pair
C) line-of-sight D) none of the above
23. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by
14. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation. _______.
A) ground A) reflection
B) sky B) refraction
C) line-of-sight C) modulation
15. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna. 24. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of
A) omnidirectional a physical conductor.
B) bidirectional A) Guided
C) unidirectional B) Unguided
D) horn C) Either (a) or (b)
16. A(n) _____ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to
another. 25. Radio waves are _________.
A) guided A) omnidirectional
B) unguided B) unidirectional
C) either (a) or (b) C) bidirectional
17. ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted 26. Microwaves are _________.
together. A) omnidirectional
A) Coaxial B) unidirectional
B) Fiber-optic C) bidirectional
C) Twisted-pair D) none of the above
27. _______ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN
18. _______ cable is used for voice and data communications. communications.
A) Coaxial A) Radio waves
B) Fiber-optic B) Microwaves
C) Twisted-pair C) Infrared waves
28. ________ are used for short-range communications such as those CHAPTER 8: SWITCHING
between a PC and a peripheral device.
A) Radio waves 1. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important.
B) Microwaves A) four
C) Infrared waves B) three
D) none of the above C) five
D) six
2. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.

A) four
B) three
C) five
D) two
3. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories:

virtual-circuit networks and datagram networks
A) four
B) three
C) two
D) five
4. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical

links, in which each link is divided into n channels.
A) line-switched
B) frame-switched
C) circuit-switched
5. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer.

A) data line
B) physical
C) network
D) transport
6. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase;

the resources remain dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer phase
until the teardown phase.
A) datagram switching
B) circuit switching
C) frame switching
7. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet.

C) frame switching
8. In _________, resources are allocated on demand.

C) frame switching
9. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others.

C) frame switching
10. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases. 19. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater
A) datagram switching than ____.
B) circuit switching A) 10
C) frame switching B) 20
D) none of the above C) 30
D) 40
11. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network
and a datagram network. It has some characteristics of both. 20. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater
A) virtual-circuit than ____.
B) packet-switched A) 21
C) frame-switched B) 19
D) 41
12. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components.
A) two 21. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of
B) three crosspoints is greater than or equal to _______.
C) four A) 15,200
D) none of the above B) 18,000
C) 42,000
13. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch. D) 20,000
A) crosspoint
B) crossbar 22. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of
C) TSI crosspoints is ______.
D) STS A) 10,000
B) 20,000
14. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each C) 40,000
stage that route the packets based on the output port represented as a binary D) 30,000
string.
A) crossbar 23. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of
B) TSI crosspoints is ______.
C) banyan A) 40,000
D) none of the above B) greater than 40,000
C) less than 40,000
15. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages. D) greater than 100,000
A) 8
B) 4 24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally
C) 3 three) stages.
D) 2 A) multistage
B) multiple crossbar
16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ C) multiple path
microswitches at each stage. D) none of the above
A) 8
B) 4 25. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one
C) 3 another spatially.
D) 2 A) time-division
B) space-division
17. A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division C) two-dimensional
technologies to take advantage of the best of both. D) three-dimensional
A) TST
B) SSS 26. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network.
C) TTT A) virtual-circuit
D) none of the above B) datagram
C) circuit-switched
18. The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the D) none of the above
_________.
A) STI
B) ITS
C) TSI
27. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global CHAPTER 9: USING TELEPHONE AND CABLE NETWORKS
and local. FOR DATA TRANSMISSION
A) virtual-circuit
B) datagram 1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
C) circuit-switched A) packet-switched
D) none of the above B) circuit-switched
C) message-switched
28. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ D) none of the above
network.
A) virtual-circuit 2. The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone
B) datagram to the nearest end office.
C) circuit-switched A) twisted-pair
D) none of the above B) coaxial
C) fiber-optic
29. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the D) none of the above
______ address.
A) source 3. Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______
B) destination signals.
C) local A) analog; analog
D) none of the above B) analog; digital
C) digital; digital
30. The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network D) digital; analog
normally remains the same during the entire journey of the packet.
A) source 4. _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream
B) destination and downstream data rates.
C) local A) VDSL
D) none of the above B) ADSL
C) SDSL
D) (a) and (b)
5. DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and

_______.
A) FDM; TDM
B) QDM; QAM
C) FDM; QAM
D) PSK; FSK
6. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.

A) voice communication
B) upstream data
C) downstream data
D) control data
7. _______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line.

A) VDSL
B) ADSL
C) SDSL
D) HDSL
8. HDSL encodes data using _______.

A) 4B/5B
B) 2B1Q
C) 1B2Q
D) 6B/8T
9. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.

A) splitter
B) fiber node
C) combiner
D) head end
10. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______. 19. The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______.
A) upstream A) POP
B) downstream B) IXC
C) upstream and downstream C) LEC
11. In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the 20. In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data.
_______ modulation technique. A) in-band
A) PSK B) out-of-band
B) QAM C) mixed
C) PCM D) none of the above
D) ASK
21. In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling
12. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the and another portion for data.
_______ modulation technique. A) in-band
A) QAM B) out-of-band
B) QPSK C) mixed
C) PCM D) none of the above
D) ASK
22. The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called
13. The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called ______.
_______. A) POP
A) MCNS B) SSS
B) DOCSIS C) SS7
C) CMTS D) none of the above
D) ADSL
23. Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog
14. The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old _______ services and analog _____services.
telephone system (POTS), was an ________ system. A) switched; in-band
A) digital B) out-of-band; in-band
B) analog C) switched; leased
C) digital as well as analog D) leased; out-of-band
24. The two most common digital services are ________ service and
15. The modern telephone network is now ________. ______.
A) digital A) switched/56; switched/64
B) analog B) switched/56; DDS
C) digital as well as analog C) DDS; switched 64
D) none of the above D) leased; out-of-band
16. The telephone network is made of ______ major components. 25. The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional
A) 2 entities that make up the device: a signal _______ and a signal
B) 3 _______.
C) 4 A) modulator; demodulator
D) none of the above B) demodulator; modulator
C) modern; demo
17. The United States is divided into many _______. D) none of the above
A) LECs
B) LATAs 26. Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards.
C) IXCs A) V-series
D) none of the above B) X-series
C) VX-series
18. The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____. D) none of the above
A) POP
B) IXC 27. ______technology is a set of technologies developed by the telephone
C) LEC companies to provide high data rate transmission.
D) none of the above A) ASL
B) DSL
C) LDS
28. The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end. CHAPTER 10: ERROR DETECTION AND CORRECTION
A) twisted-pair
B) coaxial 1. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?
C) fiber-optic A) Simple parity check
D) none of the above B) Two-dimensional parity check
C) CRC
29. The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ D) Checksum
network.
A) HFC 2. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data
B) HCF unit?
C) CFH A) Simple parity check
D) none of the above B) Two-dimensional parity check
C) CRC
30. The HFC network uses _______ cable. D) Checksum
A) twisted-pair
B) coaxial 3. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC?
C) fiber-optic A) The divisor
D) a combination of (b) and (c) B) The quotient
C) The dividend
31. To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a D) The remainder
______ and a _________
A) CM; CMS 4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC.
B) CT; CMTS A) The same size as
C) CM; CMTS B) one bit less than
D) none of the above C) one bit more than
5. A burst error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed.
A) double-bit
B) burst
C) single-bit
6. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without

requesting retransmission.
A) backward
B) onward
C) forward
7. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the
data again.
A) backward
B) retransmission
C) forward
8. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and
______coding.
A) block; linear
B) linear; nonlinear
C) block; convolution
9. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results.

A) addition and multiplication
B) addition and division
C) addition and subtraction
10. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition 18. _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If
and subtraction. a codeword is rotated, the result is another codeword.
A) XOR A) Non-linear
B) OR B) Convolution
C) AND C) Cyclic
11. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, 19. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______.
called ___. A) correction; detection
A) block; blockwords B) detection; correction
B) linear; datawords C) creation; correction
C) block; datawords D) creation; detection
20. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______,
12. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The inclusive.
resulting n-bit blocks are called _________. A) 1 to 10
A) datawords B) 1 to 11
B) blockwords C) 0 to 10
C) codewords D) none of the above
21. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______.
13. The ________ between two words is the number of differences A) 1 and 2
between corresponding bits. B) 0 and 2
A) Hamming code C) 0 and 1
B) Hamming distance D) none of the above
C) Hamming rule
D) none of the above 22. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________.
A) 1
14. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum B) 2
Hamming distance in a block code must be _______. C) 0
A) 5 D) none of the above
B) 6
C) 11 23. In block coding, if k =2 and n =3, we have _______ invalid
D) none of the above codewords.
A) 8
15. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum B) 4
Hamming distance in a block code must be ________. C) 2
B) 6
C) 11 24. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________.
B) n
16. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates C) 0
another valid codeword. D) none of the above
A) XORing
B) ORing 25. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________.
C) ANDing A) 2
D) none of the above B) 0
C) 1
17. A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors. D) none of the above
A) an even-number of
B) two 26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two
C) no errors codewords is ________.
D) an odd-number of A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
27. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding CHAPTER 11: DATA LINK CONTROL
codeword is three, there are _____ bits in error.
A) 3 1. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence
B) 4 numbers?
C) 5 A) 0 to 63
D) none of the above B) 0 to 64
C) 1 to 63
28. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial. D) 1 to 64
A) range
B) degree 2. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the
C) power receiver may send an ACK _______ to the sender.
B) 6
29. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________. C) 7
A) degree D) any of the above
B) generator
C) redundancy 3. ARQ stands for _______.
D) none of the above A) Automatic repeat quantization
B) Automatic repeat request
30. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered C) Automatic retransmission request
errors. D) Acknowledge repeat request
A) x
B) x+1 4. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______
C) 1 acknowledgments are needed.
D) none of the above A) exactly 10
B) less than 10
31. Checksums use _________ arithmetic. C) more than 10
A) two's complement arithmetic D) none of the above
B) one's complement arithmetic
C) either (a) or (b) 5. HDLC is an acronym for _______.
D) none of the above A) High-duplex line communication
B) High-level data link control
32. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is C) Half-duplex digital link combination
________. D) Host double-level circuit
A) 1111
B) 1101 6. Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______
C) 1000 communication.
D) none of the above A) node-to-node
B) host-to-host
33. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________. C) process-to-process
B) 0000
C) 1110 7. _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to
D) 0111 a destination, or from other messages going from other sources to other
destinations.
34. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________. A) Digitizing
A) 1111 B) Controlling
B) 0000 C) Framing
D) 0111
8. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of
frames.
A) fixed-size
B) variable-size
C) standard
9. In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary 18. ______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction.
of two frames. A) Flow
A) fixed-size B) Error
B) variable-size C) Transmission
C) standard D) none of the above
19. The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______
10. _________framing uses two categories of protocols: character- channels.
oriented and bit-oriented. A) noisy
A) Fixed-size B) noiseless
B) Variable-size C) either (a) or (b)
C) Standard D) neither (a) nor (b)
20. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are
11. In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of for ______ channels.
characters. A) noisy
A) bit-oriented B) noiseless
B) character-oriented C) either (a) or (b)
C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
21. The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control.
12. In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of A) Stop-and-Wait
bits. B) Simplest
A) byte-oriented C) Go-Back-N ARQ
B) bit-oriented D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
D) none of the above 22. The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control.
A) Stop-and-Wait
13. In _________ protocols, we use ________. B) Simplest
A) character-oriented; byte stuffing C) Go-Back-N ARQ
B) character-oriented; bit stuffing D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
C) bit-oriented; character stuffing
D) none of the above 23. The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control.
A) Stop-and-Wait
14. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame B) Go-Back-N ARQ
when there is a character with the same pattern as the ______. C) Selective-Repeat ARQ
A) header D) both (b) and (c)
B) trailer
C) flag 24. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another
D) none of the above with no regard to the receiver.
A) Stop-and-Wait
15. In ________ protocols, we use ________. B) Simplest
A) byte-oriented; bit stuffing C) Go-Back-N ARQ
B) character-oriented; bit stuffing D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
C) bit-oriented; bit stuffing
D) none of the above 25. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it
receives confirmation from the receiver, and then sends the next frame.
16. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when A) Stop-and-Wait
there is a sequence of bits with the same pattern as the ________. B) Simplest
A) header C) Go-Back-N ARQ
B) trailer D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
C) flag
D) none of the above 26. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the
_______Protocol.
17. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. B) Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
A) Flow C) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ
B) Error D) none of the above
C) Transmission
27. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has 35. The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point
arrived, we resend all outstanding frames. Protocol (PPP), which is a _________protocol.
A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ A) bit-oriented
B) Go-Back-N ARQ B) byte-oriented
C) Selective-Repeat ARQ C) character-oriented
28. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by 36. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the
sending only frames that are corrupted. amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment.
A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ A) Flow
B) Go-Back-N ARQ B) Error
C) Selective-Repeat ARQ C) Transmission
29. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________. 37. _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat
A) sliding frame request, which is the retransmission of data.
B) sliding window A) Flow
C) sliding packet B) Error
D) none of the above C) Transmission
30. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then
the maximum size of the send window must be _____ 38. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames.
A) 15 The sequence numbers are based on __________arithmetic.
B) 16 A) modulo-2
C) 31 B) modulo-4
D) 1 C) modulo-m
31. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then
the maximum size of the receive window must be _____ 39. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in
A) 15 ______ arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected.
B) 16 A) modulo-2
C) 31 B) modulo-4
D) 1 C) modulo-m
32. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence
number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____ 40. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the
A) 15 sequence numbers are in ________ arithmetic,
B) 16 A) modulo-2
C) 31 B) modulo- 8
D) 1 C) modulo-256
33. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence
number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____ 41. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of
A) 15 the send window is 1.
B) 16 A) 2
C) 31 B) 1
D) 1 C) 8
34. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for
communication over point-to-point and multipoint links. 42. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one
A) bit-oriented primary station and multiple secondary stations.
B) byte-oriented A) ABM
C) character-oriented B) NRM
D) none of the above C) ARM
D) NBM
43. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, CHAPTER 12: MULTIPLE ACCESS
and each station can function as a primary and a secondary.
A) ABM 1. In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to
B) NRM send.
C) ARM A) pure ALOHA
D) NBM B) slotted ALOHA
C) both (a) and (b)
44. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, D) neither (a) nor (b)
configuring, and terminating links.
A) NCP 2. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission
B) LCP time.
C) CHAP A) the same as
D) PAP B) two times
C) three times
45. In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step D) none of the above
process:
A) NCP 3. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.
B) LCP A) 12.2
C) CHAP B) 18.4
D) PAP C) 36.8
46. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in
which the password is kept secret; it is never sent online. 4. In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of
A) NCP the time slot.
B) LCP A) pure ALOHA
C) CHAP B) slotted ALOHA
D) PAP C) both (a) and (b)
5. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission

time.
A) the same as
B) two times
C) three times
6. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.

A) 12.2
B) 18.4
C) 36.8
7. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time.

A) the same as
B) two times
C) three times
8. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends
its frame immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line
until it finds it idle.
A) nonpersistent
B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent
9. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the 17. To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented.
line. If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a A) CSMA/CA
random amount of time and then senses the line again. B) CSMA/CD
A) nonpersistent C) either (a) or (b)
B) 1-persistent D) both (a) and (b)
C) p-persistent
D) none of the above 18. In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies:
the interframe space, the contention window, and acknowledgments.
10. In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or A) CSMA/CA
refrain from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator. If B) CSMA/CD
the line is busy, it tries again. C) either (a) or (b)
A) nonpersistent D) both (a) and (b)
B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent 19. In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which
D) none of the above station has the right to send.
A) random access
11. We have categorized access methods into _______ groups. B) controlled access
A) two C) channelization
B) three D) none of the above
C) four
D) five 20. In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been
authorized by other stations.
12. In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station A) random access
and none is assigned the control over another. B) controlled access
A) random access C) channelization
B) controlled access D) none of the above
C) channelization
D) none of the above 21. We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods.
A) two
13. In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the B) three
medium before trying to use it. C) four
A) MA D) none of the above
B) CSMA
C) FDMA 22. In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before
D) CDMA sending data. Time is divided into intervals.
A) reservation
14. ________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before B) polling
sending. C) token passing
A) MA D) none of the above
B) CSMA
C) FDMA 23. In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a
D) CDMA reservation frame precedes the data frames sent in that interval.
A) reservation
15. __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision. B) polling
A) CSMA/CA C) token passing
B) CSMA/CD D) none of the above
D) both (a) and (b) 24. In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the
primary device even when the ultimate destination is a secondary device.
16. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to A) reservation
see if the transmission was successful. If so, the station is finished. If, B) polling
however, there is a collision, the frame is sent again. C) token passing
A) CSMA/CA D) none of the above
B) CSMA/CD
C) either (a) or (b) 25. In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the
D) both (a) and (b) secondary devices follow its instructions.
A) reservation
B) polling
C) token passing
26. In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a 34. In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send
logical ring. data. Each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot.
A) reservation A) FDMA
B) polling B) TDMA
C) token passing C) CDMA
27. In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a 35. In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot.
successor. A) FDMA
A) reservation B) TDMA
B) polling C) CDMA
C) token passing D) none of the above
36. In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access.
28. In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ A) FDMA
circulates through the ring. B) TDMA
A) reservation: control frame C) CDMA
B) polling: poll request D) none of the above
C) token passing: token
D) none of the above 37. _______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers
called chips.
29. _________ is a multiple-access method in which the available A) FDMA
bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or through code, between B) TDMA
different stations. C) CDMA
A) Random access D) none of the above
B) Controlled access
C) Channelization 38. In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such
D) none of the above the Walsh tables.
A) FDMA
30. We discussed ________ channelization protocols. B) TDMA
A) two C) CDMA
B) three D) none of the above
C) four
31. In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.

A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
32. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other
words, each band is reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the
station all the time.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
33. In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.
A) FDMA
B) TDMA
C) CDMA
CHAPTER 13: WIRED LANs: ETHERNET 9. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD
access method and framing.
1. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 A) LLC
00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111? B) MII
A) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 C) MAC
B) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F D) none of the above
C) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F 10. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address
imprinted on its network interface card (NIC).
2. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a A) 5-byte
______ address. B) 32-bit
A) unicast C) 48-bit
B) multicast D) none of the above
C) broadcast
D) any of the above 11. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes.
A) 32
3. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a B) 80
______ address. C) 128
A) unicast D) none of the above
B) multicast
C) broadcast 12. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes.
D) any of the above A) 1518
B) 1500
4. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination? C) 1200
A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 D) none of the above
B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 13. _________ uses thick coaxial cable.
D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34 A) 10Base5
B) 10Base2
5. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination? C) 10Base-T
A) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 D) 10Base-F
B) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
C) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 14. __________ uses thin coaxial cable.
D) 83:32:21:21:4D:34 A) 10Base5
B) 10Base2
6. _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol. C) 10Base-T
A) Token Ring D) 10Base-F
B) Token Bus
C) Ethernet 15. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a
D) none of the above common hub.
A) 10Base5
7. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access B) 10Base2
method for first-generation 10-Mbps Ethernet. C) 10Base-T
A) 1-persistent D) 10Base-F
B) p-persistent
C) non-persistent 16. ________ uses fiber-optic cable.
D) none of the above A) 10Base5
B) 10Base2
8. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC C) 10Base-T
sublayer. D) 10Base-F
A) data link
B) physical 17. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.
C) network A) 10
C) 1000
D) 10,000
18. In _________, autonegotiation allows two devices to negotiate the 27. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber.
mode or data rate of operation. A) 10GBase-S
A) Standard B) 10GBase-L
B) Fast Ethernet C) 10GBase-E
C) Gigabit Ethernet D) none of the above
D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
28. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber.
19. __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable. A) 10GBase-S
A) 100Base-TX B) 10GBase-L
B) 100Base-FX C) 10GBase-E
C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above
29. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber.
20. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables. A) 10GBase-S
A) 100Base-TX B) 10GBase-L
B) 100Base-FX C) 10GBase-E
30. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the
21. _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair address is _________.
cable. A) unicast
A) 100Base-TX B) multicast
B) 100Base-FX C) broadcast
31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the
22. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. address is _________.
A) 10 A) unicast
B) 100 B) multicast
C) 1000 C) broadcast
D) 10,000 D) none of the above
23. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode. 32. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is
A) half-duplex _________.
B) full-duplex A) unicast
C) both (a) and (b) B) multicast
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) broadcast
24. __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source,
A) 1000Base-SX 33. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to
B) 1000Base-LX that of HDLC.
C) 1000Base-T A) MAC
D) none of the above B) LLC
C) LLU
25.__________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source. D) none of the above
A) 1000Base-SX
B) 1000Base-LX 34. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the
C) 1000Base-T upper-layer protocols that actually demand these services
D) none of the above A) MAC
B) LLC
26. __________ uses four twisted pairs. C) LLU
A) 1000Base-SX D) none of the above
B) 1000Base-LX
C) 1000Base-T 35. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer
D) none of the above and is not (formally) part of the frame.
A) CRC
B) preamble
C) address
36. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection CHAPTER 14: WIRELESS LANs
information.
A) CRC 1. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______,
B) preamble which covers the physical and data link layers.
C) address A) IEEE 802.3
D) none of the above B) IEEE 802.5
C) IEEE 802.11
37. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding D) IEEE 802.2
A) NRZ
B) AMI 2. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations
C) Manchester and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP).
D) differential Manchester A) ESS
B) BSS
38. 100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line C) CSS
coding. D) none of the above
A) 4B/5B; NRZ
B) 8B/10B; NRZ 3. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________.
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 A) an ad hoc architecture
D) 8B/10B; NRZ B) an infrastructure network
39. 100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line D) neither (a) nor (b)
coding.
A) 4B/5B; NRZ-I 4. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as
B) 8B/10B; NRZ ____________.
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 A) an ad hoc architecture
D) 8B/10B; NRZ B) an infrastructure network
40. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) NRZ
B) 8B6T 5. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs
C) MLT-3 usually occurs via two ________.
D) Manchester A) BSSs
B) ESSs
41. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use _________ block C) APs
coding and ________ line coding. D) none of the above
A) 4B/5B; NRZ
B) 8B/10B; NRZ 6. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 moving) or moving only inside a BSS.
D) 8B/10B; NRZ A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
42. 1000Base-T uses ________ line coding. C) ESS-transition
A) 4D-PAM5 D) none of the above
B) 8B6T
C) MLT-3 7. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS
D) Manchester to another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS.
A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS
to another.
A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
9. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be 18. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields.
implemented in an infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network). A) four
A) DCF B) five
B) PCF C) six
C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above
19. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to
10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another ______addresses.
without passing through the distribution system, the address flag is _____ A) four
A) 00 B) five
B) 01 C) six
D) 11
20. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________.
11. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, A) FHSS
the address flag is _______. B) DSSS
A) 00 C) OFDM
B) 01 D) either (a) or (b)
C) 10
D) 11 21. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________.
A) FHSS
12. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address B) DSSS
flag is _____. C) OFDM
A) 00 D) either (a) or (b)
B) 01
C) 10 22. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.
D) 11 A) FHSS
B) DSSS
13. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a C) OFDM
wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____ D) either (a) or (b)
A) 00
B) 01 23. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.
C) 10 A) FHSS
D) 11 B) DSSS
C) OFDM
14. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: D) either (a) or (b)
______ and _______.
A) BSS; ASS 24. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps.
B) ESS; SSS A) 1
C) BSS; ESS B) 6
D) BSS; DCF C) 11
D) 22
15. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is
_________. 25. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps.
A) ALOHA A) 1
B) CSMA/CA B) 2
C) CSMA/CD C) 6
16. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______. 26. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps.
A) contention A) 1
B) controlled B) 2
C) polling C) 5.5
17. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance. 27. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps.
A) NAV A) 1
B) BSS B) 2
C) ESS C) 11
D) none of the above D) 22
28. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames. 37. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC
A) four sublayer in LANs.
B) five A) radio
C) six B) baseband
D) none of the above C) L2CAP
29. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called
gadgets) in a small area. 38. The access method in Bluetooth is ________.
A) wired LAN A) FDMA
B) wireless LAN B) TDD-TDMA
C) VLAN C) CDMA
30. A Bluetooth network is called a ________. 39. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in
A) piconet data delivery) is more important than integrity (error-free delivery).
B) scatternet A) SCO
C) bluenet B) ACL
D) none of the above C) ACO
D) SCL
31. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a
_________. 40. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more
A) scatternet; piconets important than avoiding latency.
B) piconets: scatternet A) SCO
C) piconets: bluenet B) ACL
D) bluenet; scatternet C) ACO
D) SCL
32. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to
____ secondary devices. 41. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid
A) one; five interference from other devices or other networks.
B) five; three A) DSSS
C) two; six B) FHSS
D) one; seven C) FDMA
33. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station
problem. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed
station problem.
A) can; cannot
B) cannot; can
C) can; can
D) cannot; cannot
34. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps

A) 2
B) 5
C) 11
35. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical

layer of the Internet model.
A) radio
B) baseband
C) L2CAP
36. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer

in LANs.
A) radio
B) baseband
C) L2CAP
CHAPTER 15: CONNECTING LANs, BACKBONE NETWORKS, 9. Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________.
and VIRTUAL LANs A) port numbers
B) MAC addresses
1. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of C) IP addresses
the Internet model. D) all of the above
A) physical
B) data link 10. VLANs can_________.
C) network A) reduce network traffic
D) all of the above B) provide an extra measure of security
2. A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has D) both (a) and (b)
no filtering capability.
A) repeater 11. _________ is just a connector.
B) bridge A) An active hub
C) router B) A passive hub
D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b)
3. A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data
link layers of the Internet model. 12. In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where the
A) repeater signals coming from different stations collide; it is the collision point.
B) bridge A) An active hub
C) router B) A passive hub
4. A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically
build its forwarding table. 13. ________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet model is
A) simple below the physical layer.
B) dual A) An active hub
C) transparent B) A passive hub
5. A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless
topology. 14. A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer.
A) binary tree A) passive hub
B) spanning tree B) repeater
C) multiway tree C) bridge
D) none of the above D) router
6. A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected. 15. A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or
A) backbone corrupted, regenerates the original bit pattern. It then sends the refreshed
B) wireless signal.
C) wired A) passive hub
D) none of the above B) repeater
C) bridge
7. A backbone is usually a ______. D) router
A) bus
B) star 16. A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability.
C) either (a) or (b) A) passive hub
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) repeater
C) bridge
8. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by _________. D) router
A) software
B) physical wiring 17. ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create
C) hardware connections between stations in a physical star topology.
D) none of the above A) An active hub
B) A passive hub
18. A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer. 27. Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been
A) passive hub designed to forward the frame as soon as they check the MAC addresses in
B) repeater the header of the frame.
C) bridge A) cut-through
D) router B) go-through
C) come-through
19. A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame. D) none of the above
A) passive hub
B) repeater 28. A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their
C) bridge logical addresses.
D) router A) repeater
B) bridge
20. A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions. C) router
A) passive hub D) none of the above
B) repeater
C) bridge 29. A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a
D) none of the above table that is used for making decisions about the route.
A) repeater
21. A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware B) bridge
of its existence. C) router
A) passive hub D) none of the above
B) repeater
C) simple bridge 30. A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router.
D) transparent bridge A) two-layer
B) three-layer
22. IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a transparent C) four-layer
bridges. D) none of the above
A) two
B) three 31. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of
C) four the Internet model or seven layers of OSI model.
D) none of the above A) repeater
B) bridge
23. A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____. C) router
A) node D) gateway
B) branch
C) loop 32. A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks
D) arc that use different models.
A) repeater
24. In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which B) bridge
each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path only. C) router
A) spanning tree D) gateway
B) binary tree
C) unary tree 33. In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch.
D) none of the above A) bus
B) ring
25. A three-layer switch is a kind of ________. C) star
A) repeater D) none of the above
B) bridge
C) router 34. A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected by
D) none of the above remote bridges.
A) point-to-point
26. A two-layer switch is a ______. B) multipoint
A) repeater C) multidrop
B) bridge D) none of the above
C) router
D) none of the above 35. VLANs create _________ domains.
A) unicast
B) multicast
C) broadcast
36. In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port CHAPTER 16: WIRELESS LANs: CELLULAR TELEPHONE AND
numbers, the IP addresses, or other characteristics, using the VLAN software. SATELLITE NETWORKS
A) manual
B) automatic 1. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.
C) semiautomatic A) AMPS
D) none of the above B) D-AMPS
C) GSM
37. In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically connected or D) none of the above
disconnected from a VLAN using criteria defined by the administrator.
A) manual 2. __________ is a second-generation cellular phone system.
B) automatic A) AMPS
C) semiautomatic B) D-AMPS
D) none of the above C) GSM
38. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with
migrations done automatically. 3. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS.
A) manual A) GSM
B) automatic B) D-AMPS
C) semiautomatic C) IS-95
4. ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in

Europe.
A) GSM
B) D-AMPS
C) IS-95
5. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA

and DSSS.
A) GSM
B) D-AMPS
C) IS-95
6. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal

communication.
A) first-generation
B) second-generation
C) third-generation
7. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base

station.
A) hard
B) soft
C) medium
8. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base

stations at the same time.
A) hard
B) soft
C) medium
9. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA. 19. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization.
A) AMPS A) GPS
B) D-AMPS B) Teledesic
C) GSM C) Iridium
10. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band. 20. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____.
A) 800-MHz A) 1
B) 900-MHz B) 3
C) 1800-MHz C) 5
D) none of the above D) 7
11. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels. 21. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA.
A) 800 A) IMT-DS
B) 900 B) IMT-MC
C) 1000 C) IMT-TC
D) none of the above D) IMT-SC
12. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______. 22. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000.
A) 1 A) IMT-DS
B) 3 B) IMT-MC
C) 5 C) IMT-TC
D) 7 D) IMT-SC
13. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. 23. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of
A) FDMA W-CDMA and TDMA.
B) TDMA A) IMT-DS
C) CDMA B) IMT-MC
D) none of the above C) IMT-TC
D) IMT-SC
14. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels.
A) FDMA 24. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA.
B) TDMA A) IMT-DS
C) CDMA B) IMT-MC
D) both (a) and (b) C) IMT-TC
D) IMT-SC
15. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.
A) 1 25. The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a
B) 3 complete trip around the Earth, is determined by _________ law.
C) 5 A) Kepler's
D) 7 B) Newton's
C) Ohm's
16. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________. D) none of the above
A) FDMA
B) TDMA 26. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the
C) CDMA _________.
D) both (a) and (b) A) path
B) effect
17. IS-95 is based on ____________. C) footprint
A) FDMA D) none of the above
B) CDMA
C) DSSS 27. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite.
D) all of the above A) one
B) two
18. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band. C) many
A) 800-MHz D) none of the above
B) 900-MHz
C) 1900-MHz
D) either (a) or (c)
28. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km. 37. Teledesic satellites are _________satellites.
A) 3000 and 5000 A) GEO
B) 5000 and 10,000 B) MEO
C) 5000 and 15,000 C) LEO
29. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km. 38. ________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access.
A) 1000 A) GPS
B) 2000 B) Iridium
C) 3000 C) Teledesic
30. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration.

A) GPS
B) Teledesic
C) Iridium
31. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits.

A) equatorial
B) polar
C) inclined
32. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth.
A) equatorial
B) polar
C) inclined
33. GPS satellites are ________ satellites.

A) GEO
B) MEO
C) LEO
34. ________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles
and ships.
A) GPS
B) Iridium
C) Teledesic
35. Iridium satellites are ________satellites.

A) GEO
B) MEO
C) LEO
36. ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data
communications for handheld terminals.
A) GPS
B) Iridium
C) Teledesic
CHAPTER 17: SONET/SDH 10. In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds.
A) 20
1. _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-optic networks. B) 64
A) SONET C) 128
B) SDH D) none of the above
D) neither (a) nor (b) 11. An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows
A) 1
2. _______ is a standard developed by ITU-T. B) 9
A) SONET C) 90
B) SDH D) none of the above
D) neither (a) nor (b) 12. An STS-1 frame is made ______columns
A) 1
3. SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. B) 9
A) STSs C) 90
B) STMs D) none of the above
D) neither (a) nor (b) 13. An STS-3 frame is made of ______ rows.
A) 1
4. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. B) 9
A) STSs C) 27
B) STMs D) none of the above
D) neither (a) nor (b) 14. An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns.
A) 9
5. An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal. B) 90
A) OC-n C) 270
B) TDM-n D) none of the above
C) FDM-n
D) none of the above 15. SONET network topologies can be __________.
A) linear
6. SONET defines _______ layers. B) ring
A) two C) mesh
B) three D) all of the above
C) four
D) five 16. A linear SONET network can be __________.
A) point-to-point
7. SONET is a _______ TDM system. B) multipoint
A) asynchronous C) either (a) or (b)
B) synchronous D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) statistical
D) none of the above 17. A ring SONET network can be _________.
A) unidirectional
8. A SONET system can use _________. B) bidirectional.
A) STS multiplexers C) either (a) or (b)
B) regenerators D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) add/drop multiplexers
D) all of the above 18. To make SONET backward-compatible with the current hierarchy, its frame
design includes a system of.
9. SONET sends ________ frames per second A) OCs
A) 1000 B) STMs
B) 2000 C) STSs
C) 4000 D) VTs
D) 8000
19. A ________ is a repeater.
A) regenerator
B) ADM
C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexer
20. __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals. 29. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device.
A) regenerators A) one-layer
B) ADMs B) two-layer
C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexers C) three-layer
D) none of the above D) four-layer
21. A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices. 30. A regenerator is a ________ device.
A) section A) one-layer
B) line B) two-layer
C) path C) three-layer
D) none of the above D) four-layer
22. A ______ is the portion of the network between two multiplexers. 31. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted __________.
A) section A) from left to the right, top to bottom
B) line B) from right to the left, bottom to top
C) path C) from left to the right, bottom to top
D) none of the above D) from right to the left, top to bottom
23. A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS 32. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________.
multiplexers. A) from least significant to the most significant
A) section B) from most significant to the least
B) line significant
C) path C) two at a time
D) none of the above D) three at a time
24. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal from its 33. Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice channel.
optical source to its optical destination. A) bit
A) section B) byte
B) line C) frame
C) path D) none of the above
D) photonic
34. The section overhead consists of ______octets.
25. The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a A) 1
physical line. B) 6
A) section C) 9
B) line D) 18
C) path
D) photonic 35. Line overhead consists of ________ bytes.
A) 1
26. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a B) 6
physical section. C) 9
A) section D) 18
B) line
C) path 36. The path overhead consists of ______ bytes.
D) photonic A) 1
B) 6
27. The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI model. C) 9
A) section D) 18
B) line
C) path 37. In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working line and
D) photonic one protection line. Both lines are active all the time.
A) one-plus-one
28. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device. B) one-to-one
A) one-layer C) one-to-many
B) two-layer D) none of the above
C) three-layer
D) four-layer
38. In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection line. The CHAPTER 18: VIRTUAL-CIRCUIT NETWORKS: FRAME
data are normally sent on the working line until it fails. RELAY AND ATM
A) one-plus-one
B) one-to-one 1. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in
C) one-to-many response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early
D) none of the above 1990s.
A) X.25
39. In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many working B) Frame Relay
lines. When a failure occurs in one of the working lines, the protection line C) ATM
takes control until the failed line is repaired. D) none of the above
A) one-plus-one
B) one-to-one 2. Frame Relay provides ________.
C) one-to-many A) PVCs
D) none of the above B) SVCs
3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______.

A) PVC
B) SVC
C) DLCIs
4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry

is recorded for all switches by the administrator
A) PVC
B) SVC
5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and

terminating phases
A) a PVC
B) an SVC
6. Frame Relay has _______.

A) only the physical layer
B) only the data link
C) the physical and data link layers
D) the physical, data link, and network layers
7. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports
_____control.
A) flow
B) error
8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes.

A) only 2
B) 2 to 3
C) 2 to 4
9. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in 18. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes.
the last byte of the address. A) 40
A) 0 B) 50
B) 1 C) 52
C) 2 D) 53
D) 3
19. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-
10. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device size packets.
called a _________. A) X.25
A) VOFR B) Frame Relay
B) FRAD C) ATM
C) MUX D) all of the above
20. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch.
11. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that A) UNI
sends voice through the network. B) NNI
A) VOFR C) NNN
B) FRAD D) None of the above
C) MUX
D) none of the above 21. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches.
A) UNI
12. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding B) NNI
Forum and adopted by the ITU-T. C) NNN
A) X.25 D) none of the above
B) Frame Relay
C) ATM 22. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through
D) none of the above _______.
A) TPs
13. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information. B) VPs
A) frame C) VCs
B) packet D) all of the above
C) cell
D) none of the above 23. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer
services and maps them into ATM cells.
14. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________. A) physical
A) VPI B) ATM
B) VCI C) AAL
C) DLCI D) none of the above
D) a combination of (a) and (b)
24. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management,
15. The ATM standard defines ______ layers. switching, and multiplexing services.
A) two A) physical
B) three B) ATM
C) four C) AAL
D) five D) none of the above
16. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length. 25. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit
A) 8 transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation.
B) 12 A) physical
C) 16 B) ATM layer
D) 24 C) AAL
17. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length.
A) 8 26. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers.
B) 12 A) two
C) 16 B) three
D) 24 C) four
27. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data. CHAPTER 19: NETWORK LAYER: LOGICAL ADDRESSING
A) AAL1
B) AAL2 1. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.
C) AAL3/4 A) 4
D) AAL5 B) 8
C) 32
28. In ATM, _______is for short packets. D) 64
A) AAL1
B) AAL2 2. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each
C) AAL3/4 block.
D) AAL5 A) A
B) B
29. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit C) C
approach or datagram approach). D) D
A) AAL1
B) AAL2 3. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7.
C) AAL3/4 A) A
D) AAL5 B) B
C) C
30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error D) none of the above
control mechanism.
A) AAL1 4. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3.
B) AAL2 A) A
C) AAL3/4 B) B
D) AAL5 C) D
31. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN).
A) X.25 5. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3.
B) Frame Relay A) A
C) ATM B) B
D) none of the above C) C
32. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations.
A) pure 6. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15?
B) legacy A) 255
C) mixed architecture B) 15
33. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs
uses ATM technology. 7. What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15?
A) pure A) 255
B) legacy B) 15
C) mixed architecture C) 0
34. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy 8. What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15?
ATM LAN. A) 254
A) pure B) 14
B) legacy C) 0
C) mixed architecture D) none of the above
9. What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65?
A) 192
B) 65
C) 64
10. Which one is not a contiguous mask? 19. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the
A) 255.255.255.254 addresses is 12.2.2.76/27?
B) 255.255.224.0 A) 12.2.2.0
C) 255.148.0.0 B) 12.2.2.32
D) all are C) 12.2.2.64
11. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______.
A) 65,534 20. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the
B) 16,777,216 addresses is 12.2.2.76/10?
C) 256 A) 12.0.0.0
D) none of the above B) 12.2.0.0
C) 12.2.2.2
12. The number of addresses in a class B block is _______. D) none of the above
A) 65,536
B) 16,777,216 21. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the
C) 256 addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?
D) none of the above A) 12.2.2.0
B) 12.2.2.96
13. The number of addresses in a class A block is _______. C) 12.2.2.112
A) 65,534 D) none of the above
B) 16,777,216
C) 256 22. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of
D) none of the above the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24.
A) 32
14. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless B) 64
addressing _______. C) 256
A) can be any number D) none of the above
B) must be a multiple of 256
C) must be a power of 2 23. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of
D) none of the above the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30.
A) 2
15. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing B) 4
_______. C) 8
A) must be a power of 4 D) none of the above
B) must be evenly divisible by the number of
addresses 24. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the
C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?
B) 12.2.2.112
16. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless C) 12.2.2.127
addresses? D) none of the above
A) 2.4.6.5
B) 2.4.6.16 25. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the
C) 2.4.6.64 addresses is 12.2.2.6/30?
B) 12.2.2.6
17. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless C) 12.2.2.7
A) 2.4.6.5
B) 2.4.6.15 26. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The
C) 2.4.6.62 organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length?
D) none of the above A) /20
B) /24
18. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless C) /25
A) 2.4.6.5
B) 2.4.6.15
C) 2.4.6.0
27. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the 36. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the
subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets? _____________.
A) 2 A) netid
B) 4 B) hostid
C) 8 C) mask
28. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting 37. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask?
address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted? A) 255.255.255.0
A) 8 B) 255.255.242.0
B) 16 C) 255.255.0.0
38. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask?
29. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting A) 255.254.0.0
address 199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted? B) 255.255.255.0
A) 8 C) 255.255.255.128
B) 16 D) none of the above
C) 32
D) none of the above 39. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length?
A) /20
30. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting B) /28
address 199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted? C) /18
B) 16
C) 32 40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long.
B) 64
31. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation? C) 128
A) /9 D) none of the above
B) /8
C) /16 41. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets);
B) 8
32. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation? C) 16
A) /9 D) none of the above
B) /8
C) /16 42. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies
D) none of the above ____________notation.
A) dotted decimal
33. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation? B) hexadecimal colon
A) /24 C) both a and b
B) /8 D) none of the above
C) /16
D) none of the above 43. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into
_______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length.
34. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common A) 8: 2
part of the address range. B) 8: 3
A) suffix C) 8: 4
B) prefix D) none of the above
C) netid
D) none of the above 44. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons.
A) 8
35. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the B) 7
hostid). C) 4
A) suffix D) none of the above
B) prefix
C) hostid
45. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits. 54. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses
A) 16 the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security
B) 32 reasons.
C) 8 A) link local
D) none of the above B) site local
C) mapped
46. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer. D) none of the above
A) a unicast
B) a multicast
C) an anycast
47. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that
have the same prefix.
A) a unicast
B) a multicast
C) an anycast
48. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers.

A) a unicast
B) a multicast
C) an anycast
49. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address.
A) type
B) purpose
C) both a and b
50. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host

as a unicast address.
A) provider-based unicast
B) link local
C) site local
51. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by

16 bits of one, followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address.
A) link local
B) site local
C) mapped
52. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero

followed by 32 bits of IPv4 address.
A) link local
B) site local
C) mapped
53. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols
but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons.
A) link local
B) site local
C) mapped
CHAPTER 20: NETWORK LAYER: INTERNET PROTOCOL 9. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram?
A) Base header
1. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______. B) Extension header
A) error checking C) Data packet from the upper layer
B) error correction D) (a) and (c)
C) datagram acknowledgment
D) none of the above 10. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a
datagram.
2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. A) version
A) there are 10 bytes of options B) next-header
B) there are 40 bytes of options C) hop limit
C) there are 10 bytes in the header D) neighbor-advertisement
D) there are 40 bytes in the header
11. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the
3. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is TCP/IP suite.
28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes? A) ARP
A) 428 B) IP
B) 407 C) RARP
D) 427
12. IP is _________ datagram protocol.
4. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and A) an unreliable
total length value of 40,000? B) a connectionless
A) 39,988 C) both a and b
B) 40,012 D) none of the above
C) 40,048
D) 39,952 13. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or
tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its
5. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the best to get a transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees.
following is true? A) reliable delivery
A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three B) connection-oriented delivery
datagrams. C) best-effort delivery
B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three D) none of the above
datagrams.
C) The identification field is the same for all 14. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.
three datagrams. A) there are 10 bytes of options
D) The offset field is the same for all three B) there are 40 bytes of options
datagrams. C) there are 40 bytes in the header
6. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that
_______. 15. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as
A) the datagram has not been fragmented a fragment?
B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size A) Do not fragment bit ? 0
C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 100 B) More Fragment bit ? 0
D) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 C) Fragment offset = 1000
7. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a
fragment? 16. The IPv4 header size _______.
A) Identification number A) is 20 to 60 bytes long
B) Offset number B) is 20 bytes long
C) Total length C) is 60 bytes long
D) (b) and (c) D) none of the above
8. The IPv4 header size _______. 17. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the
A) is 20 to 60 bytes long datagram must be less than the _______.
B) is always 20 bytes long A) MUT
C) is always 60 bytes long B) MAT
D) depends on the MTU C) MTU
18. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now CHAPTER 21: NETWORK LAYER: ADDRESS MAPPING,
called the _______ field. ERROR REPORTING, AND MULTICASTING
A) IETF
B) checksum 1. A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal
C) differentiated services jurisdiction.
D) none of the above A) physical
B) logical
19. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the C) a and b
___________ data. D) none of the above
A) base header; extension header
B) base header; upper-layer data 2. The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses.
C) base header; frame header A) port
D) none of the above B) IP
C) Email
20. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4. D) none of the above
A) more
B) less 3. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network.
C) the same level A) physical
D) none of the above B) logical
C) a and b
21. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, D) none of the above
the decision is based on the _______ field in the base header.
A) hop limit 4. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the
B) priority same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address
C) next header is ______.
D) none of the above A) the destination IP address in the
datagram header
22. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP B) the IP address of the router found in the routing
address combine to indicate a unique path identifier for a specific flow of table
data. C) either a or b
A) flow label D) none of the above
B) next header
C) hop limit 5. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on
D) destination IP address another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical
address is ______.
A) the destination IP address in the datagram
header
B) the IP address of the router found in the
routing table
C) either a or b
6. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on
another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical
address is ______.
A) the destination IP address in the datagram
header
B) the IP address of the router found in the
routing table
C) either a or b
7. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on 16. ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories:
the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical _____________.
address is ______. A) query and error reporting messages
A) the destination IP address in the B) request and response messages
datagram header C) request and reply messages
B) the IP address of the router found in the routing D) none of the above
table
C) either a or b 17. An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section.
D) none of the above A) a 16-byte
B) a 32-byte
8. In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address C) an 8-byte
is updated manually. D) none of the above
A) static mapping
B) dynamic mapping 18. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?
C) physical mapping A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an
D) none of the above ICMP error message.
B) An ICMP error message may be generated for
9. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is each fragment.
found for a given logical address. C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a
A) ARP multicast datagram.
B) RARP D) none is true
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 19. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?
A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an
10. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP ICMP error message.
request. B) An ICMP error message may be generated
A) 0x000000000000 only for the first fragment.
B) 0.0.0.0 C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a
C) variable multicast datagram.
D) class dependent D) none is true
11. An ARP reply is normally _______. 20. IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol.
A) broadcast A) UDP
B) multicast B) TCP
C) unicast C) ICM
12. An ARP request is normally _______. 21. IGMP is _______ protocol.

A) broadcast A) an error reporting
B) multicast B) a group management
C) unicast C) a transmission
13. A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect. 22. IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal
A) ARP members related to each router interface.
B) RARP A) broadcast
C) proxy ARP B) unicast
D) none of the above C) multicast
14. A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts.
A) ARP 23. IGMP operates __________.
B) RARP A) locally
C) proxy ARP B) globally
D) none of the above C) both a and b
15. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol.
A) data link
B) transport
C) network
24. An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______. 33. An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet.
A) host; host A) UDP
B) host; router B) IP
C) router; host or router C) Ethernet frame
25. The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave 34. The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its
report. protocol field.
A) general query message A) 3
B) special query message B) 2
C) membership report C) 1
26. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a

________.
A) multicast router
B) host
C) multicast group
27. The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query
message.
A) version
B) type
C) group address
28. A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______.

A) one source; one destination
B) one source; multiple destinations
C) multiple sources; one destination
29. In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing,

multicasting can be accomplished through _______.
A) mapping
B) queries
C) tunneling
30. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of

_______ sent in response to a general query message.
A) one membership report is
B) two membership reports are
C) three membership reports are
31. In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______.

A) once
B) twice
C) three times
32. In IGMP, the general query message ___________________

group.
A) does not define a particular
B) explicitly defines a
C) can define more than one
CHAPTER 22: NETWORK LAYER: DELIVERY, FORWARDING, 9. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the
AND ROUTING routing tables.
A) reduce
1. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the B) increase
destination are on the same network. C) both a and b
A) a connectionless D) none of the above
B) a direct
C) an indirect 10. _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing
D) none of the above tables.
A) Forwarding
2. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination B) Routing
are on different networks. C) Directing
A) a connection-oriented D) None of the above
B) a direct
C) an indirect 11. A _______ routing table contains information entered manually.
D) none of the above A) static
B) dynamic
3. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in C) hierarchical
the routing table. D) none of the above
A) next-hop
B) network-specific 12. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the
C) host-specific dynamic routing protocols.
D) default A) static
B) dynamic
4. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both C) hierarchical
0.0.0.0 in the routing table. D) none of the above
A) next-hop
B) network-specific 13. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer
C) host-specific functions of the router.
D) default A) physical and data link
B) network
5. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in C) transport
the routing table. D) none of the above
A) next-hop
B) network-specific 14. The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer
C) host-specific functions of the router.
D) default A) physical and data link
B) network
6. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the C) transport
next hop instead of complete route information. D) none of the above
A) next-hop
B) network-specific 15. The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in
C) host-specific a router is done by _________.
D) default A) input and output ports
B) routing processor
7. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in C) switching fabrics
routing table entries when using ________. D) none of the above
A) classful addressing
B) classless addressing 16. A static table is one _______.
C) both a and b A) with manual entries
D) none of the above B) which is updated automatically
C) either a or b
8. The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from D) none of the above
the longest mask to the shortest mask.
A) first mask matching 17. A dynamic table is one _______.
B) shortest mask matching A) with manual entries
C) longest mask matching B) which is updated automatically
D) none of the above C) either a or b
18. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________. 27. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing
A) wide area networks table.
B) autonomous networks A) distance vector
C) autonomous systems B) link state
D) none of the above C) path vector
19. ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the
authority of a single administration. 28. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing
A) An autonomous system protocol based on _______ routing.
B) An area A) distance vector
C) a and b B) link state
20. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as
_______________. 29. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called
A) interdomain routing the metric, to each route.
B) intradomain routing A) OSPF
C) both a and b B) RIP
D) none of the above C) BGP
21. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as
____________. 30. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host
A) interdomain routing or router in between.
B) intradomain routing A) point-to-point
C) both a and b B) transient
D) none of the above C) stub
22. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the
route with the minimum distance. 31. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to
A) path vector it.
B) distance vector A) point-to-point
C) link state B) transient
23. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum
distances to every node. 32. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router.
A) path vector A) point-to-point
B) distance vector B) transient
C) link state C) stub
24. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table 33. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration
with _________ and whenever there is a change. may create a _________ link between them using a longer path that
A) every other node probably goes through several routers.
B) its immediate neighbors A) point-to-point
C) one neighbor B) transient
25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on
_________ routing. 34. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in
A) distance vector each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous
B) link state system.
C) path vector A) distant vector
D) none of the above B) path vector
C) link state
26. The metric used by _______ is the hop count. D) none of the above
A) OSPF
B) RIP
C) BGP
35. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector 43. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and
routing. may create long delays.
A) BGP A) unicasting; multiple unicasting
B) RIP B) multicasting; multiple unicasting
C) OSPF C) broadcasting; multicasting
36. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an 44. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a
________ message. ______ path tree to possible destinations.
A) open A) average
B) update B) longest
C) keepalive C) shortest
37. An area is _______. 45. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a
A) part of an AS ________ path tree for each group.
B) composed of at least two ASs A) average
C) another term for an AS B) longest
D) none of the above C) shortest
38. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a
network is classified as a _______ communication. 46. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest
A) unicast path tree for each group.
B) multicast A) group-shared
C) broadcast B) source-based
D) none of the above C) a or b
39. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of
hosts is classified as a _______ communication. 47. In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in
A) unicast multicasting.
B) multicast A) only the core router is
C) broadcast B) all routers are
D) none of the above C) only some routers are
40. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is
classified as a _______ communication. 48. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach.
A) unicast A) source-based
B) multicast B) group-shared
C) broadcast C) a or b
41. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of 49. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of
its interfaces. the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees.
A) unicasting The protocol is based on _______ routing.
B) multicasting A) distance vector
C) broadcasting B) link state
42. In _______, the router may forward the received packet through
several of its interfaces. 50. MOSPF is a _______ protocol.
A) unicasting A) data-driven
B) multicasting B) command-driven
C) broadcasting C) both a and b
51. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems.

A) Forwarding
B) Flooding
C) Backwarding
52. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ 61. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______.
path from the source to the router. A) RPF
A) shortest B) RPB
B) longest C) RPM
C) average D) none of the above
62. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast
53. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. messages for a specific group through a specific router.
A) forwarding A) weed
B) backwarding B) graft
C) flooding C) prune
54. RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast 63. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast
packet. messages for a specific group through a specific router.
A) one copy A) weed
B) two copies B) graft
C) a or b C) prune
55. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each 64. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree.
destination. A) source-based
A) unicast B) group-shared
B) multicast C) a or b
C) broadcast D) none of the above
65. PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN.
56. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the A) dense
packet. B) sparse
A) one copy C) a or b
B) no copies D) none of the above
C) multiple copies
D) none of the above 66. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN.
A) dense
57. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that B) sparse
have active members for that particular group. C) a or b
A) RPF D) none of the above
B) RPB
C) RPM 67. In _______, a logical tunnel is established by encapsulating the
D) none of the above multicast packet inside a unicast packet.
A) UNIBONE
58. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast B) MULTBONE
shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership changes. C) MBONE
A) RPM; RPB D) none of the above
B) RPB; RPM
C) RPF: RPM
59. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector

routing. It is a source-based routing protocol, based on RIP.
A) MOSPF
B) DVMRP
C) CBT
60. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP.

A) source-based
B) group-shared
C) both a and b
CHAPTER 23: PROCESS-TO-PROCESS DELIVERY: UDP, TCP, 9. In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the _______ layer.
AND SCTP A) application
B) transport
1. One of the responsibilities of the transport layer protocol is to create a C) IP
______ communication. D) none of the above
A) host-to-host
B) process-to-process 10. UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols.
C) node-to-node A) data link
D) none of the above B) network
C) transport
2. UDP is called a ________________transport protocol. D) none of the above
A) connectionless, reliable
B) connection-oriented, unreliable 11. Which of the following functions does UDP perform?
C) connectionless, unreliable A) process-to-process communication
D) none of the above B) host-to-host communication
C) end-to-end reliable data delivery
3. UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing D) none of the above
_______ communication.
A) node-to-node 12. When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, _______.
B) process-to-process A) delivery is complete
C) host-to-host B) a transport layer protocol takes over
D) none of the above C) a header is added
4. UDP is an acronym for _______.
A) User Delivery Protocol 13. UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user datagram to the
B) User Datagram Procedure correct application process.
C) User Datagram Protocol A) port
D) none of the above B) application
C) internet
5. Although there are several ways to achieve process-to-process D) none of the above
communication, the most common is through the __________ paradigm.
A) client-server 14. A port address in UDP is _______bits long.
B) client-client A) 8
C) server-server B) 16
D) any of the above
6. The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To
define the processes, we need second identifiers called ____________. 15. Which of the following does UDP guarantee?
A) UDP addresses A) flow control
B) transport addresses B) connection-oriented delivery
C) port addresses C) flow control
7. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or 16. The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines
private port numbers. They are called the ________ ports. _______.
A) well-known A) the sending computer
B) registered B) the receiving computer
C) dynamic C) the process running on the sending
D) none of the above computer
8. In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the _______
layer. 17. The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a
A) application ____________.
B) transport A) transport address
C) IP B) network address
D) none of the above C) socket address
18. To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses. 27. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a
A) four ___________.
B) two A) user datagram
C) three B) segment
D) none of the above C) datagram
19. UDP packets are called __________.
A) user datagrams 28. TCP is a ___________ protocol.
B) segments A) connection-oriented
C) frames B) connectionless
20. UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes.
A) 16 29. TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol.
B) 8 A) unreliable
C) 40 B) best-effort delivery
D) none of the above C) reliable
21. UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________.
A) an Ethernet frame 30. TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival
B) an TCP segment of data.
C) an IP datagram A) an acknowledgment mechanism
D) none of the above B) out-of-band signalling
C) the services of another protocol
22. UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple D) none of the above
processes on one host.
A) flow control 31. The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by
B) multiplexing TCP. The numbering starts with a __________________.
C) demultiplexing A) 0
C) randomly generated number
23. UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user datagrams that go to D) none of the above
different processes on the same host.
A) flow control 32. TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The
B) multiplexing sequence number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte
C) demultiplexing carried in that segment.
D) none of the above A) first
B) last
24. TCP is a __________protocol. C) middle
A) stream-oriented D) none of the above
B) message-oriented
C) block-oriented 33. Communication in TCP is ___________.
D) none of the above A) simplex
B) half-duplex
25. TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a _______of bytes C) full-duplex
and allows the receiving process to obtain data as a _________ of bytes. D) none of the above
A) message; message
B) stream; stream 34. The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment defines the number
C) block; block of the ______byte a party expects to receive.
D) none of the above A) first
B) last
26. Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write or read C) next
data at the same speed, TCP ________. D) none of the above
A) speeds up the slower process
B) slows down the faster process 35. The acknowledgment number is ________.
C) uses buffers A) independent
D) none of the above B) randomly generated
C) cumulative
36. The value of the window size is determined by _________. 45. The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry
A) the sender data.
B) the receiver A) two
C) both the sender and receiver B) three
D) none of the above C) no
37. The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________.
A) optional 46. The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does
B) mandatory not carry data.
C) at the discretion of the application program A) two
D) none of the above B) three
C) one
38. A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________. D) none of the above
A) an IP datagram
B) an Ethernet frame 47. In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is
C) a UDP user datagram called a ______.
D) none of the above A) half-close
B) half-open
39. Connection establishment in TCP is called __________ handshaking. C) one-way termination
A) two-way D) none of the above
B) four-way
C) one-way 48. A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes through a limited
D) none of the above number of states.
A) infinite state
40. A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence B) finite state
number(s). C) both a and b
A) no D) none of the above
B) one
C) two 49. __________ control regulates the amount of data a source can send
D) none of the above before receiving an acknowledgment from the destination.
A) Error
41. A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence B) Flow
number(s). C) Congestion
B) three
C) two 50. To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a ___________ window
D) none of the above protocol.
A) limited-size
42. An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence B) sliding
number(s). C) fixed-size
B) one
C) two 51. TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented.
D) none of the above A) packet
B) segment
43. The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious C) byte
security problem called the _________ attack. D) none of the above
A) ACK flooding
B) FIN flooding 52. ACK segments consume _______ sequence number(s) and _______
C) SYN flooding acknowledged.
D) none of the above A) no; are not
B) one; are not
44. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a C) no; are
_____ attack. D) none of the above
A) denial of service
B) replay 53. TCP delivers _______ out-of-order segments to the process.
C) man-in-the middle A) all
D) none of the above B) no
C) some
54. IP is responsible for _______ communication while TCP is responsible 63. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________.
for _______ communication. A) a TSN
A) host-to-host; process-to-process B) an SI
B) process-to-process; host-to-host C) an SSN
C) process-to-process; network-to-network D) none of the above
64. To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________.
55. If a segment carries data along with an acknowledgment, this is called A) a TSN
_______. B) an SI
A) backpacking C) an SSN
B) piggybacking D) none of the above
C) piggypacking
D) none of the above 65. To distinguish between different data chunks belonging to the same
stream, SCTP uses ___________.
56. Multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of A) TSNs
bytes in the TCP header. B) SIs
A) 2 C) SSNs
B) 4 D) none of the above
C) 6
D) none of the above 66. TCP has ____________; SCTP has ____________.
A) packets; segments
57. Urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit in the B) segments; packets
_______ field. C) segments; frames
A) control D) none of the above
B) offset
C) sequence number 67. The control information in SCTP is included in the ________.
D) none of the above A) header control field
B) control chunks
58. The options field of the TCP header ranges from 0 to _______ bytes. C) data chunks
B) 20
C) 40 68. An SCTP packet can carry __________.
D) none of the above A) only one data chunk
B) several data chunks
59. If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received C) no data chunks
successfully. D) none of the above
A) 199
B) 200 69. In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window size are part of each
C) 201 ________.
D) none of the above A) data chunk
B) control chunk
60. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new C) a or b
_____________protocol. D) none of the above
A) reliable, character-oriented
B) reliable, message-oriented 70. There is no need for a header length field in SCTP because
C) unreliable, message-oriented ________________.
D) none of the above A) there are no options in the general header
B) the size of the header is fixed
61. SCTP allows __________ service in each association. C) both a and b
A) single stream D) none of the above
B) multistream
C) double stream 71. The checksum in SCTP is ________ bits.
B) 32
62. SCTP association allows _____________ for each end. C) 64
A) only one IP address D) none of the above
B) multiple IP addresses
C) only two IP address
72. The association identifier in SCTP is __________________. CHAPTER 24: CONGESTION CONTROL AND QUALITY OF
A) a unique verification tag SERVICE
B) a combination of logical and port addresses
C) either a or b 1. In ________ we try to avoid traffic congestion.
D) none of the above A) congestion control
B) quality of service
73. In SCTP, control information and data information are carried in C) either (a) or (b)
_______ chunks. D) both (a) and (b)
A) the same chunk
B) different chunks 2. In _________, we try to create an appropriate environment for the
C) either a or b traffic.
D) none of the above A) congestion control
B) quality of service
74. In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to acknowledge C) either (a) or (b)
_____________. D) both (a) and (b)
A) both data chunks and control chunks
B) only control chunks 3. Traffic ______ are qualitative values that represent a data flow.
C) only data chunks A) controls
D) none of the above B) descriptors
C) values
75. In an SCTP packet, control chunks come ___________ data chunks. D) none of the above
A) after
B) before 4. The _______ defines the maximum data rate of the traffic.
C) a or b A) peak data rate
D) none of the above B) maximum burst size
C) effective bandwidth
76. In SCTP, ___________ can be carried in a packet that carries an INIT D) none of the above
chunk.
A) only data chunks 5. The________ normally refers to the maximum length of time the traffic
B) only control chunks is generated at the peak rate.
C) no other chunk A) peak data rate
D) none of the above B) maximum burst size
77. A connection in SCTP is called an ____________. D) none of the above
A) negotiation
B) association 6. The ________ is a function of three values: average data rate, peak
C) transmission data rate, and maximum burst size.
D) none of the above A) peak data rate
B) maximum burst size
7. A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does not change.
A) constant bit rate
B) variable bit rate
C) bursty
8. In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow changes in time,
with the changes smooth instead of sudden and sharp.
A) constant bit rate
B) variable bit rate
C) bursty
9. In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes suddenly in a very 18. The technique of ________refers to a congestion control mechanism in
short time. which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream
A) constant bit rate node or nodes.
B) variable bit rate A) backpressure
C) bursty B) choke packet
D) none of the above C) implicit signaling
D) explicit signaling
10. _______ happens in any system that involves waiting.
A) Congestion 19. A ___________ is a packet sent by a node to the source to inform it
B) Jamming of congestion.
C) Error A) backpressure
D) none of the above B) choke packet
C) implicit signaling
11. Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs because routers and D) explicit signaling
switches have _______.
A) tables 20. In __________, there is no communication between the congested
B) queues node or nodes and the source. The source guesses that there is a congestion
C) crosspoints somewhere in the network from other symptoms.
D) none of the above A) backpressure
B) choke packet
12. In a network, when the load is much less than the capacity of the network, C) implicit signaling
the delay is _________. D) explicit signaling
A) at a maximum
B) at a minimum 21. In the __________ method, the signal is included in the packets that
C) constant carry data.
D) none of the above A) backpressure
B) choke packet
13. In a network, when the load reaches the network capacity, the delay C) implicit signaling
_______. D) explicit signaling
A) increases sharply
B) decreases sharply 22. In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window
C) remains constant increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
D) cannot be predicted A) slow-start
B) congestion avoidance
14. In a network, when the load is below the capacity of the network, the C) congestion detection
throughput ______________. D) none of the above
A) increases sharply
B) increases proportionally with the load 23. In the _________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window
C) declines sharply increases additively until congestion is detected.
D) declines proportionally with the load A) slow-start
B) congestion avoidance
15. In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput _______. C) congestion detection
A) increases sharply D) none of the above
B) increases proportionally with the load
C) declines sharply 24. In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the threshold is
D) declines proportionally with the load dropped to one-half, a multiplicative decrease.
A) slow-start
16. In ________ congestion control, policies are applied to prevent B) congestion avoidance
congestion before it happens. C) congestion detection
A) open-loop D) none of the above
B) closed-loop
C) either (a) or (b) 25. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit warns the sender of congestion in
D) neither (a) nor (b) the network.
A) BECN
17. In _______ congestion control, mechanisms are used to alleviate B) FECN
congestion after it happens. C) either (a) or (b)
A) open-loop D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) closed-loop
26. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is used to warn the receiver of 34. In the ______ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are stored in the bucket
congestion in the network. and sent out at an average rate.
A) BECN A) leaky
B) FECN B) token
C) either (a) or (b) C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
27. Traditionally, ________types of characteristics are attributed to a 35. The _______ bucket algorithm allows idle hosts to accumulate credit
flow. for the future in the form of tokens.
A) two A) leaky
B) three B) token
C) four C) either (a) or (b)
D) five D) neither (a) nor (b)
28. _________ is a characteristic that a flow needs. Lack of it means 36. In _________, when a source makes a reservation, it needs to define
losing a packet or acknowledgment, which entails retransmission. a flow specification.
A) Reliability A) Integrated Services
B) Delay B) Differentiated Services
C) Jitter C) Connectionless
D) Bandwidth D) Connection-Oriented
29. _______ is a flow characteristic that applications can tolerate in 37. _________ is a class-based QoS model designed for IP.
different degrees. A) Integrated Services
A) Reliability B) Differentiated Services
B) Delay C) Connectionless
C) Jitter D) Connection-Oriented
D) Bandwidth
38. In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed the_________.
30. ________ is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the same A) access rate
flow. B) committed burst size
A) Reliability C) committed information rate
B) Delay D) excess burst size
C) Jitter
D) Bandwidth 39. In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the maximum number of bits in a
predefined time that the network is committed to transfer without discarding
31. In ________, queuing packets wait in a buffer (queue) until the node any frame or setting the DE bit.
(router or switch) is ready to process them. A) access rate
A) FIFO B) committed burst size
B) priority C) committed information rate
C) weighted fair D) excess burst size
40. In Frame Relay, the _____________ defines an average rate in bits
32. In ________ queuing, packets are first assigned to a priority class. per second.
Each class has its own queue. A) access rate
A) FIFO B) committed burst size
B) priority C) committed information rate
C) weighted fair D) excess burst size
41. In Frame Relay, the ___________ is the maximum number of bits in
33. In _________ queuing, the packets are assigned to different classes excess of Bc that a user can send during a predefined time.
and admitted to different queues. The queues, however, are weighted based A) access rate
on the priority of the queues; higher priority means a higher weight. The B) committed burst size
system processes packets in each queue in a round-robin fashion with the C) committed information rate
number of packets selected from each queue based on the corresponding D) excess burst size
weight.
A) FIFO
B) priority
C) weighted fair
42. In ATM, the _________ class is designed for customers who need real- CHAPTER 25: DOMAIN NAME SYSTEM
time audio or video services. The service is similar to that provided by a
dedicated line such as a T line. 1. In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an address. A name in
A) CBR this space is a sequence of characters without structure.
B) VBR A) flat
C) ABR B) hierarchical
D) UBR C) organized
43. In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two subclasses: real-time
(VBR-RT) and non-real-time (VBR-NRT). VBR-RT is designed for those users who 2. In a _________name space, each name is made of several parts.
need real-time services (such as voice and video transmission) and use A) flat
compression techniques to create a variable bit rate. VBR-NRT is designed for B) hierarchical
those users who do not need real-time services but use compression C) organized
techniques to create a variable bit rate. D) none of the above
A) CBR
B) VBR 3. To have a hierarchical name space, a ______________ was designed.
C) ABR A) domain space
D) UBR B) domain name
C) domain name space
44. In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a minimum rate. If more D) none of the above
network capacity is available, this minimum rate can be exceeded.
A) CBR 4. In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.
B) VBR A) a linear list
C) ABR B) an inverted-tree
D) UBR C) a graph
45. In ATM, the _________ class is a best-effort delivery service that does
not guarantee anything. 5. Each node in the tree has a _______, which is a string with a maximum
A) CBR of ___ characters.
B) VBR A) label; 127
C) ABR B) name; 255
D) UBR C) label; 63
6. The root of the DNS tree is _______.

A) a string of characters
B) a string of 63 characters
C) an empty string
7. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________.

A) semicolons
B) dots
C) colons
8. If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.

A) PQDN
B) FQDN
C) SQDN
9. If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.

A) PQDN
B) FQDN
C) SQDN
10. A _________ is a subtree of the domain name space. 19. The ____________ domain section uses two-character country
A) label abbreviations.
B) name A) generic
C) domain B) country
D) none of the above C) inverse
11. What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a
_________. 20. The _________ domain is used to map an address to a name.
A) domain A) generic
B) label B) country
C) zone C) inverse
12. A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree. 21. In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply
A) domain server the final answer.
B) zone server A) iterative
C) root server B) recursive
D) none of the above C) straight
13. A ________ server loads all information from the disk file.
A) primary 22. In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the
B) secondary server that it thinks can resolve the query.
C) zone A) iterative
D) none of the above B) recursive
C) straight
14. A ________ server loads all information from the primary server. D) none of the above
A) primary
B) secondary 23. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the least specific
C) zone label.
D) none of the above A) chal
B) atc
15. When the secondary downloads information from the primary, it is called C) edu
______ transfer. D) none of the above
A) domain
B) zone 24. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the most specific
C) label label.
D) none of the above A) chal
B) atc
16. In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is divided into _______ C) fhda
different sections: D) none of the above
A) three
B) two 25. A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the _______ level
C) four of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The root is level one.)
D) none of the above A) third
B) fourth
17. The _______ domains define registered hosts according to their C) fifth
generic behavior. D) none of the above
A) generic
B) country 26. A pointer query involves the _______ domain.
C) inverse A) inverse
D) none of the above B) reverse
C) root
18. The first level in the generic domains section allows ______ possible D) none of the above
labels.
A) 10 27. DNS can use the services of ________ using the well-known port 53.
B) 12 A) UDP
C) 16 B) TCP
CHAPTER 26: REMOTE LOGGING, ELECTRONIC MAIL, AND 9. To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control
FILE TRANSFER characters is preceded by a special control character called ________.
A) ICA
1. TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________. B) IAC
A) terminal network C) AIC
B) telephone network D) none of the above
C) telecommunication network
D) none of the above 10. In the _______ mode, the echoing is done by the client.
A) default
2. TELNET is a ________ client-server application program. B) character
A) specific-purpose C) line
B) general-purpose D) none of the above
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 11. In the _______ mode, each character typed is sent by the client to the
server.
3. When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is called ________ A) default
login. B) character
A) local C) line
B) remote D) none of the above
C) temporary
D) none of the above 12. In the ____ mode, line editing (echoing, character erasing, line erasing,
and so on) is done by the client.
4. When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a A) default
remote machine, he or she performs ___________ login. B) character
A) local C) line
B) remote D) none of the above
C) temporary
D) none of the above 13. The _______ is software residing on the remote system that allows the
remote system to receive characters from a TELNET server.
5. NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for A) terminal driver
__________. B) pseudoterminal driver
A) sending; receiving C) TELNET client
B) request; reply D) none of the above
C) data; control
D) none of the above 14. The _______ translates local characters into NVT form.
A) terminal driver
6. For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to B) TELNET client
______. C) TELNET server
B) 0
C) a or b 15. The _______ translates NVT characters into a form acceptable by the
D) none of the above remote operating system.
A) terminal driver
7. For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to B) TELNET client
______. C) TELNET server
B) 0
C) a or b 16. If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a _______ command.
D) none of the above A) WILL
B) DO
8. TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server uses ________ port C) WONT
and the client uses ________ port. D) none of the above
A) a well-known; another well-known
B) an ephemeral; another ephemeral 17. If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a _______ command.
C) a well-known; an ephemeral A) WILL
D) none of the above B) DO
C) WONT
18. If the sender wants an option disabled by the receiver, it sends a 27. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of
_______ command. bytes. These are types of an attribute called _______.
A) WILL A) file types
B) DO B) data structures
C) DONT C) transmission modes
19. If the sender wants an option enabled by the receiver, it sends a 28. In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and
_______ command. compressed.
A) WILL A) file types
B) DO B) data structures
C) WONT C) transmission modes
20. _______ is the standard mechanism provided by TCP/IP for copying a 29. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______.
file from one host to another. A) file type
A) TELNET B) data structure
B) SMTP C) transmission mode
C) TFTP D) none of the above
30. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the server to the client.
21. FTP uses the services of ________. A) retrieve a file
A) UDP B) retrieve a list
B) IP C) a and c
C) TCP D) none of the above
31. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server.
22. In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the control connection and A) retrieve a file
the well-known port ________ for the data connection. B) store a file
A) 21; 22 C) retrieve a list
B) 21; 20 D) none of the above
C) 20; 21
D) none of the above 32. ________ is part of a local hard drive, a special file with permission
restrictions.
23. In FTP, _______ is the service type used by the IP protocol because this A) A message
is an interactive connection between a user (human) and a server. B) A response
A) maximize throughput C) An agent
B) minimize delay D) None of the above
C) minimize error
D) none of the above 33. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same system, we
need only ___________.
24. For the control connection, FTP uses the __________ character set A) one UA
A) regular ASCII B) two UAs
B) EBCDIC C) one UA and one MTA
C) NVT ASCII D) none of the above
34. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems,
25. During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______. we need only _____________.
A) exactly once A) one MTA
B) exactly twice B) two UAs
C) as many times as necessary C) two UAs and one pair of MTAs
26. During an FTP session the data connection is opened _______. 35. When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we
A) exactly once need ______________.
B) exactly twice A) two MTA
C) as many times as necessary B) two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
D) none of the above C) two UAs and a pair of MTAs
36. When both sender and receiver are connected to a mail server via a LAN 44. The actual mail transfer is done through ____________.
or a WAN, we need ___________________. A) UAs
A) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of B) MTAs
MAAs C) MAAs
B) two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs D) none of the above
C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of
MAAs 45. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet
D) none of the above is called ___________.
A) SMTP
37. ________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending B) SNMP
and receiving a message easier. C) TELNET
A) An MTA D) none of the above
B) An MAA
C) A UA 46. The process of transferring a mail message occurs in ________
D) none of the above phases.
A) two
38. Which of the following services is not provided by a UA? B) four
A) composing messages C) five
B) reading messages D) none of the above
C) replying messages
D) all are 47. SMTP is a __________protocol.
A) pull
39. There are two types of user agents: _________ and B) push
___________. C) both a and b
A) command-driven; data-driven D) none of the above
B) command-driven; GUI-based
C) command-based and data-based 48. The third stage in an email transfer needs a ________ protocol.
D) none of the above A) pull
B) push
40. The ________ usually contains the sender address, the receiver C) both a and b
address, and other information. D) none of the above
A) message
B) envelope 49. The third stage in an email transfer uses a(n) ________ protocol.
C) both a and b A) UA
D) none of the above B) MTA
C) MAA
41. The message contains the ________ and the __________. D) none of the above
A) header; envelop
B) header; body 50. Currently two message access protocols are available: _______ and
C) envelop; body _________.
D) none of the above A) POP3; IMAP2
B) POP4; IMAP1
42. In the Internet, the email address consists of two parts: a _______ and C) POP3; IMAP4
a _______. D) none of the above
A) local part; domain name
B) global part; domain name 51. Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the sender and receiver
C) label; domain name names?
D) none of the above A) envelope
B) address
43. _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to C) header
be sent through email. D) none of the above
A) JPEG
B) MPEG 52. The MIME _______ header uses text to describe the type of data in the
C) MIME body of the message.
D) none of the above A) content-type
B) content-transfer-encoding
C) content-description
53. _______ is more powerful and complex than _______. CHAPTER 27: WWW AND HTTP
A) POP3; IMAP4
B) IMAP4; POP3 1. _________ is a repository of information linked together from points
C) SMTP; POP3 all over the world.
D) none of the above A) The WWW
B) HTTP
C) HTML
2. The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in which a client

using a browser can access a service using a server.
A) limited
B) vast
C) distributed
3. The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of information on

the Internet.
A) URL
B) ULR
C) RLU
4. In a URL, the _______ is the client-server program used to retrieve the

document.
A) path
B) protocol
C) host
5. In a URL, the ______ is the computer on which the information is located.

A) path
B) protocol
C) host
6. In a URL, an optional ________ can be inserted between the host and

the path, and it is separated from the host by a colon.
A) path
B) protocol
C) host
7. In a URL, the _______ is the full name of the file where the information
is located.
A) path
B) protocol
C) host
8. A cookie is made by the ________ and eaten by the _________.

A) client; client
B) client; server
C) server; server
9. The documents in the WWW can be grouped into ______ broad 18. HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known port 80.
categories. A) UDP
A) two B) IP
B) three C) TCP
C) four D) none of the above
19. In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the
10. A _______ document is a fixed-content document that is created and first line in the response message is called the ________ line.
stored in a server. The client can get a copy of the document only. A) request; response
A) static B) response; request
B) dynamic C) response; status
C) active D) none of the above
20. In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each
11. _____________ is a language for creating Web pages. request/response.
A) HTTP A) persistent
B) HTML B) nonpersistent
C) FTTP C) both a and b
12. A _______ document is created by a Web server whenever a browser 21. In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open
requests the document. for more requests after sending a response.
A) static A) persistent
B) dynamic B) nonpersistent
C) active C) both a and b
13. ___________ is a technology that creates and handles dynamic 22. HTTP version 1.1 specifies a _________connection by default.
documents. A) persistent
A) GIC B) nonpersistent
B) CGI C) both a and b
C) GCI D) none of the above
23. In HTTP, a _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of
14. Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic responses to recent requests.
documents. A) regular
A) client-site B) proxy
B) server-site C) both a and b
C) both a and b D) none of the above
24. An HTTP request message always contains _______.
15. For many applications, we need a program or a script to be run at the A) a header and a body
client site. These are called _______________ documents. B) a request line and a header
A) static C) a status line, a header, and a body
B) dynamic D) none of the above
C) active
D) none of the above 25. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status
line?
16. One way to create an active document is to use __________. A) HTTP version number
A) CGI B) URL
B) Java stand-alone programs C) status code
C) Java applets D) none of the above
26. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a
17. Active documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic document from the server.
documents. A) GET
A) client-site B) POST
B) server-site C) COPY
27. A user needs to send the server some information. The request line CHAPTER 28: NETWORK MANAGEMENT: SNMP
method is _______.
A) OPTION 1. SNMP defines the ___________________ to be sent from a
B) PATCH manager to an agent and vice versa.
C) POST A) format of the packets
D) none of the above B) encoding of the packets
C) number of packets
28. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get information D) none of the above
about a document without retrieving the document itself.
A) HEAD 2. A manager is a host that runs the SNMP _______ process.
B) POST A) client
C) COPY B) server
29. A response message always contains _______.
A) a header and a body 3. An agent is a host or computer that runs the SNMP _______ process.
B) a request line and a header A) client
C) a status line and a header B) server
30. An applet is _______ document application program.
A) a static 4. SNMP uses two other protocols:________ and _________.
B) an active A) MIB; SMTP
C) a passive B) SMI; MIB
D) a dynamic C) FTP; SMI
5. ________ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object
types, and showing how to encode objects and values.
A) MIB
B) BER
C) SMI
6. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a

program. Both tasks need rules. In network management this is handled by
___________.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI

program. Both tasks need variable declarations. In network management this
is handled by _________.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI

program. Both tasks have actions performed by statements. In network
management this is handled by _______.
A) SMNP
B) MIB
C) SMI
9. SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____, 18. The GetRequest PDU is sent from the _______ to the __________
________, and _________. to retrieve the value of a variable or a set of variables.
A) name; data type; size A) client; server
B) name; size; encoding method B) server; client
C) name; data type; encoding method C) server; network
10. To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which is a 19. The Response PDU is sent from the ______ to the ______ in response
hierarchical identifier based on a _______ structure to GetRequest or GetNextRequest.
A) linear A) server; client
B) tree B) client; server
C) graph C) network; host
11. All objects managed by SNMP are given an object identifier. The object 20. The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ to the _______ to report an
identifier always starts with _______. event.
A) 1.3.6.1.2.1 A) server; client
B) 1.3.6.1.2.2 B) client; server
C) 1.3.6.1.2.3 C) network; host
12. To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______ definitions and 21. SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well-known ports, _______ and
adds some new definitions. _______.
A) AMS.1 A) 161; 162
B) ASN.1 B) 160; 161
C) ASN.2 C) 160; 162
13. SMI has two broad categories of data type: _______ and _______. 22. _______ runs the SNMP client program; _______ runs the SNMP
A) simple; complex server program.
B) simple; structured A) A manager; a manager
C) structured; unstructured B) An agent; an agent
D) none of the above C) A manager; an agent
D) An agent; a manager
14. The _______ data types are atomic data types.
A) structure 23. INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and ObjectIdentifier are _______ definitions
B) simple used by SMI.
C) both a and b A) MIB
D) none of the above B) SNMP
C) ASN.1
15. SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and _________. D) none of the above
A) sequence; atomic
B) sequence; sequence of 24. Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB object identifier?
C) a sequence of; array A) 1.3.6.1.2.1.1
D) none of the above B) 1.3.6.1.2.2.1
C) 2.3.6.1.2.1.2
16. SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be D) none of the above
transmitted over the network.
A) MIB 25.Which is a manager duty?
B) ANS.1 A) Retrieve the value of an object defined in an
C) BER agent.
D) none of the above B) Store the value of an object defined in an agent.
C) a and b
17. The _________ ordering enables a manager to access a set of D) none of the above
variables one after another by defining the first variable.
A) lexicographic 26. For a 1-byte length field, what is the maximum value for the data length?
B) linear A) 127
C) non-linear B) 128
27. An object id defines a _______. Add a zero suffix to define the CHAPTER 29: MULTIMEDIA
_______.
A) variable; table 1. We can divide audio and video services into _______ broad categories.
B) table; variable A) three
C) variable; variable contents B) two
D) none of the above C) four
28. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.
A) GetRequest 2. ________ audio/video refers to on-demand requests for compressed
B) SetRequest audio/video files.
C) Trap A) Streaming live
D) none of the above B) Streaming stored
C) Interactive
29. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages. D) none of the above
A) Response
B) GetRequest 3. ___________ audio/video refers to the broadcasting of radio and TV
C) SetRequest programs through the Internet.
D) none of the above A) Interactive
B) Streaming live
30. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that points to the C) Streaming stored
variable in error. D) none of the above
A) community
B) enterprise 4. _________ audio/video refers to the use of the Internet for interactive
C) error index audio/video applications.
D) none of the above A) Interactive
B) Streaming live
31. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU reports an error in a response C) Streaming stored
message. D) none of the above
A) community
B) enterprise 5. According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample an analog signal
C) error status ________times the highest frequency.
D) none of the above A) three
B) two
32. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU consists of a sequence of variables C) four
and their corresponding values. D) none of the above
A) version
B) community 6. In ________ encoding, the differences between the samples are
C) VarBindList encoded instead of encoding all the sampled values.
D) none of the above A) predictive
B) perceptual
C) both a and b
7. __________ encoding is based on the science of psychoacoustics, which

is the study of how people perceive sound.
A) Predictive
B) Perceptual
C) both a and b
8. ____________ is used to compress images.

A) MPEG
B) JPEG
C) either a or b
9. ____________ is used to compress video. 18. __________ means changing the encoding of a payload to a lower
A) MPEG quality to match the bandwidth of the receiving network.
B) JPEG A) Translation
C) either a or b B) Mixing
10. The first phase of JPEG is ___________.
A) DCT transformation 19. __________ means combining several streams of traffic into one
B) quantization stream.
C) data compression A) Translation
D) none of the above B) Mixing
C) both a and b
11. The second phase of JPEG is ___________. D) none of the above
A) DCT transformation
B) quantization 20. _________ is not suitable for interactive multimedia traffic because it
C) data compression retransmits packets in case of errors.
D) none of the above A) UDP
B) TCP
12. The third phase of JPEG is ___________. C) both a and b
A) DCT transformation D) none of the above
B) quantization
C) data compression 21. __________ is the protocol designed to handle real-time traffic on the
D) none of the above Internet.
A) TCP
13. Jitter is introduced in real-time data by the _______________. B) UDP
A) error caused during transmission C) RTP
B) delay between packets D) none of the above
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 22. RTP uses a temporary even-numbered _______ port.
A) UDP
14. To prevent _________, we can timestamp the packets and separate B) TCP
the arrival time from the playback time. C) both a and b
A) error D) none of the above
B) jitter
C) either a or b 23. ___________ is a protocol for controlling the flow and quality of
D) none of the above data.
A) RTP
15. A ________buffer is required for real-time traffic. B) RTCP
A) playback C) UDP
B) reordering D) none of the above
C) sorting
D) none of the above 24. RTCP uses an odd-numbered _______ port number that follows the port
number selected for RTP.
16. A __________on each packet is required for real-time traffic. A) UDP
A) timestamp B) TCP
B) sequence number C) both a and b
25. ___________ is an application protocol that establishes, manages,
17. Real-time traffic needs the support of ____________. and terminates a multimedia session
A) broadcasting A) RIP
B) multicasting B) SIP
C) both a and b C) DIP
26. _______ is a standard to allow telephones on the public telephone CHAPTER 30: CRYPTOGRAPHY
network to talk to computers connected to the Internet.
A) SIP 1. ________ is the science and art of transforming messages to make
B) H.323 them secure and immune to attacks.
C) Q.991 A) Cryptography
D) none of the above B) Cryptoanalysis
27. A real-time video performance lasts 10 min. If there is jitter in the system, D) neither (a) nor (b)
the viewer spends _______ minutes watching the performance.
A) less than 10 2. The ________is the original message before transformation.
B) more than 10 A) ciphertext
C) exactly 10 B) plaintext
D) none of the above C) secret-text
28. A _______ shows the time a packet was produced relative to the first
or previous packet. 3. The ________ is the message after transformation.
A) timestamp A) ciphertext
B) playback buffer B) plaintext
C) sequence number C) secret-text
29. _______ are used to number the packets of a real-time transmission. 4. A(n) _______ algorithm transforms plaintext to ciphertext
A) Timestamps A) encryption
B) Playback buffers B) decryption
C) Sequence numbers C) either (a) or (b)
30. In a real-time video conference, data from the server is _______ to the 5. A(n) ______ algorithm transforms ciphertext to plaintext.
client sites. A) encryption
A) unicast B) decryption
B) multicast C) either (a) or (b)
C) broadcast D) neither (a) nor (b)
6. A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption algorithm is
31. A _______ adds signals from different sources to create a single called a ________.
signal. A) cipher
A) timestamp B) secret
B) sequence number C) key
C) mixer D) none of the above
7. The _______ is a number or a set of numbers on which the cipher
32. A _______ changes the format of a high-bandwidth video signal to a operates.
lower quality narrow-bandwidth signal. A) cipher
A) timestamp B) secret
B) sequence number C) key
C) translator D) none of the above
8. In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key is used by both the sender and
33. An RTP packet is encapsulated in _______. receiver.
A) a UDP user datagram A) symmetric-key
B) a TCP segment B) asymmetric-key
C) an IP datagram C) either (a) or (b)
34. When there is more than one source, the _______ identifier defines the 9. In a(n) ________, the key is called the secret key.
mixer. A) symmetric-key
A) synchronization source B) asymmetric-key
B) contributor C) either (a) or (b)
C) timestamp D) neither (a) nor (b)
10. In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys is used. 19. A(n) _______is a keyless transposition cipher with N inputs and M
A) symmetric-key outputs that uses a table to define the relationship between the input stream
B) asymmetric-key and the output stream.
C) either (a) or (b) A) S-box
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) P-box
C) T-box
11. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the sender uses the__________ key. D) none of the above
A) private
B) public 20. A modern cipher is usually a complex _____cipher made of a
C) either (a) or (b) combination of different simple ciphers.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) round
B) circle
12. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the receiver uses the ______ key. C) square
A) private D) none of the above
B) public
C) either (a) or (b) 21. DES is a(n) ________ method adopted by the U.S. government.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) symmetric-key
B) asymmetric-key
13. A ________ cipher replaces one character with another character. C) either (a) or (b)
A) substitution D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) transposition
C) either (a) or (b) 22. DES has an initial and final permutation block and _________ rounds.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) 14
B) 15
14. _________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad categories: C) 16
monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic. D) none of the above
A) Substitution
B) Transposition 23. The DES function has _______ components.
C) either (a) or (b) A) 2
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) 3
C) 4
15. The _______ cipher is the simplest monoalphabetic cipher. It uses D) 5
modular arithmetic with a modulus of 26.
A) transposition 24. DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen _______ round keys.
B) additive A) 32-bit
C) shift B) 48-bit
D) none of the above C) 54-bit
D) 42-bit
16. The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher that has a key of 3.
A) transposition 25. ________ DES was designed to increase the size of the DES key
B) additive A) Double
C) shift B) Triple
D) none of the above C) Quadruple
17. The ________ cipher reorders the plaintext characters to create a
ciphertext. 26. _______ is a round cipher based on the Rijndael algorithm that uses a
A) substitution 128-bit block of data.
B) transposition A) AEE
C) either (a) or (b) B) AED
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) AER
D) AES
18. A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution cipher with N inputs and M outputs
that uses a formula to define the relationship between the input stream and 27. AES has _____ different configurations
the output stream. A) two
A) S-box B) three
B) P-box C) four
C) T-box D) five
28. ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers. CHAPTER 31: NETWORK SECURITY
A) block
B) stream 1. Message ________ means that the sender and the receiver expect
C) field privacy.
D) none of the above A) confidentiality
B) integrity
29. One commonly used public-key cryptography method is the ______ C) authentication
algorithm. D) none of the above
A) RSS
B) RAS 2. Message_____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly
C) RSA as sent.
D) RAA A) confidentiality
B) integrity
30. The ________ method provides a one-time session key for two C) authentication
parties. D) none of the above
A) Diffie-Hellman
B) RSA 3. Message _______ means that the receiver is ensured that the message
C) DES is coming from the intended sender, not an imposter.
D) AES A) confidentiality
B) integrity
31. The _________ attack can endanger the security of the Diffie-Hellman C) authentication
method if two parties are not authenticated to each other. D) none of the above
A) man-in-the-middle
B) ciphertext attack 4. _________ means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a
C) plaintext attack message that he sent.
D) none of the above A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Authentication
D) Nonrepudiation
5. ________ means to prove the identity of the entity that tries to access
the system's resources.
A) Message authentication
B) Entity authentication
C) Message confidentiality
6. A(n) _________ can be used to preserve the integrity of a document or

a message.
A) message digest
B) message summary
C) encrypted message
7. A(n) ________function creates a message digest out of a message.

A) encryption
B) decryption
C) hash
8. A hash function must meet ________ criteria.

A) two
B) three
C) four
9. A _______ message digest is used as an MDC. 18. Password-based authentication can be divided into two broad categories:
A) keyless _______ and _______.
B) keyed A) fixed; variable
C) either (a) or (b) B) time-stamped; fixed
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) fixed; one-time
10. To authenticate the data origin, one needs a(n) _______.
A) MDC 19. In ________ authentication, the claimant proves that she knows a
B) MAC secret without actually sending it.
C) either (a) or (b) A) password-based
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) challenge-response
11. A ________ signature is included in the document; a _______ D) neither (a) nor (b)
signature is a separate entity.
A) conventional; digital 20. Challenge-response authentication can be done using ________.
B) digital; digital A) symmetric-key ciphers
C) either (a) or (b) B) asymmetric-key ciphers
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) keyed-hash functions
D) all of the above
12. Digital signature provides ________.
A) authentication 21. A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two
B) nonrepudiation parties.
C) both (a) and (b) A) KDC
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) CA
C) KDD
13. Digital signature cannot provide ________ for the message. D) none of the above
A) integrity
B) confidentiality 22. A(n)______ creates a secret key only between a member and the
C) nonrepudiation center.
D) authentication A) CA
B) KDC
14. If _________ is needed, a cryptosystem must be applied over the C) KDD
scheme. D) none of the above
A) integrity
B) confidentiality 23. The secret key between members needs to be created as a ______ key
C) nonrepudiation when two members contact KDC.
D) authentication A) public
B) session
15. A digital signature needs a(n)_________ system. C) complimentary
A) symmetric-key D) none of the above
B) asymmetric-key
C) either (a) or (b) 24. __________ is a popular session key creator protocol that requires an
D) neither (a) nor (b) authentication server and a ticket-granting server.
A) KDC
16. A witness used in entity authentication is ____________. B) Kerberos
A) something known C) CA
B) something possessed D) none of the above
C) something inherent
D) all of the above 25. A(n) ________is a federal or state organization that binds a public key
to an entity and issues a certificate.
17. In _______, a claimant proves her identity to the verifier by using one A) KDC
of the three kinds of witnesses. B) Kerberos
A) message authentication C) CA
B) entity authentication D) none of the above
C) message confidentiality
D) message integrity
26. A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system that answers queries about key CHAPTER 32: SECURITY IN THE INTERNET: IPSEC, SSL/TLS,
certification. PGP, VPN, AND FIREWALLS
A) KDC
B) PKI 1. _________ is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF (Internet
C) CA Engineering Task Force) to provide security for a packet at the network level.
D) none of the above A) IPSec
B) SSL
27. The _______ criterion states that it must be extremely difficult or C) PGP
impossible to create the message if the message digest is given. D) none of the above
A) one-wayness
B) weak-collision-resistance 2. _________ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode.
C) strong-collision-resistance A) IPSec
D) none of the above B) SSL
C) PGP
28. The ________ criterion ensures that a message cannot easily be D) none of the above
forged.
A) one-wayness 3. In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information delivered from the
B) weak-collision-resistance transport layer to the network layer.
C) strong-collision-resistance A) transport
D) none of the above B) tunnel
29. The _______criterion ensures that we cannot find two messages that D) neither (a) nor (b)
hash to the same digest.
A) one-wayness 4. IPSec in the ______ mode does not protect the IP header.
B) weak-collision-resistance A) transport
C) strong-collision-resistance B) tunnel
5. The _______ mode is normally used when we need host-to-host (end-to-

end) protection of data.
A) transport
B) tunnel
6. In the _______ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP packet, including the
original IP header.
A) transport
B) tunnel
7. IPSec defines two protocols: _______ and ________.

A) AH; SSL
B) PGP; ESP
C) AH; ESP
8. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.

A) AH
B) ESP
C) PGP
D) SSL
9. ______ provides either authentication or encryption, or both, for packets 18. The Internet authorities have reserved addresses for _______.
at the IP level. A) intranets
A) AH B) internets
B) ESP C) extranets
C) PGP D) none of the above
D) SSL
19. A ______ provides privacy for LANs that must communicate through the
10. IPSec uses a set of SAs called the ________. global Internet.
A) SAD A) VPP
B) SAB B) VNP
C) SADB C) VNN
D) none of the above D) VPN
11. ______ is the protocol designed to create security associations, both 20. A _______ layer security protocol provides end-to-end security
inbound and outbound. services for applications.
A) SA A) data link
B) CA B) network
C) KDC C) transport
D) IKE D) none of the above
12. IKE creates SAs for _____. 21. ______ is actually an IETF version of _____
A) SSL A) TLS; TSS
B) PGP B) SSL; TLS
C) IPSec C) TLS; SSL
D) VP D) SSL; SLT
13. IKE is a complex protocol based on ______ other protocols. 22. _______ provide security at the transport layer.
A) two A) SSL
B) three B) TLS
C) four C) either (a) or (b)
D) five D) both (a) and (b)
14. IKE uses _______. 23. ______ is designed to provide security and compression services to
A) Oakley data generated from the application layer.
B) SKEME A) SSL
C) ISAKMP B) TLS
D) all of the above C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
15. A _______network is used inside an organization.
A) private 24. Typically, ______ can receive application data from any application
B) public layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP.
C) semi-private A) SSL
D) semi-public B) TLS
16. An ________ is a private network that uses the Internet model. D) both (a) and (b)
A) intranet
B) internet 25. SSL provides _________.
C) extranet A) message integrity
D) none of the above B) confidentiality
C) compression
17. An _________ is a network that allows authorized access from outside D) all of the above
users.
A) intranet 26. The combination of key exchange, hash, and encryption algorithms defines
B) internet a ________ for each SSL session.
C) extranet A) list of protocols
D) none of the above B) cipher suite
C) list of keys
27. In _______, the cryptographic algorithms and secrets are sent with the
message.
A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) TLS
D) PGP
28. One security protocol for the e-mail system is _________.

A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
29. ______ was invented by Phil Zimmerman.

A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
30. ________ provides privacy, integrity, and authentication in e-mail.

A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP
31. In PGP, to exchange e-mail messages, a user needs a ring of _______

keys.
A) secret
B) public
D) both (a) and (b)
32. In ______, there is a single path from the fully trusted authority to any
certificate.
A) X509
B) PGP
C) KDC
33. In _____, there can be multiple paths from fully or partially trusted
authorities.
A) X509
B) PGP
C) KDC
34. _______ uses the idea of certificate trust levels.

A) X509
B) PGP
C) KDC

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CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION 10.

In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single

23. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.

24. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.

25. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.

26. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or

27. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or

41. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the

42. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating

41. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit,

42. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the

2. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.

3. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories:

4. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical

5. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer.

6. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase;

7. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet.

8. In _________, resources are allocated on demand.

9. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others.

5. DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and

6. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.

7. _______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line.

8. HDSL encodes data using _______.

9. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.

6. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without

9. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results.

5. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission

6. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent.

7. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time.

31. In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.

34. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps

35. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical

36. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer

4. ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in

5. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA

6. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal

7. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base

8. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base

30. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration.

31. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits.

33. GPS satellites are ________ satellites.

35. Iridium satellites are ________satellites.

3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______.

4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry

5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires establishing and

6. Frame Relay has _______.

8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes.

48. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers.

50. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host

51. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by

52. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero

12. An ARP request is normally _______. 21. IGMP is _______ protocol.

26. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a

28. A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______.

29. In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing,

30. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of

31. In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______.

32. In IGMP, the general query message ___________________

51. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems.

59. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector

60. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP.

6. The root of the DNS tree is _______.

7. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________.

8. If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________.

12. An ARP request is normally _. 21. IGMP is _ protocol.

28. A multicast message is sent from _ to _.

8. A cookie is made by the and eaten by the _.

7. IPSec defines two protocols: _ and __.