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BASICS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity 2.50 and void ratio
0.5, is
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 80%
2. When drainage is permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full primarily consolidation is
allowed to take place, the test is known as
a) quick test
b) drained test
c) consolidated undrained test
d) none of these
3. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into threads 3 mm in
diameter, is known
a) permeability limit.
b) liquid limit
c) shrinkage limit
d) plastic limit
a) strain to stress
b) stress to settlement
c) rate of loading to that of settlement.
d) stress to strain
a) All of these
b) Clays are more porous than sands
c) Pressure of organic matter in a soil decreases the bearing capacity of the soil
d) Aluminous cement is used for foundations in soils with chemical deposits
a) toe failure
b) base failure
c) face failure
d) slope failure
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7. Rankine’s theory of active earth pressure assumes
9. According to Coulomb’s wedge theory, the active earth pressure slides the wedge
11. The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete mix, is not in conformation to arbitrary method of
proportioning
a) 1 : 4 : 10
b) 1 : 2 : 8
c) 1 : 2 : 4
d) 1 : 3 : 6
12. The standard sand now a days used in India, is obtained from
a) Jullundur (Punjab)
b) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
c) Ennore (Madras)
d) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
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13. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a
temperature between
14. While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed
a) 10 cm
b) 7.5 cm
c) 2.5 cm
d) 5.0 cm
16. For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete aggregates contain an excess of
a) all
b) flaky paticles
c) flat particles
d) elongated particles
17. If the ratio of effective span to overall depth of a simply supported beam is equal or greater than 1 but less
than or equal to 2, the lever arm, is
a) 0.3 (l + 3D)
b) 0.3 (l + 2D)
c) 0.2 (l + 2D)
d) 0.2 (l + 3D)
18. The outstand of stiffeners should be (where t is the thickness of flat).
a) 10 t
b) 6 t
c) 12 t
d) 8 t
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19. The cover to the main reinforced may be reduced up to one third of the specified cover but not less than
a) 7 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 15 mm
20. Columns are designed for a minimum eccentricity equal to 1/30 (unsupported length of the column),
subject to a minimum of
a) 5 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 20 mm
21. The ratio of the effective length to the least radius of gyration of a tie member of a roof truss, which gets
subjected to reversal of stress shall not exceed
a) 180
b) 200
c) 240
d) 350
22. The structure which is subjected to an imposed load after 72 hours for a period of 24 hours, is deemed to
be unacceptable if it fails to recover the net deflection less than
a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 75%
d) 80%
23. The slenderness ratio of a tie in a roof truss if subjected to action of wind and seismic forces, should not be
greater than
a) 210
b) 180
c) 350
d) 250
24. The flat slab is a reinforced concrete slab with or without drops and is supported
a) on beams
b) None of these
c) on columns with column head
d) on columns without column head
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25. As per IS : 8001982, the coefficient of expansion for steel per degree centigrade per unit length, is
a) 0.000014
b) 0.000013
c) 0.000012
d) 0.000011
26. Minimum thickness of steel work directly exposed to weather and accessible for cleaning and repainting,
the thickness should be not less than
a) 4 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 6 mm
27. If the main reinforcement of the slab is parallel to a T beam, the transverse reinforcement at mid span of
the slab is provided at least ……of main reinforcement
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 40%
d) 70%
28. For concreting of shallow sections with vibration, the work ability of concrete should be
a) low
b) medium
c) very low
d) high.
a) 10 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 20 mm
30. The advantages of providing a pair of tunnels as compared to only one large highway tunnel is :
a) 4.2 m to 4.5 m
b) 5.5 m to 5.8 m
c) 4.5 m to 4.8 m
d) 4.9 m to 5.5 m
32. Which one of the following methods is generally adopted for aluminium in firm ground
a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 1.4
d) 1.6
34. If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the following:
a) Q = F – S
b) Q = S x F
c) Q = S – F
d) Q = S + F
a) For I sections, the shear center coincides with the centroid of the cross section of the beam
b) For channels, the shear center does not concide its centroid
c) All
d) Bending loads should pass through the shear center to avoid twisting
36. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of uniform crosssection produced under its own weight to the
elongation produced by an external load equal to the weight of the bar is
a) 2
b) ¼
c) ½
d) 1
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37. Consider the following statements : Collision diagram is used to 1. Study accident pattern 2. Eliminate
accidents 3. Determine remedial measures 4. Make statistical analysis of accidents Of these statements :
38. The distance between g. of compression and g. of tension flanges of a plate girder, is known as
a) none of these
b) clear depth
c) overall depth
d) effective depth
39. The rolled steel sections are most commonly used as beams because these provide
a) transverse loading
b) axial and transverse loading
c) axial loading
d) none of these
41. If the depth of two column sections are equal, then the column splice is provided
42. The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in direction at
one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other end, is
a) 8L
b) 2L
c) 1 L
d) 0.85 L
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43. A fillet weld may be termed as
a) mitre weld
b) all
c) convex weld
d) concave weld
a) rectangular
b) flat strip
c) tubular section
d) solid round
46. The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal to 37 mm plus
(where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate).
a) 6 t
b) 2 t
c) 4 t
d) 8 t
47. If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are spaced not greater
than
a) 1.75 d
b) 1.5 d
c) 1 d
d) 1.25 d
a) 1. 36 kWh
b) 2. 1 kWh
c) 3. 10 kWh
d) 3.6 kWh
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49. The radius of curvature of the arc of the bubble tube is generally kept
a) 10m
b) 25m
c) 100m
d) 50m
a) scale of plotting
b) indefinite features to be surveyed
c) method of setting out perpendiculars
d) accuracy of the work