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Chapter 30

BASICS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity 2.50 and void ratio
0.5, is

a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 80%

2. When drainage is permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full primarily consolidation is
allowed to take place, the test is known as

a) quick test
b) drained test
c) consolidated undrained test
d) none of these

3. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into threads 3 mm in
diameter, is known

a) permeability limit.
b) liquid limit
c) shrinkage limit
d) plastic limit

4. The coefficient of compressibility of soil, is the ratio of

a) strain to stress
b) stress to settlement
c) rate of loading to that of settlement.
d) stress to strain

5. Which one of the following statements is true ?

a) All of these
b) Clays are more porous than sands
c) Pressure of organic matter in a soil decreases the bearing capacity of the soil
d) Aluminous cement is used for foundations in soils with chemical deposits

6. If the failure of a finite slope occurs through the toe, it is known as

a) toe failure
b) base failure
c) face failure
d) slope failure
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7. Rankine’s theory of active earth pressure assumes

a) ground surface is a plane which may be horizontal or inclined


b) soil mass is homogeneous, dry and cohesion less
c) all the above
d) back of the wall is vertical and smooth

8. The water content of soil is defined as the ratio of

a) volume of water to volume of voids in soil


b) volume of water to volume of given soil
c) weight of water to weight of air in voids
d) weight of water to weight of solids of given mass of soil.

9. According to Coulomb’s wedge theory, the active earth pressure slides the wedge

a) horizontal upward and parallel to base


b) down and outwards on a slip surface
c) up and inwards on a slip surface
d) horizontal inward and parallel to bas

10. Construction joints are provided

a) where the member is supported by other member


b) at 18 m apart in huge structures
c) all
d) in concrete wall at sill level of windows

11. The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete mix, is not in conformation to arbitrary method of
proportioning

a) 1 : 4 : 10
b) 1 : 2 : 8
c) 1 : 2 : 4
d) 1 : 3 : 6

12. The standard sand now a days used in India, is obtained from

a) Jullundur (Punjab)
b) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
c) Ennore (Madras)
d) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
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13. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a
temperature between

a) 1100° and 1200°C


b) 1300° and 1400°C
c) 1400° and 1500°C
d) 1200° and 1300°C

14. While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed

a) 10 cm
b) 7.5 cm
c) 2.5 cm
d) 5.0 cm

15. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than

a) 2/5th of mean dimension


b) 1/5th of mean dimension
c) 4/5th of mean dimension
d) 3/5th of mean dimension

16. For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete aggregates contain an excess of

a) all
b) flaky paticles
c) flat particles
d) elongated particles

17. If the ratio of effective span to overall depth of a simply supported beam is equal or greater than 1 but less
than or equal to 2, the lever arm, is

a) 0.3 (l + 3D)
b) 0.3 (l + 2D)
c) 0.2 (l + 2D)
d) 0.2 (l + 3D)
18. The outstand of stiffeners should be (where t is the thickness of flat).

a) 10 t
b) 6 t
c) 12 t
d) 8 t
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19. The cover to the main reinforced may be reduced up to one third of the specified cover but not less than

a) 7 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 15 mm

20. Columns are designed for a minimum eccentricity equal to 1/30 (unsupported length of the column),
subject to a minimum of

a) 5 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 20 mm
21. The ratio of the effective length to the least radius of gyration of a tie member of a roof truss, which gets
subjected to reversal of stress shall not exceed

a) 180
b) 200
c) 240
d) 350

22. The structure which is subjected to an imposed load after 72 hours for a period of 24 hours, is deemed to
be unacceptable if it fails to recover the net deflection less than

a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 75%
d) 80%

23. The slenderness ratio of a tie in a roof truss if subjected to action of wind and seismic forces, should not be
greater than

a) 210
b) 180
c) 350
d) 250

24. The flat slab is a reinforced concrete slab with or without drops and is supported

a) on beams
b) None of these
c) on columns with column head
d) on columns without column head
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25. As per IS : 8001982, the coefficient of expansion for steel per degree centigrade per unit length, is

a) 0.000014
b) 0.000013
c) 0.000012
d) 0.000011

26. Minimum thickness of steel work directly exposed to weather and accessible for cleaning and repainting,
the thickness should be not less than

a) 4 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 6 mm

27. If the main reinforcement of the slab is parallel to a T beam, the transverse reinforcement at mid span of
the slab is provided at least ……of main reinforcement

a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 40%
d) 70%

28. For concreting of shallow sections with vibration, the work ability of concrete should be

a) low
b) medium
c) very low
d) high.

29. Generally acceptable nominal size of aggregates for reinforced concrete, is

a) 10 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 20 mm
30. The advantages of providing a pair of tunnels as compared to only one large highway tunnel is :

a) provision of separate exit and entrance of two traffic streams


b) avoidance of head on collisions
c) all
d) facility in carrying out repairs
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31. For G. single track, the section of the tunnel must have a width

a) 4.2 m to 4.5 m
b) 5.5 m to 5.8 m
c) 4.5 m to 4.8 m
d) 4.9 m to 5.5 m

32. Which one of the following methods is generally adopted for aluminium in firm ground

a) Full face method


b) Drift method
c) all
d) Top heading and benching method
33. In plastic analysis, the shape factor for rectangular section, is

a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 1.4
d) 1.6

34. If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the following:

a) Q = F – S
b) Q = S x F
c) Q = S – F
d) Q = S + F

35. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a) For I sections, the shear center coincides with the centroid of the cross section of the beam
b) For channels, the shear center does not concide its centroid
c) All
d) Bending loads should pass through the shear center to avoid twisting

36. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of uniform crosssection produced under its own weight to the
elongation produced by an external load equal to the weight of the bar is

a) 2
b) ¼
c) ½
d) 1
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37. Consider the following statements : Collision diagram is used to 1. Study accident pattern 2. Eliminate
accidents 3. Determine remedial measures 4. Make statistical analysis of accidents Of these statements :

a) 3 and 4 are correct


b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 2 are correct

38. The distance between g. of compression and g. of tension flanges of a plate girder, is known as

a) none of these
b) clear depth
c) overall depth
d) effective depth

39. The rolled steel sections are most commonly used as beams because these provide

a) greater lateral stability


b) large moment of resistance as compared to other section
c) All
d) large moment of inertia with less cross sectional area

40. A beam is defined as a structural member subjected to

a) transverse loading
b) axial and transverse loading
c) axial loading
d) none of these

41. If the depth of two column sections are equal, then the column splice is provided

a) with filler and hearing plates


b) with filler plates
c) with bearing plates
d) none of these

42. The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in direction at
one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other end, is

a) 8L
b) 2L
c) 1 L
d) 0.85 L
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43. A fillet weld may be termed as

a) mitre weld
b) all
c) convex weld
d) concave weld

44. The most economical section for a column, is

a) rectangular
b) flat strip
c) tubular section
d) solid round

45. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a) Dead loads are known in the beginning of the design


b) Dead loads change their positions and vary in magnitude
c) Dead load includes self-weight of the structure and superimposed loads permanently attached to the structure
d) None of these

46. The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal to 37 mm plus
(where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate).

a) 6 t
b) 2 t
c) 4 t
d) 8 t

47. If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are spaced not greater
than

a) 1.75 d
b) 1.5 d
c) 1 d
d) 1.25 d

48. If you used 600 W of power for 60 h, you have used

a) 1. 36 kWh
b) 2. 1 kWh
c) 3. 10 kWh
d) 3.6 kWh
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49. The radius of curvature of the arc of the bubble tube is generally kept

a) 10m
b) 25m
c) 100m
d) 50m

50. The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon

a) scale of plotting
b) indefinite features to be surveyed
c) method of setting out perpendiculars
d) accuracy of the work

51. In chain surveying field work is limited to


a) angular measurements only
b) both linear and angular measurements
c) all the above
d) linear measurements only field work is limited to
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52. In a mortar the binding material is


a) Cement
b) Sand
c) Surkhi
d) cinder

53. wrought iron contains carbon upto


a) 0.25%
b) 1.0%
c) 1.5%
d) 2%

54. Ultimate strength to cement is provided by


a) Tricalcium Silicate
b) Di-calcium silicate
c) Tri-calcium aluminate
d) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
55. Initial setting time of lime-Pozzolana
a) 30 minutes
b) 60 minutes
c) 90 minutes
d) 120 minutes
56. Commonly used colour pigment in paint is
a) Ambers
b) Carbon black
c) iron oxide
d) lamp black
e) All the above
57. A badly mixed cement concrete results in
a) segregation
b) bleeding
c) honey combing
d) none to these
58. Refractory bricks are used for
a) retaining walls
b) columns
c) piers
d) combustion chambers
59. Closed contours of decreasing values towards their centre represents
a) a hill
b) a depression
c) a saddle or pass
d) a river bed

60. Dado is usually provided in


a) Dinning hall
b) bath room
c) living room
d) room
61. seasoning of timber is the process of
a) Burning timber
b) Adding preservatives
c) Removing water
d) Adding glaze
62. What is the harmful effect of presents of alkali in brick earth on bricks
a) Discolourises bricks
b) Efflorescence
c) Porous bricks
d) Flaking
63. A levelling staff is used to establish
a) Horizontal line of sight
b) Vertical line of sight
c) Location of points
d) Distance of points
64. What is the ideal water-cement ratio to be used while hand mixing
a) 0.4-0.5
b) 0.5-0.6
c) 0.6-1
d) 1.6-2
65. Which IS code gives details regarding water to be used in concrete
a) IS 456
b) IS 383
c) IS 565
d) IS 3012

66. Modifying properties of PVC is called


a) Reformation
b) Recasting
c) Curing
d) Compounding
67. Ridge piece in a sloping roof is usually a
a) Metal
b) Wood
c) Polymer
d) PVC
68. How many types of frame structures are there
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
69. Fibre Reinforced Concrete (FRC) is used in
a) Foundation
b) Slab
c) Pavements
d) Beam
70. The vertical portion between each tread on the stair is called
a) Going
b) Nosing
c) Winder
d) Riser
71. Portion of dam in contact with ground at downstream side is
a) Crest
b) Heel
c) Toe
d) Foot
72. What is the full form of TMT bars
a) Thermo Mechanically Treated
b) Thermo Modified Treated
c) Thermal Mechanic Twisted
d) Thermo Mechanically Twisted
73. Which of the following glues is used to join light metals
a) Metal glue
b) Cycle weld
c) Araldite glue
d) Special glue
74. Chain surveying uses the principle of
a) Traversing
b) Chaining
c) Ranging
d) Triangulation
75. CPRF stands for
a) Combined Plain Round Foundation
b) Connected Pile Round Foundation
c) Combined Pile Raft Foundation
d) Corrosion Proof Raft Foundation
76. If a door swings towards the person opening it, it is called
a) Left handed
b) Reverse
c) Normal
d) Right handed
77. Polymer Cement Mortar (PCM) is used primarily for
a) Repairing concrete structure
b) Stone masonry
c) Tile masonry
d) Brick masonry
78. The minimum crushing strength of third class brick is
a) 3.5 N/mm2
b) 7 N/mm2
c) 10 N/mm2
d) 20 N/mm2
79. Plan table surveying uses the methodology of
a) Triangulation
b) Contouring
c) Ranging
d) Traversing
80. What is the meaning of bulking of sand
a) Increase in volume of sand due to moisture absorption
b) Increase in weight of sand due to moisture absorption
c) Increase in mass of sand due to moisture absorption
d) Increase in strength of sand due to moisture absorption