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Ditan wants to generate as many ideas as she can as the class is about to embark on a community health outreach program.
Which of the following will she employ?
A. Simulation b. Brainstorming
C. Snowballing d. Role playing
2. You want to teach facts and rules. Which one will you make use of?
A. Direct instruction b. Self-directed learning
C. Indirect Instruction d. Collaborative Model
3. Teacher, Charmaine an experienced teacher, does daily review of past lesson, Why?
A. To provide his pupils with a sense of wholeness and continuity.
B. To determine who among his pupils are studying.
C. To reflect on how he presented the previous lesson.
D. To introduce a new lesson
4. Teacher Arnel wants to teach the class the rules in playing basketball. Which method is most appropriate?
A. Direct Instruction c. Problem Solving b.Discovery d. Inductive Reasoning
5. When you teach, you often engage yourself in brainstorming. Which do you avoid?
A. Selectively involving pupils/students
B. Break down barriers
C. Generate many ideas
D. Increase creativity
6. Having a mock presidential election, complete with debate, discussion of issues and voting, teaches students __________?
A. The decision making skills
B. The skill to win in debates
C. The art of winning in an election
D. The skill to persuade
7. You have presented a lesson on the Mozarts music forms and styles. At the end, you ask if there are any questions. There are none.
You can take this to mean ______ .
A. Your students are not interested in the lesson.
B. You need to determine if the students understood everything you presented.
C. You need to ask specific questions to elicit responses.
D. Your students did not understand what you were talking about
8. Which of these are crucial skills for effective teaching?
I. Creation of new instructional materials
II. Classroom Management
III. Higher Order Thinking Skills
IV. Art of Questioning
A. I, II, III and IV b. II and IV c. I and III d. I and IV
9. Which practice helps the teacher maximize time for instruction?
A. Employ a reactive approach to discipline
B. Maximize discipline time
C. Avoid classroom routine; they make your students robots.
D. Minimize discipline time
10. Which practice promote sound classroom management?
A. Be reactive in approach.
B. Occupy students with extremely difficult task
C. Be preventive in approach
D. Give students very easy task to lighten their load.
11. Which statement on wait time is CORRECT?
A. Wait time turns off fast thinking students
B. For quality response, what and why questions require equal wait time.
C. The higher the level of the question, the longer the wait time.
D. Wait time turns off slow thinking students.
12. If you want your students to master solfege note reading, which activity is most appropriate to use?
A. Game b. Drill c. Simulation d. Reflection
13. To determine your pupils entry knowledge and skills which should you employ?
A. Interview c. Post-test
B. Focus Group Discussion d. Pre-test
14.Which can enhance the development of spatial intelligence?
a. Hands -on demonstrations c. Concept miming
b. Environmental study d. Concept mapping
15. If you like to know the value preferences of your students, which can help?
A. Rank Order c. Generating mental pictures
B. Hypothesizing d. Summarizing & note taking
16. For discussion of a topic from various perspectives, it is best to hold a ________.
A. Symposium c. Panel discussion
B. Brainstorming d. Debate
17. If you want to generate as many ideas as you want which one should you organize?
A. Debate c. Panel Discussion
B. Forum d. Small group discussion
18. To give opportunity for bonding and sharing, which approach can be of help?
A. Cooperative learning approach c. Constructivist approach
B. Exploratory approach d. Discovery approach
19. For empathy and for vale change and development, which is best?
A. Simulation c. Game
B. Role playing d. Drill
20. Which is one justification of the use of the lecture method?
A. When subject is very new and there are no references yet.
B. When students are poorly motivated.
C. When teacher is substituting for a regular teacher
D. When subject is very broad in scope.
21. Why do teachers use varied materials in class?
A. To promote HOTS c. To sustain the interest of the learners
B. To raise pupils’ awareness d. To keep the students busy all the time
22. A method whereby one or more exercise are repeated as many times as possible within a set of time.
A. Conceptual Approach c. Mastery Learning
B. Strategy Circuit Planning d. Simulation
23. A miniature representation of a large scale system or process.
A. Mastery learning c. Programmed instruction
B. Simulation d. Discovery approach
24. Teacher Jairus invited teacher Angelyn and they together help each other in making students learn to dance cha cha cha. This is
an obvious strategy called _________.
A. Brainstorming c. Team Teaching
B. Role Playing d. Cooperative Learning
25. Small group discussion is oftentimes referred to as _________.
A. Round Table discussion c. Discussion Procedure
B. Buzz Session d. Case Study
26. What will teacher Sarah use as an strategy if she wishes to develop students exercise of decision making. Where for example 10
students were asked to choose from among themselves who shall be the six players to play volleyball.
A. Tele-lecture c. Value voting
B. Fall out shelter d. Rank order
27.What technique or strategy will teacher Karl will use if she will help students develop their linking ability for example a number is
link to sports people., sports event or places
A. Loop a word c. Informance
B. Word association d. Values Clarification
28. If teacher Michelle wants her class to have fun while learning and develop sense of cooperation among each others may opt to
use?
A. Conscience Talk c. Learning Together
B. Group Investigation d. Debate Forum
29. Basketball, Volleyball and softball games can be as enjoyable and fun for all students if the teacher may employ this strategy.
A. Problem Solving Method c. Team Games Tournament
B. Activities Technique d. Demonstration Method
30. In teaching Folkdance steps the teacher assumes the responsibility of being the authority of the subject/concept or skills to be
taught and that there is scarcity of materials to be used by the learners, therefore it justifies teachers use of _________.
A. Informance c. Part Whole method
B. Lecture d. Whole Part method
31. Teacher Andrew wanted his Art Class to produce a close replica of an image that they will draw or sketch, he then provided them
with a sample of that image. The teacher is actually directing students in the usage of what strategy?
A. Directed or Dictated Method c. Copy Method
B. Patterns Method d. Prepared Outline Methods
32. The class activity is toward developing students artistic skills in the field of performing arts. If this is the intention of the teacher
he/she will use what strategy in Arts?
A. Copy Method c. Creative Expressive method
B. Self directed Method d. Patterns method
33. When teacher Mark in his Music class ask students to follow and sing along with the new song that they will learn for that day, He
actually uses what strategy?
A. Sight reading method c. Sing along method
B. Kodaly Method d. Part whole method
34. This method in teaching music is programmed based and which says that music education must start as early as possible because
of the link between brain development trough music based instruction.
A. The Phrase method c. Copy method
B. Orff- Schulwerk Activities d. Kodaly method
35. The method that teacher Mary Ann should use if she wants to develop students pitch and tonal memory should include hand
signals and solfege using ________.
A. Orff- Schulwerk Activities c. Phrase method
B. KOdaly Method d. Sight reading
36. When the Art Class of mam Rea in their activity follows her step by step direction in their painting activity, the teacher employs
what strategy?
A. Copy Method c. Prepared outline method
B. Patterns method d. Directed or dictated method
37. If the intention of the teacher for her lesson is for her students to attain maximum level of proficiency she must use a strategy
that will optimize learning which considers individual capacity and needs of learners, what strategy best fit the situation.
A. Mastery Learning c. Discovery and process approach
B. Conceptual Approach d. Integrated technique
38. Teacher Roziel wishes to establish and capitalize on achieving students well rounded personality through her lesson. Which of the
following strategies will be most appropriate.
A. Conceptual Approach c. Discovery and process approach
B. Simulation d. Integrated technique
39. There is a scarcity of materials in remote barrios. As a creative and innovative teacher , what must you do?
A. Just use the lecture method c. Buy commercially made materials
B. Prepare improvised materials d. Borrow materials from co-teachers
40. Showing films or picture at the beginning of a lesson is part of _________?.
A. Initiatory activity c. Evaluation activity
B. Development activity d. Culminating activity
41. In curriculum development, which teaching technique is used when with four to six speakers led by a chairperson together
discuss an important topic before an audience.
A. Panel discussion c. forum
B. Brainstorming d. Buzz session
42. Mam Michelle as PE Teacher wrote this objective in her lesson Plan “ to execute the five fundamental dance steps”. When
observed by the principal, she was showing her class how to execute the basic dance steps correctly. Why did the teacher use a
demonstration method to implement her objective?
A. It is a chance to show her expertise.
B. It is easier to imitate a teacher who shows the steps
C. No student knows how to execute the steps.
D. Class time is limited to ask student to execute.
43. In preparing instructional materials, what is the primary factor to be considered?
A. The objectives of the lesson
B. The diversity of the learners
C. THe methods and techniques
D. The technology available in the classroom
44. Why is there a need to write a lesson plan?
A. To comply with the requirements set by the school
B. To guide the teacher in the learning activities.
C. To get a good rating in the performance of appraisal.
D. To be able to show something during classroom observations.
45. Lessons objectives must go beyond recall, Which is concerned with recall?
A. To identify the provincial capitals of the following provinces.
B. To interpret the table on the population density of the continents.
C. To draw conclusions based on the observations
D. To distinguish facts from opinion.
46. Learning is reflective. It means that crucial action of construction meaning is mental, therefore we need to provide activities like
a. hands-on experiences
b. brainstorming
c. group dynamics
d. none of these
47. The practice of using rubrics is an example of
a. feed backing c. testing
b. judging d. self-evaluation
48. In teaching, the teacher should begin with
a. presentation of the new lesson
b. review of the previous lesson
c. motivation phase
d. lesson proper
49. Which serves as the starting point of the new lesson?
a. presentation of the new lesson
b. review of the previous lesson
c. motivation phase
d. lesson proper
50. Prevention of discipline problems begins with
a. communication with parents
b. strong ground rules
c. teacher`s determination to impose disciplinary actions.
d. the identification of the causes of disciplinary problems.
51. A student is learning a new complex motor skill. The student will most likely benefit from the principle of transfer of learning if
the:
a) A new motor skill is similar to one already mastered.
b) Student is open to feedback from both teachers and peers.
c) New motor skill is a discrete skill rather than a continous one.
d) Student has no preconcieved notions about the motor skill.
52. Once students demonstrate mastery of fundamental skills for rhythmic movement, it would be most appropriate to introduce
them next to which of the following styles of dance?
a) Freestyle dance b) modern dance c) contra dance d) line dance
53. A group of students are learning a creative movement pattern in which they form a line and perform a forward roll
simultaneously. Each time they execute the roll, one particular student rolls in a crooked line and bumps into a neighbor. To address
this problem, it would be most appropriate for the teacher to:
a) Ask the student to remain after class so that the teacher can assess the students attitude.
b) Observe the student’s roll to assess movement technique and provide individualized instruction.
c) Change the choreography to create larger spaces between students when they execute the roll.
d) Substitute an easier movement for the roll so all students will feel successful performing the routines.
54. According to principles of developmental psychology, which of the following best describes why participation in play activities is
particularly important to young children’s growth and development?
a) Virtually all of what children learn is derived from observing others thus young children learn how to behave by observing
older children at play.
b) Play settings provide the environments in which children the ability to overcome confusion related to appearance versus
reality.
c) Since play provides important information about gender roles, children with limited opportunities to play often experience
delayed development of gender identity.
d) Play allows children to try out and test new physical, social and cognitive behaviors which then become part of their
working memory.
55. The process of learning is primarily controlled by
a. teacher c. lesson plan
b. learner d. environment
56. It is the __________ that makes the student explore, choose, remain interested, participate actively and build self-confidence.
a. objective c. determination
b. motivation d. syllabus
57. If learning is a social activity, the approach should be
a. modular c. team building
b. self-evaluation d. independent study
58. When you use teaching you will
a. connect your lesson to the life experiences of your students
b. encourage the students to be active
c. give challenging questions
d. motivate the students
59. Learning is reflective. It means that crucial action of construction meaning is mental, therefore we need to provide activities like
a. hands-on experiences c. brainstorming
b. group dynamics d. none of these
60. The practice of using rubrics is an example of
a. feed backing c. testing
b. judging d. self-evaluation
61. In teaching, the teacher should begin with
a. presentation of the new lesson
b. review of the previous lesson
c. motivation phase
d. lesson proper
62. Which serves as the starting point of the new lesson?
a. presentation of the new lesson
b. review of the previous lesson
c. motivation phase
d. lesson proper
63. Prevention of discipline problems begins with
a. communication with parents
b. strong ground rules
c. teacher`s determination to impose disciplinary actions.
d. the identification of the causes of disciplinary problems.
64. Physical condition of the classroom that may lead to discipline problems
a. Excess allowance of the students.
b. Inconsistency of the teacher in carrying out the policies
c. Law related to corporal punishment
d. improper ventilation
65. Which statement is not true about the importance of establishing classroom routines?
a. Classroom routines will ensure learning.
b. It helps maximize time for instruction.
c. Facilitate the collection of instructional materials.
d. all of these
* For test items # 67-70, pls. refer to the given choices below:
CHOICES:
a. deductive method
b. inductive method
c. direct instruction approach
d. problem solving method
c 67. It is a teacher – directed and teacher dominated approach which is meant for the teaching of skills.
D 68. A teaching strategy that employs scientific method in searching for information.
A 69. A method that begins with the abstract rule, generalization, principle and ends with specific examples, and
concrete details.
B 70. It begins with specific details, concrete data and examples and ends with an abstract generalization rule or principle.
71. Which is the acceptable and effective way of dealing with discipline problems?
a. Denying a student some privileges due to unnecessary hyperactivity
b. Use nonverbal gestures, frown or a hard look to dissuade them from mischiefs
c. Giving additional homework.
d. Scolding and harsh words as a reprimand
72. Discipline is believed to be the exclusive responsibility of the teachers. They have the right to insist on proper behaviour. They
announce the rules that students are expected to follow. Good behaviour is rewarded and bad behaviour is dealt with accordingly. It
is termed as assertive discipline. This type of discipline may lead
a. to a well- disciplined class. c. to an autocratic classroom
b. to a democratic classroom d. ideal classroom
73. A “ hands-on-mind-on” activity.
a. a dancing lecture was given by the teacher but failed to demonstrate because of her
arthritis problem.
b. the student were required to observe while the teacher demonstrate the proper way of
deboning a milkfish.
c. after demonstrating the proper way deboning a milkfish the teacher require them
to perform the same activity.
d. none of these
74. It is a teaching strategy that emphasizes “learning by doing”
a. project method c. inductive method
b. demonstration method d. deductive method
75. Realism stands for the real things that are to be studied like real insects or plants. Real objects create concrete learning
experiences but it has also disadvantage such that
a. they are inexpensive.
b. the children are familiar with the real materials and their interest can easily be focused.
c. some are potential hazards.
d. all of these
76. The lesson may dominantly cognitive if
a. it is meant primarily for knowledge.
b. it is intended for the acquisition and honing of skills.
c. it mainly focused on values and attitude formation.
d. both a and c
77. The administration or direction of activities inside a classroom refers to
a. classroom routine. C. classroom management
b. classroom activities. D. all of these
78. A psychological climate contributes to a non-threatening atmosphere in order to enhance learning. This can be achieved by
a. ensuring there is proper lighting.
b. checking the proper arrangement of chairs.
c. seeing to it that students are on their proper mind set.
d. both a and b.
79. Learning can be maximized through
a. more visual aids than mere audio-aids.
b. combination of audio-visual aids.
c. multisensory aids.
d. both a and b.
80. The main strategy in teaching and learning MAKABAYAN is
a. demonstration c. project making
b. integration d. All of these
81. It is an action-filled through enactment of real life problem situation, a genuine, typical behaviour to answer real issues.
a. simulation c. role playing
b. problem solving d. micro teaching
82. It can diffuse tense situation and it can make the students relax.
a. humor c. sarcasm
b. storytelling d. reading
83. It is a record which includes learning events, outcomes of the event, worthiness of the outcome and causes of success and
failures. This refers to
a. narratives c. synectics
b. reading d. journal writing
84. When you use integrative teaching you will
a. connect your lesson to the life experiences of your student
b. encourage the students to be active
c. give challenging questions
d. motivate the students
85. When discussion is used as teaching strategy, it is intended to
a. witness the occurrence of natural forces.
b. highlights ones creativity and resourcefulness.
c. improve students’ critical thinking and reasoning.
d. both b and c.
86. A student arrives at school with several large bruises that he cannot explain. Which of the following is the appropriate course of
action for the teacher in this case?
a) Noting the incident in the childs records
b) Making contact with the childs primary caregivers
c) Following the school’s principle for mandated reporting.
d) Requesting a referral to the school psychologist
87. In a high school health class, students practice goal setting, decision-making and interpersonal communication skills while
discussing sexual activity and its consequences. The primary aim of this approach is not likely to encourage students to:
a) Prepare for the responsibilities of marriage, parenting And family life.
b) Avoid risk-taking behaviors that could result in a sexually transmitted infection or pregnancy
c) Reevaluate cultural values and beliefs about sexuality
d) Adopt popular and accepting attitudes about issues related to sexually and family planning
88. Which best illustrate the principle that Learning is an active process.
a. learning is multifaceted.
b. learning assumption is by the teacher may not always reliable.
c. for a learning to take place one must need it.
d. one can always learn no matter what.
89. Which is not a left brained learner?
a. A math wizard. b. Best in Science project.
c. A linguist. d. A poet.
90. Individuals make more progress learning if they have a clear objective. This is one feature of the principle of
A. readiness. B. primacy.
C. willingness. D. recency
91. Providing opportunities for a student to practice and then directing this process towards a goal is the basis of the principle of
A. learning. B. readiness.
C. exercise. D. Effect
92. The principle that is based on the emotional reaction of the learner is the principle of
A. effect. B. intensity.
C. primacy. D. recency
93. Which principle of learning implies that a student will learn more from the real thing than from a substitute?
A. Principle of primacy. B. Principle of intensity.
C. Principle of effect. D. Principle of exercise
94. Which principle of learning often determines the sequence of lectures within a course of instruction?
A. Principle of primacy. B. Principle of recency.
C. Principle of intensity. D. Principle of readiness.
95. Which principle of learning often creates a strong impression?
A. Principle of readiness. B. Principle of primacy.
C. Principle of intensity D. Principle of Effect
96. Which factor affecting perception has a great influence on the total perceptual process?
A. Self-concept. B. Goals and values.
C. Time and opportunity. D. Threat
97. Perceptions result when a person
A. gives meaning to sensations being experienced.
B. responds to visual cues first, then aural cues, and relates these cues to ones previously learned.
C. is able to discern items of useful information.
D. None of the above.
98. The factor which contributes most to a student's failure to remain receptive to new experiences and which creates a tendency to
reject additional training is
A. element of threat. B. negative self-concept.
C. basic needs. D. Individual goals
99. In the learning process, fear or the element of threat will
A. cause a student to focus on several areas of perception. B. narrow the student's perceptual field.
C. decrease the rate of associative reactions. D. lessens student participation.
111. What level of knowledge is being tested if asked, "Who is the inventor of the game Volleyball?
A. Application. B. Understanding.
C. Rote. D. synthesis
112. For a motivation to be effective, students must believe their efforts will be rewarded in a definite manner. This type of
motivation is
A. tangible. B. subtle.
C. negative. D. positive
113. Which does not describe teaching as a vocation.
A. Teaching is a divine call.
B. Teaching is a way to preserve the culture and values of people.
C. Teaching is a government responsibility.
D. Teaching is a way to make a difference.
114. Which best describe teaching as a profession.
A. It requires mastery of skills and values.
B. It follows certain period of mastering specific field of expertise.
C. It requires legal certifications before one can attempt to teach.
D. If one sees it as a job.
115. Which does not describe teaching as a mission.
A. It is a task entrusted to you in this world. B. It is an assigned task thus everyone must prepare for it.
C. One must continuously improve oneself. D. It is something we choose.
116. Which does not belong to the group.
A. recency B. primacy C. duration d. readiness
117. It refers to the students theoretical knowledge
A. Rote B. Understanding C. Application D. Correlation
118. Which does not belong to the group.
A. Desire to learn B. Perform the skills
C. Knowledge of the results D. Correlation
119. People remember only what they want to refers to what principle of remembering.
a. Repetition B. Praise C. Association D. attitudes
120. This refers to Maslows Heirarchy of Needs associated with a person’s self-esteem and status.
a. Social B. Self fulfillment C. Safety D. Egoistic
121. When a student refuses to participate in class instead displays attention seeking actions.
a. Aggression B. Compensation C. Denial of reality D. Rationalization
122. When a student reasons out for his failure to come early to class, he/she uses,
a. Aggression B. Compensation C. Rationalization D. Resignation
123. When a student points his problem at home and family for his failure in school.
A. Compensation B. Rationalization C. Projection D. Aggression
124. A set of preplanned actions intended to bring a specific goal from a lesson.
A. teaching strategies C. teaching methods
C. teaching techniques D. teaching models
125. Which is not part of the group.
A. Good behavior game. B. Token economies
C. Instant Activity D. Time out
126. Having student assist with equipment dispersal and return is a type of what strategies?
A. Interactive Management Strategies
B. Preventive Management Strategies
C. Strategies for grouping of students.
D. A and B only
127. Boys are on court 1 and girls should be at court 2, is what kind of practice grouping.
A. Cut and go B. discriminatory C. non-discriminatory D. group by ability
128. From the questions below, which would best checked for students understanding.
A. Is there any safety rule in playing volleyball?
B. Who can tell me 3 things to do before hitting volleyball?
C. Do you understand our lesson for today?
D. Is there 5 ways in improving static balance.
129. It refers to the wide range of operations that are intended to directly promote the intended learning outcomes in a lesson.
A. Managerial strategies. B. Instructional strategies
C. Teaching methods D. Teaching Strategies
130. In order to ensure the engagement of the students to the lesson for learning to occur they need or must be informed or become
aware of the lesson and its intended outcomes, this refers to?
A. Strategies for Task presentation B. strategies for Task structure and Engagement
C. Grouping strategies for task practice D. none of the above
131. Which is not part of the group.
A. lead up games B. play teach play
C. Modified games D. reflection task
132. This refers to the simpler version of a full game; it focuses on the acquisition of skills pertinent to a particular game or sport, but
without the knowledge of the student/learner.
A. scrimmage B. modified game C. lead up games D. Drills
133. In this learning activity the students are given little information about the task yet asked to practice, then along the process of
practicing the teacher denotes and facilitates learning by denoting common errors and correcting them right away.
A. Cooperative Tasks B. Role playing
C. Modified Games D. Play-teach play
134. Which is not part in grouping students for task practice
A.Safety B. Objectives of the task
C. Instructional model and techniques D. follow up strategies
135. Which is not part of the Strategies for task structure and engagement.
A. Teaching by invitation B. Developmental Appropriateness
C.Varying the task difficulty D. Follow-up
136. The following are the things that a teacher needs to consider in directing student engagement, except;.
a. learning goals b. domain priorities
c. domain interactions d. space and time
137. When cognitive domain is primary, critical thinking process includes the following, except;
A. broad and adventurous thinking B. Metacognition
C. causal and evaluative reasoning D. lesson strategies
138. A basic need that affects all of a person's perceptions is the need to
A. accomplish a higher level of satisfaction.
B. avoid areas that pose a threat to success.
C. maintain and enhance the organized self.
D. none of the above
139. Instruction, as opposed to the trial and error method of learning, is desirable because competent instruction speeds the
learning process by
A. emphasizing only the important points of training.
B. teaching the relationship of perceptions as they occur.
C. motivating the student to a better performance.
D. None of the above
140. Which will you emphasized in your health class when there are cases of dengue in the community where your school is located?
a) Improve on family nutrition c) maintain safe water supply
b) Fumigation of the community d) destroy breeding place of mosquitoes
61: Current management theory stresses the concepts of employee involvement, employee empowerment, and _____.
A:employee knowledge and skills
B:managers' concern with the human component of employees
C:employee effectiveness
D:administrators' nonprofit organizations
62: The underrepresentation of women, minorities, and people with disabilities in the sport industry is an important issue for
sport managers who value _____ in the workplace.
A:fairness
B:diversity
C:uniformity
D:equality
63: Which of the following is NOT an appropriate title of a manager in a sport organization?
A:Health club manager
B:Coach
C:Athletic director
D:None of the above
64: _____ is a continuous process that involves establishing organizational mission statements, goals, objectives, tactics,
roles, and evaluation.
A:Planning
B:Leading
C:Evaluating
D:Organizing
65: The proper steps involved in recruiting and selecting the right person for getting the job done include:
A:advertising the position, checking references, reviewing completed applications, selecting the "best fit"
person, and choosing qualified people for the interview process
B:reviewing completed applications, choosing qualified people for the interview process, checking
references, advertising the position, and selecting the "best fit" person for the job
C:advertising the position, reviewing completed applications, choosing qualified people for the interview
process, checking references, and selecting the "best fit" person for the job
D:advertising the position, reviewing completed applications, choosing qualified people for the interview
process, checking references, and selecting the "best fit" person for the job
67: Which of the following is NOT a step in the classic model of decision making?
A:Generating alternatives
B:Managing technology
C:Evaluating alternatives
D:Problem statement/framing the problem
68: Sport organizations, like all organizations, have two types of leaders:
A:competent and proficient
B:perceptive and insightful
C:formal and informal
D:passive and proactive
69: _____ refers to the ability of workers to identify and acknowledge emotions when they occur, and instead of having an
immediate emotional response, to take a step back, allowing rational thought to influence their actions.
A:Emotional change
B:Motivation
C:Emotional intelligence
D:Empowerment
70: _____ is the systematic study of values guiding our decision making.
A:Ethics
B:Managing
C:Administrating
D:Empowerment
71: _____ affect other people in a way that personal preferences do not.
A:Ethical reasons
B:Ethical dilemmas
C:Ethical decisions
D:Ethical values
72: Few areas of sport management present managers more difficulty than _____.
A:moral issues
B:ethical dilemmas
C:ethics
D:codes of conduct
75: The number of women participating in outdoor activities ________ the number of men participating in outdoor activities.
A:is lower than
B:is higher than
C:equals
AHLETICS
1. Where did track originate?
a. Rome b. Atlantis c. Greece d. Italy
2. What is a scratch?
a. Touching the ground beyond the take‐off board . b. Marking the area where the shot fell
c. Dropping out of an event d. Skipping a trail
3. What does boxed mean?
a. Stopping quickly and then deciding to start again on another approach
b. Exchanging the positions of the feet after releasing the shot
c. Getting hit by a runner
d. Having a competitor in front and on the side
4. What is an anchor?
a. A nickname for the shot b. The final leg of a relay
c. The placement of the foot for the takeoff on the pole vault d. The spot where the contestant leaves the ground
5. Which event is not classified as a field event?
a. Shot put b. High jump c. Hurdles d. Javelin
6. Where should the runner look when hearing the command, “Set”?
a. At the starter b. At the finish tape c. Directly down to the ground d. At the group a few feet ahead
7. To what does kick refer?
a. The exchange of feet after a release b. The distance one member of a relay team must run
c. The trail leg in hurdling d. The increased speed at the end of the race
8. Why are staggered starts used?
a. To restrict fast runners b. To give slower runners a head start
c. To equalize distance when races are run on curves d. To help the starter see false starts more easily
9. How many shots are fired for a false start?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
10. Which occurrence is a foul in all throwing events?
a. Leaving the circle from the back half after the throw has been marked
b. Bringing the foot in the air over the outside of the circle
c. Touching any area or surface outside the circle or on the scratch line before the throw is marked
d. Passing up one of the final throws
11. What is the recommended exchange for relays in which each leg is 200 meters or more?
a. Non‐visual b. Basket pass c. Visual d. Two looks
12. Where should you enter and leave the shot put circle?
a. Rear b. Left side c. Front d. Right side
13. How is a runner disqualified in the 100 ‐meter dash?
a. Having three false starts b. Crossing the finish with arms out‐stretched
c. Using a standing start d. Running in another runner’s lane
14. Why is flexibility a major objective in conditioning?
a. It aids in increasing endurance. b. It aids in preventing muscle injury.
c. It improves muscle explosiveness. d. It contributes to strength development.
15. What is the purpose of warming up?
a. To improve skill b. To build endurance c. To enlarge the muscles d. To reduce chance of injury
Volleyball
1.) volleyball was invented by?
a. James Naismith b. Michael Jordan c. William Morgan d. Sidney Crosby
2.) The purpose of volleyball is to put the ball into the __________ court such that it falls to the
_________ or cannot be returned over the net.
a. oppoenets, sky b. opponents, floor c. back, floor d. back, opponents side
3.) Volleyball was invented as an alternative to the game of ____________.
a. basketball b. badminton c. tennis
4.) Any player may “catch” the ball to prevent it from hitting the ground.
a. true b. false
5.) In volleyball, the rally point scoring method is used.
a. true b. false
6.) If a ball is incorrectly returned or not returned at all, it is called an “out”.
a. true b. false
7.) A game is won when a team has scored _____ points:
a. 12 b. 24 c. 15 d. 25
8.) A team must win a set by at least a ___ point advantage.
a. 1 b. 5 c. 2 d. 10
9.) A deciding set in a game is played to _____ points.
a. 15 b. 25 c. 20 d. 8
10. ) A block is counted as part of the maximum number of hits allowed per side..
a. true b. false
11. ) What happens after a fault is committed?
a. Nothing b. the play goes on
c. the ball is put back into play where the foul was committed d. a point for the non-offending team
12.) Which of the following situations is NOT a fault?
a. a player who touches the net b. a held ball
c. a player who steps over the centre line d. a ball that touches the net, but still goes over
13.) A ball may touch __________ of the body.
a. any part b. only the hands c. only the arms d. none of the above
14.) A player who blocks a ball is allowed to have a second simultaneous hit.
a. true b. false
15.) A ball landing on the boundary line is considered “out”.
a. true b. false
16.) Players rotate in a _______ fashion when they receive a serve.
a. counter clockwise b. clockwise c. circular
17.) An “ace” occurs when:
a. a serve goes out b. a team scores a point
c. when the ball is served to the other team and no one touches it
18.) What is a “sideout”?
a. when the team that served the ball makes a mistake, causing the ball to go to the other team
b. after a long rally, the serving team wins the point
c. the server serves the ball out of bounds
d. after a serve, the receiving team hits the ball out of bounds
19.) What is it called when a player make a save from a very difficult spike?
a. Kill b. free ball c. Stuff d. dig
20.) What is it called when a player blocks a spike, send the ball back at the player who spiked it?
a. Kill b. free ball c. Stuff d. dig
21) Who is responsible for recording warnings, penalties and disqualifications on the scoresheet? [Rule 5-5-3g]
a.Second referee. b.Libero tracker. c.Timer. d.Scorer.
22. The line judge shall stop play when a player breaks the plane of the adjacent court before playing the ball while that court is
scheduled for competition. [Rule 2-3-1g, 5-8]
A.True b.False
23. The CF and LF of Team S go up for a block and both their hands are above the net when the ball contacts both players thus resulting
in a legal collective block. [Rule 9-5-1c (3)]
a.True b. False
24. The libero may participate in which of the following? [Rule 9-5-6]
A. Serve.
B. Completed attack if at the moment of contact the ball is entirely above the height of the net.
C. Set the ball with fingertips in front of the attack line resulting in a completed attack with the ball at the moment of contact
being above the height of the net.
D. Rotate to the front row.
25. The visiting team arrives with two head coaches. During the prematch conference the first referee shall have one coach designated
as the "head coach" for the match. [Rule 5-3-1h, 12-2-6]
A. True b. False
26. During any dead ball, the playing captain may request the number of time-outs used for his/her team. [Rule 6-3-2b]
A. True b. False
27 The libero sets a ball that is completely above the height of the net using overhead finger action in front of the attack line to the
right front, who completes an attack while the ball is completely above the height of the net. The official signals illegal attack. [Rule 9-5-
6b, Signal #8]
A. True b. False
28 Between sets, the coach may take a combined roster/lineup sheet from the officials' table to prepare his/her lineup for the next set.
[Rule 7-1-3]
A. True b. False
29 A loss of rally/point is awarded to the opponent when the lineup is submitted to the scorer three minutes prior to the end of timed
prematch warmups. [Rule 7-1-2 PEN 1]
A. True b. False
30 The libero or other possible substitutes, by rule, may be used as an exceptional subsitution. [Rule 10-3-6, 10-4-3b]
A. True b. false
31 Which of the following is not considered a team member? [Rule 6-1]
A. Coaches. B. Teammates. C. Managers. D. Media personnel.
32 The penalty for ball out of bounds is loss of rally/point awarded to the opponent. [Rule 2-3 PEN]
A. True b. False
33. The ball remains in play following a joust between opposing players. [Rule 9-4-6c]
A. True b. False
34. If a team has fewer than six eligible players prior to beginning the match, it is allowed to play. [Rule 6-2-1]
A. True b. False
35. Assistant coaches shall not: [Rule 12-2-5, 12-2-6]
A. Stand at the bench to greet a replaced player.
B. Confer with players during time-outs.
C. Spontaneously react to an outstanding play by a member(s) of their own team.
D. Stand to coach the team after the head coach receives a red card.
36. A served ball that hits the net but continues over the net completely between the net antennas into the opponent's court is: [Rule
8-1-1]
A. A service fault. B. A re-serve. C. A legal serve.D. Able to be blocked.
37. Which contact of the ball listed below is illegal? [Rule 9-4-5]
A. When the ball is kicked.
B. When the ball is headed.
C. When one player contacts the ball with two or more parts of the body at the same instant.
D. When the ball gets held in the bend of the arms.
38. ) Since the libero’s jersey must be immediately and easily distinguished from the uniforms of his/her teammates, which would be
legal? [Rule 4-2-2]
A. Libero is solid white; teammates are blue and gold.
B. Libero is solid purple; teammates are solid navy.
C. Libero is half purple and half gold; teammates are solid gold.
D. Libero is white with black sleeves; teammates are white with black panels.
39. It is a service fault and the ball becomes dead when the served ball: [Rule 8-2-6a]
A. Passes under the net.
B. Touches one of the server's teammates on the court.
C. Touches the ceiling or any obstruction.
D. When the ball is served,
E. all of these are service faults.
40. An illegal back-row attack shall not be called until the ball has completely crossed the net or is contacted by the opponent, legally
or illegally. [Rule 9-4-4, 9-5-5 NOTE]
A. True B.False
41. When a team has used all 18 substitutions, an exceptional substitution is permitted for an injured/ill player following certain
priorities. [Rule 10-3-6]
A. True B. False
42. The officials maintain administrative responsibilities for the contest through the completion of any required reports for events that
occurred during the contest itself. [Rule 5-1-3]
A. True B. False
43. Team A has only six players. One of the players is injured during set No. 1 and is not able to return to play. What happens from
there? [Rule 1-3-3, 6-2-2]
A. Play continues; a sideout/point is awarded whenever that injured player’s position rotates to serve.
B. Match is forfeited.
C. The injured player would be bypassed for service and the next player on that team would serve with no penalty.
D. The team manager can substitute for the injured player and play continues.
44. Which of the following is not an example of unnecessary delay? [Rule 9-9]
A. A coach/captain makes excessive requests for the serving order.
B. Failure to serve within five seconds of the signal to serve.
C. An illegal substitute enters or attempts to enter the set.
D. A team delays substitution.
45. The second referee will conduct the coin toss prior to the deciding set: [Rule 5-3-4d & 5-4-3b]
A. At center court. B. In front of the officials table. C. On the end line. D. At the first referee's stand.
46. ) The first referee calls an injury time-out when a player exhibits signs, symptoms or behaviors consistent with a concussion. [Rule 5-
3-3c(18)]
A. True B. False
47 A player may touch the floor completely across the center line with one or both feet/hands provided he/she does not interfere with
play by the opposing team. [Rule 9-5-7]
A. True B. False
48) The maximum combination of solid-colored panels on the ball is three, with one-third being white. [Rule 3-2-1]
A. True B. False
49 Who is required to attend the pre-match conference? [Rule 5-3-1h]
A. Captain(s). B. Head Coach. C. Captain(s) and head coach. D. Captain(s), head coach and assistant coach.
50. When a team commits a fault, the result is a loss of rally and the opponent shall receive a point. [Rule 1-3-1]
A. True B.False
51. Which of the following is legal? [Rule 12-2-7]
A. A teammate of Team A leaves the bench to receive medical attention.
B. A teammate of Team A leaves the bench to get a drink.
C. A teammate of Team A leaves the bench to warm-up before entering the set.
D. All are legal.
52. A visible undergarment may be of any color. [Rule 4-2-7]
A. True B. False
53. There shall be a 10-minute break between the second and third sets in a 3-out-of-5-set match. [Rule 11-5]
A. True B. False
54. The ball would remain in play when: [Rule 2-2-1]
A. A curtain hanging between two courts is moved by a player in order for his/her teammate to play the ball.
B. A player runs behind the team bench and returns the ball onto the playing court.
C. The ball reflects off the cables used to retract a ceiling-suspended net system on the side of net by team playing the ball.
D. The ball bounces off the wall which is 6 feet behind the endline.
55. Which of the following are responsibilities of the second referee? [Rule 5-4-1, 5-4-3]
A. Review duties and responsibilities with the scorer, libero tracker and timer.
B. Blow the whistle and give the signal for calls initiated by the second referee including time-outs and substitutions.
C. Manage illegal libero replacements.
D. All are responsibilities of the second referee.
56. Substitution requests prior to the start of the set shall be permitted and shall be recorded as a regular substitution in that set. [Rule
10-1-4]
A. True B. False
57. At the moment of serve: [Rule 6-4-3a]
A. All players except the server must be within the team’s playing court.
B. Players may be in any serving order.
C. The libero must be in the center back position.
D. The server must serve from the right back position.
58. If vertical tape makers are used, the antennas should be located: [Rule 3-1-5]
A. Directly over and perpendicular to the outer edge of the sideline.
B. Directly over and perpendicular to the inner edge of the sideline.
C. At the end of the net which is 12 inches outside the vertical tape marker.
D. Centered over the vertical tape marker.
59. The ball remains in play after contacting a player's foot. [Rule 9-4-5]
A. True B. False
60. It is unsporting conduct for a player to disrespectfully address which of the following? [Rule 12-2-9b]
A. Scorer. B. Line judges. C. Libero tracker. D. All are unsporting conduct.
61 The libero replacement zone is located near the sideline between the attack line and the end line. [Rule 2-1-8]
A. True B.False
62. Following the conclusion of the match, the first referee will check the scoresheet for accuracy. [Rule 5-4-3b (15)]
A. True B.False
63) In which of the following situations would the head coach lose his/her privilege to stand to coach? [Rule 12-2-6]
A. Player on the floor receives a yellow card for unsporting conduct.
B. Player on the floor is found wearing jewelry.
C. Member of the bench receives a yellow card.
D. He/she calls a third time-out.
64. Which of the following is not allowed by the head coach while standing? [Rule 12-2-8c]
A. Attempting to influence a decision by a referee. B. Coaching his/her team.
C. Calling a time-out. D. Requesting a substitution.
65. Only one libero may be designated by a team for the entire match. [Rule 6-4-2a]
A. True B. False
66. At the moment of serve, the second referee should be standing in this location: [Rule 5-4-2a]
A. On the endline opposite the server watching for foot faults.
B. On the floor opposite the first referee, away from the net on the receiving team’s side.
D. Behind the scorer to ensure accurate data is recorded. On the floor next to the first referee on the serving team’s side.
68. The ball remains in play if a player contacts the ball over a nonplayable area while in the air having left the floor from a playable
area. [Rule 2-4-2]
A. True B.False
69. Procedures for the libero replacement include: [Rule 10-4-1b]
A. The libero replacement must be completed during a dead ball prior to the contact of the ball for serve.
B. Libero replacements count as one of the allowable substitutions.
C. Libero replacements must take place between the center line and end line in front of the team's bench.
D.. The libero may be replaced only by the player whom he/she replaced.
70. At the moment of serve, the second referee should be standing in this location: [Rule 5-4-2a]
A. On the endline opposite the server watching for foot faults.
B. On the floor opposite the first referee, away from the net on the receiving team’s side.
C. Behind the scorer to ensure accurate data is recorded.
D. On the floor next to the first referee on the serving team’s sidE
BASKETBALL
1.) To acquire the ball after a missed shot is called a _______________
a. lay up b. foul c. free throw d. rebound
2.) A player may intentionally kick the ball for the teams benefit
a) true b) false
3.) How many points is a basket worth if shot from inside of the 3-point line?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
4.) Two technical fouls result in removal from the game.
a. true b. false
5.) A team in control of the ball in its front court cannot maintain or regain possession of the ball if it enters the back court, unless a
defensive player has touched it. This is called:
a. back and forth b. side to side c. front to back d. over and back
6.) A ______________ violation is called when a player moves more than two steps without dribbling the basketball.
a. running b. traveling c. palming d. body contact
7.) Basketball was created by a man named:
a. Jon Quincy b. Brad Johnson c. Homer Basketball d. James Naismith
8.) The ____________ attempts to prevent the opposing team from scoring a basket.
a. substitution b. offense c. defense d. refs
9.) Which shot has the highest percentage of going in the basket?
a. 3 point shot b. lay-up c. fade away d. free throw
10. ) A _________ occurs when a player breaks the rules in a way that does not involve contact.
a. foul b. violation c. block d. rebound
11. ) Personal contact against the body of an opponent by a player with the ball is called:
a. fastbreak b. charging c. traveling d. zone
12.) A free throw is worth how many points?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1
13.) How many points do you get when you throw from the free-throw line?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
14.) A basketball game starts with a jump ball.
a. true b. false
15.) If your team has the ball, you are on defense.
a. true b. false
16.) In basketball a ______________ occurs when a player stops her dribble and then resumes it.
a. rebound b. double dribble c. held ball d. travel
17.) When you shoot from behind the 3 point line and land in front of the 3 point line after you shoot and the shot is made, it is worth 3
points.
a. true b. false
18.) This occurs when the player advances the ball, by herself, without dribbling it.
a. rebound b. double dribble c. held ball d. travel
19.) How many quarters are there in a basketball game?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
20.) A defensive strategy where everyone guards an area is called a zone defense.
a. true b. false
21.) A ______________ occurs when an offensive player reaches a desired position first, causing a defensive player to go around her;
delaying the progress of that defender.
a. assist b. pivot c. steal . screen
22.) What is the best position to guard an opponent?
a. face the opponent rather than the ball b. guarding as close to the opponent as possible
c. playing the opponent slightly to the right d. stay between the opponent and the basket
23.) What is the maximum number of fouls that a player can have before you foul out of a game?
a. 5 b.4 c. 3 d. 6
24.) What pass gives the best control and therefore is the most accurate?
a. chest pass b. one handed c. cross court d. lob pass
25.) This occurs when two players from opposite teams both have a firm grasp on the ball at the same time.
a. rebound b. double dribble c. held ball d. travel
BADMINTONTEST
1. How can the singles playing court best be described?
A. Long & narrow B. Long & wide C. Short & narrow D. Short & wide
2. What is the purpose of the line parallel to the back line and about 2 ½ feet closer to the net?
A. Out line for singles plaY b. Out line for singles serve
C. Out line for doubles play d. Out line for doubles serve
3. How many points does the server get for winning a rally?
A. 1 b.2 c.3 d. 5
4. How many points must be won by one player to complete a game of women’s singles?
A. 6 b. 11 c. 15 d.21
5. What portion of the body provides most of the power in badminton strokes?
A. Shoulder b. Wrist c. Arm d.Trunk
6. How should a player hold the shuttle to serve?
A. Pinch the feathers with the thumb & first two fingers
B. Cup the feathers with the thumb & index finger
C. Pinch the base of the shuttle with the thumb & index finger
D. Cup the base with the thumb & index finger
7. Which practice is not goodsportsmanship?
A. Congratulating an opponent on good shots
B. Stopping the service when an opponent is unready
C. Asking that points be replayed when shots are close to lines
D. Asking if the opponent is ready
8. When should the score be called out loud?
A. At the end of the game b. At the end of each point
C. When the score changes d. Before each serve
9. What term indicated a violation of the rules?
A. Fault b. Feint c. Let d. Replay
10. Players hit the shuttlecock back and forth to each other. What is this called?
A. Playing a point b. Rallying c. Pinging d. Hitting
11. What is the shot called that travels downward with great force?
A. Slam b. Drive c. Drop d. Smash
12. Which stroke is hit high to the back of the opponent’s court?
A. Lob b. Drive c.Clear d.Smash
13. Which stroke should barely clear the net and immediately fall into the opponent’s court?
A. Drop b. Drive c. Smash d. dink
14. How many points must be won by one team to complete a game of mixed doubles?
A. 15 b. 11 or 15,as decided before the match c. 21 d. 15 or 21, as decided before the match
15. When is a match completed?
A. When a player has won a game b. When a player has won 2 out of 3 games
C. When a player has won 3 out of 5 games d. When a player has won a seT
16. What are the service lines in a doubles badminton court?
a) short and n arrow b) long and narrow
c) long and wide d) short and wide
17. What is the legal height you are allowed to serve from?
a) between your w aist and shoulders b) anywhere from your shoulders down
c) anywhere below your waist d) you can serve from any area you choose
18. You are playing a game of singles, and the score is 8 – 5, in favour of you. Where on the court will you serve from?
a) serve from your left court across to the right b) serve from your left court straight across to the left
c) serve from you right court straight across to the right d) serve from you right court across to the left.
19. A good service strategy for singles is to serve most serves:
a) short and low b) long and low c) short and high d) long and high
20. True or False If during a rally the bird lands on the line it is considered out.
21. True or False The racquet may hit the net provided the bird lands in bounds.
22 True or False A point is scored by the receiving team when the server hits the bird into the net.
23 True or False In ready position, your racquet should be down low, and in front
24.True or False In doubles, the team to serve first serves from the right court first.
25 True or False In doubles both you and your partner may hit the bird before it goes over the net.
SOFTBALL TEST
1. How many balls rather than strike does it take to get to first base for free?
A. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
2. A runner must tag up before advancing bases on a caught fly ball?
A. True B. False
3. You are on base with two outs. Your teammate hits a ball into the air. You should.
a) Wait and see if the ball is caught before advancing to the next base
b) Go back to your base and tag up
c) Run as soon as the ball is hit
d) Stay at your base.
4. Each batting team gets _______ outs before their offensive turn is up and they have to go back to the field and play defense.
a) 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
5. In softball a ________ means a fielder has secured the ball with their hands or glove
a) Double b. Catch c. Error d. Assist
6. Which is the only defensive player in softball to begin the game in foul territory
a) Pitcher b. Short stop c. Catcher d. Center field
7. A batter is credited with a _______ when they reach first base safely on a hit without aid of an error, or by way of a fielders choice or
force play at another base.
a) Altered bat b. Force play c. Dead ball d. Base hit.
8. What is the equipment that is needed in playing softball?
a) Bat b. Ball c. Glove or mitt d. All of the above
9. You are batting with a count of 0 balls and 2 strikes. You should:
a) Look for a pitch to drive c. Expand the strike zone
b) Lay down a bunt to surprise the defense d. Move slightly away from the plate and look for an inside pitch to pull
10. True or False The pitching rubber is 40 ft from the home plate
11. On a force out at second base the defensive player can:
a) Tag the runner b. Tag second base c. neither a or b is correct d. And b can be done
12. What is it called when you hit the ball and make it to the third base on a hit?
a) Single b. Double c. Triple d. Homerun
13. What is the distance between bases?
a) 45 ft b. 50 ft c. 55 ft d. 65ft
14. When a ball is hit to an infield position, an outfielders responsibility is to?
a) Stay in their position b back up that infielder c. Cover the closest base d. None of the above.
15. True or False A right fielder is located in the outfield behind the first baseman?
16. You are a runner on 3rd base, with less than 2 outs and your teammate hits a deep fly ball to center field. You should:
a) Immediately run for home plate
b) Go about half way home and wait to see if ball is caught or missed.
c) Immediately get back to base to tag up when ball is caught
d) Take 2 to 3 steps off 3rd and watch the ball.
17. In softball a ______ is recorded by the defense when two outs are made on the same play.
a) Single play b. Double play c. Triple play d. Chopped ball
18. What is it called when a runner is tryng to advance to a base and the fielder makes contact with the runner
a) Forced run b. Double play c. Interference d. Obstruction
19. True or False You are allowed to throw you bat after you hit the ball
20. True or False on a force out you only have to touch the base to get a runner out
21. True or False In softball two runners may occupy the same base.
22. True or False in softball a runner hit by a batted ball is out unless they are standing on a base when they get hit.
23. True or False Softball is played with a bigger ball than baseball
24. What is the position called between 2nd and 3rd base?
a) Utility b. Second baseman c. 3rd baseman d. Shortstop
25. In softball the ________ is that portion of fair territory between the infield and the fence.
A. Infield b. Outfield c. Red field d. greenfield.
1. Which of the following would occur if somebody who exercises 4 times per week were to reduce to 2 times per week?
a) Reversibility b) progression c) overload d)individuality
2. Which of the following would increase the intensity of a resistance training session?
a) Increase the frequency the training is completed
b) Increase the rest between sets
c) Decrease the resistance lifted on each exercise
d) Reduce the rest time between sets
3. In order to apply the specificity, which of the following modes of training would be most appropriate for somebody who is training
for a 20 km run?
a) Stepper b) treadmill c) rowing machine d) upright cycle
4. Which of the ff adaptations would likely to occur to the skeletal system as a result to endurance training?
a) Increased white and red blood cell production
b) Increased lactic acid tolerance
c) Improved posture
d) increased levels of myoglobin
5. Which of the ff is a benefit of exercise during pregnancy?
a) Lower energy reserves c) increased occurrence of back pain
b) Facilitates faster return to pre pregnancy weight d) reduced physiological well being
6. Which of the following health benefits would result from regular walking?
a. Increased blood pressure b. Decreased risk of CHD
c. Increased resting heart rate d. Decreased life expectancy
7. The development of balance would be required for which of the following activities?
a. Gymnastics b. Sprinting c. Swimming d. Running
8. Which of the following is a long term adaptation to muscular strength training?
a. Increased size of type ll muscle fibres b. Decreased number of type ll muscle fibres
c. Increased number of type ll muscle fibres d. Decreased size of type ll muscle fibres
9. What is the definition of muscular strength?
a. The ability of muscles to exert maximum force in one contraction
b. The ability of muscles to exert minimum force in one contraction
c. The ability of muscles to repeatedly exert maximum force
d. The ability of muscles to repeatedly exert minimum force
10. What body type has broad shoulders and a muscular build?
a. Ectomorph b. Mesomorph c. Endomorph d. Somatotype
11. Which of the following training outcomes requires speed during resistance training?
a. Muscular endurance b. Muscular strength c. Muscular power d. Muscular fitness
12. Which of the following will increase overload during a resistance training exercise?
a. Increasing the speed of repetition b. Decreasing the number of repetitions
c. Increasing the lever length d. Decreasing the range of movement
13. An ability to cope with stressful situations in everyday life and to make good decisions is an example of which component of total
fitness?
a. Social fitness b. Medical fitness c. Mental fitness d. Spiritual fitness
14. Which of the following defines physical fitness?
a. Maintaining an active lifestyle that contributes to maintaining levels of cardiovascular and muscular fitness and flexibility
b. Eating a variety of foods from major food groups and maintaining a calorie intake appropriate for needs and demands
c. Being free from disease and illness and making lifestyle choices that maintain this component
d. Awareness of and ability to manage and express emotions assertively and with respect to self and others
15. The equation force x speed represents which component of motor fitness/ skill related
fitness?
a. Reaction time b. Power c. Speed d. Agility
16. Which of the following defines balance?
a. The ability to change the position of the entire body in space with speed and accuracy
b. The ability of the body to remain centred over a base of support
c. The ability to perform smooth and accurate movements
d. Distance ÷ Time
17. Which of the following is a genetic factor influencing an individual’s training potential?
a. Diet b. Alcohol c. Smoking d. Body type
18. The 100m sprint primarily uses which of the following components of skill related fitness?
a. Speed b. Agility c. Balance d. Co-ordination
19. What is a plateau?
a. It is when continued adaptations to training no longer occur
b. It is a gradual decrease in physiological gains when training is ceased
c. It is the ability of the body to cope with specific training needs
d. It is the gradual increase of stress placed upon the body during exercise training
20. What is recovery time?
a. A gradual decrease in physiological gains when training is ceased
b. The ability of the body to cope with specific training needs
c. The gradual increase of stress placed upon the body during training
d. The period of time between training sets or training sessions
21. Which of the following principles is affected when an additional set of exercises is added to a resistance training programme?
a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Time d. Type
22. Which of the following should be avoided when programming for 14-16 year olds?
a. High intensity strength training b. Low intensity strength training
c. Functional pushing exercises d. Functional pulling exercises
23. Which of the following will result in weight gain?
a. Energy in + energy out b. Energy in > energy out
c. Energy in < energy out d. Energy in = energy out
24. Overload is generally considered
A. to be an outdated concept b. to have a negative impact on one’s fitness
C. to have a positive impact on one’s fitness d. to have no impact on the health related components of fitness.
25. Overload as applied in fitness, is defined as
A. placing increased demands on the systems of the body resulting in increased fitness levels
B. stressing the systems of the body at a rate that frequently causes injury
C. a phenomenon that causes a person to become muscle bound
D. a workout technique that requires a person to start with a high intensity level and t hen decrease the intensity level as time goes on.
26. F.I.T.T. refers to how
A. to apply the principle of specificity b. to apply the principle of progression
C. to apply the principle of relativity d. to apply the principle of overload
27. F.I.T.T. stands for
A.flexibility, intensity, target, training b.frequency, isotonic exercises, time, training
C. flexibility, isotonic exercises tendon, test d. Frequency intensity, time, type
28.. When creating a fitness plan of action, the three basic training principles one should employ include
A. specificity, progression and relativity. B. progression, relativity and overload.
C. relativity, overload and specificity d. overload, progression and specificity.
29. Increasing your heart rate during a step aerobics class is an example of increasing
A. Flexibility. B. Intensity. C.time. D. Target.
30. When participating in a weight training session, and you increase the sets and repetitions, you are increasing
A. the frequency. B. the isometric exercises. C. the time. D. the type of exercises.
31 You decide to go to yoga sessions at a local gym 3 days a week, instead of twice a week. This is an example of adjusting your
A. Frequency. B. isotonic exercises. C. target health related component. D. type of exercise.
32. The principle of progression means
A. Changing from a running routine to a weight training routine. B. gradually increasing the amount exercise being targeted.
C. starting easily and exercising for long periods of time. D. starting off quickly to jump start your exercise routine.
33. A person should use the principle of progression because
A. He might get bored and need to change from activity to activity.
B. his friends are progressing and they need to keep up.
C. his body has become accustomed to the workout and their progress has plateaued.
D. his body has become injured and the principle will jump start the recovery.
34. A sign or symptom that you have progressed too quickly using the FITT guidelines includes
A. Muscle atrophy over time b. Muscle growth over the course of a year
C. Lack of muscle growth over the course of a year. D. Muscle pain that doesn’t subside quickly
35. The principle of specificity means a person should perform only those exercises
A. a trainer advises her to do. B. that are specific to improving specific components of fitness.
C. she can do inexpensively specifically to save money. D. only when she has a goal specific to improving athletic skills.
36. Which of the following best portrays the principle of specificity in action?
A. A swimmer practices for the breast stroke 200m race by swimming in the ocean.
B. A marathoner runs intervals a week before the marathon.
C. A body builder preparing for a physique show performs a total body timed circuit 3 times a week for the month prior to the
show.
D. A mother prepares to walk around Disney world by walking up to 7 miles a day for weeks before arrival.
37. A structure composed of two or more tissues is termed:
a. organ b. serous membrane c. complex tissue d. organ system
38. A homeostatic imbalance:
a. must be restored by negative feedback mechanisms
b. is considered the cause of most diseases
c. is when the internal conditions of the body become more stable
d. only occur when positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life:
a. growth b. responsiveness c. reproduction d. organ systems
40. Which of the following is an example of applied physiology:
a. measuring the length of the femur on a fetus using ultrasound
b. locating an injury to a tendon in the shoulder using CT imaging
c. describing the process of how a toxin interferes with nerve impulse conduction
d. identifying the types of cells found in a biopsy sample of lung tissue
41. The elbow is _____ to the wrist:
a. distal b. lateral c. ventral d. proximal
42. The heart is ____ to the lungs:
a. superior b. dorsal c. medial d. lateral
43. The study dealing with the explanations of how an organ works would be an example of _____.
A) anatomy B) cytology C) teleology D) physiology
44. The exchanging of gases for the purpose of producing energy is called _____.
A) breathing B) respiration C) circulation D) responsiveness
45. The removal of a compound that the body no longer requires is called _____.
A) secretion B) excretion C) movement D) digestion
46. When a nurse takes someone's temperature, they are directly assessing a _____.
A) metabolic activity B) sign of illness C) vital sign D) core temperature
47. The process in which cells and organisms are able to maintain a stable balance of internal & external substances and forces is called?
A) equilibrium B) adaptation C) adjustment D) homeostasis
48. A system is defined as a group of _____ that function together.
A) cells B) tissues C) molecules D) organs
49. The _____ separates the thoracic from abdominal cavities.
A) pelvis B) rib cage C) diaphragm D) peritoneum
50. The following belong together except which one?
A) brain B) vertebral canal C) spinal cord D) stomach
51. The skin belongs to the _____ system.
A) nervous B) integumentary C) circulatory D) muscular
52. The wrist is _____ to the fingers with respect to the elbow.
A) distal B) inferior C) superior D) proximal
53. Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?
(A) Adipose (B) Cartilage (C) Epithelial (D) Muscle (E) Nerve
54 Each of the following is located in the mediastinum EXCEPT the
(A) aorta (B) esophagus (C) heart (D) pancreas (E) trachea
55. Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?
(A) Abdominal (B) Cranial (C) Pleural (D) Spinal (E) Thoracic
56. Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?
(A) Abdominal and pelvic (B) Cranial and spinal (C) Dorsal and ventral (D) Pericardial and pleural (E) Thoracic and abdominal
57. In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?
(A) Dorsal (B) Erect (C) Lateral (D) Prone (E) Supine
58. The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an x-ray study of the fibula. The procedure will be
performed on which of the following structures?
(A) Heel (B) Lower leg (C) Toes (D) Thigh (E) Pelvis
59 Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by the
(A) aorta (B) carotid arteries C) inferior vena cava (D) pulmonary veins (E) superior vena cava
60. Exhaled air, when compared with inhaled air, contains more
(A) carbon dioxide and less oxygen (B) nitrogen and less carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen and less carbon dioxide (D) oxygen and less carbon monoxide (E) oxygen and less nitrogen
61. The muscle that is also known as the “six pack” is the
A. external oblique. B. rectus abdominus.
C. internal oblique. D. transverse abdominus.
62. Which of the following represents poor body mechanics or positioning?
A. bending at the waist to increase leverage
B. hands and arms relaxed to the side of the body
C. knees slightly bent with weight evenly distributed on both feet.
d. Shoulder relaxed.
63. What muscles flexes the elbow?
A. triceps and anconeus
B. brachialis, biceps brachii, and supinator
C. brachioradialis, supinator, and coracobrachialis
D. pronator teres, brachioradialis, and brachialis
64. Which specific joint in the body is the most mobile?
A. the shoulder B. the hip
C. the metacarpal-phalange D. the wrist
65. Ligaments are
A. slow to heal. B. receive poor blood supply.
C. attach bone to bone. D. All of the above are correct
66. Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?
A. creating external and internal movement B. maintaining posture
C. production of heat D. exchange of gases
67. The largest joint in the body
A. shoulder. B. knee. C. hip. D. elbow
68. The function of ligaments is
A. to provide mobility. B. to stabilize the joint.
C. to cushion. D. None of the above are correct.
69. All of the following are types of connective tissue except
A. blood. B. cartilage. C. ligaments. D. organs.
70. The ability of a muscle to return to its original shape after being stretched is known as
A. irritability. B. contractibility. C. plastic elongation. D. PNF.
71. The three main types of connective tissue of the skeletal or muscular system are all of the following except
A. ligaments. B. joint capsule. C. cartilage. D. tendons.
72. The sternum articulates with how many ribs?
A. twelve pairs B. six pairs C. seven pairs D. five pairs
73. What is the largest muscle in the body?
A. Sartorius B. gluteus maximus C. quadriceps D. abdominas
74. The type of heat illness that is a medical emergency is
A. heat cramps. B.hypothermia. C.heat stroke. D.heat exhaustion.
75. The metacarpals are _______to the carpals.
A. proximal B. distal C. medial D. lateral
76. With your client’s elbow bent to ninety degrees, you apply resistance as he pulls his hand toward the navel. Pain is felt. This would
be inflammation of
A. latissimus dorsi. B. pectoralis major. C. subscapularis. D. All of the above are correct.
77. You are performing a push-up. You get about halfway off the floor and cannot push the rest of the way up. You struggle to go up,
but you cannot move. What type of muscle contraction is occurring on the biceps brachii?
A. isometric B. isotonic C. eccentric D. concentric
78. f a client has torn his or her supraspinatus muscle,he or she will not be able to
A. open a door. B. hold his or her arm out to the side.
C. push a grocery cart. D. None of the above is correct.
79. A concentric contraction of the biceps brachii results in
A. elbow extension. B. shoulder extension.
C. shoulder adduction. D. elbow flexion.
80. Thrusting the lower jaw forward is called
A. protraction B. retraction. C.elevation. D. depression.
81. When the sole of the foot is turned outward, this is called
A. inversion. B. eversion. C. pronatiaon. D. supination.
82. The most distal bones of the foot are called
A. tarsals. B. phalanges. C. carpals. D. metatarsals.
83. Which of the following is an example of general motion?
a. An athlete during a 100 m sprint. b. The arm action of a swimmer in back stroke.
c. The winter Olympian gliding on ice. d. a male gymnast completing a full circle on the high bar.
84. Which of the following sporting examples is an application of Newton’s third law of motion?
a. In the sprint star, when the sprinter pushes down and back on the blocks apply and equal and opposite force on the sprinter.
b. In the 1500 m race, the athlete will continue to run with constant velocity unless acted upon an external force.
c. The large force exerted by a golf club on the gulf ball during a drive from the tee will cause the ball to accelerate quickly towards the
hole.
d. When an apple falls on the head of a famous footballer.
85. Which of the following statements does not apply to a body’s center of mass?
a. It is the point at which body is balanced in all directions. b. It determines the weight of the body.
c. Its position in body can change d. It can lie on a point outside of the body.
86. The muscle that is also known as the “six pack” is the
A. external oblique. B. rectus abdominus. C. internal oblique. D. transverse abdominus.
87. Which of the following represents poor body mechanics or positioning?
A. bending at the waist to increase leverage
B. hands and arms relaxed to the side of the body
C. knees slightly bent with weight evenly distributed on both feet.
d. Shoulder relaxed.
88. A muscle that flexes the knee and extends the hip is the
A. biceps femoris. B. rectus femoris. C. vastus lateralis. D. gluteus maximus
89. Which specific joint in the body is the most mobile?
A. the shoulder B. the hip C. the metacarpal-phalange D. the wrist
90. The mouth opens in a hinge-like motion due to which joint?
A. temporopteygoid joint B. maxilla-mandibular joint
C. ethmoid-sphenoid joint D. temporomandibular joint
91. How many types of synovial joints are there?
A. three B. four C. five D. six
92. Ligaments are
A. slow to heal. B. receive poor blood supply.
C. attach bone to bone. D. All of the above are correct.
93. The lubricating fluid that is found in moveable joints is called
A. serous fluid. B. synovial fluid. C. arthropometric fluid. D. diarthrotic fluid.
94. Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?
A. creating external and internal movement B. maintaining posture
C. production of heat D. exchange of gases
95. The largest joint in the body
A. shoulder. B. knee. C. hip. D. elbow
96. The function of ligaments is
A. to provide mobility. B. to stabilize the joint. C. to cushion. D. None of the above are correct.
97. The three main types of connective tissue of the skeletal or muscular system are all of the following except
A. ligaments. B. joint capsule. C. cartilage. D. tendons.
98. The name of the upper jaw bone is the
A. zygomatic. B. masseter. C. mandible. D. maxilla.
99. The sternum articulates with how many ribs?
A. twelve pairs B. six pairs C. seven pairs D. five pairs
100. What is the largest muscle in the body?
A. Sartorius B. gluteus maximus C. quadriceps D. abdominas
101 The type of heat illness that is a medical emergency is
A. heat cramps. B. hypothermia. C. heat stroke. D. heat exhaustion.
102. A muscle synergistic to the biceps brachii is the
A. brachialis. B. coracobrachialis. C. brachioradialis. D. triceps.
103. When the hamstrings are acting as an antagonist, the movement is
A. hip extension. B. knee extension. C. knee flexion. D. Both A and C are correct.
104. Which muscle abducts the hip?
A. gluteus maximus B. gluteus medius C. hamstrings D. gracilis
105. The metacarpals are to the carpals.
A. proximal B. distal C. medial D. lateral
106. You are performing a push-up. You get about halfway off the floor and cannot push the rest of the way up. You struggle to go up,
but you will not move. What type of muscle contraction is occurring on the biceps brachii?
A. isometric B. isotonic C. eccentric D. concentric
107. An isometric muscle action is characterized by the production of force:
A. As a muscle lengthens due to extension of a joint.
B. Through movement generated in opposition to the downward pull of gravity.
C. As a muscle shortens due to flexion of a joint
D. Through tension and muscle contraction without movement.
108. An individual performs three sets of curls wit the same weights four days a week to strengthen the biceps. This best illustrates
which of the following principles of training?
a) The principle of specificity of exercise
b) The principle of progression
c) The principle of reversibility of training effects
d) The principle of recuperation
109. Which of the following best describes how the principle of progressive overload should be applied in variable-resistance training
program designed to develop muscular endurance rather than strength?
a) Increasing the weight the muscles are required to resist over time.
b) Gradually increasing the number of repetitions of resistance exercises.
c) Decreasing the duration of rest intervals between different resistance exercises over time.
d) Gradually decreasing the length of time between resistance training sessions.
110. Exercise is generally an important part of treatment plans for people with diabetes because physical activity helps:
a) Protect the insulin-producing cells of the pancreas.
b) Reduce the build up of glucose in the blood.
c) Eliminate urinary problems associated with diabetes.
d) Prevent diabetes-induced changes in vision.
111. Vigorous cardiorespiratory fitness activities should be followed by cool-down and stretching activities in order to:
a) Trigger a final surge in metabolic rate before the body reverts to a resting rate.
b) Prevent sudden reduction in carbohydrates and glucose levels in the body.
c) Trigger a decrease in the level of growth hormone in the body.
d) Prevent muscle soreness and blood pooling in the extremities.
112. Which of the following best describes a physiological adaptation that results fro regular aerobic exercise training?
a) There is an increase in the maximum number of times the heart beats per minute.
b) The structure of the respiratory system is altered, causing beneficial changes in respiratory function.
c) The body is better able to produce energy from fat stored astriglycerides.
d) There is an increase in the percentage of fast twitch muscle fibers in the body.
113. An individual who currently jogs outdoors for exercise would like to try a low-impact alternative. The individual wants an aerobic
activity that would expend about as many calories as jogging and that would also tone lower body muscles such as the thighs and the
buttocks. Which of the following activities would be an appropriate initial consideration?
a) Pilates
b) Jumping rope
c) Bowling
d) Inline skating
114. Which of the following steps is most important to take first in selecting physical activities for inclusion in personal fitness plans?
a) Considering which types of activities are weather dependent and which are available year-round.
b) Determining the type of physical activities that one enjoys.
c) Searching for organizations or recreation departments that offer exercise classes in one’s community.
d) Estimating the costs associated with participating in different types of activities
115. Which of the following exercises would be most effective for developing core strength?
a) Push-up
b) Biceps curl
c) Abdominal curl up
d) Hamstring stretch
116. Body composition is a component of health-related fitness concerned primarily with the:
a) Absorption and use of nutrients by the body.
b) Ability of the skeletal system to give shape to the body.
c) Maintenance of bone mass in the body.
d) Relative proportions of fat and lean tissue in the body.
117. Which receives the impure blood coming from the different parts of the body through the superior and inferior vena cava?
a) Right ventricle c. Left atrium
b) Left ventricle d. Right atrium
118. Body composition is determined by which of the following formula?
a) Total weight-fat weight
b) Total weight-fat-free weight
c) Height in meters/weight in kg
d) Weight in kg/height in meters
119. What will you consider in designing a sound exercise program necessary in maintaining physical wellness?
a) Social preferences c. Individual needs
b) Individual differences d. Differences in body composition
120. This is where the complete process of digestion takes place.
a) Large intestine b Small intestine c. Stomach d. Mouth
PRACTICE TEST IN PHILIPPINE FOLKDANCE, FOREIGN FOLKDANCE AND OTHER DANCE FORMS
Name of Basic Dance steps in 24 Step Pattern and counting Name of Basic Dance steps in 24 Step Pattern and counting
1. 1.
2. 2.
3. 3.
4. 4.
5. 5.
6. 6.
7. 7.
8. 8.
9. 9.
10. 10.
11. 11.
12. 12.
13. 13.
14. 14.
15. 15.
BELOW ARE NAMES OF DANCES FROM THE PHILIPPINES PLEASE CLASSIFY THEM ACCORDING TO THE CATEGORIES OF
DANCES WHICH ARE AS FOLLOWS;
Table 1.
1. Maria Clara Dances
2. Mountain and Igorot Dances
3. Muslim Dances
4. Rural and barrio dances suite
5. Tribal dances
Table 2.
6. Folkdances from Luzon and specific place/province from luzon
7. Folkdances from Visayas and specific place/province from Visayas
8. Folkdances from Mindanao and specific place/province from Mindanao
TABLE 1 OPTIONS
Maria Clara Dances Mountain and Igorot Muslim Dances Rural and Barrios Tribal Dances
Dance Suites
TABLE 2 OPTIONS
Folkdances from Luzon and its Folkdances from Visayas and its Folkdances from Mindanao and its
specific Province specific Place specific place
eg. Pantomina sa Tinampo- Sorsogon
62. Which of the following best describes the most effective way to prevent fungal diseases?
a) keeping clothes dry and maintaining good personal hygiene
b) thoroughly cooking animal food producst and avoiding infected water
c) exercising regularly and eating a balanced diet
d) washing hands regularly and avoiding contact with infected persons
63. Which of the following bes describes three common signs of cancer?
a) weakness and fatigue, weight loss, and inflammation of the joints
b) sores that do not heal, unusual bleeding, and the appearance or thickening of a lump on the body
c) severe headache, sensitivity to light, cataract formation
d) painful muscle spasms, persistent periods of nausea and vomiting, and feeling of pressure in the chest.
64. What is the common characteristics of chicken pox, measles, tetanus, diphteria and polio?
a) They are all caused by bacterial organisms.
b) they all do major damage to the immune system.
c) they are all diseases of the circulatory system.
d) they can all be prevented with vaccines
65. Which of the ff is considered a primary contributing factor in a young person's propensity to misuse alcohol or drugs?
a) living in an urban area b) being an only child c) being a child of a substance abuser d) having chronic illness
66. Which of the ff best describes why alcohol increases te likelihood of injury for people engaged in recreational
activities?
a) alcoholic beverages contain psychoactive drug called ethanol
b) alcohol use enhances sensory perception and causes exagerrated tactile sensations
c) alcohol use impairs motor reflexes and slows reaction time
d) alcoholic beverages containingredients that speeds up metabolism
67. Which of the following methods should one generally use first when trying to control bleeding from a wound?
a) applying pressure indirectly to the wound by placing the thumb or finger on apressure point
b) using a splint to create a pressure bandage
c) applying direct pressure to the wound and elevating the bleeding part
d) making a torniquet and applying it to the wound.
68. A shock victim should be place in which of the ff position?
a) on his or her side in the recovery position
b) on his or her back with the head elevated
c) in a semi sitting position
d) on his or her back with the legs elevated.
69. Noise pollution is most likely to cause which of the ff health problems?
a) dizziness and visual disorders
b) fatigue and memory impairment
c) headaches and tensions
d) hypersensitivity and nausea
70. Which of the ff school practices effectively minimizes the incidence of bullying behavior among the students.
a) developing a strict code of conduct as part of the handbook
b) conducting behavioral screenings annually
c) creating a standardized incident report forms
d) incorporating social skills training into the curriculum
71. A hgh school student receves anonymous, lewd messages on a public network website. This form of mediated
communication is a sign of?
a) teasing b) harrasment c) flirting d) abuse
72. Which of the ff individual practices would be most effective for supporting the local environment and the economy?
a) buying generic product rather than brand name products at a local retail businesses
b) donating household items and clothing to local charitable institutions
c) composting household food wastes
d) purchasing locally grown food and locally produced household items whenever possible
73. Which of the following best describes the primary aim of the three Rs of the waste heirarchy: reduce, reuse and
recycle?
a) to integrate the spillover costs of a given product into the market price of that product
b) to obtain maximum practical benfit from products while generating the minimum amount of waste
c) to ensure that waste generators pay an equitable share of the costs of wate disposal
d) to provide incentives for the properdisposal of nonhazardous commercial and industrial waste
74. Individuals who are exposd to persistent peer and media pressures to engage in unhealthy behaviors would benefit
most from:
a) expanding their circle of friends
b) understanding and practicing resistance skills
c) becoming vocal advocates of wellness
d) setting short and long term health goals
75. A teacher hears a small group of students making a homophobic comments and jokes in class. In this situation the
teacher has an immediate ethical responsibility to:
a) report the names of the students who made the comments and jokes to the principal.
b) actively respond to these instances of discrimination as they occur
c) examine his or her own teaching style and instructional approach for any evidence of bias
PRACTICE TEST- MUSIC
10. Which notes of the major scale are lowered to make the natural minor scale.
a. 3rd, 6th, 7th b. 3rd, 6th, 8th c. 2nd, 5th, 8th d. 2nd, 4th, 6th
11. The relative minor of D flat major.
a. Key of B b. Key Bb c. Key F d. Key of C
12. Which best explains the difference between a natural minor scale from a melodic minor scale.
a. 6th & 7th degrees are raised a half-step going up & naturalized going down.
b. 3rd, 6th, 7th degrees are always lowered to a half-step.
c. 3rd, 6th degrees are always sharpened.
d. Only the 6th and 7th degrees are sharpened.
13. Does minor scales have leading tones.
a. No B. Yes c. It depends on its relative major
14. Which best explains the relationship between key signatures and major scale.
a. A key signature serves as a home tone.
b. A key signature gives correct tonal pattern/steps for a major scale.
c. A key signature gives color to the tone of a major scale.
15. Which is the correct order of flats?
a. FBEADGC b. GDAEBFC c. BEADGCF d. FCGDAED
16. Which key has only one flat in it?
a. Fb b.Gb c. Ab d. Bb
17. Which minor key has four flats?
a. F min. b. E min c. G min d. A min
18. Which are the correct flats in the key of E major?
a. FBE b. GDA c. FCG d. BEA
19. How many flats are in the key of C major?
a. None b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
20. Which is the correct order of sharps?
a. FBEADGC b. GDAEBFC c. BEADGCF d. FCGDAED
21. Which minor key has seven flats?
a. Cb minor b. Ab min c. Gb min d. Eb min
22. What is the key signature having 4 sharps in it?
a. A b. E c. B d. F
23. Which best describe the location of a key signature?
a. at the beginning of music in the first measure before the time signature.
b. at the beginning of music between the clef sign and the time signature.
c. at the beginning of a staff after the g and f clef signs.
TABLE COMPLETION: