Science Guide PDF

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Science
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10th Standard
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Based on the New Syllabus and New Textbook for 2019-20.
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 Complete Solutions to Textbook Exercises.

 Exhaustive Additional Questions and Answer in all Units.
 Unit Test Questions with Answers in all Units
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ISBN : 978-81-8449-515-7
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Code No : SG 46
Authors : Edited by :
 Ms. A. Stella Mary, M.Sc., M.Ed. M.Phil., PGT-Physics, Chennai Mr. S. Vinayaga Moorthy, M.Sc., B.Ed.,
s.
Coimbatore
 Mr. M. Aadhishankar, M.Sc, M.Ed. PGT-Chemistry, Dharmapuri
 Mr. M. Zakir Ali, M.Sc., M.Phil. PGT - Botany, Vellore Ms. K. Sherlin Riya, M.Sc., M.Phil.
 Mr. V. Siddharth, M.Sc., M.Ed., M.Phil. PGT-Zoology, Chennai Chennai
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Reviewed by :
Dr. B. Parthasarathy M.Sc., M.Phil., Ph.D.
Head of the Department
Chennai
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PERFACE
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Education is not the learning of facts.
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It is rather training of the mind to think.
- Albert Einstein
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Respected Principals, Correspondents, Head Masters / Head Mistresses, Teachers,
From the bottom of our heart, we at SURA Publications sincerely thank you for the support and
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patronage that you have extended to us for more than a decade.
It is in our sincerest effort we take the pride of releasing SURA’s Science Guide for 10th Standard
– Edition 2019 - 20. This guide has been authored and edited by qualified teachers having teaching
experience for over a decade in their respective subject fields. This Guide has been reviewed by a
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reputed Professor who is currently serving as Head of the Department in an esteemed College.
With due respect to Teachers, I would like to mention that this guide will serve as a teaching
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companion to qualified teachers. Also, this guide will be an excellent learning companion to students
with exhaustive exercises and in-text questions in addition to precise answers for textual questions.
In complete cognizance of the dedicated role of Teachers, I completely believe that our students
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will learn the subject effectively with this guide and prove their excellence in Board Examinations.
I once again sincerely thank the Teachers, Parents and Students for supporting and valuing our efforts.
God Bless all.
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Subash Raj, B.E., M.S.

- Publisher
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Contents
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Unit Title Page No.
1-34
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1. Laws of Motion
2. Optics 35-68
3. Thermal Physics 69-88
Physics
4. Electricity 89-124
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5. Acoustics 125-150
6. Nuclear Physics 151-178
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7. Atoms and Molecules 179-200
8. Periodic Classification of Elements 201-224
Chemistry 9. Solutions 225-242
10. Types of Chemical Reactions 243-260
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11. Carbon and its Compounds 261-280
12. Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology 281-298
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13. Structural Organisation of Animals 299-314

14. Transportation in Plants and Circulation in Animals 315-336
15. Nervous System 337-354
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16. Plant and Animal Hormones 355-376

Biology 17. Reproduction in Plants and Animals 377-396
18. Heredity 397-412
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19. Origin and Evolution of Life 413-428

20. Breeding and Biotechnology 429-448
21. Health and Diseases 449-466
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22. Environmental Management 467-484

23. Visual Communication 485-492
Practicals 493-506
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(vi)
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PHYSICS
UNIT
1
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Laws of Motion
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CONCEPT MAP
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Kinematics
Statics Dynamics First law of motion Inertia and its types

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Second law of motion Momentum and force Mass and weight

Aristotle Issac Newton
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Third law of motion Apparent weight Weightlessness

Galileo
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Gravitation Universal law Variation of g

of gravitation
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Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Laws of Motion
MUST KNOW DEFINITIONS

Linear momentum : The product of mass and velocity of a moving body gives the magnitude of its
linear momentum. It acts in the direction of the velocity of the body.
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Like parallel : Two or more forces of equal or unequal magnitude acting along the same
forces direction parallel to each other.
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Unlike parallel : If two or more forces are acting in opposite direction then they are called Unlike
parallel forces.
Resultant : When several forces act simultaneously on the same body, then the combined
effect of multiple forces can be represented by a single force, as resultant.
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Moment of the : Moment of the couple is measured by the product of any one of the forces and
couple the perpendicular distance between two forces.
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Impulse : When a force F acts on a body for a period of time t, then the product of force
and time is known as “impulse”.
Weight : Weight is equal to gravitational force. Also weight (W) = mass × acceleration
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due to gravity. i.e W = mg
Mass : Mass of a body is defined as the quantity of matter contained in the object. Its SI
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Unit 1
unit is kilogram (kg).
Inertial mass : If mass is defined in association with force and inertia, it is termed as “inertial
mass”.
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Gravitational mass : When the mass of a body is defined in association with the gravitational field, it
is termed as “gravitational mass”.
Apparent weight : Apparent weight is the weight of the body acquired due to the action of gravity
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and other external forces on the body.
Weightlessness : Whenever a body or a person falls freely under the action of Earth’s gravitational
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force alone, it appears to have zero weight. This state is referred to as

“weightlessness”.
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Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science
FORMULAE
Physics
1. Like parallel forces Fnet = F1 + F2
2. Unlike parallel forces Fnet = F1 – F2. if F1 > F2 (or) F1 ~ F2 [~ → difference]
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F × S (force × perpendicular distance between the
3. Torque, τ =
force)
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4. Principle of moments = F1 × d1 = F2 × d2
Laws of Motion
5. Force, F = mass × acceleration = ma
6. 1 N =1kgms–2 ; 1 kg f 1 kg × 9.8 ms–2 = 9.8 N
s.
=
1 dyne = 1 g cm s–2 ; 1 N 105 dyne
7. Impulse, J = F × t = Force × time
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8. Law of conservation of momentum = m1v1 + m2v2 = m1u1 + m2u2
9. By Newton's law of gravitation the = GMm
force, F 2
⇒ G = 6.674 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
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10. Acceleration due to gravity, g = GM
R2
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M - Mass of the earth

R - radius of the earth
11. Weight W = mg
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12. Apparent weight
(i) when lift is moving upwards R = m (g + a)

where, R → apparent weight of the person
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(ii) when lift is moving downwards R = m (g – a)

m → mass of the person
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(iii) when lift is at rest R = mg a → acceleration

(iv) when lift is falling down freely R=0 g → acceleration due to gravity
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3
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
I. Choose the correct answer : 8. The mass of a body is measured on planet
Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet
1. Inertia of a body depends on
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of radius half that of the Earth then its value
(a) weight of the object will be ____kg
(b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet (a) 4 M (b) 2 M (c) M/4 (d) M
(c) mass of the object
[Ans. (c) M /4]
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(d) Both a & b [Ans. (c) mass of the object]
9. If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius
2. Impulse is equals to
its mass remaining the same, the weight of a
(a) rate of change of momentum
body on the Earth will
(b) rate of force and time
s.
(a) decrease by 50% (b) increase by 50%
(c) change of momentum
(d) rate of change of mass (c) decrease by 25% (d) increase by 300%
[Ans. (c) change of momentum] [Ans. (c) decrease by 25%]
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3. Newton’s III law is applicable 10. To project the rockets which of the following
(a) for a body is at rest principle(s) is /(are) required?
(b) for a body in motion (a) Newton's third law of motion
(c) both a & b (b) Newton's law of gravitation
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(d) only for bodies with equal masses (c) law of conservation of linear momentum
[Ans. (c) both a & b] (d) both a and c [Ans. (d) both a and c]
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Unit 1
4. Plotting a graph for momentum on the X-axis II. Fill in the blanks :
and time on Y-axis. slope of momentum-
1. To produce a displacement ___________is
time graph gives
required. [Ans. force]
(a) Impulsive force (b) Acceleration
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2. Passengers lean forward when sudden brake

(c) Force (d) Rate of force
is applied in a moving vehicle. This can be
[Ans. (c) Force]
explained by _______ [Ans. inertia of motion]
5. In which of the following sport the turning 3. By convention, the clockwise moments are taken
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of effect of force used as _______ and the anticlockwise moments are

(a) swimming (b) tennis taken as ______ [Ans. negative and postive]
(c) cycling (d) hockey
4. ___________ is used to change the speed of car.
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[Ans. (c) cycling]

[Ans. Gear]
6. The unit of ‘g’ is ms-2. It can be also expressed 5. A man of mass 100 kg has a weight of___________
as at the surface of the Earth. [Ans. 980 N]
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(a) cm s–1 (b) N kg–1

III. State whether the following state
(c) N m2 kg–1 (d) cm2 s–2
ments are True or Ffalse. Correct
[Ans. (b) N kg–1]
the statement if it is False:
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7. One kilogram force equals to 1. The linear momentum of a system of

(a) 9.8 dyne (b) 9.8 × 104 N particles is always conserved.
(c) 98 × 104 dyne (d) 980 dyne Ans. False.
[Ans. (c) 98× 104dyne] Correct Statement : In the absence of external
force, the linear momentum of a system of
particle is always conserved.
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additional questions and answers
Physics
8. The act of cleaning a carpet by heating it
I.Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark
with a stick is an example for inertia of
1. Physics that deals with the effect of force on (a) motion (b) direction
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bodies is (c) rest (d) momentum
(a) Kinematics (b) Dynamics [Ans. (c) rest]
(c) Statics (d) Mechanics
9. A luggage is usually tied with a rope on the
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[Ans. (d) Mechanics]
roof of the buses due to
2. ___________ deals with the bodies which (a) inertia of motion
Laws of Motion
are at rest under the action of forces. (b) inertia of direction
(a) Statics (b) Kinematics (c) inertia of rest
(c) Dynamics (d) Mechanics
s.
(d) momentum
[Ans. (a) Statics] [Ans. (a) inertia of motion]
3. Study of moving bodies under the action of 10. The momentum of a heavy object at rest will
forces __________.
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be
(a) Statics (b) Kinematics (a) large (b) infinity
(c) Dynamics (d) Mechanics
(c) zero (d) small
[Ans. (c) Dynamics]
[Ans. (c) zero]
4. The resistance of a body to change its state of
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rest is called 11. Inertia is a ___________
(a) inertia of rest (a) property of matter (b) type of force
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(b) inertia of motion (c) the speed of an object (d) none of the above
(c) momentum [Ans. (a) property of matter]
(d) inertia of direction[Ans. (a) inertia of rest] 12. A & B are two objects with masses 100 kg &
5. The resistance of a body to change its state of 75 kg respectively, then _________
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motion is called (a) both will have same inertia

(a) force (b) B will have more inertia
(b) momentum (c) A will have more inertia
(c) inertia of motion (d) both will have less inertia
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(d) inertia of direction [Ans. (c) A will have more inertia]

[Ans. (c) inertia of motion]
13. The physical quantity which is the measure
6. The resistance of a body to change its
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of inertia is __________.
direction of motion is
(a) density (b) weight
(a) force
(c) force (d) mass
(b) momentum
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[Ans. (d) mass]

(c) inertia of motion
(d) inertia of direction 14. The sparks produced during sharpening a
[Ans. (d) inertia of direction] knife against a grinding wheel leaves the rim
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7. Mixing sugar in a glass of milk using a spoon of the wheel tangentially. This is due to
is _________ (a) inertia of rest (b) inertia of motion
(a) force (b) momentum (c) inertia of direction (d) force applied
(c) inertia of motion [Ans. (c) inertia of direction]
(d) inertia of direction
[Ans. (c) inertia of motion]
11

dp = –mv – mv = –2mv 2. What is Mechanics? Explain its branches.
= 2 × 0.5 × 20 Ans. (i) It is divided into two branches, namely,
= 20 × 1 statics and dynamics.
= 20 kg ms–1 (ii) Statics : It deals with the objects which are
at rest under the action of forces.
11. Thief jumps from roof of a house with a box
m
of weight W on his head. What will be the (iii) Dynamics: It is the study of moving objects
weight of the box as experienced by the thief under the action of forces. Dynamics is
during jump? further divided as follows:
Kinematics : It deals with the motion of
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Ans. Weight of the box during jump W = m(g – a).
bodies without considering the cause of
= m(g –g1) = 0.
motion.
12. Action and reaction forces do not balance Kinetics : It deals with the motion of bodies
each other. Why? considering the cause of motion.
s.
Ans. This is because forces of action & reaction act
3. What is meant by natural motion?
always on the different bodies.
Ans. (i) According to Aristotle, A moving object
13. Why does a gun recoil when a bullet is fired? naturally comes to rest without any external
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Ans. According to law of conservation of linear influence or force. Such motions are termed
momentum. as "natural motion".
Total linear momentum of gun & bullet before (ii) Natural motion is an unforced motion.
firing = Total momentum after firing. According to Newtonian mechanics, the
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14. A brinjal vendor sells his brinjal using a natural motion is a uniform rectilinear
beam balance in an elevator. Will he gain motion, following its first law of motion. In
general relatively, a natural motion may be
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more if the elevator is accelerating up?

Unit 1
linear or curved.
Ans. Yes. Apparent weight = m(g + a).
Apparent weight increases in elevator while 4. When is a body said to be in rest and motion?
accelerating upward. Ans. (i) When an object does not change its state
during period of time, then it is said to be
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15. Which law is used in geotropism?

in the state of "rest".
Ans. Newton's law of gravitation.
(ii) When an object changes its state during a
16. A boy puts a heavy box of mass M on his period of time, then it is said to be in the
head and jumps down from the top of a
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state of "motion".
multistoried building to the ground. How
much is the force exerted by the box on his 5. Define Linear Momentum.
head during his force fall? Does the force of Ans. (i) The product of mass and velocity of a
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gravity increase during the fall? moving body gives the magnitude of linear
Ans. F = mg1. No, the force of gravity does not momentum.
increase. (ii) It acts in the direction of the velocity of the
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object.
Give short answer 2 Marks
(iii) Linear momentum = mass × velocity
1. An athlete runs a certain distance before p = mv
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taking a long jump. Why? 6. What is resultant force?

Ans. (i) This is due to inertia of motion. Ans. (i) When several forces act simultaneously on
(ii) This is because velocity acquired by running the same object, then the combined effect
is added to the velocity of the athlete at the of multiple forces can be represented by a
time of jump. single force, which is termed as resultant.
(iii) Hence he can jump over a longer distance.
22

27. What is Dynamics? Write its branches based (ii) Rotational motion produced by a single
on the study of moving objects under the finger is less than two fingers producing
Physics
action of forces? equal & opposite forces.
Ans. Dynamics: It is the study of moving bodies 32. What happens to the weight of a person
under the action of forces. Dynamics is further while he goes from polar region to equator?
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divided as follows.
Ans. (i) The value of g is maximum in polar region
(i) Kinematics deals with the motion of bodies
and minimum at the equator region.
without considering the cause of motion.
(ii) Since weight W = mg, as g varies, the weight
(ii) Kinetics deals with the motion of bodies
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of the person is more at poles than at the
considering the cause of motion. equator region.
28. What is Linear momentum?
Laws of Motion
33. Weight of a person inside the lift while at rest
Ans. (i) It is the quantity that helps to measure the is 50 N. What is the weight he feels when lift
impact of the force on the object. moves up with an acceleration of 9.8 ms–2.
s.
(ii) The product of mass and velocity of a Ans. R = m (g + a) (R → Apparent weight)
moving body gives the magnitude of linear
mg = 50 N
momentum.
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(iii) It acts in the direction of the velocity of the
ma = 50 N
object. R = mg + ma = 50 + 50
R = 100 N
29. Classify the following things into like
Here Apparent weight (R) is greater than the
parallel and unlike parallel forces (Dragging
actual weight mg (=W)
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water from well, force applied to crow bar,
weight balance, turning pen cap) Numerical problems
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Ans. Dragging water from well - Like parallel forces

Force applied to crow bar - Unlike parallel 1. A passenger of mass 72 kg is riding in a
forces lift what is the apparent weight of a person
Weight balance - Like parallel forces in (i) descending with constant velocity
(ii) ascending with constant acceleration
Turning pen cap - Unlike parallel
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3 m/s2?
forces
Given
30. If 25 N of force is used to compress a spring,
then how much reactive force exerted by Mass, m = 72 kg
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spring? Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms–2

Ans. Reactive force by spring = –25 N. Constant acceleration, a = 3 ms2
When a 25 N of forces is used to compress To find : Apparent weight, R = ?

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a spring, then same amount of force will be

exerted by the spring in the opposite direction. (i) While descending with constant velocity.
This is according to Newton's III law of motion. (ii) While ascending with constant acceleration.
Solution
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i.e., To very action there is an equal and opposite

reaction.
(i) While descending with constant velocity,
31. Is it possible to open a cap of pen with one a = 0, R = mg
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hand? If not give reason. R = 72 × 10 = 720 N

Ans. (i) Yes, it is possible. Two equal & opposite
forces are required to produce required
amount of torque. Two fingers can be used.
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Solution 2. Give the application of torque.

Physics
Ans. (i) Gears : A gear is a circular wheel with
R = m (g – a)
teeth around its rim. It helps to change the
400 = 50 (10 – a) speed of rotation of a wheel by changing the
400 = 500 – 50 a torque and helps to transmit power.
500 = 500 – 400
m
(ii) Seasaw : When the heavier person comes
50 a = 100 closer to the pivot point (fulcrum) the
100 distance of the line of action of the force
a =
50 decreases. It causes less amount of torque to
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Downward acceleration, a = 20 ms–1 act on it. This enables the lighter person to
lift the heavier person.
22. Calculate the force of gravitation between
Laws of Motion
(iii) Steering Wheel : A small steering wheel
two bodies of weight 50 kg and 10 kg
respectively place at 10 m apart. If their enables you to manoeuore a car easily by
s.
distance increased to 100 % then find the transferring a torque to the wheels with less
change in percentage of force. (New force is effort.
75% less than the original force) 3. Give examples for Newton's third law.
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Given Ans. (i) When birds fly they push the air downwards

by their wings (Action).
Mass of body 1, m1 = 50 kg
(ii) The air pushes the bird upwards (Reaction).
Mass of body 2, m2 = 10 kg
(iii) When a person swims he pushes the water
Distance, R = 10 m
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using hands backwards (Action), the water
Universal gravitation
pushes the swimmer in forward direction
constant, G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2 (Reaction).
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Gm1m 2 (iv) Rockets expel gas at high velocity (Action).

To find :Force of gravitation, F =
R2 The downward moving gas pushes the
Solution rocket in upward direction (Reaction).
(v) When we fire a bullet, the gun recoils back,
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6.67 ×10−11 × 50 ×10 Bullet is moving forward (action). The gun

F =
102 equalise this forward action by moving
backward (reaction).
Force, F = 33.35 × 10–11 N
4. Derive the Relation between g and G?
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Give long answers 5 Marks

Ans. (i) Let M be the mass of the Earth and m be the
1. What are the concepts prepared by Galileo? mass of the object.
(ii) The entire mass of the earth is assumed to
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Ans. (i) The natural state of all earthly objects is

either the state of rest or the state of uniform be concentrated at its centre. The radius
motion. of the earth is R (= 6378 km = 6400 km
(ii) An object in motion will continue to be approximately).
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in the same state of motion as long as no (iii) By Newton's law of gravitation, the force
external force is applied. acting on the object is given by
(iii) When force is applied on objects, they resist F = G M m / R2 ----------------(A)
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any change in their state. This property of (iv) According to Newton second law, the
objects is called "inertia". force acting on the object is given by the
(iv) When dropped from a height in vacuum, product of its mass and acceleration. Here
objects of different size, shape and mass fall acceleration of the is under action of gravity
at the same rate and reach the ground at the hence a = g.
same time. F = ma = mg
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F = weight = mg ----------------(B)
Comparing equations (A) and (B), we get
g = G M / R2
Acceleration due to gravity
GM
g= 2
m
R
5. Discuss the apparent weight of a man in lift?
Ans.
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Case 1 : Lift is moving Case 2 : Lift is moving Case 3 : Lift is at rest. Case 4 : Lift is falling
upward with an downward with an down freely
acceleration a acceleration a
s.
R –W = Fnet = ma W –R = Fnet = ma Here acceleration is zero R = m(g–a)
R = W + ma R = W – ma (a = 0) Here acceleration is equals
R = mg + ma R = mg – ma R=W to g (a = g)
R = m (g+a) R = m (g–a) R = mg R = m(g–g)
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R>W R<W R=W R= 0
R =0
Apparent weight is Apparent weight is lesser Apparent weight is Apparent weight is equals
greater than the actual than the actual weight equals to actual weight. to zero
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weight
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Higher order thinking (HOTS) questions

Unit 1
1. Why does the recoil of a heavy gun on firing 4. A rocket with a lift - off mass 20,000 kg is
not so strong as of a light gun using the same blasted upwards with an initial acceleration
cartridges? of 5.0 ms–2. Calculate the initial thrust
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1 (Force) of the blast?

Ans. Recoil velocity of a gun α . So light rifle recoils
m Given
with large velocity than the heavy rifle.
Initial mass of the rocket, m = 20,000 kg
.s
2. If a body moves with uniform velocity, what

Initial acceleration, a = 50 ms–2
is the net force acting on a body?
(Upward direction)
Ans. If a body moves with uniform velocity, the
Let initial thrust of the blast be T
acceleration of body is zero.
w
∴ net force acting on the body is zero. To find : T = mg + ma

F = ma [ a = 0] Solution

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3. Meteorites are shooting stars. They T = m(g + a) = 20,000 (9.8 + 50)

completely burn out while they hit earth's T = 2 × 104 × 14.8
atmosphere. Apply impulse concept to Initial thrust,
explain their burning action.
w
Ans. A shooting star is a small piece of rock that T = 29.6 × 104 N

hits earth's atmosphere. It heats up due to air
temperature. They enter with very high speeds. 
When it strikes with high speed in short duration
(i.e. impulse = p = λ t) causes burning. But when
hit the ground, it becomes cool.
32
UNIT TEST
Physics
Time : 60 min Marks : 25
I. Choose the correct answer : (3 × 1 = 3)
1. Newton's III law is applicable
m
(a) for a body is at rest
(b) for body with equal masses
(c) for body in motion
co
(d) a & c
2. Plotting a graph for momentum on the X - axis & time on Y - axis , slope of momentum - time graph gives
Laws of Motion
(a) Impulse (b) Force
(c) Acceleration (d) Rate of distance
s.
3. In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used
(a) swimming (b) tennis
(c) cycling (d) hockey
II. Fill in the blanks :
ok
(2 × 1 = 2)
4. __________ is used to change the speed of rotation.
5. To produce a displacement _________ is required.
III. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the statement if it
is false :
o
(3 × 1 = 3)
6. Weight of a body is greater at the equator & less at polar.
ab
7. Newton's first law defines force & inertia.

8. Newton's law of gravitation helps in discovering new stars and planets.
IV. Match the following : (4 × ½ = 2)
1. Newton's I law (a) Propulsion of a rocket
ur
2. Newton's II law (b) Stable equilibrium of a body

3. Newton's III law (c) Law of force
4. Law of conservation of momentum (d) Swimming of a person
.s
V. Assertion and Reason : (2 × 1 = 2)

9. Assertion : A rocket moves forward by pushing the air backward.
w
Reason : It drives the necessary thrust to move forward.
10. Assertion : 'g' decreases as height & depth increases.

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Reason : 'g' depends on the mass of the object & earth's gravity.
VI. Answer in one word : (4 × 1 = 4)
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11. Unit of force : N ; Unit of weight : _________

12. Opening a pen cap : __________ :: Opening the door : moment of force
13. A lift is accelerated upward. What is apparent weight of a person inside the lift?
14. Bodies of larger mass need greater effort to put them in motion. Why?
33

VII. Answer in a word or sentence : (2 × 2 = 4)
15. State Newton's II law.

16. Weight of a person inside the lift while at rest is 50 N. What is the weight he feels when lift moves up with
an acceleration of 9.8 ms–2.
m
VIII.Give long answer : (5 × 1 = 5)
17. State & prove Law of conservation of momentum. (or)
co
What are the concepts prepared by Galileo?

s.
Answer Key
I. 1. (d) a & c 2. (b) Force 3. (c) cycling
ok
II. 4. Gears 5. force
III. 6. False. Weight of the body is less at equator, more at polar region.
True. 8. True.
7.
o
IV. 1 - (b), 2 - (c), 3 - (b), 4 - (a)
ab
V. 9. (d) Assertion is false but reason is true

Unit 1
10. (c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false
VI. 11. newton

ur
Moment of couple
12.
The opposite weight will increase.
13.
.s
According to Newton's II law, F = ma. For given acceleration a, if m is large, F should be more i.e.,
14.
greater force.
VII. 15. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.6, VI 7.
w
16.
Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.25, SA 33.
VIII.17. Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.8, VIII 4. (or)

w
Refer Sura’s Guide Page No.8, LA 1.

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
34
UNIT
2 O
m
ptics
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
Refraction Dispersion
o Light
ok
Scattering of light Optical Instruments
ab
Law of
refraction
Human eye Microscope Telescope
Structure Defects
ur
Simple Compound
.s
Rayleigh Mie Tyndal l Raman

Scattering Scattering Scattering Scattering
Terrestrial Astronomical
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Myopia Hypermeteropia Presbyopia

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Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Optics

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
I. Choose the correct answer : 7. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is
formed
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B, (a) behind the retina (b) on the retina
m
C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. (c) in front of the retina (d) on the blind spot
The speed of light is maximum in [Ans. (c) in front of the retina]
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected
co
[Ans. (a) A] by
2. Where should an object be placed so that (a) convex lens (b) concave lens
a real and inverted image of same size is (c) convex mirror (d) Bi focal lenses
obtained by a convex lens [Ans. (d) Bi focal lenses]
s.
(a) f (b) 2f 9. Which of the following lens would you prefer
(c) infinity (d) between f and 2f to use while reading small letters found in a
[Ans. (b) 2f] dictionary?
ok
(a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus
(b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched (c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
on, the lens will produce (d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
(a) a convergent beam of light [Ans. (a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm]
o
(b) a divergent beam of light
10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green
(c) a parallel beam of light
and red light respectively in a glass prism,
ab
(d) a coloured beam of light

Unit 2
[Ans. (c) a parallel beam of light] then which of the following statement gives
the correct relation?
4. Magnification of a convex lens is (a) VB = VG = VR (b) VB > VG >VR
(a) Positive (c) VB < VG < VR (d) VB < VG > VR
ur
(b) negative
[Ans. (b) VB > VG > VR]
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero II. Fill in the blanks :
.s
[Ans. (c) either positive or negative]

1. The path of the light is called as __________.
5. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point [Ans. ray]
sized image at focus. Then the position of
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the object is at 2. The refractive index of a transparent medium is

(a) focus always greater than ____________. [Ans. one]
(b) infinity 3. If the energy of incident beam and the scattered
w
(c) at 2f beam are same, then the scattering of light is

(d) between f and 2f [Ans. (b) infinity] called as _________ scattering.[Ans. elastic]
6. Power of a lens is –4D, then its focal length is
w
4. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount

(a) 4m (b) – 40m of scattering of light is inversely proportional to
(c) – 0.25 m (d) –2.5 m the fourth power of its _____________.
[Ans. (c) –0.25 m] [Ans. wavelength]
5. Amount of light entering into the eye is
controlled by __________.[Ans. Iris]
38

III. True or False. If false correct it: (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
Physics
1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium assertion.
than in rarer medium (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Ans. False. (d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
m
Correct Statement : Velocity of light is lesser in 1. Assertion : If the refractive index of
denser medium than in rarer medium. the medium is high (denser
2. The power of lens depends on the focal medium) the velocity of the light
length of the lens in that medium will be small
co
Ans. True. Reason : Refractive index of the medium
is inversely proportional to the
Optics
3. Increase in the converging power of eye lens velocity of the light
cause ‘hypermetropia’ [Ans. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
Ans. True.
s.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion]
4. The convex lens always gives small virtual 2. Assertion
: Myopia is due to the increase
image. in the converging power of eye
ok
Ans. False. lens.
Correct Statement : Concave lens always gives Reason : Myopia can be corrected with
small virtual image. the help of concave lens.
IV. Match the following : [Ans. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but
o
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion]
Column – I Column – II
VI. Answer Briefly :
(1) Retina a Path way of light
ab
1. What is refractive index?

Far point comes
(2) Pupil b Ans. The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed
closer
of light in a medium is defined as refractive
near point moves
(3) Ciliary muscles c index ‘μ’ of that medium.
away
ur
2. State Snell's law.

(4) Myopia d Screen of the eye
Ans. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence
(5) Hypermetropia e Power of and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the
accommodation ratio of refractive indices of the two media.
.s
Ans. sin i µ 2
=
Column – I Column – II
sin r µ1
(1) Retina a Screen of the eye 3. Draw a ray diagram to show the image
w
(2) Pupil b Path way of light formed by a convex lens when the object is
placed between F and 2F.
Power of
(3) Ciliary muscles c Ans.
w
accommodation
M
Far point comes A
(4) Myopia d
closer C1 F2 2F2 B1
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(5) Hypermetropia e near point moves 2F1 C2

F1
away
V. Assertion and reason : N
Mark the correct choice as A1
Object placed between F and C
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
39
Physics
I.Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark 9. For air, the refractive index is
(a) 1 (b) infinity
1. The path of light is _______ (c) 0 (d) 1 [Ans. (a) 1]
m
(a) rays (b) point 10. When a ray of light travels from one medium
(c) lines (d) beam to another, it bends. This phenomenon is
[Ans. (a) rays] called.
co
2. The group of rays is ________ (a) reflection (b) dispersion
(a) lines (b) dots (c) refraction (d) interference
Optics
(c) beam (d) none of these [Ans. (c) refraction]
[Ans. (c) beam] 11. The splitting up of white light into colours
s.
3. The velocity of light is _______ is called
(a) 3× 10–8 ms–1 (b) 3× 108 ms–1 (a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) 3 × 10 km s
8 –1
(d) 3× 10–8 km s–1 (c) scattering (d) dispersion
ok

[Ans. (b) 3 × 108 km s–1] [Ans. (d) dispersion]
4. Velocity and wavelength of light are related 12. On a rainy day, small oily films on water
by a relation show brilliant colours. This is due to
c (a) scattering (b) dispersion
(a) g = c λ (b) γ =
o
λ (c) reflection (d) refraction
[Ans. (d) dispersion]
(c) c = γ λ (d) both b & c
ab
[Ans. (d) both b and c] 13. Rainbow formation is due to _____ water
droplets
5. Violet and red light _______ wavelengths.
(a) Ionisation
(a) lowest, highest (b) highest, lowest
(b) absorption of sunlight
(c) same (d) standard
(c) reflection and refraction of sunlight
[Ans. (a) lowest, highest]
ur
(d) reflection of sunlight

6. We can see objects because of [Ans. (c) reflection and refraction]
(a) reflection (b) refraction
14. Red light is used in traffic signals because
(c) transmission (d) diffraction
.s
(a) It has highest wavelength

[Ans. (a) reflection]
(b) disperses least
7. _______determines speed of light in a (c) red is symbol of danger
medium (d) both a & b [Ans. (d) both a and b]
w
(a) thickness (b) wavelength

15. A star appears twinkling in the sky because
(c) refractive index (d) both b and c
of ________ by the atmosphere.
[Ans. (d) both b and c]
w
(a) scattering of light (b) reflection of light

8. When light travels from rarer to denser (c) refraction of light (d) both a and b
medium, the refracted ray is _____ the [Ans. (c) refraction of light]
normal.
w
16. When a beam of light is passed through a

(a) bent away
colloidal solution, the light will be
(b) along
(a) scattered (b) reflected
(c) bent towards
(c) absorbed (d) unchanged
(d) just grazes the surface of separation
[Ans. (a) scattered]
[Ans. (c) bent towards]
43
UNIT
3
m
Thermal Physics
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
o ok
ab
ur
.s
w
w
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Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Thermal Physics

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
2. The temperature and heat are _________
I. Choose the correct answer : quantities [Ans. Scalar]
1. The value of universal gas constant 3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy
m
(a) 3.81 mol–1 K–1 (b) 8.03 mol–1 K–1 required to raise the temperature of _______ of
(c) 1.38 mol K
–1 –1
(d) 8.31 mol–1 K–1 water through______. [Ans. 1 gm; 1o C]
[Ans. (d) 8.31 mol–1 K–1] 4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph
co
2. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change between pressure and reciprocal of volume is
in mass of that substance is ________________ [Ans. straight line]
(a) positive (b) negative III. State whether the following
(c) zero (d) none of the above statements are true or false : If
s.
[Ans. (c) zero] false explain why?
3. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear
expansion occurs along the axis of 1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent
ok
expansion is more than that of real
(a) X or –X
expansion.
(b) Y or –Y
(c) both (a) and (b) Ans. False.
(d) (a) or (b) Correct Statement : The real expansion is
more (or) less than that of apparent expansion.
o
[Ans. (c) both (a) and (b)]
4. Temperature is the average ___________of 2. Thermal energy always flows from a system
at higher temperature to a system at lower
ab
the molecules of a substance

Unit 3
(a) difference in K.E and P.E

temperature.
(b) sum of P.E and K.E Ans. True.
(c) difference in T.E and P.E 3. According to Charles’s law, at constant
(d) difference in K.E and T.E pressure the temperature is inversely
ur
[Ans. (c) difference in T.E and P.E] proportional to volume.

5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction Ans. False.
of heat energy transformation is Correct Statement : Volume is directly
.s
proportional to temperature at constant

303 K pressure.
A
304 K 305 K IV. Match the following :
w
B C
Column-I Column-II
(a) A B, A C, B C
1. Linear expansion (a) change in
(b) A B, A C, B C
w
volume
(c) A B, A C, B C
(d) A B, A C, B C 2. Superficial expansion (b) hot body to cold
body
[Ans. (a) A B, A C, B C]
w
3. Cubical expansion (c) 1.381 × 10–23 JK–1

II. Fill in the blanks : 4. Heat transformation (d) change in length
1. The value of Avogadro number __________ 5. Boltzmann constant (e) change in area
[Ans. 6.023 × 1023 / mol (or) mol–1]
72

9. Increase in area due to heating is called
(a) Linear expansion
(b) Superficial expansion
1. Which of the following has the fastest
m
(c) Cubical expansion
process of heat transfer? (d) real expansion
(a) Conduction (b) convection [Ans. (b) Superficial expansion]
(c) Radiation (d) all the above
co
[Ans. (c) Radiation] 10. Change in volume of a solid during heating
is
2. At what temperature are Celsius and (a) Linear expansion
Fahrenheit equal? (b) Superficial expansion
(a) 40° (b) –40° (c) Cubical expansion
s.
(c) 0° (d) 100° (d) apparent expansion
[Ans. (b) –40°] [Ans. (c) Cubical expansion]
3. In which process heat is transferred directly 11. Linear expansion is the change in ________
ok
from one molecule to other? when object is heated or cooled.
(a) conduction (b) convection (a) length (b) area
(c) Radiation (d) all the above (c) volume (d) density
[Ans. (d) all the above] [Ans. (a) length]
4. Temperature is a property which determines
o
12. Fundamental laws of gases are
(a) amount of heat a body contains (a) Boyle's law
(b) total absolute energy a body has (b) Charles's law
ab
(c) direction of flow of heat (c) Avogadro

Unit 3
(d) thermal energy (d) all the above [Ans. (d) all the above]
[Ans. (c) direction of flow of heat]
13. At constant temperature volume is inversely
5. SI unit of temperature is proportional to pressure of a gas is known as
ur
(a) celsius (b) fahrenheit (a) Boyle's law

(c) kelvin (d) none (b) Charles
[Ans. (c) kelvin] (c) Avogadro
6. SI unit of heat is (d) None [Ans. (a) Boyle's law]
.s
(a) calorie (b) joule 14. According to Charles's law

(c) kilo calorie (d) kelvin 1
[Ans. (b) joule] (a) P µ (b) V µ T
V
w
7. All the substances will undergo the following (c) V µ n (d) all the above
changes like _________ when heated.
(a) increase in temperature [Ans. (b) V µ T]
w
(b) expansion of substance 15. Gas laws state the relationship between
(c) change of state ______ properties of gas.
(d) all the above [Ans. (d) all the above]
(a) pressure (b) volume
w
8. Thermal expansion at particular temperature (c) Temperature & mass (d) all the above
is less in [Ans. (d) all the above]
(a) solid (b) liquid
(c) gas (d) all above 16. SI unit of temperature is __________.
[Ans. (a) solid] (a) K (b) °C (c) / °C (d) °F
[Ans. (a) K]
76

2. Write the co - efficient of cubical expansions Give short answer 2 Marks
of the materials given below in ascending
order. 1. Define temperature.
Mercury, Glass, Brass, Aluminium Ans. Temperature is defined as the degree of hotness
Ans. Glass, Brass, Aluminium, Mercury or coldness of an object.
m
Note 2. What is absolute temperature?
Glass → 2.5 × 10–5 (K–1) Ans. The temperature measured in relation to absolute
Brass → 6 × 10–5 (K–1) zero using the Kelvin scale is known as absolute
co
Aluminium → 7 × 10–5 (K–1) temperature.
Mercury → 18.2 × 10–5 (K–1) 3. Define Kelvin.
Ans. It is defined as the fraction, 1/273.16 of the
3. Four states of matter, arrange in sequence. thermodynamic temperature of triple point of
s.
Plasma, Gas, Solid, Liquid water.
Ans. Solid, Liquid, Gas, Plasma. 4. What is thermal energy?
Ans. Thermal energy is a form of energy which is
Answer in one or two sentences
ok
transferred between any two objects due to the
1. What is thermal equilibrium? difference in their temperatures.
Ans. (i) Two physical systems or objects are said 5. What is meant by heating?
to be in thermal equilibrium if there is no Ans. The process in which heat energy flows from an
o
net flow of thermal energy between the object at higher temperature to another object at
systems. lower temperature is known as “heating”.
ab
(ii) If two bodies are said to be in thermal 6. Name the process of heat transmission.
Unit 3
equilibrium, then, they will be at same

Ans. This process of transmission may be done in
temperature.
any of the ways like conduction, convection or
2. What is superficial expansion? radiation.
ur
Ans. When there is an increase in the area of a solid 7. Write characteristic features of heat energy
object due to heating, then the expansion is transfer.
called superficial or Areal expansion.
Ans. (i) Heat always flows from a system at
3. State - Avogadro’s law. higher temperature to a system at lower
.s
Ans. Avogadro's law states that at constant pressure temperature.

and temperature, the volume of gas is directly (ii) The mass of a system is not altered when it
proportional to number of atoms or molecules is heated or cooled.
w
in the gas. (iii) For any exchange of heat, the heat gained by
(ie) Vαn the cold system is equal to heat lost by the
V hotter system.
(or) = constant
w
n 8. Define one joule.

4. What is Kelvin scale? Ans. One joule is defined as the work done when a
Ans. Kelvin scale is an absolute thermodynamic force of 1N is applied on an object to produce a
w
temperature scale using as its null point absolute displacement of one metre.
zero. 9. Define one kilocalorie.
(or) Ans. One kilocalorie is the amount of heat required
Kelvin is a scale of temperature with absolute to rise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water
zero as zero and the triple point of water as through 1°C.
exactly 273.16 degrees.
82
UNIT
4
m
ELECTRICITY
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
o ok
ab
ur
.s
w
w
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Physics
I. Choose the correct answer : III. State whether the following
statements are true or false: If
1. Which of the following is correct? false correct the statement
m
(a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power
(b) Rate of change of charge is current 1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between
(c) Rate of change of energy is current power and voltage.
co
(d) Rate of change of current is charge. Ans. False.
[Ans. (b) Rate of change of charge is current] Correct Statement : Ohm's law states the
Electricity
2. SI unit of resistance is relationship between current and voltage.
(a) mho (b) joule 2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical
s.
(c) ohm (d) ohm meter appliances.
[Ans. (c) ohm] Ans. True.
3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow 3. The SI unit for electric current is the
ok
when you close the switch? coulomb.
(a) The switch produces electricity
(b) Closing the switch completes the circuit Ans. False.
(c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit Correct Statement : The SI unit for electric
(d) The bulb is getting charged current is the ampere
o
[Ans. (b) Closing the switch 4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is
completes the circuit] equal to 1000 kilowatt hour.
ab
4. kilowatt hour is the unit of Ans. False.

(a) resistivity (b) conductivity Correct Statement : One unit of electrical
(c) electrical energy (d) electrical power energy consumed is equal to 1 kilowatt hour
[Ans. (c) electrical energy] 5. The effective resistance of three resistors
ur
connected in series is lesser than the lowest

II. Fill in the blanks : of the individual resistances.
1. When a circuit is open, _____________cannot Ans. False.
.s
pass through it. [Ans. current] Correct Statement : The effective resistance
of three resistors connected in series is higher
2. The ratio of the potential difference to the
than the lowest of individual resistances.
current is known as ________.
w
[Ans. resistance] IV. Match the items in column- I to

3. The wiring in a house consists of _________ the items in column-II :
[Ans. parallel]
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circuits.
(i) electric current - (a) volt
4. The power of an electric device is a product of (ii) potential difference - (b) ohm meter
______ and ______.[Ans. voltage, current] (iii) specific resistance - (c) watt
w
5. LED stands for ____________. (iv) electrical power - (d) joule

[Ans. Light Emitting Diode] (v) electrical energy - (e) ampere
93
Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Electricity

Ans. 2. What happens to the resistance, as the
(i) electric current - (a) ampere conductor is made thicker?
Ans. (i) Decreases : The resistance decreases as the
(ii) potential difference - (b) volt
conductor is made thicker.
(iii) specific resistance - (c) ohm meter
(ii) Reason : Resistance is inversely proportional
(iv) electrical power - (d) watt
m
to area of cross section A.
(v) electrical energy - (e) joule 1
i.e., R α - here, A = πr2
V. Assertion and reason : A
Where, r is the radius which determines the
co

Mark the correct choice as
thickness.
(a) if both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is the correct explanation of 3. Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not
the assertion.
in fuse wires?
(b) if both the assertion and the reason are true,
s.
but the reason is not the correct explanation Ans. Tungsten has high melting point, it can bear
of the assertion. high heat for glowing. But in fuse wire, the wire
(c) if the assertion is true, but the reason is false. used in it should melt. So a metal (wire) which
ok
(d) if the assertion is false, but the reason is true. has low melting point should be used in a fuse
1. Assertion :Electric appliances with a wire, but not tungsten wire.
metallic body have three wire
connections 4. Name any two devices, which are working on
Reason : Three pin connections reduce the heating effect of the electric current.
o
heating of the connecting wires Ans. Electric iron, and electric toaster, or electric
[Ans. (c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false]
oven, and electric heater.
ab
Unit 4
2. Assertion : In a simple battery circuit the

point of highest potential is VII. Short answer questions :
positive terminal of the battery
Reason : The current flows towards the 1. Define electric potential and potential
difference.
ur
point of the highest potential.

[Ans. (c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false] Ans. Electric potential : The electric potential at a
3. Assertion : LED bulbs are far better than point is defined as the amount of work done in
incandescent bulbs. moving a unit positive charge from infinity to
.s
Reason : LED bulbs consume less power that point against the electric force.
than incandescent bulbs. Potential difference : The electric potential
[Ans. (a) Both the assertion and the reason difference between two points is defined as the
w
are true and the reason is the correct amount of work done in moving a unit positive
explanation of the assertion]
charge from one point to another point against
VI. Very short answer questions : the electric force.
w
1. Define the unit of current. 2. What is the role of the earth wire in domestic
circuits?
Ans. The current flowing through a conductor is said
to be one ampere, when a charge of one coulomb Ans. The earth wire provides a low resistance path
w
flows across any cross section of a conductor, in to the electric current. The earth wire sends the
one second. Hence, current from the body of the appliance to the
Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches
1coulomb
1 ampere = the body of metallic electric appliance. Thus,
1second the earth wire serves as a protective conductor,
which saves us from electric shocks.
94
Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Electricity

3. A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn rL rL
out so that its length is increased to three R = ⇒ 10 =
times its original length. Calculate the new A A
resistance. When length is increased by three times (3L) the
Given area of cross section is reduced by three times
A
m
( ).
Resistance of wire, R = 10 Ω 3
Length is increased to thrice = 3 L
New length = 3 L
To find : New resistance = ?
A
co
New Area =
3
Solution
r.3L  ρL 
∴ New resistance R = = 9 
resistivity (r) × length (L) A  A 
Resistance (R) = area (A)
3
s.
R = 9.R ⇒ 9 × 10 = 90 Ω
R = 90 Ω
I.Choose the Correct Answer

o 1 Mark
1. A series circuit consists of three resistors

ok
5. A parallel circuit consist of three resistors
with values of 430, 210 and 100. The total
resistance is
with values of 140, 250 and 220. The total (a) 0.017 ohm
ab
resistance is. (b) 58.82 ohm

Unit 4
(a) 330 (b) 610 (c) 58.82 kilo ohm

(c) 720 (d) None of the above [Ans. (b) 58.82 ohm]
(d) None of the above [Ans. (b) 610] 6. According to Ohm's law if voltage increase
ur
2. When will be the current flow in a circuit? and resistance stays the same
(a) A switch is closed (a) Resistance decreases
(b) Current increases
(b) A switch is opened
(c) Current remains the same
.s
(c) Switch is either open or closed (d) Current decreases

(d) None of the above [Ans. (B) Current increases]
[Ans. (A) A switch is closed]
7. The amount of work done in joules when
w
3. When one of three series resistors is removed one unit electric charges moves from one
from a circuit and the circuit is reconnected point to another point in an electric circuit
is called.
the current
w
(a) Resistance
(a) increase by half (b) increases (b) Potential difference
(c) decreases by half (d) none of the above (c) Current
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[Ans. (b) increases] (d) charge [Ans. (b) Potential difference]

4. The S1 unit of power is 8. The resistance of material depends on.
(a) joule (b) ampere (a) Temperature
(c) watt (d) ohm (b) Length of conductor
[Ans. (c) watt] (c) Area of cross-section
(d) All the above [Ans. (d) All the above]
100
UNIT
5
m
ACOUSTICS
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
o ok
Quality
<20 Hz
Infrasonics >20000Hz
conditions Loudness
ab
Application Pitch 20-20kHz Ultrasonics
Laws of Doppler
Measuring Properties Audible
n t
ur
velocity
n of Longitudinal
sound wave
ACOUSTICS Sound waves
wave
Echo
.s
At Denser
At Rarer medium
Applications Medium
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Velocity Characterstics Frequency
Sound Board Ear Trumpet SONAR

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Time
Wavelength Amplitude
period
Megaphone
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Physics
I. Choose the correct answer : 6. The sound waves are reflected from an
obstacle into the same medium from which
1. When a sound wave travels through air, the they were incident. Which of the following
m
air particles changes?
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave (a) speed (b) frequency
motion (c) wavelength (d) none of these
co
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction [Ans. (d) none of these]
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the 7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a
wave motion
Acoustics
planet is 500 ms–1. The minimum distance
(d) do not vibrate between the sources of sound and the
[Ans. (a) vibrate along the direction obstacle to hear the echo, should be
s.
of the wave motion] (a) 17 m (b) 20 m
(c) 25 m (d) 50 m
2. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is
[Ans. (c) 25 m]
ok
330 ms–1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times
without causing a change in the temperature, II. Fill in the blanks :
the velocity of sound in the gas is
1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about
(a) 330 ms–1 (b) 660 ms1 its mean position is called _____
o
(c) 165 ms–1 (d) 990 ms–1 [Ans. Longitudinal]
[Ans. (c) 165 ms–1] 2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from
ab
3. The frequency, which is audible to the south to north, the particles of the medium
would be vibrating in _____
human ear is
[Ans. Amplitude]
(a) 50 kHz (b) 20 kHz
(c) 15000 kHz (d) 10000 kHz 3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450Hz,
ur
approaches a stationary observer at a speed of

[Ans. (b) 20 kHz]
33 ms–1. The frequency heard by the observer is
4. The velocity of sound in air at a particular (speed of sound = 330 m s–1) ______.
temperature is 330 ms–1. What will be its [Ans. 500 Hz]
.s
value when temperature is doubled and the 4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity
pressure is halved? 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound
(a) 330 ms–1 of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is
w
(b) 165 ms–1 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard
(c) 330 × √2 ms–1 by the observer is ___________.
(d) 320 × √2 ms–1
[Ans. 2068 Hz]
[Ans. (c) 330 × √2 ms–1]
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III. True or false :- (If false give the

5. If a sound wave travels with a frequency of reason)
1.25 × 104 Hz at 344 m s–1, the wave length
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will be 1. Sound can travel through solids, gases,

(a) 27.52 m (b) 275.2 m liquids and even vacuum.
(c) 0.02752 m (d) 2.752 m Ans. False.
[Ans. (c) 0.02752 m] Correct Statement : Sound waves cannot
travel through vacuum
129

2. Why does an empty vessel produce more Solution
sound than a filled one?
Physics
Velocity of light, c = nl ⇒ l
Ans. In an empty vessel, only air is present inside it. C 400
Whenever sound is produced in an empty vessel, = =
n 200
the vibration of air molecule will be more due to
= 2 m
m
multiple reflections. But a filled vessel has very
less number of air molecules than the contents 2. The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds
in it, so it does not produce more sound. later than the flash of lightning. If the speed
3. Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can of sound in air is 330 ms–1, what will be the
co
reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in height of the cloud?
air at that temperature? Given

Acoustics
(V0 = 331 m s–1) Time, t = 9.8 s
Ans. Velocity of sound in gas at 0° C Speed of sound, c = 330 ms–1
s.
v0 = 331 ms–1
To find : Height of the cloud, d = ?
Air temperature in Rajasthan,
T = 46° C Solution
ok
vt = (v0 + 0.61T) d
c = ⇒ d height of the cloud, = c × t
= 331 + 28.06 t
= 330 × 9.8
vt = 359.06 m / s
Height of the cloud d = 3234 m
4. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls are
o
3. A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m
curved.
from a source of sound is listening to a sound
Ans. They are made curved so that the sound after
of 600 Hz. Find the time period between
ab
reflecting from the ceiling reaches every corner successive compressions from the source?
of the concert hall and the audience listen the
Given
sound clearly.
5. Mention two cases in which there is no Frequency of sound, n = 600 Hz
Doppler effect in sound?
ur
To find : Time period between

Ans. (i) When source(S) and listener (L) both are at
successive compressions, T = ?
rest.
(ii) When S and L move in such a way that Solution

.s
distance between them remains constant.

1 1
(iii) When source S and L are moving in T = = = 1.7 × 10–3 s
n 600
mutually perpendicular directions.
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Time period, T = 0.0002 s

VIII. Problem Corner : 4. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship
towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that
1. A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and
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the time interval between the transmission

a speed of 400 ms–1 in a medium. Find the
and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds.
wavelength of the sound wave.
What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of
Given
sound in the seawater is 1400 m s–1?
w

Frequency of a wave, n = 200 Hz Given

Speed of sound, c = 400 ms–1
Time interval between sending and receiving of

To find : Wavelength, l = ? the wave, t = 1.6 s
Velocity of sound in sea wave, c = 1400 ms–1
131
Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Acoustics

Conditions necessary for hearing an echo: X. HOT Questions :
(i) Thus, the minimum time gap between the
1. Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave
original sound and echo must be 0.1s.
have the same frequency, then which one has
(ii) The minimum distance required to hear an a longer wavelength?
echo is 17.2 m. (a) Sound (b) Light
m
b) The medical applications of echo: (c) both (a) and (b) (d) data not sufficient
The principle of echo is used in obstetric [Ans. (b) Light]
ultrasonography, which is used to create 2. When sound is reflected from a distant
real-time visual images of the developing
co
object, an echo is produced. Let the distance
embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. between the reflecting surface and the
c) Calculate the speed of sound using echo: source of sound remain the same. Do you
(i) The sound pulse emitted by the source hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify
travels a total distance of 2d while traveling your answer.
s.
from the source to the wall and then back Ans. (i) An echo can only be heard if it reaches the
to the receiver. ear after 0.1s. Time taken = Total distance /
(ii) The time taken for this has been observed Velocity.
ok
to be “t”. Hence, the speed of sound wave is (ii) If the temperature rises (i.e. on a hotter
given by day), the velocity of sound will increase.
This in turn will increase the required for
Distance travelled 2d hearing an echo. As The distance does not
Speed of sound = =
Time taken t increase between the source and reflecting
o
body, no echo is heard.
ab

Unit 5
I.Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark 3. A sound wave passes through gold rod and
comes into the surrounding air. What is the
1. Which statement is true? relation between original wavelength λ and
ur
(a) Sound waves can propagate as longitudinal

new wavelength λ' ?
or transverse depending on the transmitting
(a) λ = λ' (b) λ > λ'
medium.
(b) λ < λ'
(b) Sound waves are transverse and they
(b) None of the above [ Ans. (b) λ > λ'.]
.s
propagate perpendicular to the transmitting

medium. 4. At what velocity should a source of sound
(c) Sound waves are longitudinal waves and move towards a listener so that apparent
they propagate parallel to the transmitting
w
frequency is twice the actual frequency?

medium.
(a) 165 m/s (b) 330 m/s
(d) Sound waves can propagate as longitudinal
(c) 660 m/s (d) 110 m/s
or transverse depending on the temperature.
w
[Ans. (c) Sound waves are longitudinal [Ans. (a) 165 m/s]
waves and they propagate parallel to the 5. The region of a sound wave having low
transmitting medium.] pressure is
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2. The velocity of sound is affected by (a) interference (b) refraction

(a) temperature (b) density (c) rarefaction (d) compression
(c) pressure (d) all the above [Ans. (c) rarefaction]
[Ans. (d) all the above]
134
Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Acoustics

Give short answer 2 Marks 9. Why does sound wave travel faster in solids?
Ans. The elasticity of a solid is higher than a liquid or
1. What is the work of architectural acoustician? a gas and so sound travels faster in solids than in
Ans. Architectural acoustician is a person who designs liquids.
concert halls. 10. What is pitch?
m
2. Write the properties of sound wave? Ans. It is the characteristic of a sound wave which
Ans. Properties of Sound Wave distinguishes a sharp sound from a dull sound. It
(i) Wavelength (λ) depends upon the frequency of the wave. Higher
co
(ii) Amplitude (A)
the frequency higher will be the pitch and vice-
versa.
(iii) Time period (T)
(iv) Frequency (n) 11. What is loudness? Write its unit.
(v) Velocity (v) Ans. The sensation produced in the ear which enables
us to distinguish between a loud and a soft sound
s.
3. Define wavelength. is called loudness. The unit of the intensity is
Ans. Wave length (λ) is the distance between two decibel (dB).
consecutive compressions or two consecutive
ok
rarefactions. 12. What is meant by quality?
Ans. It is the sensation received by the ear by which
4. Define amplitude. we are able to differentiate two sounds (even if
Ans. The maximum displacement of a vibrating they are of same pitch and loudness).
particle on either side of the mean position in a
13. How does the elastic modulus of the medium
o
medium is called amplitude.
affect the velocity of sound?
5. What is time period of sound wave?
Ans. (i) The speed of sound is directly proportional
ab
Ans. Time required to produce one complete vibration

Unit 5
to the square root of the elastic modulus

of particles of the medium or time in which a and inversely proportional to the square
wave moves a distance equal to its wavelength is root of the density.
called time period of the sound wave. The SI unit
(ii) Thus, velocity of sound in solids decreases
of time period is second (s).
ur
as the density increases whereas the velocity

6. Define frequency of a sound wave. of sound increases when the elasticity of the
Ans. The number of vibrations (waves) produced per material increases.
second is called the frequency of sound waves. 14. Write the laws of reflection.
.s
The SI unit of frequency is hertz.

Ans. (i) The incident wave, the normal to the
7. What is particle velocity? reflecting surface and the reflected wave at
Ans. The velocity with which the particles of the the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
w
medium vibrate to transfer energy in the form of (ii) The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the
wave is called particle velocity. angle of reflection ∠r .
8. Define wave velocity. Find the relation 15. What is the principle used in whispering
w
between frequency wavelength and velocity. gallery?

Ans. The velocity with which the wave travels through Ans. It is built with elliptically shaped walls. When a
the medium is called wave velocity. In other person is talking at one focus, his voice can be
w
words, the distance travelled by sound wave in heard distinctly at the other focus. It is due to
unit time is called the velocity of sound wave. the multiple reflections of sound waves from the
λ 1 1 curved walls.
v= =λ× = λn [ n = ]
T T T
144
UNIT
6
m
NUCLEAR PHYSICS
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
o
Artificial Radioactivity
ok
Radio Activity
Natural Radioactivity
ab
Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion α rays β rays γ rays

ur
Controlled Un Controlled Natural Arttifical

.s
Nuclear Reactor Atom Bomb Stellar Energy Hydrogen Bomb
Uses
w
Sadety Measures
w
w

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Physics
I. Choose the correct answer : 8. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Man-made radioactivity is also known (i) α particles are photons
m
as_____________ (ii) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
(a) Induced radioactivity (iii) Ionization power is maximum for α rays
(b) Spontaneous radioactivity (iv) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
co
(c) Artificial radioactivity
(d) a & c [Ans. (d) a & c] (b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
Nuclear Physics
2. Unit of radioactivity is _____________ (d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
(a) roentgen (b) curie [Ans. (d) (iii) & (iv) are correct]
s.
(c) becquerel (d) all the above
[Ans. (d) all the above] 9. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example
3. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by of__________________
____________ (a) Nuclear fission (b) α - decay
ok
(a) Becquerel (b) Irene Curie (c) Nuclear fusion (d) β - decay
(c) Roentgen (d) Neils Bohr [Ans. (c) Nuclear fusion]
[Ans. (b) Irene Curie] 10. In the nuclear reaction 6X12 α decay ZYA,
4. In which of the following, no change in mass the value of A & Z
o
number of the daughter nuclei takes place (a) 8, 6
(i) α decay (ii) β decay (b) 8, 4
ab
(iii) γ decay (iv) neutron decay (c) 4, 8

(a) (i) is correct (d) cannot be determined with the given data
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct [Ans. (c) 4, 8]
(c) (i) & (iv) are correct
11. Kamini reactor is located at __________
ur
(d) (ii) & (iv) are correct

[Ans. (b) (ii) and (iii) are correct] (a) Kalpakkam
(b) Koodankulam
5. ____________ isotope is used for the (c) Mumbai
treatment of cancer. (d) Rajasthan
.s
(a) Radio Iodine (b) Radio Cobalt [Ans. (a) Kalpakkam]

(c) Radio Carbon (d) Radio Nickel
[Ans. (b) Radio Cobalt] 12. Which of the following is/are correct?
w
(i) Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear

6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because reactor and an atomic bomb.
(a) it affects eyes & bones (ii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is
(b) it affects tissues controlled
w
(c) it produces genetic disorder (iii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not
(d) it produces enormous amount of heat controlled
[Ans. (c) it produces genetic disorder] (iv) No chain reaction takes place in an atom
w
7. _____________ aprons are used to protect bomb

us from gamma radiations (a) (i) only correct
(a) Lead oxide (b) Iron (b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) Lead (d) Aluminium (c) (iv) only correct
[Ans. (c) Lead] (d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
[Ans. (b) (i) & (ii) are correct]
155

(ii) Moderator : A moderator is used to slow XII. HOT Questions :
down the high energy neutrons to get slow
Physics
neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are the 1. Mass number of a radioactive element is
commonly used moderators. 232 and its atomic number is 90. When
this element undergoes certain nuclear
(iii) Control rod : Control rods are used to
reactions, it transforms into an isotope of
m
control the number of neutrons in order
lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic
to have sustained chain reaction. Mostly
number 82. Determine the number of alpha
boron or cadmium rods are used as control and beta decay that can occur.
rods.
co
232
(iv) Coolant : A coolant is used to remove the Ans. 90 X  →82 Y 208 + 6 2 He 4 + 4 −1e
0
heat produced in the reactor core to produce 6 - Alpha 90
Nuclear Physics
steam. This steam is used to run a turbine 4 - Beta 12
to produce electricity. Water, air and helium 78
are some of the coolant materials.
s.
2. 'X – rays should not be taken often'. Give the
Control rod reason.
Ans. X– rays are radiations that can penetrate deep
ok
into your body. Over exposure of X-ray may lead
to the damage of some sensitive organs present
inside our body. It is better to wear lead aprons
while taking X-ray films.
o
3. Cell phone towers should be placed far away
Schematic diagram of a nuclear reactor from the residential area – why?
ab
Ans. Cellphone towers emit high frequency radio

(v) Protection wall : A thick concrete lead waves or microwaves which are dangerous to
wall is built around the nuclear reactor in humans. These electro magnetic radiations can
order to prevent the harmful radiations cause health problems like Cancer, Birth defects,
from escaping into the environment. low sperm count, memory loss etc. So it is
ur
better to place cell phone towers far away from

residential areas.

.s
3. The explosion of the atomic bomb takes

place due to
w
(a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion

1. Which of the following material is normally
(c) Scalteling (d) Heating
fissionable?
[Ans. (a) Nuclear fission]
(a) U238 (b) Th232
w
(c) Pu240 (d) U235 4. Energy generation in stars is due to

[Ans. (d) U235] (a) chemical reaction
2. The control rod in a nuclear reactor is made (b) fission
w
of (c) fusion of light nuclei

(a) uranium (b) cadmium (d) Fusion of heavy nuclei
(c) graphite (d) plutonium [Ans. (c) fusion of light nuclei]
[Ans. (b) cadmium]
161
Use the analogy to fill in the blank 3. What form of radioactive decay reduces the
atomic number or number of protons by 2?
Physics
1. Heavier elements into higher elements Ans. Alpha decay.
: ___________ :: Lighter elements into 4. Write the name of the radioactive radiations
heavier elements : Nuclear fusion which are emitted by the unstable nuclei.
m
Ans. Nuclear fission. Ans. α, β and γ rays
2. α - rays : Helium particles :: β - rays : 5. How does radioactive material generate
__________ electricity?
co
Ans. electrons. Ans. The heat generated during fission creates steam
3. _______ : negative charged particles :: γ - which in turn generates electricity.
Nuclear Physics
rays : neutral 6. How many power plants in India? Name the
Ans. β - rays. nuclear reactor in India.
s.
4. P32 : cure skin diseases :: Fe59 : __________ Ans. 7. One in Maharastra, Rajasthan, Gujarat,
Ans. diagnose anaemia. U.P and two in Tamil Nadu, Kalpakkam and
Kudankulam.
ok
Arrange the following in correct 7. How do workers at nuclear power plants
sequence know when they've received the maximum
amount of radiation deemed safe?
1. Write in descending order, the ionising Ans. Dosimeters is used to track the amount of
property of the given rays.
o
radiation absorbed.
β - rays, γ - rays, α - rays, I - R rays
8. Give the value of kinetic energy of alpha ray.
Ans. α - rays, β - rays, γ - rays, I - R rays
ab
Ans. 5MeV
Note I - R rays are non - ionising rays
Short Answer 2 Marks
2. Write in ascending order, the radioactive 1. Define radioactivity. What are radioactive
ur
elements according to the atomic number. elements?

NP. Pu. U. Pa Ans. The phenomenon of nuclear decay of certain
Ans. Pa, U, NP , Pa elements with the emission of radiations
Note like alpha, beta and gamma rays is called as
.s
"radioactivity" and the elements which undergo

Pa → Protactinium (91)
this phenomenon are called as "radioactive
U → Uranium (92)
elements".
NP → Neptunium
w
Pu → Plutonium 2. What is meant by Natural Radioactivity?

Ans. The phenomenon of spontaneous emission of
Answer in one word radiation from certain elements on its own is
w
called "natural radio activity".

1. The atomic number? 3. Name the elements which undergoes
Ans. Gamma decay. spontaneous radioactivity.
w
2. What is it called when two atomic nuclei Ans. The elements whose atomic number is more
fuse? than 83 undergo spontaneous radioactivity.
Ans. Nuclear fusion Ex : Uranium, Radium, etc.
Technetium (Tc) with atomic number 43 and
Promethium (Pm) with atomic number 61 are
the only tow radio active substances.
171
Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Nuclear Physics

Give long answer 5 Marks (iii) Radio iron is (Fe59) is used to diagnose
anemia and also provide treatment for the
1. Explain the principle & structure of atom same.
bomb. (iv) Radio phosphorous (P32) is used in the
Ans. (i) Atom bomb is based on the principle of treatment of skin diseases.
m
uncontrolled chain reaction. (v) Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio gold (Au79)
(ii) In an uncontrolled chain reaction, the are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
number of neutrons and the number of (vi) Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical
fission reactions multiply almost in a devices as they can kill the germs and
co
geometrical progression. microbes.
(iii) This releases a huge amount of energy 3. Distinguish between Nuclear fission and
in a very small time interval and leads to nuclear fusion.
explosion. Ans.
s.
Structure :
S.No Nuclear fission Nuclear fusion
(i) An atom bomb consists of a piece of fissile
material whose mass is sub critical. The process of breaking Nuclear fusion is
(splitting) up of a heavy the combination
ok
(ii) This piece has a cylindrical void. It has a
cylindrical fissile material which can fit into 1 nucleus into two smaller of two lighter
this void and its mass is also sub critical. nuclei is called "nuclear nuclei to form a
(iii) When the bomb has to be exploded, this fission". heavier nucleus.
cylinder is injected into the void using a Can be performed at Extreme high
o
conventional explosive. room temperature temperature
2
(iv) Now, the two pieces of fissile material add and pressure is
ab
up to form super critical mass which leads needed

Unit 6
to an explosion. Alpha, beta and gamma Alpha ray,

(v) During this explosion tremendous amount radiations are emitted Positron, and
of energy in the form of heat, light and 3
neutrinos are
radiation is released. emitted
ur
(vi) A very high temperature and pressure are Fission leads to emission Only light and
experienced in fraction of second along of gamma radiation. heat energy
with hazardous radiation like γ rays which This triggers mutation is emitted.
adversely affect the living creatures. No harmful
.s
in human gene and radiation is

4 causes genetic transform emitted and
2. Explain the uses of radio isotopes in
medicine field? diseases. will not cause
any genetic
w
Ans. Medical applications of radio isotopes can be

transform
divided into two parts i) Diagnosis ii) Therapy diseases.
Radio. I
Deflected by both They are not
Isotopes are used as tracers to diagnose the
w
the fields; but the deflected by both

nature of blood circulatory disorders, defects of direction of deflection is the fields.
bone metabolism, to locate tumors, etc. Some of 5
opposite to alpha rays.
the radio isotopes which are used as tracers are: (in accordance with
w
hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, sulphur, etc. Fleming's left hand rule)

(i) Radio sodium (Na24) is used for the effective
functioning of heart. 4. What are the precautions to be taken by
(ii) Radio - Iodine (I131) is used to cure the people working in radiation labs?
goiter. Ans. (i) Radioactive materials should be kept in
thick walled lead container.
174
CHEMISTRY
UNIT ATOMS AND

7
m
MOLECULES
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
ok
Atomic structure
Modern Avogadro’s
Atomic
o
Hypothesis
Theory
ab
Atom Molecule
ur
Atomic Mass Molecular

Mass
.s
Isotopes
Isobars Relative
Isotones Relative
Molecular
Atomic Mass
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Mass
Gay-Lussac’s law
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Atomicity of molecule
Average Mole Determine molecular formula
Atomic Mass Concept Relation between M.M and V.D
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic
I. Choose the correct answer : gas at S.T.P is
1. Which of the following has the smallest (a) 11.2 litre (b) 5.6 litre
m
mass? (c) 22.4 litre (d) 44.8 litre
(a) 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He [Ans. (c) 22.4 litre]
(b) 1 atom of He 8. In the nucleus of 20Ca40, there are
co
(c) 2g of He (a) 20 protons and 40 neutrons
(d) 1 mole atoms of He[Ans. (b) 1 atom of He] (b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
2. Which of the following is a triatomic (c) 20 protons and 40 electrons
molecule? (d) 40 protons and 20 electrons
[Ans. (b) 20 protons and 20 neutrons]
s.
(a) Glucose (b) Helium
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen 9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen
[Ans. (c) Carbon dioxide] molecule is
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3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at S.T.P (a)
16g (b) 18g (c)
32g (d) 17g
(a) 22.4 litre (b) 2.24 litre [Ans. (c) 32g]
(c) 0.24 litre (d) 0.1 litre 10. 1 mole of any substance contains ______
[Ans. (b) 2.24 litre] molecules.
(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 10–23
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4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
(a) 28 amu (b) 14 amu (c) 3.0115 × 10
23
(d) 12.046 × 1023

[Ans. (a) 6.023 × 1023]
ab
(c) 28 g (d) 14 g
Unit 7
[Ans. (c) 28g]

5. Which of the following represents 1amu? 1. Atoms of different elements having _______
(a) Mass of a C – 12 atom mass number, but ________ atomic numbers
(b) Mass of a hydrogen atom are called isobars. [Ans. same, different]
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1 2. Atoms of different elements having same number

(c) th of the mass of a C – 12 atom
12 of ___________ are called isotones.
(d) Mass of O – 16 atom [Ans. neutrons]
1
.s
[Ans. (c) th of the mass of a C – 12 atom]

12 3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into
atoms of other element by ________.
6. Which of the following statement is
[Ans. artificial transmutation]
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incorrect?
(a) One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s 4. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons
number of atoms. of an atom is called its _______.
(b) One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s [Ans. mass number]
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number of molecules. 5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known

(c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains as__________.[Ans. standard atomic weight]
Avogadro’s number of atoms.
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(d) One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 1023 6. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is
electrons. ___________ amu. [Ans. 1.0079]
[Ans. (c) One mole of hydrogen gas contains 7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of
Avogadro’s number of atoms] atoms, then it is called ____________ atomic
molecule. [Ans. Homo]
182

5. What is Molar volume of a gas? (ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl
Ans. (i) The volume occupied by one mole of any Number of molecules
gas at S.T.P is called molar volume. No of moles =
Avogadro number
(ii) One mole of any gas occupies = 22.4 litre or 1.51 × 1023
22400 ml at S.T.P. = = 0.25 mole
6.023 × 1023
m
6. Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia. 4. Give the salient features of “Modern atomic
Ans. % of nitrogen in NH3 theory”.
Mass of nitrogen Ans. ‘The main postulates of modern atomic theory’
co
= × 100 are as follows:
Molar mass of NH 3
(i) An atom is no longer indivisible
14 (ii) Atoms of the same element may have
= ´100 = 82%
17 different atomic mass. Example - isotopes
Cl35, 17Cl37.
s.
VII. Long answer questions : 17
(iii) Atoms of different elements may have
same atomic masses. Example - Isobars
1. Calculate the number of water molecule
Ar40,20Ca40.
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present in one drop of water which weighs 18
0.18 g. (iv) Atoms of one element can be transmuted

into atoms of other elements.
Ans. Mass of water = 0.18 g
(v) Atoms may not always combine in a simple
Mass whole number ratio. Eg : Glucose C6H12O6.
No of moles =
o
Molecular Mass (vi) Atom is the smallest particle that take part
0.18 in a chemical reaction.
=
18
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(vii) Mass of an atom can be converted into

Unit 7
= 0.01 mole energy. E = mc2.

Number of molecules = No of moles ×
5. Derive the relationship between Relative
Avogadro number
molecular mass and Vapour density.
= 0.01 × 6.023 × 1023
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Ans. Relative molecular mass :

= 0.06023 × 1023
(i) (Hydrogen scale) : The Relative Molecular
= 6.023 × 1021 molecules
Mass of a gas or vapour is the ratio between
2. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 the mass of one molecule of the gas or
.s
(The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, and that vapour to mass of one atom of Hydrogen.
of hydrogen is 1)
(ii) Vapour Density : Vapour density is the
1 mole of nitrogen (_______g) +
ratio of the mass of a certain volume of a gas
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3 moles of hydrogen ( _________ g) → or vapour, to the mass of an equal volume

2 moles of ammonia ( _________ g) of hydrogen, measured under the same
Ans. 28, 6, 34.
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conditions of temperature and pressure.

3. Calculate the number of moles in Vapour Density
(i) 27g of Al
(ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl Mass of given volume of gas or vapour at S.T.P
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(V.D) =
Ans. (i) 27 g of Al Mass of same volume of hydrogen
Mass According to Avogadro's law, equal volumes of
No of moles =
Atomic Mass
all gases contain equal number of molecules.
27
= = 1 mole Thus, let the number of molecules in one
27
volume = n, then
184
UNIT PERIODIC
8
m
CLASSIFICATION
co
OF ELEMENTS
s.
CONCEPT MAP
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Ore (Concentration of Ores)
Metals of high reactivity Metals of medium reactivity Metals of least reactivity

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Electrolysis of molten ore Carbonate ore Sulphide ore Sulphide ore
Pure metal Calcination Roasting Roasting

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Oxide of metal Metal

.s
Reduction to metal Purification

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Purification
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Chemistry
I. Choose the correct answer : 9. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to
_____
1. The number of periods and groups in the (a) stable arrangement of neutrons
m
periodic table are______ (b) stable configuration of electrons
(a) 6,16 (b) 7,17 (c) 8,18 (d) 7,18 (c) reduced size
[Ans. (d) 7, 18] (d) increased density
[Ans. (b) stable configuration of electrons]
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2. The basis of modern periodic law is______
(a) atomic number 10. ______ is an important metal to form
(b) atomic mass amalgam
Periodic Classification of Elements

(c) isotopic mass (a) Ag (b) Hg (c) Mg (d) Al
(d) number of neutrons [Ans. (b) Hg]
s.
[Ans. (a) atomic number] II. Fill in the blanks :
3. ______group contains the members of
1. If the electronegativity difference between two
halogen family.
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bonded atoms in a molecule is greater than 1.7,
(a) 17th (b) 15th (c) 18th (d) 16th
the nature of bonding is _________.
[Ans. (a) 17th]
[Ans. ionic ]
4. _____ is a relative periodic property
(a) Atomic radii (b) Ionic radii 2. ________ is the longest period in the periodical
o
(c) Electron affinity (d) Electronegativity table. [Ans. 6th]
[Ans. (d) electronegativity]
3. ________ forms the basis of modern periodictable.
ab
5. Chemical formula of rust is________ [Ans. Atomic number]

(a) FeO.xH2O (b) FeO4.xH2O
(c) Fe2O3.xH2O (d) FeO 4. If the distance between two Cl atoms in Cl2
[Ans. (c) Fe2O3.xH2O] molecule is 1.98Å, then the radius of Cl atom is
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________. [Ans. 0.99 Å]

6. In the alumino thermic process, the role of
Al is_____ 5. Among the given species A–, A+, and A, the
(a) oxidizing agent smallest one in size is __________. [Ans. A+ ]
(b) reducing agent
.s
6. The scientist who propounded the modern

(c) hydrogenating agent periodic law is ___________.
(d) sulphurising agent [Ans. Henry Moseley]
[Ans. (b) reducing agent]
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7. Across the period, ionic radii ________

7. The process of coating the surface of metal (increases, decreases) [Ans. decreases]
with a thin layer of zinc is called______
8. ______ and _______ are called inner transition
(a) painting (b) thinning
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elements [Ans. Lanthanides , Actinides]

(c) galvanization (d) electroplating
[Ans. (c) galvanization] 9. The chief ore of Aluminium is __________.
8. Which of the following have inert gases 2 [Ans. Bauxite]
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electrons in the outermost shell? 10. The chemical name of rust is _________.
(a) He (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) Kr [Ans. hydrated ferric oxide]
[Ans. (a) He]
203

III. Match the following : V. Assertion and Reason :
1. Galvanisation Noble gas elements Answer the following questions using the
data given below:
2. Calcination Coating with Zn
(i) A and R are correct, R explains the A.
3. Redox reaction silver-tin amalgam (ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
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4. Dental filling Alumino thermic (iii) A is wrong, R is correct.
process (iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
5. Group Heating in the 1. Assertion : The nature of bond in HF
co
18 elements absence of air molecule is ionic.
Ans. Reason : The electronegativity difference
1. Galvanisation coating with Zn between H and F is 1.9.
[Ans. (i) A and R are correct, R explains the A]
2. Calcination Heating in the
s.
absence of air 2. Assertion
: Magnesium is used to protect
steel from rusting.
3. Redox reaction Alumino thermic
Reason : Magnesium is more reactive
process
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than iron.
4. Dental filling silver-tin amalgam [Ans. (iii) A is wrong, R is correct]
5. Group Noble gas elements
3. Assertion : An uncleaned copper vessel is
18 elements
covered with greenish layer.
o
IV. True or False : (If false give the Reason : Copper is not attacked by alkali.
correct statement) [Ans. (i) A and R are correct, R explains the A]
ab
1. Moseley's periodic table is based on atomic

Unit 8
mass. VI. Short answer questions :

Ans. False. 1. A is a reddish brown metal, which combines
Correct Statement : Moseley's periodic table is with O2 at < 1370 K gives B, a black coloured
based on atomic number.
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compound. At a temperature > 1370 K, A

2. Ionic radius increases across the period gives C which is red in colour. Find A, B and
from left to right. C with reaction.
Ans. False. Ans. Reddish brown metal A is copper.
.s
Correct Statement : Ionic radius decreases

below
across the period from left to right. 2Cu + O2 2CuO
1370k
3. All ores are minerals; but all minerals cannot (A) (B)
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be called as ores; Copper (II) oxide

Ans. True. (black)
above
4. Al wires are used as electric cables due to 4Cu + O2 2Cu2O
1370k
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their silvery white colour. (C)

Ans. False. Copper (I) oxide
Correct Statement : Al wires are used in electric (red)
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cables as they are good condutors.

A - Cu - Copper
5. An alloy is a heterogeneous mixture of B - CuO - Copper (II) oxide
metals.
C - Cu2O - Copper I oxide
Ans. False.
Correct Statement : An alloy is a homogeneous
mixture of metals.
204
UNIT
9
m
SOLUTIONS
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
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Solvent
+
Solute
ab
Hydrated Factors
salt affecng
Solubility solubility
Salt Soluon
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Deliquescence Water Concentraon

obsorbing of soluon
from Volume
atmospheric percent
.s
Hygroscopy air Types of

Soluon
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Based on type
Based on type Physical state
of solute
of solvent Based on type of
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solute and solvent
1. Auqous 1. Dilute
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1. Saturated 1. Solid
soluon soluon soluon
soluon
2. Non aqueous 2. Concentrated 2. Liquid
2. Unsaturated soluon soluon
soluon
soluon
3. Gases
3. Super saturated soluon
soluon

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Chemistry
8. A 25% alcohol solution means
I. Choose the correct answer :
(a) 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water
1. A solution is a _____________ mixture. (b) 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
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(a) homogeneous (c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water
(b) heterogeneous (d) 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
(c) homogeneous and heterogeneous [Ans. (c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water]
co
(d) non homogeneous[Ans. (a) homogeneous]
9. Deliquescence is due to __________
2. The number of components in a binary
solution is __________ (a) Strong affinity to water
Solutions
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (b) Less affinity to water
s.
[Ans. (a) 2] (c) Strong hatred to water
3. Which of the following is the universal (d) Inertness to water
solvent? [Ans. (a) Strong affinity to water]
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(a) Acetone (b) Benzene 10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in
(c) Water (d) Alcohol
nature?
[Ans. (c) Water]
(a) ferric chloride
4. A solution in which no more solute can be
(b) copper sulphate pentahydrate
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dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a
given temperature is called _______ (c) silica gel
(a) Saturated solution (d) none of the above [Ans. (c) silica gel]
ab
(b) Un saturated solution II. Fill in the blanks :

(c) Super saturated solution
(d) Dilute solution 1. The component present in lesser amount, in a
[Ans. (a) Saturated solution] solution is called _______ [Ans. Solute]
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5. Identify the non aqueous solution. 2. Example for liquid in solid type solution is_____
(a) sodium chloride in water
[Ans. Mercury with sodium (amalgam)]
(b) glucose in water
(c) copper sulphate in water 3. Solubility is the amount of solute dissolved in
.s
(d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide _____ g of solvent. [Ans. 100]

[Ans. (d) sulphur in carbon -di-sulphide]
4. Polar compounds are soluble in _____solvents
6. When pressure is increased at constant
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[Ans. polar]
temperature the solubility of gases in liquid
___________. 5. Volume percentage decreases with increases in
(a) No change (b) increases temperature because _____
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(c) decreases (d) no reaction [Ans. of expansion of liquids]

[Ans. (b) increases]
III. Match the following :
7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If
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25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of water how 1. Blue vitriol - CaSO4 .2H2O

much more salt is required for saturation?
_____________. 2. Gypsum - CaO
(a) 12g (b) 11g (c) 16g (d) 20g 3. Deliquescence - CuSO4.5H2O
[Ans. (b) 11g]
4. Hygroscopic - NaOH
227

Ans. 3. Give an example each
i) gas in liquid
1. Blue vitriol - CuSO4.5H2O
ii) solid in liquid
2. Gypsum - CaSO4 .2H2O iii) solid in solid
iv) gas in gas
3. Deliquescence - NaOH
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Ans. (i) Gas - Liquid - carbon-di-oxide dissolved in
4. Hygroscopic - CaO water (Soda water)
(ii) Solid - Liquid - Sodium chloride dissolved
IV. True or False: (If false give the
in water
correct statement)
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(iii) Solid - Solid - Copper dissolved in gold
1. Solutions which contain three components (Alloys)
are called binary solution. (iv) Gas - Gas - Mixture of Helium-Oxygen
Ans. False. gases,
s.
Correct statement : Solutions which contain 4. What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution?
three components are called Trinary solution. Give an example.
2. In a solution the component which is present Ans. (i) Aqueous solution: The solution in which
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in lesser amount is called solvent. water acts as a solvent is called aqueous
solution.
Ans. True.
E.g. Common salt in water, Sugar in water,
3. Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a Copper sulphate in water etc.
non-aqueous solution.
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(ii) Non – Aqueous solution: The solution in
Ans. False. which any liquid other than water acts as
Correct statement : FeSO4.7H2O dissolved in a solvent is called non - aqueous solution.
ab
Unit 9
water forms a aqueous solution. E.g: Sulphur dissolved in carbon

4. The molecular formula of black vitriol is Mg disulphide.
SO4.7H2O. 5. Define Volume percentage.
Ans. False. Ans. Volume percentage is defined as the percentage
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Correct statement : The molecular formula by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given
of green vitriol is Mg SO4.7H2O. volume of the solution.
Volume of the sloute
5. When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs Volume Percentage = Volume of the solution × 100
.s
moisture from the air, because it is

hygroscopic in nature 6. The aquatic animals live more in cold region
Ans. True. Why?
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Ans. Aquatic animals live more in cold regions

V. Short answer questions: because, more amount of dissolved oxygen is
present in the water of cold regions. This shows
1. Define the term: Solution.
that the solubility of oxygen is more in water at
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Ans. Solution is a homogeneous mixture of one or

low temperature.
more substances.
7. Define Hydrated salt.
2. What is meant by binary solution?
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Ans. When ionic substances are dissolved in water

Ans. Solutions which are made of one solute and
to make their saturated aqueous solution, their
one solvent (two components) are called binary ions attract water molecules which then attached
solutions. chemically in certain ratio. This process is called
hydration.
228
Chemistry
8. Under which of the following cases,
dissolution of sugar will be rapid?
(a) Sugar crystal in hot water
m
1. Sugar and copper sulphate crystals are
dissolved in water. The solution is called as (b) Sugar crystal in cold water
________. (c) Powdered sugar in hot water
(d) Powdered sugar in cold water
(a) binary (b) trinary
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[Ans. (c) Powdered sugar in hot water]
(c) ternary (d) quartenary
[Ans. (b) trinary] 9. A beaker contains a solution of copper
sulphate. precipitation of copper sulphate
Solutions
2. 40 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at
takes place when small amount of it added
25º C forms ________ solution.
to __________ solution.
s.
(a) Super saturated
(a) Saturated
(b) Unsaturated
(b) Super saturated
(c) Saturated
(c) Unsaturated
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(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Concentrated
[Ans. (a) Super saturated]
[Ans. (a) Saturated]
3. 8% of NaCl solution is
(a) 8 g of NaCl in 100 g of water 10. Quick lime is dissolved in water is a _______
(b) 8 g of NaCl in 92 g of water process.
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(c) 92 g of NaCl in 8 g of water (a) exothermic (b) endothermic
(d) 92 g of NaCl in 100 g of water (c) reversible (d) both (a) and (b)
ab
[Ans. (b) 8 g of NaCl in 92 g of water]

[Ans. (a) exothermic]
4. White vitriol is _________.
11. Example for solid in solid ____________.
(a) CaSO4·7H2O
(a) Soda water
(b) MgSO4·7H2O
(b) Camphor in air
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(c) K2SO4 ·7H2O

(c) Charcoal
(d) ZnSO4 ·7H2O
(d) alloy [Ans. (d) alloy]
[Ans. (d) ZnSO4 ·7H2O]
12. In exothermic process as the temperature
5. Anhydrous copper sulphate is _________ in
.s
increases, solubility of the salt is ________

colour.
(a) decreases
(a) blue (b) bluish green
(b) increases
(c) colourless (d) black
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(c) no change
[Ans. (c) colourless]
(d) increase and then remains constant
6. Hygroscopic substances are used as [Ans. (a) decrease]
________ agents.
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13. The solubility of gases in liquid increases

(a) oxidizing (b) reducing
with ______
(c) decarbocyleting (d) drying
(a) increased volume
[Ans. (d) drying]
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(b) increased pressure

7. Solubility of a solute is governed by (c) decreased pressure
(a) nature of solute and solvent (d) none of these
(b) temperature [Ans. (b) increased pressure]
(c) pressure
(d) all the above [Ans. (d) all the above]
231
UNIT
m
TYPES OF CHEMICAL
10 REACTIONS
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
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ab
Change in Temperature
Temperature
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.s
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VIII. Solve the following problems: 3. What is the pH of 1.0 × 10–5 molar solution
Chemistry
of KOH?
1. Lemon juice has a pH 2, what is the Solution

concentration of H+ ions?
Solution KOH(aq) ⇒ K+(aq) + OH–(aq)
One mole of KOH would give one mole of OH–
m
pH of lemon juice = 2 ions.
[H+] = ? [OH–] = 1 × 10–5 mol litre–1
pH = –log10 [H+]
pOH = –log10 [OH–] = – log10 [10–5]
log10 [H+] = –2
co
[H+] = 10–2 = – (–5 × log1010) = – (–5) = 5
= 0.01 mole litre–1 pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 5 = 9
Types of Chemical Reactions

2. Calculate the pH of 1.0 × 10–4 molar solution
of HNO3. 4. The hydroxide ion concentration of a
s.
Solution solution is 1 × 10–11M. What is the pH of the
solution?
[H+] = 1.0 × 10–4 Solution

ok
pH = –log10 [H+]
= –log10 [1 × 10–4] [OH–] = 1 × 10–11 M
pH = –(log10 1 – 4 log1010) pOH = –log10 [OH–] = –log10 [10–11]
= 0 + 4 × log1010 = – (–11 × log1010) = – (–11) = 11
pH + pOH = 14
o
= 0+4×1=4
pH = 4 pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 11 = 3
ab

3. The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen
gas to form water is _________ reaction.
ur
1. Which of the following information is not (a) combination (b) redox

(c) exothermic (d) all of these
conveyed by a balanced chemical equation?
[Ans. (a) combination]
(a) Physical states of reactants and products
4. An element ‘A’ on exposure to moist air
.s
(b) Symbols and chemicals formula of reactants

and products turns to form compound ‘B’ which is reddish
(c) Number of atoms / molecules of the reactants brown. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(a) ‘A’ is Ag, ‘B’ is Ag2s
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and products formed

(d) Feasibility of a chemical reaction (b) ‘A’ is Cu, ‘B’ is CuO
(c) ‘A’ is Mg, ‘B’ is MgO
[Ans. (d) Feasibility of a chemical reaction]
(d) ‘A’ is Fe, ‘B’ is Fe2O3
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2. The product formed when calcium oxide [Ans. (d) ‘A’ is Fe, ‘B’ is Fe2O3]
reacts with water is 5. CaCO heat Ca + CO
3(s) (s) 2(g)
(a) Slaked lime The above thermal decomposition reaction
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(b) Carbon dioxide is an _________________ reaction.

(c) Calcium oxide (a) endothermic
(d) Oxygen gas (b) exothermic
[Ans. (a) Slaked lime] (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)[Ans. (a) endothermic]
249
Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Types of Chemical Reactions

16. The pH of baking soda is 9; It is acid in Answer in a word or sentence
natural.
Ans. False. 1. What are the ions in aqueous solutions?
Correct Statement : The pH of baking soda is Ans. Hydrogen and Hydroxyl.
9; It is basic in natural. 2. What are the major classes of double
m
17. If pH of rain water is approximately 7, then displacement reactions?
it is called acid rain. Ans. (i) Precipitation Reactions
Ans. False. (ii) Neutralization Reactions
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Correct Statement : If pH of rain water is 3. Can we get back the wood immediately from
approximately 7, then it is called rain. carbon dioxide and water? why?
Ans. No, because it is a permanent change.
Assertion and Reason
4. How our mobile phone get energy?
Direction : In each of the following questions Ans. Our mobile phone gets energy from its lithium
s.
a statement of Assertion (A) is given and a ion battery by chemical reaction.
corresponding statement of Reason (R) is given
just below it. Mark the correct statement as. Short answer questions 2 Marks
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(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
1. Define rate of reaction.
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
Ans. “Rate of a reaction is the change in the amount
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
or concentration of any one of the reactants or
Reason is not the correct explanation of
products per unit time”.
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Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is false. Consider the following reaction
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are false. A→B
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Unit 10
The rate of this reaction is given by

1. Assertion : Combustion reactions are d[A] d[B]
also called as an exothermic Rate = =+
dt dt
oxidation reaction.
Where,
Reason : In these reactions, oxygen
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[A] – Concentration of A
is added and heat energy is
released. [B] – Concentration of B
[Ans. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 2. Identify whether the following reaction is
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion] reversible or irreversible
.s
2. Assertion : Aluminum hydroxide is not an Ans. (i) Combustion of coal → Irreversible reaction
alkali (ii) Decomposition of PCl5 → Reversible
Reason : An alkali is a base which reaction
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dissolves in water. 3. Define endothermic reaction. Give an

[Ans. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and example.
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion] Ans. Reactions in which heat is absorbed are called
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Reason : (Aluminium hydroxide does not ‘Endothermic reactions’.

dissolves in water) Eg : CaCO3(s) Heat CaO(s) + CO2(g)
w
3. Assertion : Colour of copper sulphate change 4. What is photolysis?

when an iron nail kept in it Ans. Decomposition caused by light is called
Reason : Copper is displaced by iron and photolysis.
iron sulphate is formed.
Eg : 2AgBr(s) light 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)
[Ans. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion]
254
UNIT CARBON
m
11
AND ITS
COMPOUNDS
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
ok
Ether
alcohol
Ester
Organic acid
Carboxylic
acids Functional Drugs
Daily use
o
group
Ketones Fuel
ab
Aldehydes Tyre
Alcohols Carbon Plastic

and its
compounds
Saturated
ur
Open chain Root word

compounds
Unsaturated
IUPAC
Naming
.s
Carbo cyclic Common

Source
compounds name
Closed chain
w
compounds
Hetero cyclic
compounds
w
w

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Chemistry
8. TFM in soaps represents ___________
I. Choose the correct answer : content in soap
(a) mineral (b) vitamin
1. The molecular formula of an open chain
m
(c) fatty acid (d) carbohydrate
organic compound is C3H6. The class of the
[Ans. (c) fatty acid]
compound is
(a) alkane (b) alkene 9. Which of the following statements is wrong
co
(c) alkyne (d) alcohol about detergents?
[Ans. (b) alkene] (a) It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids
(b) It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids
2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is
Carbon and its Compounds

(c) The ionic part in a detergent is –SO3– Na+
3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type compound
(d) It is effective even in hard water.
it is?
s.
[Ans. (a) It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty
(a) Aldehyde (b) Carboxylic acid
acids]
(c) Ketone (d) Alcohol
[Ans. (d) Alcohol] II. Fill in the blanks :
ok
3. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC 1. An atom or a group of atoms which is responsible
nomenclature of an aldehyde is ____ for chemical characteristics of an organic
(a) - ol (b) – oic acid compound is called ____________.
(c) - al (d) - one [Ans. functional group]
o
[Ans. (c) - al]
4. Which of the following pairs can be the 2. The general molecular formula of alkynes is
ab
successive members of a homologous series? _____________ [Ans. CnH2n–2]

(a) C3H8 and C4H10 3. In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a
(b) C2H2 and C2H4 compound is represented by _________ (root
(c) CH4 and C3H6 word / prefix / suffix) [Ans. root word]
ur
(d) C2H5OH and C4H8OH 4. (Saturated / Unsaturated) ___________

compounds decolourize bromine water.
[Ans. (a) C3H8 and C4H10]
[Ans. Unsaturated]
5. C2H5OH + 3O2  → 2CO2 + 3H2O is a
5. Dehydration of ethanol by conc. Sulphuric acid
.s
(a) Reduction of ethanol

forms _______ (ethene/ ethane) [Ans. ethene]
(b) Combustion of ethanol
(c) Oxidation of ethanoic acid 6. 100 % pure ethanol is called ____________
[Ans. absolute alcohol]
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(d) Oxidation of ethanal

[Ans. (b) Combustion of ethanol] 7. Ethanoic acid turns _______ litmus to _________
6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which [Ans. Blue, Red]
w
contains about _______ of ethanol 8. The alkaline hydrolysis of fatty acids is termed as
(a) 95.5 % (b) 75.5 % _____________ [Ans. Saponification]
(c) 55.5 % (d) 45.5 %
[Ans. (a) 95.5 %] 9. Biodegradable detergents are made of _________
w
(branched / straight) chain hydrocarbons

7. Which of the following are used as
[Ans. straight]
anaesthetics?
(a) Carboxylic acids (b) Ethers
(c) Esters (d) Aldehydes
[Ans. (b) Ethers]
263
Chemistry
8. According to IUPAC rules, the secondary
suffix used to represent carboxylic acids is
______.
1. Which among the following is / are the
m
properties of organic compounds. (a) al (b) ol
(c) ate (d) oic[Ans. (d) oic]
(i) are covalent in nature
(ii) exhibit isomerism 9. The enzymes present in yeast is / are
co
(iii) have low melting and boiling point __________.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (a) invertage
Carbon and its Compounds

(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) only (iii) (b) zymase
[Ans. (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)] (c) both (a) and (b)
s.
2. Cyclobutane is an example of __________ (d) neither (a) nor (b)
compounds. [Ans. (c) both (a) and (b)]
(a) a cyclic (b) cyclic 10. Rectified spirit contains
ok
(c) aromatic (d) alicyelic (a) 95.5% of ethanol and 4.5% of water
[Ans. (d) alicyclic] (b) 100 % pure alcohol
3. General molecular formula of alkynes is (c) 4.5% of ethanol and 95.5% of water
_______. (d) 50% of ethanal and 50% of water
[Ans. (a) 95.5% of ethanol and 4.5% of water]
o
(a) CnH2n+2 (b) CnH2n
(c) CnH2–n–2 (d) CnH2n+1 conc H SO
11. Alcohols + Acids 2 4
Esters.
[Ans. (c) CnH2n–2]
ab
This reaction is ________.

4. Ethene is an _____________. (a) Ester hydrolysis (b) Esterification
(a) alkane (c) Dehydrogenation (d) Oxidation
(b) alkene [Ans. (b) Esterification]
(c) alkyze 12. When ethanol reacts with acidified K2Cr2O7
ur
(d) armatic hydrocarbon [Ans. (b) alkene] the orange color of K2Cr2O7 changes to
5. Methylene group is ________.
(a) CH4 (b) – CH3 (a) yellow (b) red
.s
(c) – CH2 – (d) – CH – (c) purple (d) green

[Ans. (c) – CH2 –] [Ans. (d) green]
6. Identify the ketone among the following 13. Chemical formula of acetaldehyde is
w
(a) CH3COCH3 ________.

(b) CH3CHO (a) CH3CHO (b) CH3CH2OH
(c) CH3COOH (c) CH3COOCH3 (d) CH3–O–CH3
w
(d) CH3COOCH3 [Ans. (a) CH3CHO]

[Ans. (a) CH3COCH3] 14. Ethanol is used as __________.
(a) a preservative for biological specimen
7. The organic compound contains 2carbon
(b) an antifreeze
w
atoms, the root word according IUPAC is

(c) an antiseptic
(a) Meth – (b) Eth – (d) all the above [Ans. (d) all the above]
(c) Prop – (d) But –
[Ans. (b) Eth –]
267
UNIT Plant Anatomy and

12
m
Plant Physiology
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
ETC
Affecting
Factors
o ok Chloroplast
structure
Light
dependent
ab
reaction
Krebs
cycle
Respiration Light
Living Photo
independent
ur
synthesis
world of reaction
Glycolysis
plants
.s
Affecting
Plant factors
Mitochondria Anatomy
w
structure
Monocot Dicot root,

root,
w
stem, stem, leaves

Vascular
leaves system
w

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
2. Xylem and phloem occurring on the same radius
I. Choose the correct answer : constitute a vascular bundle called __________.
[Ans. conjoint]
1. Casparian strips are present in the _______
m
of the root. 3. Glycolysis takes place in ___________.
(a) cortex (b) pith [Ans. cytoplasm]
(c) pericycle (d) endodermis 4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is
co
[Ans. (d) endodermis] __________. [Ans. water]
2. The endarch condition is the characteristic 5. __________ is ATP factory of the cells.
feature of [Ans. Mitochondria]
Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology

(a) root (b) stem
(c) leaves (d) flower III. State whether the statements
s.
[Ans. (b) stem] are true or false. Correct the
false statement :
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side by side
ok
on same radius is called _________. 1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of
(a) radial (b) amphivasal water in plant.
(c) conjoint (d) None of these Ans. False.
[Ans. (c) conjoint] Correct Statement : Phloem tissue is involved
4. Which is formed during anaerobic in the transport of food in plant.
o
respiration 2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Ethyl alcohol called as cuticle.
ab
(c) Acetyl CoA (d) Pyruvate

Ans. True.
[Ans. (b) Ethyl alcohol]
3. In monocot stem cambium is present in
5. Kreb's cycle takes place in
between xylem and phloem.
(a) chloroplast
ur
Ans. False.
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(c) stomata Correct Statement : In dicot stem cambium is
present between xylem and phloem.
(d) inner mitochondrial membrane
[Ans. (d) inner mitochondrial membrane] 4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below
.s
upper epidermis in dicot root.

6. Oxygen is produced at what point during
photosynthesis? Ans. False.
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP. Correct Statement : Palisade parenchyma cells
w
occur below upper epidermis in dicot leaf.

(b) when CO2 is fixed.
(c) when H2O is splitted. 5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
(d) All of these. Ans. True.
w
[Ans. (c) when H2O is splitted]

6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP
II. Fill in the blanks : than aerobic respiration.
w
Ans. False.
1. Cortex lies between _________. Correct Statement : Aerobic respiration
[Ans. epidermal and vascular tissues]
produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration.
283

(iii) Water is split during light reaction and 2. Where do the light dependent reaction and
oxygen is produced as a by-product. At the the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
Biology
same time water is again released as a by- Ans. (i) The light dependent reaction refers to
product of dark reaction. the light reaction of photosynthesis or
(iv) Thus many molecules such as ATP, Hill reaction and occurs in the grana of
m
NADPH2, water, CO2 acceptor molecules chloroplast.
are recycled during the biochemical (ii) The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of
pathway of photosynthesis. chloroplast.
co

s.
7. Respiratory quotient for aerobic respiration
is ________.
1. Amphivasal bundle belongs to _______ type (a) 2 (b) infinity
of vascular bundle. (c) 1 (d) 0 [Ans. (c) 1]
ok
(a) concentric (b) collateral
(c) conjoint (d) radial 8. ________ is the outer most layer.
[Ans. (a) concentric] (a) Stomata
(b) Epidermis
2. Exarch and tetrarch xylem are a feature of
(c) Periderm
o
______.
(d) Skin
(a) dicot stem (b) dicot leaf [Ans. (b) Epidermis]
ab
(c) monocot root (d) dicot root

[Ans. (d) dicot root] 9. _________ helps in transpiration.
(a) Stomata (b) Epidermis
3. The _____ is called starch sheath in a dicot
(c) Trichomes (d) Root hairs
stem.
[Ans. (a) Stomata]
(a) epidermis (b) pericycle
ur
(c) endodermis (d) hypodermis 10. ________ help in absorption of water and
[Ans. (c) endodermis] minerals.
4. Protoxylem lacuna refers to a _______. (a) Root hairs (b) Stomata
(c) Epidermis (d) Trichomes
.s
(a) thickening (b) arrangement of

[Ans. (a) Root hairs]
xylem
(c) a cavity (d) exarch xylem 11. ________ is the outermost layer of the root .
w
[Ans. (c) a cavity] (a) Epiblema (b) Cortex

5. Mitochondria was discovered by _______. (c) Endodermis (d) Stele
(a) Sachs (b) Kelvin [Ans. (a) Epiblema]
w
(c) Melvin (d) Kolliker 12. Name the tissue present between the upper
[Ans. (d) Kolliker] and lower epidermis.
6. _____ are racket shaped particles seen is (a) Lower epidermis tissue
w
inner mitochondrial membrane. (b) Pith

(a) Porin (b) ATP (b) Upper epidermis tissue
(c) Oxysome (d) Grana (d) Mesophyll [Ans. (d) Mesophyll]
[Ans. (c) Oxysome]
287

7. What is protoxylem lacuna? 6. What are grana?
Ans. Reason : Xylem vessels are arranged in V or Ans. (i) In the strong of a chloroplast some of the
Biology
Y shape. In mature vascular bundle, the lower thylakoids are arranged in the form of discs
most protoxylem disintegrates and form a cavity. stacked one above the other.
This is called protoxylem lacuna. (ii) These stacks are termed as grana. They
are interconnected to each other by
m
8. How are Plastids classified.
membranous lamellae called Fret channels.
Ans. Reason : There are three types of plastids.
7. Name the internal factors affecting
(i) Chloroplast - green coloured plastids
photosynthesis.
co
(ii) Chromoplast - yellow, red, orange
Ans. (i) Pigments.
coloured plastids
(ii) Leaf age.
(iii) Leucoplast - colourless plastids

(iii) Accumulation of carbohydrates.
Short answer questions 2 Marks (iv) Hormones.
s.
8. Differentiate Dicot leaf and Monocot leaf.
1. Name the tissue systems as classified by
Sachs. Ans.
ok
Ans. (i) Dermal or Epidermal tissue system S.
Dicot Leaf Monocot Leaf
(ii) Ground tissue system No.
(iii) Vascular tissue system 1. Dorsiventral leaf Isobilateral leaf
2. Mesophyll is Mesophyll is not
2. What are casparian strips?
differentiated into differentiated into
o
Ans. The cells of endodermis in roots of show band
palisade and spongy palisade and spongy
like thickenings on their radial and inner
parenchyma. parenchyma.
ab
tangential walls called casparian strips.

3. Draw diagrams to represent the types of 9. Draw the ultrastructure of a chloroplast and
concentric vascular bundles. label the parts.
Ans. Ans.
lakoid membrane
ur
lakoid lumen
Drop of lipids Stroma lakoid Granum
Xylem Chloroplast Stroma lamella

DNA
Phloem
.s
Starch granule
Inner membrane
Intermembrane space
Ribosome Outer membrane
Concentric and Amphicribral Concentric and Amphivasal
Ultrastructure of Chloroplast
w
4. What is starch sheath?

Ans. In a dicot stem endodermis is the inner most 10. List the functions of chloroplast.
layer of cortex. It consists of a single layer of Ans. (i) Photosynthesis.
w
barrel shaped cells, which contain starch grains (ii) Storage of starch.
and is called starch sheath. (iii) Synthesis of fatty acids.
5. What are bulliform cells? (iv) Storage of lipids.
w
Ans. In monocot leaf some cells of upper epidermis (v) Formation of chloroplasts.
are large and thin walled. They are known as 11. What is reaction centre in photosynthesis?
bulliform cells.
Ans. Chlorophyll 'a' is the primary pigment that traps
solar energy and converts it into electrical and
chemical energy. Thus it is called the reaction
centre in photosynthesis.
293
UNIT Structural
13 Organisation
m
Animals
co
of
s.
CONCEPT MAP
LEECH
Moist slimy skin

o ok Skin, Hairs,
RABBIT
External Morphology
External Morphology
Claws and Nails
ab
Metameres
Head, Trunk, Tail
Annula, Segmental Receptorsr External Ear
ur
Anterior, Posterior Sucker Sweat, Sebaceous and

Mammary Glands
Organ and Organ Systems
Buccal cavity, Stomach, Organ and Organ Systems

.s
Crop, Stomach, Intestine Digestion

Intestine, Liver, Pancreas
Cutaneous (Skin) Respiration Pulmonary (Lungs)
Haemocoelomic channels Circulation Heart

w
Supra and Brain Fore, Mid and Hind Brain

Sub pharyngeal ganglion
Nephridia Excretion Metanephric Kidney

w
Hermaphrodite Sexual Dimorphism (Testis

(Testis and Ovary) Reproduction in Male and Ovary in Female)
w

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
3. The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure
I. Choose the correct answer : called _____________ [Ans. anterior sucker]
1. In leech locomotion is performed by 4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as
m
(a) Anterior sucker ______. [Ans. sanguivorous]
(b) Posterior sucker 5. ___________ separate nitrogenous waste from
(c) Setae the blood in rabbit. [Ans. kidney]
co
(d) None of the above
[Ans. (d) None of the above] 6. __________ spinal nerves are present in rabbit.
[Ans. 37 pairs]
2. The segments of leech are known as
III. Identify whether the statements
Structural Organisation of Animals

(a) Metameres (somites) (b) Proglottids
are True or False. Correct the
s.
(c) Strobila (d) All the above
[Ans. (a) Metameres (somites)] false statement :
3. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of 1. An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is
ok
(a) Excretory system called heparin.
(b) Nervous system Ans. False.
(c) Reproductive system Correct Statement : Anticoagulant present in
(d) Respiratory system saliva of leech is called hirudin.
[Ans. (b) Nervous system]
o
2. The vas deferens serves to transport the
4. The brain of leech lies above the ovum.
(a) Mouth (b) Buccal Cavity
ab
Ans. False.
(c) Pharynx (d) Crop
Correct Statement : The vas deferens serves to
[Ans. (c) Pharynx]
transport the sperm.
5. The body of leech has
3. The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic
(a) 23 segments (b) 33 segments
ur
membrane which is movable.

(c) 38 segments (d) 30 segments
[Ans. (b) 33 segments] Ans. False.
Correct Statement : The rabbit has a third
6. Mammals are _______________ animals eyelid called nictitating membrane which is
.s
(a) Cold blooded (b) Warm blooded movable.

(c) Poikilothermic (d) All the above
[Ans. (b) Warm blooded] 4. Diastema is a gap between premolar and
molar teeth in rabbit.
w
7. The animals which give birth to young ones

are Ans. False.
Correct Statement : Diastema is a gap between
(a) Oviparous (b) Viviparous
incisors and premolar in rabbit.
w
(c) Ovoviviparous (d) All the above

[Ans. (b) Viviparous] 5. The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are
connected by band of nerve tissue called
II. Fill in the blanks : corpora quadrigemina.
w
1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of Ans. False.

the ___________ segments. [Ans. last 7] Correct Statement : The cerebral hemispheres
of rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue
2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an called corpus callasum.
animal is called ______ dentition.
[Ans. diphyodont]
301

IV. Match columns I, II and III 9. Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
Ans. Different types of teeth are present. (Incisors,
correctly : Premolars & Molars). Hence it is called
heterodont.
Membranous
Organs Location
covering 10. How does leech suck blood from the host?
m
Brain pleura abdominal cavity Ans. Muscular pharynx helps the leech to suck blood
Kidney capsule mediastinum from the host.
Heart meninges enclosed in VI. Short answer questions :
co
thoracic cavity
Lungs pericardium cranial cavity 1. Why are the rings of cartilages found in
trachea of rabbit?
Ans.
Ans. Trachea is the wind pipe. Tracheal walls are
Membranous
s.
Organs Location supported by rings of cartilage which help in the
Covering free passage of air.
Brain meninges cranial cavity
2. List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.
Kidney capsule abdominal cavity
ok
Ans. Leeches lead a parasitic mode of life by sucking
Heart pericardium mediastinum the blood of vertebrates, and show several
Lungs pleura enclosed in important modifications in their structure.
thoracic cavity (i) Blood is sucked by pharynx.
(ii) Anterior and posterior ends of the body are
o
V. Answer in a sentence : provided with suckers by which the animal
1. Give the common name of the Hirudinaria attaches itself to the body of the host.
ab
Unit 13
granulosa. (iii) The three jaws inside the mouth, causes a

Ans. Indian cattle leech is the common name of painless Y-shaped wound in the skin of the
Hirudinaria granulosa. host.
(iv) The salivary glands produce hirudin which
2. How does leech respire?
ur
does not allow the blood to coagulate.

Ans. Leech respires through the skin.
Thus, a continuous supply of the blood is
3. Write the dental formula of rabbit. maintained.
Ans. (I 2 , C 0 , PM 3 , H 3 ) . (v) Parapodia and setae are completely absent
.s
1 0 2 3 (vi) Blood is stored in the crop. It gives

4. How many pairs of testes are present in nourishment to the leech for several
leech? months.
w
Ans. 11 pairs of testes are present in leech.

VII. Long answer questions :
5. How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Ans. The gap between the incisors and premolar is 1. How is the circulatory system designed in
w
called diastema. It helps in mastication and leech to compensate the heart structure?
chewing of food. Ans. (i) In leech, circulation is brought about by
6. What organs are attached to the two bronchi? haemocoelic system.
w
Ans. Lungs are attached to the two bronchi. (ii) There are no true blood vessels. The blood
vessels are replaced by channels called
7. Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
haemocoelic channels or canals filled
Ans. Muscular pharynx acts as suction pump in leech. with blood-like fluid. The coelomic fluid
8. What does CNS stand for? contains haemoglobin.
Ans. Central Nervous System.
302

(ii) Digestion takes place in stomach by the (iii) Caecum is a thin walled sac present at
action of proteolytic enzyme. The digested the junction of small intestine and large
blood is then absorbed slowly by the intestine.It contains bacteria that helps in
intestine. digestion of cellulose.
(iii) Blood is stored in the crop. It gives (iv) In rabbit the teeth are of different types.
m
nourishment to the leech for several Hence, the dentition is called heterodont.
months. (v) There are four kinds of teeth in mammals
(iv) Due to this reason there is no elaborate viz. the Incisors (I), Canines (C), Premolars
co
secretion of the digestive juices and (PM) and Molars (M). This is expressed in
enzymes. the form of a dental formula.
2. How is the digestive system of rabbit suited (vi) There are three kinds of teeth in rabbits.
for herbivorous mode of feeding? 2033
s.
(vii) In rabbit it is written as Canines
1023
Ans. (i) The digestive system of rabbit includes the
are absent. The gap between the incisors
alimentary canal and digestive gland.
and premolar is called diastema. It helps
ok
(ii) The alimentary canal consists of mouth,
in mastication and chewing of food in
buccal cavity, pharnyx, oesophagus,
herbivorous animals.
stomach, small intestine, caecum, large
intestine and anus. The digestive system is
o
suited to the herbivorous mode of nutrition
seen in rabbit.
ab
Unit 13

5. The number of cranial and spinal nerves in
ur
rabbit are __________ respectively.

1. Leeches have ______________. (a) 11 and 36
(b) 12 and 37
(a) heart (b) lungs
(c) 12 and 36
.s
(c) true blood vessels (d) excretory organs

(d) 10 and 37
[Ans. (d) excretory organs]
[Ans. (b) 12 and 37]
2. In leeches there are _____________ pairs of
6. The urinogenital canal of female rabbit is
w
nephridia.
formed by union of ___________.
(a) 18 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 12
(a) urethra and vagina
[Ans. (c) 17]
(b) urinary bladder and urethra
w
3. In leeches sperms are stored in (c) cowper's gland and urinary bladder
(a) epididymis (b) vas deferens (d) urinary bladder and vagina
(c) testis (d) ejaculatory duct [Ans. (d) urinary bladder and vagina]
w
[Ans. (a) epididymis]

7. The ____________ glands are modified
4. The ovaries of leech lies in the ____________ glands of the skin.
segment. (a) perineal (b) mammary
(a) 10th (b) 11th (c) 13th (d) 15th (c) gastric (d) salivary
[Ans. (b) 11th] [Ans. (b) mammary]
304
UNIT Transportation in
14 C
m
Plants and
Animals
co
irculation in
CONCEPT MAP
s.
Diffusion
Active transport
o
Root hair
ok
Transport in plants Osmosis
Plasmolysis
Imbibition
ab
Pathway of water Apoplast

absorbed by plants Symplast
ur
Stomata
Transportation Transpiration
in plants
Importance of
transpiration
.s
Root pressure
w
Mineral ions
Translocation
Sugar
w
Ascent of sap
w

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
I. Choose the correct answer : 8. A patient with blood group O was injured in
an accident and has lost blood. Which blood
1. Active transport involves group the doctor should effectively use for
m
(a) movement of molecules from lower to higher transfusion in this condition?
concentration (a) O group (b) AB group
(b) expenditure of energy (c) A or B group (d) all blood group
co
(c) it is an uphill task [Ans. (a) O group]
(d) all of the above 9. 'Heart of heart' is called
[Ans. (d) all of the above]
(a) SA node (b) AV node
2. Water which is absorbed by roots is (c) Purkinje fibres (d) Bundle of His
transported to aerial parts of the plant [Ans. (a) SA node]
s.
through
10. Which one of the following regarding blood
(a) cortex (b) epidermis composition is correct
(c) phloem (d) xylem
ok
(a) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte
[Ans. (d) xylem]
(b) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen
3. During transpiration there is loss of (c) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC
(a) carbon dioxide (b) oxygen (d) Blood - Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
(c) water (d) none of the above [Ans. (d) Blood - Plasma +RBC + WBC +
o
[Ans. (c) water] Platelets]
4. Root hairs are II. Fill in the blanks :
ab
Unit 14
(a) cortical cell

(b) projection of epidermal cell 1. _________ involves evaporative loss of water
(c) unicellular from aerial parts. [Ans. Transpiration]
(d) both b and c 2. Water enters the root cell through a _______
ur
[Ans. (d) both b and c] plasma membrane. [Ans. root hair]

5. Which of the following process requires 3. Structures in roots that help to absorb water are
energy? ______. [Ans. root hairs]
(a) active transport (b) diffusion
.s
(c) osmosis (d) all of them 4. Normal blood pressure is _______.

120
[Ans. (a) active transport] [Ans. mm Hg]
80
6. The wall of human heart is made of 5. The normal human heartbeat rate is about
w
(a) Endocardium (b) Epicardium _______ time per minute. [Ans. 72]
(c) Myocardium (d) All of the above III. Match the following :
w
[Ans. (d) All of the above] Section I

7. Which is the sequence of correct blood flow 1. Symplastic - Leaf
pathway
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(a) ventricle - atrium - vein - arteries

(b) atrium - ventricle - veins - arteries 2. Transpiration - Plasmodesmata
(c) atrium - ventricle - arteries - vein 3. Osmosis - Pressure in xylem
(d) ventricles - vein - atrium - arteries 4. Root pressure - Pressure
gradient
[Ans. (c) atrium - ventricle - arteries - vein]
318

9. _________ is not a feature of osmosis.
I.Choose the Correct Answer 1 Marks
(a) Semi permeable membrane
(b) Movement of solvent
m
1. Persons with _________ blood group can
receive blood from 'AB' group individuals. (c) Both a and b
(d) Involves energy
(a) 'A' only (b) B only
[Ans. (d) Involves energy]
(c) AB and O (d) A, B, AB and O
co
[Ans. (d) A,B, AB and O] 10. Absorption of water by modern frames of
2. The number of_______ increases during windows in rainy reason is an example of
allergy. _________.
(a) Basophil (b) RBC (a) diffusion (b) osmosis
s.
(c) Eosinophil (d) Monocyte (c) imbibition (d) transpiration
[Ans. (c) Eosinophil] [Ans. (c) imbibition]
3. The ______ are also called polymorpho 11. Salt added to pickles brings about _______.
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nuclear leucocytes. (a) diffusion (b) plasmolysis
(a) eosinophil (b) thrombocyte (c) imbibition (d) translocation
(c) neutrophil (d) lymphocyte [Ans. (b) plasmolysis]
[Ans. (c) neutrophil] 12. Transpiration does not __________.
o
4. The ______ are the largest of leucocytes. (a) help in ascent of sap
(a) neutrophil (b) monocyte (b) help in keeping cells turgid
(c) helps in cooling leaves
ab
Unit 14
(c) basophil (d) lymphocyte

[Ans. (b) monocyte] (d) helps in translocation
[Ans. (d) helps in translocation]
5. The life span of platelets is ______.
(a) 3 weeks (b) 1 month 13. Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Guttation occurs through stomata.
ur
(c) 2-3 days (d) 40 days

[Ans. (c) 2-3 days] (b) Water molecules stick to xylem because of
6. ______ is not a feature of veins. adhesion.
(a) Red in colour (b) Non-elastic walls (c) Stoma closes when guard cells are not turgid.
(d) Elements like calcium are not remobilised.
.s
(c) Lack internal valves

(d) Blood flow with low pressure [Ans. (a) Guttation occurs through stomata]
[Ans. (c) Lack internal valves] 14. By active transport _________ moves into
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7. Angiology is the study of _______ . the cells where it is utilised or stored.

(a) heart (b) heart attack (a) glucose (b) sucrose
(c) blood vessels (c) fructose (d) water
[Ans. (b) sucrose]
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(d) diseases of blood [Ans. (c) blood vessels]

15. Water from soil enters the root hairs due to
8. Two chambered heart is seen in _______. _______.
(a) fish (b) amphibian (a) capillary Action (b) cohesion
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(c) reptiles (d) mammals (c) adhesion (d) osmosis

[Ans. (a) fish] [Ans. (d) osmosis]
326
UNIT
Nervous
15 System
m
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
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HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM
o
ab
ur
Central Peripheral Autonomic

Nervous System Nervous System Nervous System
.s
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Brain Spinal Cranial Spinal Parasympathetic Sympathetic

Cord Nervous Nervous Nerves
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Nervous
w

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
8. Which nervous band connects the two
I. Choose the correct answer : cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus (b) hypothalamus
1. Bipolar neurons are found in
m
(c) corpus callosum (d) pons
(a) retina of eye
[Ans. (c) corpus callosum]
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) embryo 9. Node of Ranvier is found in
co
(d) respiratory epithelium (a) muscles (b) axons
[Ans. (a) retina of eye] (c) dendrites (d) cyton
[Ans. (b) axons]
2. Site for processing of vision, hearing,
Nervous System
memory, speech, intelligence and thought is 10. Vomiting centre is located in
s.
(a) kidney (b) ear (a) medulla oblongata
(c) brain (d) lungs (b) stomach
[Ans. (c) brain] (c) cerebrum
(d) hypothalamus
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3. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
[Ans. (a) medulla oblongata]
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord 11. Nerve cells do not possess
(c) muscle, receptor, brain (a) neurilemma (b) sarcolemma
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle (c) axon (d) dendrites
o
[Ans. (d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle] [Ans. (b) sarcolemma]
4. Dendrites transmit impulse _________ cell 12. A person who met with an accident lost
ab
body and axon transmit impulse ________ control of body temperature, water balance,
cell body. and hunger. Which of the following part of
(a) away from, away from brain is supposed to be damaged?
(b) towards, away from (a) Medulla oblongata (b) cerebrum
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(c) towards, towards (c) pons (d) hypothalamus

(d) away from, towards [Ans. (d) hypothalamus]
[Ans. (b) towards, away from]
5. The outer most of the three cranial meninges
.s
is 1. _______ is the longest cell in our body.

(a) arachnoid membrane (b) piamater [Ans. Neuron]
(c) duramater (d) myelin sheath 2. Impulses travels rapidly in ________ neurons.
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[Ans. (c) duramater] [Ans. multipolar]

6. There are _________ pairs of cranial nerves
3. A change in the environment that causes an
and _________ pairs of spinal nerves.
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animal to react is called _______.

(a) 12, 31 (b) 31,12
[Ans. stimulus]
(c) 12, 13 (d) 12, 21
[Ans. (a) 12, 31] 4. _______ carries the impulse towards the cell
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body. [Ans. Dendrite]

7. The neurons which carries impulse from the
central nervous system to the muscle fibre. 5. The two antagonistic component of
(a) afferent neurons autonomic nervous system are _________ and
(b) association neuron ___________.
(c) efferent neuron [Ans. sympathetic nerves,
(d) unipolar neuron [Ans. (c) efferent neuron] para sympathetic nerves ]
339

9. The cytoplasm has granular body called
___________.
(a) nissl's granules
m
1. The autonomic nervous system is regulated
by _________ of brain. (b) nerve fibres
(c) glial cells
(a) cerebrum (b) pons
(d) nerve cells
(c) hypothalamus (d) medulla
co
[Ans. (a) nissl's granules]
[Ans. (c) hypothalamus]
2. Sneezing, yawning etc are examples of 10. Neurons do not have the ability to
________. ___________.
(a) voluntary actions (a) multiply (b) divide
s.
(b) involuntary actions (c) regenerate (d) receive
(c) reflex actions [Ans. (b) divide]
(d) planned actions
11. The plasma membrane of axon is called
[Ans. (c) reflex actions]
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_________.
3. The ___________ has a role in sleep cycle. (a) axolemma
(a) cerebrum (b) spinal cord (b) axoplasm
(c) pons (d) hypothalamus (c) myelin sheath
[Ans. (c) pons] (d) schwann cells [Ans. (a) axolemma]
o
4. __________ is not a characteristic of neuron. 12. The axons may be covered by a protective
(a) dendrites (b) axon sheath called ___________.
ab
Unit 15
(c) axolemma (d) can divide

(a) Myelin (b) Nodes of ranvier
[Ans. (d) can divide]
(c) Schwann cells (d) Nissl's granules
5. The __________ is the second largest part of [Ans. (a) Myelin]
the brain.
13. ________ acts as a insulator.
ur
(a) cerebrum (b) medulla

(c) cerebellum (d) pons (a) myelin sheath (b) synaptic junction
[Ans. (c) cerebellum] (c) nodes of ranvier (d) glial cells
[Ans. (a) myelin sheath]
6. ________ is the longest cell of the human
.s
body. 14. ________ carry impulses from the sense

(a) Neuron (b) Neuroglia organ to the central nervous system.
(c) Nerve fibres (d) Cyton (a) unipolar neurons (b) efferent neurons
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[Ans. (a) Nerve fibres] (c) motor neurons (d) sensory neurons
[Ans. (d) sensory neurons]
7. Neuroglia are also called as ______________.
(a) nerve fibres (b) glial cells 15. Each neuron can transmit _________ nerve
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(c) neuron (d) nerve cell impulses per second.

[Ans. (b) glial cells] (a) 2000 (b) 3000
(c) 1000 (d) 5000
8. Cyton is also called cell body or
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[Ans. (c) 1000]

____________.
(a) axon (b) perikaryon 16. The __________ is the controlling centre of
(c) neuroglia (d) neuron all the body activities.
[Ans. (b) perikaryon] (a) heart (b) brain
(c) kidney (d) liver
[Ans. (b) brain]
346
UNIT Plant and

16 Animal
m
Hormones
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
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Plant Hormones
o
Growth Promoters Growth Inhibitors
ab
Auxins
Abscisic Acid
Cytokinins
ur
Gibberellins Ethylene
.s
VASOPRESSIN,
OXYTOCIN
GH, PRL, TSH, ADENOHYPOPHYSIS NEUROHYPOPHYSIS
w
ACTH, FSH, LH
THYROID T3, T4
PITUITARY GLAND GLAND
INSULIN, PANCREAS (ISLETS
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OF LANGERHANS) PARATHORMONE
GLUCAGON
PARATHYROID
ENDOCRINE
GLANDS GLAND
THYMUS GLAND
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GONADS TESTIS
THYMOSIN
ADRENAL
GLAND OVARY TESTOSTERONE
ADRENAL CORTEX ADRENAL
CORTISOL, MEDULLA ESTROGEN,
ALDOSTERONE EPINEPHRINE PROGESTERONE
NOREPINEPHRINE

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
9. Which one is referred as "Master Gland"?
I. Choose the correct answer : a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland
1. Gibberellins cause : c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland
m
[Ans. (b) Pituitary gland]
(a) Shortening of genetically tall plants
(b) Elongation of dwarf plants II. Fill in the blanks :
(c) Promotion of rooting
co
(d) Yellowing of young leaves 1. ________ causes cell elongation, apical
[Ans. (b) Elongation of dwarf plants] dominance and prevents abscission.
[Ans. Auxin]
2. The hormone which has positive effect on
Plant and Animal Hormones

apical dominance is : 2. _______ is a gaseous hormone involved in
abscission of organs and acceleration of fruit
s.
a) Cytokinin b) Auxin
c) Gibberellin d) Ehtylene ripening. [Ans. Ethylene]
[Ans. (b) Auxin] 3. ________ causes stomatal closure.
[Ans. Abscissic acid]
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3. Which one of the following hormones is
naturally not found in plants : 4. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in
a) 2, 4 - D b) GA3 ___________ plants.[Ans. rosette]
c) Gibberellin d) IAA
[Ans. (a) 2, 4 – D] 5. The hormone which has negative effect on apical
o
dominance is ________.[Ans. cytokinin]
4. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
6. Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled
a) Darwin b) N. Smit
ab
by ___________. [Ans. parathormone]

c) Paal d) F.W. Went
[Ans. (d) F.W. Went] 7. In the Islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete
_______. [Ans. insulin]
5. To increase the sugar production
in sugarcanes they are sprayed with 8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland is
ur
___________. controlled by __________.

a) Auxin b) Cytokinin [Ans. thyroid stimulating hormone]
c) Gibberellins d) Ethylene 9. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the
[Ans. (d) Ethylene]
.s
children leads to __________.[Ans. cretinism]

6. LH is secreted by III. Match the following :
a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland
c) Anterior pituitary d) Hypothalamus a) M
atch Column I with Columns II and
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[Ans. (c) Anterior pituitary] III :

7. Identify the exocrine gland Column I Column II Column III
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a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland Auxin Gibberella Abscission

c) Salivary gland d) Thyroid gland fujikuroi
[Ans. (c) Salivary gland] Ethylene Coconut milk Internodal
elongation
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8. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as

well as endocrine gland Abscisic acid Coleoptile tip Apical
a) Pancreas b) Kidney dominance
c) Liver d) Lungs Cytokinin Chloroplast Ripening
[Ans. (a) Pancreas] Gibberellins Fruits Cell division
357

3. Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded 5. Susan’s father feels very tired and frequently
eyeball and an increased body temperature. urinates. After clinical diagnosis he was
Name the endocrine gland involved and advised to take an injection daily to maintain
his blood glucose level. What would be the
hormone secretion responsible for this
possible cause for this? Suggest preventive
condition. measures.
m
Ans. Endocrine gland – Thyroid gland. Ans. (i) Susans' father must be suffering from
Hormone – Thyroxine (Excess secretion). Diabetes mellitus.
(ii) Due to deficiency of the hormone insulin
co
4. Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before produced by the pancreas his blood sugar
the start of the exam, he sweats a lot, with level would have increased.
increased rate of heart beat. Why does this (iii) Therefore he would have been advised to
condition occur? take insulin injection daily to maintain his
blood glucose level.
s.
Ans. Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. He is tensed
about the exam and is worried. In stressful (iv) Frequent urination is a symptom of the
disease and excess glucose is also lost from
situation, the hormone Adrenaline is produced
the body through urine. Therefore he would
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by Adrenal gland. It helps the body to handle feel tired.
stressful situations as follows and is produced Preventive measures for Diabetes Mellitus :
during conditions of stress and emotion. (i) Intake of foods rich in protein and avoid
(i) It increases heart beat and blood pressure. sugary foods like fruit juices, fruits, starchy
o
(ii) It decreases blood flow through the skin. vegetables.
(ii) Regular physical exercise.
Thus Sanjay sweats a lot and has increased
Intake of whole grains and wheat based
ab
Unit 16
rate of heart beat.

products.

ur
4. ________ is a powerful inhibitor of lateral

bud growth in Tomato.
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin
.s
1. The term Auxin was introduced by

__________. (c) ABA (d) Ethylene
[Ans. (c) ABA]
(a) Went (b) Kogl
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(c) Charles Darwin (d) Kurosawa 5. _________ induces bud dormancy towards
[Ans. (b) Kogl] approach of winter in trees.
2. Auxins were identified by ____________. (a) Auxin (b) Ethylene
(a) Darwin (b) Kogl (c) ABA (d) Cytokinin
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(c) Went (d) Funk [Ans. (c) ABA]

[Ans. (c) Went]
6. ___________ is a growth inhibitor.
3. ___________ is essential for Morphogenesis.
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(a) Auxin (b) GA

(a) Auxin and Gibberellin (c) Cytokinin (d) Ethylene
(b) Ethylene [Ans. (d) Ethylene]
(c) Auxin and Cytokinin
(d) Cytokinin and Abscissic acid
[Ans. (c) Auxin and Cytokinin]
362
UNIT REPRODUCTION IN
17
m
PLANTS AND ANIMALS
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
ok
Reproduction in plants
o
Asexual Vegetative Sexual reproduction
ab
reproduction reproduction
ur
Fertilization Pollination
Fission
Spore Leaves,stem,
formation root, Bulbils Budding Syngamy
.s
Self
Regeneration Pollination
Double
Cross
w
Fragmentation Fertilization
Pollination
w
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
8. A single highly coiled tube where sperms
I. Choose the correct answer : are stored, get concentrated and mature is
known as
1. The plant which propagates with the help of
m
(a) Epididymis
its leaves is ___________ .
(b) Vasa efferentia
(a) Onion (b) Neem
(c) Vas deferens
(c) Ginger (d) Bryophyllum
(d) Seminiferous tubules
co
[Ans. (d) Bryophyllum]
[Ans. (a) Epididymis]
2. Asexual reproduction takes place through
9. The large elongated cells that provide
budding in ___________ .

nutrition to developing sperms are
(a) Amoeba (b) Yeast
(a) Primary germ cells (b) Sertoli cells
(c) Plasmodium (d) Bacteria
s.
(c) Leydig cells (d) Spermatogonia
[Ans. (b) Yeast]
[Ans. (b) Sertoli cells]
3. Syngamy results in the formation
10. Estrogen is secreted by
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of_________ .
(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Primary follicle
(a) Zoospores (b) Conidia
(c) Graffian follicle (d) Corpus luteum
(c) Zygote (d) Chlamydospores
[Ans. (c) Graffian follicle]
[Ans. (c) Zygote]
11. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
4. The essential parts of a flower are
o
___________ . (a) Copper - T (b) Oral pills
(c) Diaphragm (d) Tubectomy
(a) Calyx and Corolla
ab
[Ans. (a) Copper - T]

(b) Calyx and Androecium
(c) Corolla and Gynoecium II. Fill in the blanks :
(d) Androecium and Gynoecium
[Ans. (d) Androecium and Gynoecium] 1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of
fertilization is ___________ . [Ans. 7 celled]
ur
5. Anemophilous flowers have __________.

(a) Sessile stigma 2. After fertilization the ovary develops into
(b) Small smooth stigma ___________ . [Ans. fruit]
(c) Colored flower 3. Planaria reproduces asexually by ___________.
.s
(d) Large feathery stigma [Ans. Regeneration]

[Ans. (d) Large feathery stigma]
4. Fertilization is __________ in humans.
6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by
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[Ans. Internal]
the division of ___________ .
(a) Generative cell 5. The implantation of the embryo occurs at about
(b) Vegetative cell ___________ day of fertilization. [Ans. 7th]
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(c) Microspore mother cell 6. ___________ is the first secretion from the
(d) Microspore [Ans. (a) Generative cell] mammary gland after child birth.
7. What is true of gametes? [Ans. Colostrum]
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(a) They are diploid. 7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by

(b) They give rise to gonads. ___________. [Ans. pituitary gland]
(c) They produce hormones.
(d) They are formed from gonads.
[Ans. (d) They are formed from gonads]
379

(c) Do you think that Rahini’s objection 1. The sanitary pad and tampons should be
towards her parents was correct? If so, wrapped properly and discarded because
Biology
Why? they can spread infections.
Ans. (a) Menarche : It occurs at the age of 11 - 13 2.
Sanitary pad or tampon should not be
years. flushed down the toilet.
m
(b) Napkin hygiene : The parents and 3. Napkin incinerators are to be used properly
teachers are to create awareness among for disposal of used napkins.
the school girls about the use of napkins (c)
Yes, her objection was right. The
and their proper disposal. Girls should be advertisements create awareness. Thus by
co
educated in the following ways : watching such advertisements girls and
their parents will gain knowledge about
such products and their usage.

s.
7. ______________ takes place after
Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark implantation.
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1. Fragmentation is seen in _______________. (a) Cleavage (b) Fertilization
(c) Gastrulation (d) Organogenesis
(a) Spirogyra (b) Bryophyllum
[Ans. (c) Gastrulation]
(c) Yeast (d) Hydra
[Ans. (a) Spirogyra] 8. ____________ from anterior pituitary
o
stimulates milk secretion
2. Regeneration is seen in ___________.
(a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin
(a) Plasmodium (b) Spirogyra
ab
(c) Progestrone (d) Oestrogen

(c) Hydra (d) Amoeba
[Ans. (b) Prolactin]
[Ans. (c) Hydra]
3. The pollen is produced in ____________. 9. Pollination with the help of insects like
(a) Filament (b) Anther honey bees, flies are called _____________.
ur
(c) Ovule (d) Stigma (a) Entomophily (b) Anemophily

[Ans. (b) Anther] (c) Hydrophily (d) Zoophily
[Ans. (a) Entomophily]
4. There are ____________ polar nuclei in the
embryo sac. 10. Approximately ________ of the pollination
.s
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1 done by the insects is carried by honey bees.
[Ans. (a) 2] (a) 70% (b) 80%
(c) 50% (d) 60%
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5. After fertilization the _____________ [Ans. (b) 80%]

disintegrates.
(a) Ovule (b) Polar nuclei 11. ________ is a basal part of the Ovule.
(a) Chalaza (b) Micropyle
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(c) Antipodals (d) Endosperm

[Ans. (c) Antipodals] (c) Nucellus (d) Funiculus
[Ans. (a) Chalaza]
6. Endometrium is prepared for implantation
12. An outgrow arises on the parent body during
w
in ___________.
(a) Follicular phase (b) Ovulatory phase ________.
(c) Luteal phase (d) Menstrual phase (a) Fragmentation (b) Fission
[Ans. (c) Luteal phase] (c) Budding (d) Regeneration
[Ans. (c) Budding]
385
UNIT
18 HEREDITY
m
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
Chromosomes
o
DNA
ok
Heredity
Mutation Mendel’s Law

of Heredity
ab
Structure Chromosomal mutation

Primary constriction Nucleotide
a pentose sugar Changes in the structure
Secondary constriction Changes in the number Law of Dominance
Centromere a nitrogenous base Law of Dominance
Telomere a phosphate group y Law of Segregation
Satellite wn’s syndrome
ur
Law of Independent
Replication assortment
Types of chromosome Gene mutation
Origin of replication
Telocentric Unwinding of DNA Substitution
Acrocentric Deletion
Formation of RNA primer
.s
Submetacentric Insertion
Synthesis of new
Metacentric Inversion
complementary DNA
Kinds of chromosomes Termination
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Autosomes
Allosomes
Sex determination
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inhuman
Male (44+XY)
Female (44+XX)
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a
I. Choose the correct answer : ploidy is called ___________.
1. According to Mendel alleles have the (a) Tetraploidy (b) Aneuploidy
m
following character (c) Euploidy (d) polyploidy
(a) Pair of genes [Ans. (b) Aneuploidy]
(b) Responsible for character
(c) Production of gametes
co
(d) Recessive factors 1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of
[Ans. (b) Responsible for character] Mendel are called _________ [Ans. alleles]
2. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to 2. Physical expression of a gene is called _______
Heredity
(a) Segregation (b) Crossing over [Ans. phenotype]
s.
(c) Independent assortment 3. The thin thread like structures found in the
(d) Recessiveness nucleus of each cell are called _________.
[Ans. (c) Independent assortment] [Ans. chromosomes]
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3. The region of the chromosome where the 4. DNA consists of two ____________ chains
spindle fibres get attached during cell [Ans. polynucleotide]
division 5. An inheritable change in the amount or the
(a) Chromomere (b) Centrosome structure of a gene or a chromosome is called
_______________. [Ans. mutation]
o
(c) Centromere (d) Chromonema
[Ans. (c) Centromere] III. Identify whether the statement
are True or False. Correct
ab
4. The centromere is found at the centre of the the

________________ chromosome. false statement :
(a) Telocentric (b) Metacentric 1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F2
(c) Sub-metacentric (d) Acrocentric generation is 3:1.
[Ans. (b) Metacentric] Ans. False.
ur
5. The _____________ units form the backbone Correct Statement : A typical mendelian
of the DNA. dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is 9:3:3:1.
(a) 5 carbon sugar (b) Phosphate 2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence
.s
(c) Nitrogenous bases (d) Sugar phosphate of a dominant factor.

[Ans. (d) Sugar phosphate] Ans. False.
6. Okazaki fragments are joined together by Correct Statement : The expression of a
recessive factor is altered by the presence of a
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___________________.
dominant factor.
(a) Helicase (b) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA primer (d) DNA ligase 3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene.
Ans. True.
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[Ans. (d) DNA ligase]

4. Hybrid is an offspring from a cross between
7. The number of chromosomes found in
genetically different parent.
human beings are __________________.
Ans. True.
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(a 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.

(b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome. 5. Some of the chromosomes have an elongated
(c) 46 autosomes.
knob-like appendage known as telomere.
(d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes. Ans. False.
[Ans. (a) 22 pairs of autosomes and Correct Statement : Some of the chromosome
1 pair of allosomes] have an elongated knob-like appendage known
as satellite.
399
Biology
Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark 9. __________ is a gene mutation.
(a) Deletion (b) Duplication
1. V shaped chromosomes are called (c) Translocation (d) Ploidy
m
_________. [Ans. (a) Deletion]
(a) metacentric (b) acrocentric
10. The enzyme called ____bind to the origin of
(c) submetacentric (d) telocentric
replication site.
[Ans. (a) metacentric]
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(a) Replicase (b) Helicase
2. The sex chromosomes in a human cell refer (c) Amylase (d) Ligase
to the _________. [Ans. (b) Helicase]
Heredity
(a) 22nd pair (b) 20th pair
11. In human, each cell normally consists _____
(c) 23 pair
rd
(d) 21st pair
s.
of chromosomes.
[Ans. (c) 23rd pair]
(a) 23 pairs (b) 22 pairs
3. The haploid condition in a human cell refers
(c) 20 pairs (d) 12 pairs
to __________ chromosomes.
[Ans. (a) 23 pairs]
ok
(a) 44 (b) 23 (c) 46 (d) 22
[Ans. (b) 23] 12. Hydrogen bonds between the nitrogeneous
bases make the DNA molecule ________.
4. L shaped chromosomes are described as
(a) unstable (b) stable
________.
(c) unbalanced (d) disturbed
o
(a) acrocentric [Ans. (b) stable]
(b) metacentric
Fill in the blanks
ab
(c) submetacentric
(d) telocentric 1. The protein part of which molecule is disturbed
[ Ans. (c) submetacentric] in sickle cell anemia _________.
[ Ans. haemoglobin]
5. __________ is not a nitrogenous base.
ur
2. Mendel was a native of _________.

(a) Adenine (b) Thymine
[Ans. Austria]
(c) Leucine (d) Cytosine
3. A cross involving two traits is called ________.
[Ans. (c) Leucine]
[Ans. dihybrid cross]
.s
6. Choose the correct pair

4. The laws of heredity were proposed by
(a) A ≡ T (b) G ≡ A
__________. [Ans. Mendel]
(c) A ≡ C (d) G ≡ C
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[Ans. (d) G ≡ C] 5. The number of chromosomes present in a

human cell is __________. [Ans. 46]
7. Franklin and Wilkin were awarded nobel
prize for ___________. 6. The spindle fibres are attached to the __________
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(a) studying DNA replication. of a chromosome. [Ans. centromere]

(b) studying about RNA. 7. The end of a chromosome is called ___________.
(c) X - ray diffraction studies of DNA.
[Ans. telomere]
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(d) isolating DNA.

[Ans. (c) X - ray diffraction studies of DNA] 8. _______ stated base pair rule.[Ans. Chargaff]
8. Down's syndrome is a case of _________. 9. DNA is a _______ chain.[Ans. polynucleotide]
(a) Euploidy (b) Deletion
(c) Translocation (d) Aneuploidy 10. The enzyme _________ binds to origin of
[Ans. (d) Aneuploidy] replication site in DNA. [Ans. helicase]
405
UNIT Origin and

19
m
Evolution of Life
co
CONCEPT MAP
s.
Evolution
Views
Origin of life
Special creation
o ok
Evidences for evolution
Morphology and Anatomy

Homologous organs
Analogous organs
Theories of evolution
Lamarckism
Use and Disuse Theory
Vestigial organs
Spontaneous generation (Abiogenesis)
ab
Atavism Darwinism
Biogenesis Theory of Natural
Extra terresterial or Cosmic orgin Selection
Chemical evolution of life Embryology
Biogenetic law
ur
Paleontology
Fossils
.s
Ethnic groups in India
Ethnobotany
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Importance of Ethnobotany
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Petrifaction
Evolution
Mold and cast
Fossilization Preservation
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Compression
Paleobotany Replacement
Determination of Radioactive carbon

age of fossils dating method

TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
3. The forelimbs of bat and human are examples of
________ organs. [Ans. homologous]
1. Biogenetic law states that ______________. 4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was
m
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together proposed by ______________
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
[Ans. Charles Darwin]
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
co
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny III. State whether TrueFalse. If
or
and ontogeny
[Ans. (b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny] false write the correct statement:
Origin and Evolution of Life

2. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by 1. The use and disuse theory of organs’ was
______________.
s.
postulated by Charles Darwin.
(a) Charles Darwin (b) Ernst Haeckel
Ans. False.
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
Correct Statement : The Use and Disuse theory
(d) Gregor Mendel
ok
of organs was postulated by Lamarck.
[Ans. (c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck]
2. The homologous organs look similar and
3. Paleontologists deal with
perform similar functions but they have
(a) Embryological evidences
different origin and developmental pattern.
(b) Fossil evidences
o
(c) Vestigial organ evidences Ans. False.
(d) All the above [Ans. (b) Fossil evidences] Correct Statement : The homologous organs
ab
look dissimilar and perform different functions

4. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent but they have similar origin and developmental
origin is by pattern.
(a) Radio - carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method 3. Birds have evolved from reptiles.
Ans. True.
ur
(c) Potassium - argon method

(d) Both (a) and (c) IV. Match the following :
[Ans. (a) Radio - carbon method]
5. The term Ethnobotany was coined by Column A Column B
.s
(a) Khorana (b) J.W. Harsbberger (a) Atavism caudal vertebrae and
(c) Ronald Ross (d) Hugo de Vries vermiform appendix
[Ans. (b) J.W. Harsbberger] (b) Vestigial organs a forelimb of a cat and a
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bat’s wing
(c) Analogous organs rudimentary tail and
1. The characters developed by the animals during thick hair on the body
w
their life time, in response to the environmental (d) Homologous organs a wing of a bat and a
changes are called ______________. wing of an insect
[Ans. adaptation] e) Wood park radiocarbon dating
w
2. The degenerated and non- functional organs f) W. F. Libby Thiruvakkarai

found in an organism are called ______________.
[Ans. vestigial organs]
415

Ans. Degeneration of wings in kiwi is due to disuse
Column A Column B of wings over generations since they have learns
to walk on land for all their needs. This is an
(a) Atavism rudimentary tail and
acquired character in response to their habitat.
thick hair on the body
According to Lamarck such characters are
(b) Vestigial organs caudal vertebrae and passed to the off springs by inheritance.
m
vermiform appendix
2. Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a
(c) Analogous organs a wing of a bat and a
connecting link?
wing of an insect
co
(i) Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil
(d) Homologous organs a forelimb of a cat and
bird.
a bat’s wing
(ii) It is considered to be a connecting link
e) Wood park Thiruvakkarai between reptiles and birds. It had wings with
f) W. F. Libby radiocarbon dating feathers, like a bird. It had long tail, clawed
s.
digits and conical teeth, like a reptile.
V. Answer in a word or sentence :
3. Define Ethnobotany and write its
1. A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a importance.
ok
front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing Ans. (i) Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s
look dissimilar and adapted for different plants and their practical uses through
functions. What is the name given to these the traditional knowledge of the local
organs? culture of people.
o
Ans. Homologous organs. (ii) The term Ethnobotany was coined by
2. Which organism is considered to be the J. W. Harshberger in 1895 to include the
study of plants used by the primitive and
ab
fossil bird?
Unit 19
aboriginal people.
Ans. Archaeopteryx.
Importance of Ethnobotany :
3. What is the study of fossils called?
(i) It provides traditional uses of plant.
Ans. Palaeontology.
(ii) It gives information about certain unknown
ur
VI. Short answers questions : and known useful plants.

(iii) The ethnomedicinal data will serve as
1. The degenerated wing of a Kiwi is an acquired a useful source of information for the
character. Why is it an acquired character?
.s
chemists, pharmacologists and practitioners

Ans. (i) When there is a change in the environment, of herbal medicine.
the animals respond to the change. (iv) Tribal communities utilize ethnomedicinal
(ii) They develop adaptive structures. The plant parts like bark, stem, roots, leaves,
w
characters developed by the animals flower bud, flowers, fruits, seeds, oils, resins,
during their life time, in response to the dyes, gum for the treatment of diseases
environmental changes are called acquired like diarrhoea, fever, headache, diabetes,
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characters. jaundice, snakebites, leprosy, etc.

(iii) Lamarck’s use and disuse theory states 4. How can you determine the age of the fossils?
that if an organ is used constantly, the
Ans. (i) The age of fossils is determined by
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organ develops well and gets strengthened.

radioactive elements present in it.
When an organ is not used for a long time,
it gradually degenerates. (ii) They may be carbon, uranium, lead or
Degenerated wing of kiwi is an example for potassium. It is used in paleobotany and
organ of disuse anthropology for determining the age of
human fossils and manuscripts.
416

(vi) Majority of the plant fossils are disarticulated 3. Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes.
parts of plants, it is rare to find plants to be Can we group these animals together to
Biology
preserved as whole. establish a common evolutionary origin.
Importance of fossils : Justify your answer.
(i) They throw light on phylogeny and Ans. (i) No. These animals cannot be grouped
m
evolution of plants. together. Only the presence of eyes is not a
factor to group animals together.
(ii) Fossil plants give a historical approach to
(ii) The interrelationship of the organism
plant kingdom.
must be supported by evidence from other
co
(iii) Thus even if fossils are not available as a disciplines of biology.
whole, imprints or separated parts will also (iii) Octopus and cockroach belong to phylum
be able to give us lot of information about Arthropoda. (Invertebrates) Frog belongs
Origin and Evolution of Life

evaluation. to phylum Chordata. (Vertebrates).
s.
(iv) Based on the presence of a single character,
animals cannot be grouped to establish a
common evolutionary origin.

Choose the Correct Answer
o
1. Biogenesis was speculated by ___________.
1 Mark ok
5. Ancon Sheep is an example of ___________.
(a) vestigial organ
(b) discontinuous variation
(a) Haldane (b) Pasteur (c) acquired character
ab
(c) Darwin (d) Lamarck (d) natural selection

[Ans. (b) Pasteur] [Ans. (b) discontinuous variation]
2. The idea of Chemical Evolution of life was 6. The Father of Paleobotany / Founder of
developed by ___________. Modern Paleobotany is _________.
ur
(a) Haldane and Oparin (a) Leonardo da Vinci (b) Sternberg

(b) Pasteur
(c) Haldane (d) Sahani
(c) Libby
[Ans. (b) Sternberg]
(d) Leonardo da vinci
.s
[Ans. (a) Haldane and Oparin] 7. _____________ is the only planet in the
Goldilock. zone.
3. ___________ is not an example of vestigial
organ. (a) Jupiter (b) Mars
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(c) Earth (d) Venus

(a) Coccyx [Ans. (c) Earth]
(b) Appendix
8. Biogenetic law or Recapitulation theory was
(c) Thick hair
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given by __________.
(d) Nictitating membrane
(a) Leonardo da vinci (b) Ernst Haeckel
[Ans. (c) Thick hair] (c) Oparin (d) Haldane
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4. ___________ is called the Father of [Ans. (b) Ernst Haeckel]

Palaeontology. 9. The Big Bang theory explains the ________.
(a) Pasteur (b) Birbal sahani (a) Origin of Universe (b) Origin of sea
(c) Haeckel (c) Origin of mountain (d) Origin of water
(d) Leonardo da vinci [Ans. (a) Origin of Universe]
[Ans. (d) Leonardo da vinci]
419
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
7. rDNA is a
I. Choose the correct answer : (a) vector DNA
1. Which method of crop improvement can be (b) circular DNA
m
practised by a farmer if he is in experienced? (c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired
DNA
(a) clonal selection (b) mass selection
(d) satellite DNA
(c) pureline selection (d) hybridisation
[Ans. (c) recombinant of vector
co
[Ans. (b) mass selection]
DNA and desired DNA]
2. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of
_________ . 8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle
Breeding and Biotechnology

of identifying _________ sequences of DNA
(a) sugarcane (b) rice
(a) single stranded (b) mutated
(c) cow pea (d) maize
s.
(c) polymorphic (d) repetitive
[Ans. (c) cow pea]
[Ans. (d) repetitive]
3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and
9. Organisms with modified endogenous gene
ok
selection for disease resistance against rust or a foreign gene are also known as
pathogens is a variety of _________. (a) transgenic organism
(a) chilli (b) maize (b) genetically modified
(c) sugarcane (d) wheat (c) mutated
o
[Ans. (d) wheat] (d) both a and b [Ans. (d) both a and b]
4. The miracle rice which saved millions of 10. In a hexaploid wheat (2n = 6 x = 42) the
ab
haploid (n) and the basic (x) number of

lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is
chromosomes respectively are
_________
(a) n = 7 and x = 21 (b) n = 21 and x = 21
(a) IR 8 (b) IR 24 (c) n = 7 and x = 7 (d) n = 21 and x = 7
(c) Atomita 2 (d) Ponni [Ans. (d) n = 21 and x = 7]
ur
[Ans. (a) IR 8]
5. Which of the following is used to produce
products useful to humans by biotechnology 1. Economically important crop plants with
techniques? superior quality are raised by _________ .
.s
(a) enzyme from organism [Ans. plant breeding]

(b) live organism 2. A protein rich wheat variety is _________ .
(c) vitamins
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[Ans. Atlas 66]

(d) both (a) and (b)
[Ans. (d) both (a) and (b)] 3. _________ is the chemical used for doubling the
chromosomes. [Ans. Colchicine]
6. We can cut the DNA with the help of
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4. The scientific process which produces crop

(a) scissors
plants enriched with desirable nutrients is called
(b) restriction endonucleases _________. [Ans. fortification]
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(c) knife
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil,
(d) RNAase
but _________ is a rice variety produced by
[Ans. (b) restriction endonucleases] mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
[Ans. atomita 2]
431
Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark 9. Blood clotting factors produced by

biotechnology helps patients suffering from
m
1. Dr. Norman was an __________ agronomist. __________
(a) American (b) Asian (a) haemophilia (b) homeostasis
(c) Russian (d) British (c) cerebral palsy (d) CHD
[Ans. (a) American]
co
[Ans. (a) haemophilia]
2. Dr. Norman received the Nobel peace prize
10. In human beings, ______ of the DNA base
in __________
sequences are the same and this is called as
(a) 1960 (b) 1980 (c) 1956 ( d )
1970 bulk genomic DNA.
s.
[Ans. (d) 1970] (a) 99% (b) 50%
(c) 90% (d) 70%
3. The International rice research institute is
located at __________ [Ans. (a) 99 %]
ok
(a) New Delhi (b) Mexico 11. The human genome has ______ base pairs.
(c) Phillipines (d) China (a) 3 billion
[Ans. (c) Phillipines] (b) 3 million
(c) 30 million
4. The rice variety peta was from __________
o
(d) 30 billion
(a) China (b) Mexico [Ans. (a) 3 billion]
(c) Indonesia (d) India
ab
Unit 20
[Ans. (c) Indonesia] 12. DNA finger printing was developed by

(a) Dr. Ian Wilmut (b) Alec Jeffrey
5. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan did experiments in (c) Lilly (d) Dr. Norman
_________ [Ans. (b) Alec Jeffrey]
(a) rice (b) cotton
ur
(c) flax (d) linseed 13. _____ is father of “Indian Green Revolution”
[Ans. (a) rice] (a) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(b) Dr. Norman (c) Alec Jeffrey
6. Pusa snowball is a disease resistant variety (d) Dr. Ian Wilmut
.s
of _______ [Ans. (a) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan]

(a) cowpea (b) cauliflower
(c) wheat (d) rice 14. _____ is a hybrid of wheat and rye
(a) Triticale (b) Raphano brassica
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[Ans. (b) cauliflower]

(c) Bananas (d) Water melons
7. Pusa sawani is a insect resistant variety of [Ans. (a) Triticale]
_______. 15. An organism having more than two sets of
w
(a) cowpea (b) flat bean chromosomes is called

(c) lady’s finger (d) brassica (a) Diploid (b) Haploid
[Ans. (c) lady’s finger] (c) Monoploid (d) Polyploid
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[Ans. (d) Polyploid]

8. __________ is an example of auto triploid
(a) Coffee (b) Banana
(c) Potato (d) Peanut
[Ans. (b) Banana]
438
UNIT
Health and
21 Diseases
m
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
o ok
ab
Abuses Disorders due to Lifestyle

Protection and
Child abuse
Prevention
Diabetes Protection and
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Sexual abuse Mellitus Prevention

Counselling and
Psychotherapy
Drug abuse Obesity
Dietary
.s
Family support management

Tobacco abuse Cancer
Community
Alcohol abuse Physical activity
w
and body weight

maintenance
Abuse prevention Medication
campaigns and therapy
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Education and
Rehabilitation awareness
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
I. Choose the correct answer : 8. Metastasis is associated with
(a) Malignant tumour
1. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate (b) Benign tumour
m
secretion of adrenaline. The component
(c) Both (a) and (b)
causing this could be
(a) Nicotine (b) Tannic acid (d) Crown gall tumour
(c) Curcumin (d) Leptin [Ans. (a) Malignant tumour]
co
[Ans. (a) Nicotine] 9. Polyphagia is a condition seen in
2. World 'No Tobacco Day' is observed on (a) Obesity (b) Diabetes mellitus
Health and Diseases

(a) May 31 (b) June 6 (c) Diabetes insipidus (d) AIDS
(c) April 22 (d) October 2
s.
[Ans. (b) Diabetes mellitus]
[Ans. (a) May 31]
3. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by 10. Where does alcohol effect immediately after
radiations than normal cells because they drinking?
ok
are (a) Eyes
(a) Different in structure
(b) Auditory region
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Mutated Cells (c) Liver
(d) Undergoing rapid division (d) Central nervous system
o
[Ans. (d) Undergoing rapid division] [Ans. (d) Central nervous system]
4. Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes II. State whether True or False,
ab
and spleen? if false write the correct

(a) Carcinoma (b) Sarcoma statement :
(c) Leukemia (d) Lymphoma
[Ans. (d) Lymphoma] 1. AIDS is an epidemic disease.
ur
Ans. True.
5. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
(a) Loss of memory 2. Cancer causing genes are called Oncogenes.
(b) Cirrhosis of liver Ans. True.
.s
(c) State of hallucination 3. Obesity is characterized by tumour

(d) Supression of brain function formation.
[Ans. (b) Cirrhosis of liver]
Ans. False.
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6. Coronary heart disease is due to Correct Statement : Cancer is characterized by

(a) Streptococci bacteria tumour formation.
(b) Inflammation of pericardium
4. In leukemia both WBCs and RBCs increase
(c) Weakening of heart valves
w
in number.
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
Ans. False.
[Ans. (d) Insufficient blood supply to heart
muscles] Correct Statement : In Leukemia WBC
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increases in number.
7. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called
(a) Leukemia (b) Sarcoma 5. Study of cause of disease is called etiology.
(c) Carcinoma (d) Lipoma Ans. True.
[Ans. (c) Carcinoma]
451
Biology
Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark 9. Excess hunger is called _______
(a) polyphagia (b) polydipsia
1. ________ is not related to NIDDM. (c) polyuria (d) glycosuria
m
(a) Insulin administration [Ans. (a) polyphagia]
(b) Controlled by medicine
(c) Obese 10. Sexually abused children show symptoms of
(d) Insulin action impaired ________.
co
[Ans. (a) Insulin administration] (a) frequent urinary infection
(b) head ache
2. ______ is a symptom of CHD. (c) sore head
Health and Diseases

(a) Glycosuria (b) Ischemia (d) migraine
(c) Hyperglycemia (d) Polyphagia [Ans. (a) frequent urinary infection]
s.
[Ans. (b) Ischemia]
Fill in the blanks
3. ______ help reduce blood sugar levels.
(a) Sweet potato (b) Tomato 1. The _______ act aims to protect children from
ok
(c) Beet root (d) Cane sugar sexual offences. [Ans. Posco]
[Ans. (b) Tomato]
2. The ______ provides a social worker who can
4. _____ is not a method of treatment for help an abused child. [Ans. child helpline]
cancer.
3. The National Commission for protection of
o
(a) Surgery
Child Rights was set up in _________.
(b) Immunotherapy
[Ans. 2007]
ab
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Radiation therapy [Ans. (c) Vasectomy] 4. The psychotrophic drugs are classified based on
their mode of action on the ________.
5. AIDS affects the ______ system.
[Ans. brain]
(a) circulatory
5. ________ present in tobacco smoke causes lung
ur
(b) nervous
(c) immune cancer. [Ans. Benzopyrene]
(d) digestive [Ans. (c) immune] 6. ______ is an example of a metabolic disorder.
6. ___________ is not a symptom of AIDS. [Ans. Diabetes mellitus]
.s
(a) Increase in number of WBC 7. Desirable level for blood serum cholesterol
(b) Lack of appetite should be less than _____ for Indians.
(c) Weight loss [Ans. 200 mg / dl]
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(d) Swelling of lymph nodes

8. PUFA stands for ________.
[Ans. (a) Increase in number of WBC]
[Ans. Polyunsaturated fatty acids]
7. World AIDS day is observed on _______.
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9. Non Malignant tumours are also called ______.

(a) 1st December
[Ans. benign tumour]
(b) 15th December
(c) 24th November 10. HIV belongs to a group of viruses called ______.
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(d) 1st May [Ans. retroviruses]

[Ans. (a) 1st December] 11. World Cancer Day is observed on __________
8. Obesity is not a risk factor for ______. every year. [Ans. 4th February]
(a) AIDS (b) diabetes 12. Intake of flax seeds can help reduce blood
(c) arthritis (d) CHD ________ levels. [Ans. sugar]
[Ans. (a) AIDS]
457
UNIT Environmental
22
m
Management
co
s.
CONCEPT MAP
o ok
Environmental management
ab
Conservation of Natural Resources
aste management Energy Resources

orest
ur
• E-Waste
orestation Electrical Energy • Solid Waste
• Forest Conservation Management • Sewage
Act
ild Life Renewable
.s
Non Renewable
• Wildlife protection
Act Rain water harvesting
anagement of Soil se of Alternative
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Erosion anagement of
Energy Resources
Fossil Fuels
• Bio-gas
(Coal and
• Solar Energy
Petroleum)
• Wind Energy
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• Water Energy
• Tidal Energy
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TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
Biology
I. Fill in the blanks : 6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
Ans. False.
1. Deforestation leads to ______________ in
m
Correct Statement : Poaching of wild animals
rainfall. [Ans. decrease] is illegal.
2. Removal of soil particles from the land is called 7. National park is a protected park.
__________. [Ans. soil erosion]
co
Ans. True.
3. Chipko movement is initiated against 8. Wild life protection act was established in
_________. [Ans. deforestation] 1972.
Environmental Management
4. ____________ is a biosphere reserve in Ans. True.
[Ans. Nilgiris]
s.
Tamilnadu.
III. Match the following :
5. Tidal energy is ____________ type of energy.
[Ans. renewable] 1 Soil erosion - energy saving
ok
2 Bio gas - acid rain
6. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called
______ fuels. [Ans. fossil] 3 Natural gas - removal of vegetation
4 Green house gas - renewable energy
7. ________ is the most commonly used fuel for
the production of electricity. [Ans. Coal] 5 CFL bulbs - CO2
o
6 Wind - non - renewable energy
II. State whether True or False. 7 Solid waste - Lead and heavy metals
Correct the statements which
ab
Ans.
are false : 1 Soil erosion - removal of vegetation
2 Bio gas - CO2
1. Biogas is a fossil fuel.
3 Natural gas - non - renewable energy
ur
Ans. True.
4 Green house gas - acid rain
2. Planting trees increases the ground water
level. 5 CFL bulbs - energy saving
Ans. True. 6 Wind - renewable energy
.s
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wild life. 7 Solid waste - Lead and heavy metals
Ans. True. IV. Choose the correct answer :
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4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy.

1. Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel?
Ans. False.
i. Tar ii. Coal iii. Petroleum
Correct Statement : Nuclear energy is a non
(a) i only (b) i and ii
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renewable source of energy.

(c) ii and iii (d) i, ii and iii
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion. [Ans. (c) ii and iii]
Ans. False. 2. What are the steps will you adopt for better
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Correct Statement : Overgrazing can lead to waste management?

soil erosion. (a) reduce the amount of waste formed
(b) reuse the waste
(c) recycle the waste
(d) all of the above [Ans. (d) all of the above]
469
UNIT Visual
23 Communication
m
co
CONCEPT MAP
s.
Computer
File
o ok
Operang systems Applicaons (App)
Mulple files Windows + LINUX

ab
ur
Folder Notepad Paint Scratch
Visual Programming Soware

.s
w
Scratch editor
w
Stage Sprite Script editor

w
Script Area Block Menu Block Palee

MUST KNOW DEFINITIONS

File : The output we get from any application is commonly referred as ‘file’.
Folder : A folder is a storage space that contains multiple files.
m
Notepad : As per it’s name we can type notes in ‘Notepad’ and save the created files
in a folder.
co
Visual Communication : The device which helps in explaining the concepts easily through pictures
Device is known as ‘Visual Communication Device’.
Paint : In the ‘Paint’ application we can draw and edit pictures.
Scratch : ‘Scratch’ is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games
s.
easily. Scratch, on the other hand, is a visual programming language.
Stage : Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window.
Sprite
Script editor / Costume

editor
:
:
ok
The characters on the background of a Scratch window are known as
Sprite.
Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures.
o
Script area : Where you build scripts.
ab
Unit 23
Block menu : Where you choose the category of blocks (programming statements) to
use.
Block palette : Where you choose the blocks to use.
ur
.s
TEXTBOOK EVALUATION
3. Which is used to build scripts?
w
(a) Script area (b) Block palette

1. Which software is used to create (c) Stage (d) Sprite
animation ? [Ans. (a) Script area]
w
(a) Paint (b) PDF 4. Which is used to edit programs?

(c) MS Word (d) Scratch (a) Inkscape (b) Script editor
[Ans. (d) Scratch] (c) Stage (d) Sprite
w
2. All files are stored in the ______________ [Ans. (b) Script editor]
(a) Folder (b) Box 5. Where you will create category of blocks?
(c) Pai (d) Scanner (a) Block palette (b) Block menu
[Ans. (a) Folder] (c) Script area (d) Sprite
[Ans. (b) Block menu]
486

II. Match the following : 2. Write a short note on editor and its types?
Computer
Ans. The Scratch editor has three main parts: They
(1) Script area - Type notes are Stage, Sprite and Script editor.
(2) Folder - Animation software (i) Stage: Stage is the background appearing
(3) Scratch - Edit programs when we open the scratch window. The
m
(4) Costume editor - Store files background will most often be white. You
can change the background colour as you
(5) Notepad - Build scripts like.
Ans. (ii) Sprite: The characters on the background
co
(1) Script area - Build scripts of a Scratch window are known as Sprite.
Usually a cat appears as a sprite when the
(2) Folder - Store files
Scratch window is opened. The software
Visual Communication
(3) Scratch - Animation software provides facilities to make alternations in
s.
(4) Costume editor - Edit programs sprite.
(5) Notepad - Type notes (iii) Script editor / costume editor: Where you
edit your programs or your sprite’s pictures.
III. Answer the following :
ok
3. What is Stage?
1. What is Scratch? Ans. Stage is the background appearing when we
open the scratch window. The background
Ans. (i) 'Scratch' is a software used to create
will most often be white. You can change the
animations, cartoons and games easily. background colour as you like.
o
(ii) Scratch is a Visual Programming
4. What is Sprite?
Language.
ab
Ans. The characters on the background of a Scratch

(iii) It was developed in Massachusetts window are known as Sprite. Usually a cat
Institute of Technology Media Lab to appears as a sprite when the Scratch window is
make programming easier and more fun to opened. The software provides facilities to make
learn. alternations in sprite.
ur

.s
3. Which button we use to select a required

Choose the Correct Answer 1 Mark program?
(a) Program button (b) Restart Button
w
1. The output of any application is commonly (c) My Computer (d) Start Button
known as _____________. [Ans. (d) Start Button]
(a) File (b) Folder
4. Notes can be collected, edited and printed
w
(c) Disk (d) Output

[Ans. (a) File] using _________.
(a) Paint (b) Scratch
2. Multiple files are stored in a _____________. (c) Notepad (d) LINUX
w
(a) Script Editor [Ans. (c) Notepad]

(b) Paint
(c) Notepad 5. Which one is used to draw and edit
(d) Folder
pictures?
[Ans. (d) Folder] (a) Notepad (b) Paint
(c) Scratch (d) Windows OS
[Ans. (b) Paint]
487

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Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Laws of Motion

MUST KNOW DEFINITIONS

unit is kilogram (kg).

and other external forces on the body.

force alone, it appears to have zero weight. This state is referred to as

Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science

6. 1 N =1kgms–2 ; 1 kg f 1 kg × 9.8 ms–2 = 9.8 N

7. Impulse, J = F × t = Force × time

M - Mass of the earth

12. Apparent weight

(i) when lift is moving upwards R = m (g + a)

(ii) when lift is moving downwards R = m (g – a)

(iii) when lift is at rest R = mg a → acceleration

Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Laws of Motion

2. Passengers lean forward when sudden brake

of effect of force used as _______ and the anticlockwise moments are

 [Ans. (c) cycling]

(a) cm s–1 (b) N kg–1

7. One kilogram force equals to 1. The linear momentum of a system of

Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science

additional questions and answers

motion is called (a) both will have same inertia

(d) inertia of direction  [Ans. (c) A will have more inertia]

 [Ans. (d) mass]

Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science Laws of Motion

more if the elevator is accelerating up?

15. Which law is used in geotropism?

taking a long jump. Why? 6. What is resultant force?

Sura’s ➠ X Std - Science

Ans. Dragging water from well - Like parallel forces

[Ans. (c) cycling]

(d) inertia of direction [Ans. (c) A will have more inertia]

[Ans. (d) mass]

Give long answers 5 Marks

V. Assertion and Reason : (2 × 1 = 2)

Reason : It drives the necessary thrust to move forward.

10. Assertion : 'g' decreases as height & depth increases.

[Ans. (c) either positive or negative]