CompTIA A+ Certification Practice

CompTIA A+ Certification Practice Test 1 (Exam 220-901)
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-practice-test-1-exam-220-901
The main functionality of the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is to perform the initial hardware checks after the
computer is powered on and start up the operating system.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following resources can be used by an Operating System (OS) to communicate with hardware? (Select
2 answers)
Device Manager
Secure Shell (SSH)
Device drivers ( Missed)
System BIOS ( Missed)
Command-Line Interface (CLI)
In modern PCs, the procedure of replacing BIOS contents is sometimes referred to as:
Hard boot
Overclocking
Flashing the BIOS ( Missed)
Direct memory access (DMA)
BIOS updates are performed in order to: (Select all that apply)
Repair damaged BIOS ( Missed)

Fix physical hardware faults found in replaceable components inside the computer's case
Provide support for new types of attached hardware ( Missed)
Fix known programming errors discovered in the current BIOS version ( Missed)
Which of the following terms refer to BIOS types that can be updated without removing the BIOS chip from a
motherboard? (Select 2 answers)
EEPROM ( Missed)
ROM
Plug and Play (PnP)
EPROM
Flash Memory ( Missed)
Which Microsoft Windows OS utility can be used to view basic information about computer's BIOS?
WINVER.EXE
MSINFO32.EXE ( Missed)
1/5
Control Panel
SERVICES.MSC
Power failure during BIOS upgrade can be the cause of irreversible damage to the computer system.
True ( Missed)
False
After a normal system shutdown, when the computer is turned off, contents of the memory used to store BIOS
settings are:
Erased
Retained ( Missed)
Stored in a page file
Saved on a hard drive
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests performed by the startup
BIOS after the computer is powered on?
IDE
POTS
QoS
POST ( Missed)
After replacing a modular hardware component inside computer case, the updated information about specific
parameters of the new device can be stored in: (Select 2 answers)
System BIOS
Flash memory ( Missed)
Startup BIOS
Secondary storage
CMOS RAM ( Missed)
After completing the initial diagnostics and assigning system resources, the startup BIOS program checks for
information about secondary storage devices that might contain the OS. The list of devices and the order in which
they should be checked can be found and arranged in the CMOS setup utility, and this option is commonly referred
to as:
Boot record
Master Boot Record (MBR)
Partition table
Boot sequence ( Missed)
In order to work, an integrated component such as Network Interface Card (NIC) on a newly assembled computer
system may need to be first:
Enabled in Windows Control Panel
2/5
Updated with the latest driver in Device Manager
Checked against the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
Enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu ( Missed)
After launching Windows Virtual PC application technician receives error message stating that the Hardware-
Assisted Virtualization (HAV) feature is not enabled on the computer. Which of the following steps might help in
fixing this problem?
Increasing the amount of physical RAM on the system

Re-installation of the Windows Virtual PC application
Getting into the CMOS setup utility and enabling the virtualization technology setting ( Missed)
Safe mode troubleshooting
The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing:
Reset button on the front panel of a computer case

The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing CMOS setup utility during boot ( Missed)
Del key during boot
F1 key while logged in Windows
CMOS settings can be set to factory defaults by: (Select all that apply)
Using a jumper that can be found on the motherboard ( Missed)

Changing settings in Windows Device Manager
Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard ( Missed)
Choosing the default configuration option in the CMOS setup utility ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a firmware interface designed as a replacement for BIOS?
UEFI ( Missed)
ACPI
CMOS
USMT
What kind of user permission restrictions can be set in BIOS? (Select all that apply)
Group Policy settings

Windows User Account Control (UAC) settings
User password required to proceed when the computer is powered on ( Missed)
Password-restricted access to the BIOS setup utility (Supervisor password) ( Missed)
Which of the following statements is true?
Aborted BIOS update can be resumed by the transaction recovery system

A common security measure is to store BIOS on a non-rewritable memory chip
The process of BIOS update can be aborted and resumed at a later time
3/5
Aborted BIOS update could render the computer unusable ( Missed)
Which type of password provides the highest level of permissions in BIOS?
root
Supervisor ( Missed)
Administrator
Power User
What is LoJack?
Loopback adapter
Security feature used for locating stolen desktops, laptops, or tablets ( Missed)
Connector standard
RJ-11 plug
Which of the following terms refers to a technology that allows for storing passwords, certificates, or encryption keys
in a hardware chip?
Access Control List (ACL)

Encrypting File System (EFS)
User Account Control (UAC)
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) ( Missed)
While trying to enable the entire drive encryption feature in Windows technician receives the following error
message: "A compatible Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Security Device must be present on this computer, but a
TPM was not found". Knowing that the system has a TPM chip installed, which of the following steps might help in
solving this problem?
Re-installation of the OS
Enabling the TPM security feature in CMOS setup menu ( Missed)
Hard drive replacement
Enabling the TPM security feature in Windows Control Panel
Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the features of UEFI? (Select all that apply)
DRM support ( Missed)

GUI mode ( Missed)
Mouse support ( Missed)
Support for hard drives with a maximum of 4 partitions per drive
Secure boot ( Missed)
Support for partitions/hard drives of up to 2TB
Network access ( Missed)
A computer supporting LoJack technology has two main components installed: an Application Agent residing in the
operating system which sends tracking signals to the monitoring center allowing the law enforcement to locate and
4/5
recover stolen device, and Persistence Module which restores the Application Agent and allows it to survive
operating system re-installation or hard drive format. The highest level of security offered by LoJack can be
achieved when Persistence Module resides in:
Operating system
Partition gap on the hard drive
Computer's BIOS ( Missed)
USB key
A UEFI functionality designed to prevent the loading of malware and unauthorized OSs during system start-up is
known as:
LoJack
Bitlocker
Kerberos
Your Final Report
Total marks 37
Total Questions 25
Questions correctly answered 0
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
Percentage secured 0%
5/5
Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled/disabled in the BIOS setup utility (if a BIOS comes
equipped with this feature). Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside the computer case, this functionality
can be used to check if the case was opened and display a notification alert during next boot.
True ( Missed)
False
A standardized specification of a motherboard (including its dimensions, supported power supply types, and layout
of components) is known as the motherboard's:
Architecture
Blueprint
Form factor ( Missed)
Diagram
Which of the following terms are used to describe a motherboard's size and purpose? (Select all that apply)
Micro-ATX ( Missed)
PCI-X
ITX ( Missed)
ATX ( Missed)
Mini-ITX ( Missed)
What is the most common motherboard type used in desktop PCs?
ITX
LPX
ATX ( Missed)
NLX
Which of the answers listed below refers to a VIA-proprietary low-power consumption SFF type motherboard known
for industrial and embedded PC applications?
NLX
Mini-ITX ( Missed)
ATX
LPX
Mini-ATX
Low Profile Extended (LPX) and New Low profile eXtended (NLX) are motherboard form factors known for the
usage of a riser card (daughterboard) inserted into a slot near the edge of the board. The main advantage of this
type of design is that expansion cards that plug into a riser card on the LPX/NLX motherboard are parallel with the
board which saves space and allows for a smaller system case.
1/5
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following statements are true? (Select 3 answers)
A parallel bus transmits data across multiple wires ( Missed)

In computer architecture, the term "bus" describes a system of communication paths used to connect
computer components and transfer data between them ( Missed)
A parallel bus transmits data sequentially one bit at a time over a single communication channel
A serial bus transmits data across multiple wires
A serial bus transmits data sequentially one bit at a time over a single communication channel ( Missed)
Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is an example of a parallel expansion bus (and a corresponding slot type)
used for attaching hardware devices (in the form of an integrated circuit or expansion card) to the motherboard
inside the computer case.
True ( Missed)
False
What are the characteristic features of conventional PCI? (Select all that apply)
Serial interface
32-bit bus width ( Missed)
Maximum throughput of up to 1064 MB/s
Parallel interface ( Missed)
Maximum throughput of up to 533 MB/s ( Missed)
The Peripheral Component Interconnect eXtended (PCI-X) is an advanced version of PCI which: (Select all that
apply)
Doubles the bandwidth of PCI ( Missed)

Provides much faster data transfer rates in comparison to PCI ( Missed)
Offers backward compatibility with PCI devices ( Missed)
Supersedes all previous standards, including PCIe
Didn't get much of a market success due to the development and widespread adoption of the PCIe standard
( Missed)
Was intended for devices with higher bandwidth requirements such as servers and high-end workstations (
Missed)
Which of the following answers describe(s) the feature(s) of the PCI-X standard? (Select all that apply)
32-bit bus width

Parallel interface ( Missed)
Maximum throughput of up to 1064 MB/s ( Missed)
2/5
Maximum throughput of up to 533 MB/s
Serial interface
Which of the answers listed below refers to a standard that relies on serial communication?
ISA
PCI-X
IEEE 1284
PCI
PATA
PCIe ( Missed)
Motherboard slots that enable installation of dedicated graphics controllers include: (Select 2 answers)
PGA
AGP ( Missed)
CNR slot
ATX connector
PCIe ( Missed)
Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (abbr. as PCIe) is a high-speed, serial expansion bus designed as a
replacement for: (Select all that apply)
PCI ( Missed)
SATA
USB
PCI-X ( Missed)
AGP ( Missed)
In PCIe architecture, a single full-duplex point-to-point serial communication path consisting of two pairs of wires
(where one pair is used for transmitting data and the other pair for receiving data) is known as:
Lane ( Missed)
Dual rail
Dual channel
Duplexing assembly
The PCIe labeling (×1, ×4, ×8, ×12, ×16 and ×32) refers to the number of communication links (lanes) available in
different versions of the PCIe interface. The base value (x1) relates to the speed of a single lane expressed in MB/s.
The multiplier (x) allows for easy calculation of the maximum throughput of the entire interface for a given PCIe
variant.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the values listed below refers to the speed of a single-lane (x1) PCIe v1.x link?
3/5
125 MB/s
250 MB/s ( Missed)
500 MB/s
985 MB/s
1969 MB/s
A single-lane (x1) PCIe v2.x link offers maximum throughput of up to:
125 MB/s
250 MB/s
500 MB/s ( Missed)
985 MB/s
1969 MB/s
Which of the following answers lists the speed of a single-lane (x1) PCIe v3.x link?
125 MB/s
250 MB/s
500 MB/s
985 MB/s ( Missed)
1969 MB/s
A type of PCI slot for expansion cards installed in laptops characterized by a much smaller form factor when
compared to its desktop counterpart is called:
miniPCI ( Missed)
PCIe
Mini-SD
PCI-X
Mini-ITX
Which of the following slot types allows for adding primary storage modules to the motherboard?
USB
SATA
RAM ( Missed)
PATA
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the features of a motherboard's CPU socket? (Select all that apply)
PGA ( Missed)
TPM
LGA ( Missed)
FRU
4/5
ZIF ( Missed)
PGA2 ( Missed)
Which of the following integrated circuit types defines the core functionality and capabilities of a motherboard?
Chipset ( Missed)
Northbridge
I/O Controller Hub (ICH)
Southbridge
Fusion Controller Hub (FCH)
In a northbridge/southbridge chipset computer architecture, the function of southbridge is to provide high-speed

data links between CPU, RAM, and PCIe graphics controllers.
True
False ( Missed)
The term "northbridge" refers to a part of the computer chipset that controls peripheral buses used for connecting
lower-speed I/O devices such as hard drives, keyboards, mice, PCI devices, as well as embedded hardware
including BIOS, integrated graphics/audio, USB, or Ethernet interfaces.
True
False ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 45
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
For CPUs without integrated memory controller, which part of the chipset manages communication between the
CPU and memory?

Northbridge ( Missed)
Southbridge
In order to retain its configuration data, CMOS RAM requires constant supply of electricity which is provided by the:
AC adapter
Power Supply Unit (PSU)
CMOS battery ( Missed)
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Power inverter
Which of the answers listed below refers to a source of power for an RTC when the computer is turned off?
Power inverter
AC adapter
What is the name of the most common connector type used for providing power to various hardware components
inside the computer case?
RJ-45
BNC
Molex ( Missed)
USB
A switch, button, or LED on the front/top panel of a computer case has a connector linked to it that must be attached
to the appropriate pins on the:
Riser card
Expansion slot
Power supply
Motherboard ( Missed)
Which of the memory types listed below are designed to store permanent data that cannot be changed? (Select all
that apply)
1/5
RAM
EPROM
ROM ( Missed)
PROM ( Missed)
EEPROM
Random Access Memory (RAM) falls into the category of the so-called volatile storage media. It requires a
continuous flow of electricity to preserve its contents thus all the data stored in RAM lasts only while the power is on.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Static Random Access Memory
(SRAM)? (Select all that apply)
Non-volatile storage media type

Faster than Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) ( Missed)
Widely used as system's primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the
motherboard)
More expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) ( Missed)
Slower than Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)
Volatile storage media type ( Missed)
Utilized for CPU cache memory chips ( Missed)
Less expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)
Which of the following answers describes(s) the characteristics of Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)?
(Select all that apply)

Utilized for CPU cache memory chips
More expensive in comparison to Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
Slower than Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) ( Missed)
motherboard) ( Missed)
Faster than Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
Less expensive in comparison to Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) ( Missed)
The term "Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (SDRAM)" refers to a broad category of DRAM modules
that rely on the signal sent by the system clock in order to coordinate their functioning with other internal PC
components.
True ( Missed)
False
2/5
Which of the statements listed below are true? (Select all that apply)
The speed of the system bus is measured in clock cycles ( Missed)

In computer architecture, the term "word" refers to a group of bits processed as a unit ( Missed)
The speed of the system bus in modern PCs is measured in GHz (i.e. billions of cycles per second)
A single clock cycle is an equivalent of a period of time between two adjacent signals sent by the system
clock ( Missed)
The speed of the system bus in modern PCs is measured in MHz (i.e. millions of cycles per second) (
Missed)
Depending on the system specs, a single clock cycle might be an equivalent of multiple ticks of the system
clock
A Single Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (SDR SDRAM) can read/write one word of data
per clock cycle.
True ( Missed)
False
What is the number of contact pins used in SDR SDRAM modules?
144
168 ( Missed)
184
240
The placement of a notch on the RAM module contact surface allows for proper alignment of the module with the
memory bank on the motherboard and prevents the installation of incompatible memory types.
True ( Missed)
False
What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (DDR
SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)
184 contact pins ( Missed)

Reads/writes 2 words of data per clock cycle ( Missed)
168 contact pins
1 notch on the module contact surface ( Missed)
Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle
2 notches on the module contact surface
Which of the answers listed below refers to the industry name used for DDR-333 modules?
PC-2100
PC-2400
PC-2700 ( Missed)
3/5
PC-3200
What is the peak transfer rate of a DDR-266 module?
1600 MB/s
2133 MB/s ( Missed)
2666 MB/s
3200 MB/s
What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 2 Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory
(DDR2 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

204 contact pins
Which of the following answers refers to the industry name used for DDR2-1066 modules?
PC2-4200
PC2-5300
PC2-6400
PC2-8500 ( Missed)
What is the total bandwidth of a DDR2-533 module?
3200 MB/s
4266 MB/s ( Missed)
5333 MB/s
6400 MB/s

204 contact pins
Which of the answers listed below refers to the industry name used for DDR3-1333 modules?
PC3-6400
4/5
PC3-8500
PC3-10600 ( Missed)
PC3-12800
What is the maximum amount of data that can be transferred each second by a DDR3-1600 module?
6400 MB/s
8533 MB/s
10667 MB/s
12800 MB/s ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the characteristics of Dual In-line Memory Modules (DIMMs)? (Select
all that apply)
Printed Circuit Board (PCB) type used as a placeholder for memory chips ( Missed)
32-bit data path
Separate electrical contacts on each side of the module ( Missed)
Obsolete memory packaging type used only in legacy systems
64-bit data path ( Missed)
Unified electrical contact surface spanning both sides of the module
Used with various SDRAM memory types (SDR, DDR, DDR2, and DDR3) ( Missed)
What is the most common memory module form factor type used in laptop computers?
SO-DIMM ( Missed)
DIMM
MicroDIMM
C-RIMM
Your Final Report
Total marks 44
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers lists the number of pins used by SO-DIMM DDR SDRAM memory modules?
168
172
200 ( Missed)
204
DDR2 SO-DIMM memory modules have: (Select 2 answers)
144 pins ( Missed)

172 pins
200 pins ( Missed)
214 pins
240 pins
What is the number of contact pins used by SO-DIMM DDR3 SDRAM modules?
168
172
204 ( Missed)
214
A memory module form factor commonly used in sub-notebook devices is known as:
C-RIMM
MicroDIMM ( Missed)
SO-DIMM
DIMM
Which of the answers listed below refers to the number of pins used by MicroDIMM DDR SDRAM memory modules?
168
172 ( Missed)
204
214
What is the number of contact pins used by MicroDIMM DDR2 SDRAM modules?
200
204
214 ( Missed)
1/5
240
ECC type RAM:
Can only detect errors, but does not have the capability to correct them
Refers to parity RAM (the two terms are interchangeable)
Offers better performance in terms of speed when compared to a non-ECC type of RAM
Can detect and correct errors ( Missed)
Certain types of RAM take advantage of an additional bit in order to detect whether a data error has occurred. An
extra bit is used to store information about the number of bits set to the value of one in a given string of data
(typically one byte) and by examining that information at different stages of processing it is possible to detect
whether the data has been corrupted or not. What is the name of that extra bit?
Digest
Archive bit
Hash value
Parity bit ( Missed)
Compared to a non-ECC type of memory, the ECC RAM is a less expensive option and will always perform faster.
True
False ( Missed)
The color-coded memory slots on the motherboard indicate that the system is capable of taking advantage of the
multi-channel memory architecture.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following characteristics apply to the type of RAM most commonly used as the main system memory in
desktop PCs? (Select 3 answers)
Buffered memory
Non-ECC memory ( Missed)
Static RAM
Unbuffered memory ( Missed)
Dynamic RAM ( Missed)
ECC memory
Taking advantage of the performance benefits offered by the multi-channel memory architecture requires: (Select all
that apply)
Memory modules of matching types ( Missed)

Memory modules of matching speeds ( Missed)
Installing memory modules in any of the free memory slots on the motherboard
Memory modules of the same capacity ( Missed)
2/5
Installing modules in appropriate memory slots (slots of matching color) on the motherboard ( Missed)
A type of typically more expensive memory modules equipped with additional circuitry designed to ensure better
system stability and accuracy of data processing is known as: (Select all that apply)
VRAM
Buffered memory ( Missed)
RDIMM ( Missed)
Synchronous DRAM
UDIMM
Unbuffered memory
A single-sided memory module type can have memory chips placed on both sides of the module.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following RAM types would be the most suitable choices for a high-end server? (Select 3 answers)
UDIMM
Non-ECC memory
RDIMM ( Missed)
Unbuffered memory
ECC memory ( Missed)
A special-purpose memory type used by graphics controllers is known as:
UDIMM
Registered memory
SRAM
MicroDIMM
VRAM ( Missed)
Which of the memory types listed below allows for permanent storage of data?
VRAM
DVD-RAM ( Missed)
Static RAM
Buffered memory
DRAM
A type of Printed Circuit Board (PCB) that can be installed in a motherboard slot in order to extend the system
functionality is commonly referred to as an expansion card.
True ( Missed)
3/5
False
What type of safety measures should accompany the installation of an adapter card?
ESD protection ( Missed)

EMI protection
RFI protection
EMP protection
If a system fails to autoconfigure the newly added adapter card through PnP, finishing the configuration process
requires manual installation of device drivers.
True ( Missed)
False
A type of daughterboard equipped with expansion slots providing the capability for attaching further expansion cards
that are placed parallel with the mainboard in order to save space inside the system case is known as:
FireWire card
Riser card ( Missed)
Storage card
Thunderbolt card
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of storage media type(s) that can be read, but not written to?
BD-R
CD-ROM ( Missed)
DVD-RW
BD-RE
DVD-ROM ( Missed)
CD-RW
Which of the terms listed below refers to computer data storage systems, data storage devices, and data storage
media that can be written to once, but read from multiple times?
DVD-RW
Tape library
Floppy disk
WORM ( Missed)
Which of the following is an example of Write Once, Read Many (WORM) storage media type?
BD-R ( Missed)
Flash drive
CD-RW
4/5
Magnetic tape
CD-ROM
What are the storage limitations of a standard CD-ROM media format? (Select 2 answers)
Less than 800 MB of data storage capacity ( Missed)

120 minutes of uncompressed audio
More than 800 MB of data storage capacity
Up to 80 minutes of uncompressed audio ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 36
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of storage media type(s) that can be erased and written to multiple
times? (Select all that apply)
BD-R
CD-ROM
DVD-RW ( Missed)
BD-RE ( Missed)
DVD-ROM
CD-RW ( Missed)
Platters of a magnetic hard drive spin at a rate measured in:
Revolutions per second

Iterations per minute
Revolutions per minute ( Missed)
Iterations per second
The capability for replacing computer system components without causing interruption to the system operation is
known as:
Multitasking
Hardware acceleration
Hot swapping ( Missed)
Cold plugging
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of hot-swappable drives? (Select all that apply)
USB drive ( Missed)

PATA drive
FireWire drive ( Missed)
IDE drive
SATA drive ( Missed)
eSATA drive ( Missed)
A type of storage device with no moving parts that uses memory chips instead of magnetic platters is commonly
referred to as a Solid-State Drive (SSD).
True ( Missed)
False
Flash memory card formats include: (Select all that apply)
1/5
xD-Picture Card ( Missed)
SATA
CompactFlash (CF) ( Missed)
IEEE 1394
Secure Digital (SD) ( Missed)
eSATA
Which of the terms listed below refers to a proprietary flash memory card format used mainly in older digital
cameras?
xD ( Missed)
SD
SSD
Mini-SD
Micro-SD
A hybrid drive provides a combination of which of the following technologies? (Select 2 answers)
SD
HDD ( Missed)
xD
SSD ( Missed)
CF
A type of media used as a secondary system storage in tablets and mobile phones is known as:
CF
Mini-SD
eMMC ( Missed)
Micro-SD
xD
A storage technology that combines multiple disk drive components into a single logical unit to increase logical
volume size, improve performance, or reliability is known as:
Serial ATA (SATA)

Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)
Single Large Expensive Disk (SLED)
Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) ( Missed)
Parallel ATA (PATA)
Which of the following solutions does not offer fault tolerance?
RAID 5
2/5
Disk duplexing
RAID 0 ( Missed)
Disk mirroring
RAID 1
RAID Level 0: (Select 3 answers)
Is also known as disk striping ( Missed)

Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array destroys the entire array) ( Missed)
Is also referred to as disk mirroring
Offers less volume capacity in comparison to RAID 1
Requires at least 3 drives to implement
Is suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance ( Missed)
Requires at least 2 drives to implement ( Missed)

Is also known as disk striping
Offers improved performance in comparison to RAID 0
Offers improved reliability by creating identical data sets on each drive (failure of one drive does not destroy
the array as each drive contains identical copy of the data) ( Missed)
Is also referred to as disk mirroring ( Missed)

Continues to operate in case of failure of more than 1 drive
Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (single drive failure does not destroy the array and lost
data can be re-created by the remaining drives) ( Missed)
Which RAID type has the highest disk overhead?
RAID Level 3
RAID Level 5
RAID Level 6
RAID Level 1 ( Missed)
RAID Level 10 requires a minimum of:
2 drives
3 drives
4 drives ( Missed)
3/5
5 drives
Which of the answers listed below refer to a nested (hybrid) RAID level? (Select 2 answers)
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 1+0 ( Missed)
RAID 5
RAID 10 ( Missed)
Which type of RAID level creates a striped set from a series of mirrored drives?
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10 ( Missed)
A single-sided, single-layer DVD disc can store up to:
4.7 GB of data ( Missed)

7.8 GB of data
8.5 GB of data
15.6 GB of data
A single-sided, double-layer DVD disc can store up to:

15.6 GB of data
4.7 GB of data
7.8 GB of data
Which of the following statements describing the Blu-ray Disc (BD) technology are true? (Select 4 answers)
A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 15 GB of data

BD-RE discs can be erased and written to multiple times ( Missed)
A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 50 GB of data ( Missed)
BD-R discs can be written to once ( Missed)
A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB of data ( Missed)
BD-RE discs can be written to once
A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 30 GB of data
BD-R discs can be erased and written to multiple times
A single-layer mini Blu-ray disc can store up to:
8.544 GB of data
4/5
4.7 GB of data
15.6 GB of data
What is the capacity of a dual-layer mini Blu-ray disc?
8.544 GB
4.7 GB
7.8 GB
15.6 GB ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below describe the features of tape drives? (Select 3 answers)
Fast seek times

Low capacity
Volatile storage media
Magnetic media ( Missed)
Slow seek times ( Missed)
High capacity ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists storage media types arranged from lowest to highest capacity?
Floppy disk, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray), Tape ( Missed)

Floppy disk, CD, DVD, Tape, BD (Blu-ray)
CD, DVD, Floppy disk, BD (Blu-ray), Tape
Floppy disk, Tape, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray)
Your Final Report
Total marks 44
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following units is used for measuring the speed of modern CPUs?
GHz ( Missed)
rpm
Gbps
MHz
A type of CPU architecture where a single physical CPU contains more than one execution core on a single die or
chip is known as:
Parallel processing
Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP)
Multicore ( Missed)
Hyperthreading (HTT)
The Land Grid Array (LGA) is a type of integrated circuit packaging that is notable for having pins arranged in a
regular array on the underside of the package.
True
False ( Missed)
Hardware enhancements adding support for virtualization developed by AMD for its CPUs are known as:
Hyper-V
AMD Catalyst
VT-x
AMD-V ( Missed)
What are the characteristic features of Socket T? (Select 3 answers)
775 contacts ( Missed)

PGA packaging
Intel CPU socket ( Missed)
LGA packaging ( Missed)
1150 contacts
AMD CPU socket
Which of the following provides a CPU with the fastest access to frequently used data?
Flash memory
Multi-level cache ( Missed)
Random Access Memory (RAM)
1/5
Secondary storage
The NX bit technology implemented in CPUs manufactured by Intel is called:
EVP
XD bit ( Missed)
VT-x
Hyper-V
Which of the answers listed below refer to the features of Socket H2? (Select 3 answers)

AMD CPU socket
1556 contacts
PGA packaging
A CPU design based on instruction set that tries to improve speed by utilizing relatively few and simple instructions
is known as:
RISC ( Missed)
HPFS
EPIC
CISC
The Pin Grid Array (PGA) is a type of surface-mount packaging for integrated circuits (ICs) that is notable for having
pins on the socket rather than the integrated circuit.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following answers describe the characteristic features of Socket H/H1? (Select 3 answers)
AMD CPU socket

942 contacts
PGA packaging
The bus between the CPU and the internal memory cache (L2 cache) inside the CPU housing is called:

Front-side bus (FSB)
Universal Serial Bus (USB)
2/5
Back-side bus (BSB) ( Missed)
A set of Intel CPU hardware enhancements improving support for virtualization is known as:
EPV
VT-x ( Missed)
Catalyst
Hyper-V
What are the characteristic features of Socket B? (Select 3 answers)

775 contacts
AMD CPU socket
PGA packaging
The bus between the CPU and northbridge is called:
Back-side bus (BSB)

Front-side bus (FSB) ( Missed)
An additional ATX12V power connector designed to supply dedicated power for the CPU is known as:
Mini-DIN
P4 connector ( Missed)
BNC connector
P1 connector
Which of the answers listed below describe the features of Socket H3? (Select 3 answers)
1366 contacts
AMD CPU socket
PGA packaging
Which of the following acronyms refers to a specific feature of certain types of microprocessor sockets that facilitates
the insertion and removal of a CPU chip?
ZIF ( Missed)
TPM
3/5
ZIP
FRU
What is the name of a microprocessor component that performs all comparisons and calculations?
FRU
UART
ALU ( Missed)
LUN
Which of the following answers refer(s) to example(s) of Intel CPU(s) designed for desktop and workstation
computers? (Select all that apply)
Itanium
Celeron ( Missed)
Pentium ( Missed)
Core i3 ( Missed)
Athlon
Core i5 ( Missed)
Core i7 ( Missed)
What is the name of a server-dedicated CPU series designed by AMD?
Athlon
Opteron ( Missed)
Itanium
Phenom
Sempron
Which of the following answers refer to the characteristics of Socket R? (Select 3 answers)

PGA packaging
AMD CPU socket
1366 contacts
Intel CPU server brands include: (Select 2 answers)
Xeon ( Missed)
Celeron
Opteron
Itanium ( Missed)
4/5
Sempron
Atom
The NX bit technology implemented by AMD in its CPUs is known as:
EVP ( Missed)
XD bit
VT-x
Hyper-V
The AMD CPU brands designed for desktop and workstation computers include: (Select all that apply)
Opteron
Athlon ( Missed)
Sempron ( Missed)
Phenom ( Missed)
FX ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 45
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
As opposed to active cooling components such as cooling fans, heat sinks fall into the category of passive cooling
components because they do not need to draw any electrical power in order to operate.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers describe the features of Socket FM2? (Select 3 answers)
LGA packaging
Intel CPU socket
905 contacts
PGA packaging
AMD CPU socket ( Missed)
PGA-ZIF packaging ( Missed)
A 64-bit CPU can be used either with a 32-bit or 64-bit version of the Microsoft Windows operating system.
True ( Missed)
False
What are the characteristic features of Socket FM2+? (Select 3 answers)

Intel CPU socket
PGA packaging
905 contacts
LGA packaging
Which of the terms listed below refers to a situation where a single CPU appears as two virtual CPUs to the
operating system?
Stepping
Multicore
Hyperthreading ( Missed)
Multitasking
What are the characteristic features of Socket AM3? (Select 3 answers)
PGA packaging
1/5
Intel CPU socket
942 contacts
LGA packaging
The most notable difference between Pin Grid Array (PGA) and Land Grid Array (LGA) packaging relates to the
placement of contact pins, which in case of PGA can be found on the socket, and in case of LGA on the CPU.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to solution(s) aimed at improving CPU heat dissipation? (Select all that
apply)
Heat sink ( Missed)

CPU fan ( Missed)
Dual rail
Thermal paste ( Missed)
Liquid-based cooling ( Missed)
P1 connector
Which of the following built-in functionalities allows a CPU to take over tasks normally executed by a dedicated
graphics card?
DisplayPort
Integrated GPU ( Missed)
Multicore architecture
Hyperthreading
VGA mode
What are the characteristic features of Socket FM1? (Select 3 answers)

PGA packaging
Intel CPU socket
LGA packaging
904 contacts
In CPU cooling, thermal compound is applied to fill in the narrow space between:
CPU and heat sink ( Missed)

2/5
Heat sink and CPU fan
CPU and cooling pad
Heat sink and cooling pad
Which of the answers listed below refers to the area of implementation of No-eXecute bit (NX bit)?
Parity checks
Malware protection ( Missed)
Biometric authentication
Data backup
What are the characteristic features of Socket AM3+? (Select 3 answers)
LGA packaging
941 contacts
PGA packaging
Intel CPU socket
A security feature used by CPUs for isolating areas of memory in order to prevent the execution of code from non-
executable memory locations is known as:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

No-eXecute bit (NX bit) ( Missed)
Error-Correcting Code (ECC)
Parity bit
Which of the CPU models listed below are compatible with the LGA 775 socket?
Celeron, Sempron, Pentium, Core i3, Core i5, Core i7, Xeon E3, Xeon E5, Xeon E7
Athlon II X2, Athlon II X3, Athlon II X4, Phenom II, Phenom II X2, Phenom II X4, Phenom II X6, FX
Pentium 4, Pentium D, Celeron, Celeron D, Pentium XE, Core 2 Duo, Core 2 Extreme, Core 2 Quad, Xeon (
Missed)
Celeron, Pentium, Core i3, Core i5, Core i7, Xeon E3, Xeon E5, Xeon E7, Opteron
Which of the following statements list(s) data transfer rates of the USB 1.1 standard? (Select all that apply)
400 Mbps
12 Mbps ( Missed)
800 Mbps
5 Gbps
480 Mbps
3/5
1.5 Mbps ( Missed)
USB version 1.1 offers two data transfer speeds: 1.5 Mbps designed for low data rate peripherals such as joysticks
(sometimes referred to as "Low-Speed USB"), and 12 Mbps designed for higher-speed devices such as disk drives
(sometimes referred to as "Full-Speed USB").
True ( Missed)
False
USB 2.0 (aka "Hi-Speed USB") specifies the maximum data transfer rate of:
800 Mbps
480 Mbps ( Missed)
12 Mbps
400 Mbps
Which of the following statements apply to the USB 3.0 standard? (Select all that apply)
USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as Hi-Speed USB

Backward compatibility with all preceding USB standards ( Missed)
Speed of up to 800 Mbps
USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as Full-Speed USB
Speed of up to 5 Gbps ( Missed)
USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as SuperSpeed USB ( Missed)
Maximum practical cable length of 3 meters ( Missed)
The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard specifies that type A connectors can be attached to: (Select 2 answers)
Target devices
Devices that supply power ( Missed)
Host devices ( Missed)
Any type of device
Devices that receive power
What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller?
31
63
127 ( Missed)
255
The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard specifies that type B connectors can be attached to: (Select 2 answers)
Target devices ( Missed)

Devices that supply power
Host devices
4/5
Any type of device
Devices that receive power ( Missed)
What is the maximum allowable cable length for USB devices?
18 inches
4.5 meters
5 meters ( Missed)
1 meter
Which of the statements listed below apply to USB? (Select all that apply)
Hot-pluggable devices ( Missed)

Parallel communication interface
Bootable devices ( Missed)
Serial communication interface ( Missed)
"FireWire" is another term for which of the following standards?
IEEE 802.11
IEEE 1284
IEEE 802.3
IEEE 1394 ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 46
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following statements refer(s) to the IEEE 1394a standard? (Select all that apply)
Data transfer rate of up to 800 Mbps

FireWire 400 ( Missed)
FireWire 800
Data transfer rate of up to 400 Mbps ( Missed)
Parallel bus interface standard
Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to:
18 inches
2 meters
4.5 meters ( Missed)
5 meters
A single IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to:
255 devices
127 devices
15 devices
63 devices ( Missed)
Which of the following statements refer(s) to the IEEE 1394b standard? (Select all that apply)

FireWire 400
Which types of standard FireWire connectors have the capability of supplying voltage to a device? (Select 2
answers)
2-pin connector
4-pin connector
6-pin connector ( Missed)
8-pin connector
1/5
For optical connections, The IEEE 1394b standard extends the maximum allowable cable length to 100 meters.
True ( Missed)
False
What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 1.0 standard?
1.5 Gbps ( Missed)

1 Gbps
2.5 Gbps
3 Gbps
The SATA standard specifies a power connector consisting of:
7 pins
34 pins
40 pins
15 pins ( Missed)
A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect a motherboard slot with:
Up to 3 devices
Up to 2 devices
Only 1 device ( Missed)
Up to 4 devices
480 Mbps
3 Gbps ( Missed)
800 Mbps
6 Gbps
The SATA standard defines data cable connector consisting of:
40 pins
34 pins
15 pins
7 pins ( Missed)
6 Gbps ( Missed)
800 Mbps
3 Gbps
480 Mbps
2/5
What is the maximum length for external SATA (eSATA) cable?
5 meters
2 meters ( Missed)
1 meter
18 inches
"DB-15", "DE-15", and "HD-15" are terms referring to the different variants of the:
RJ-45 connector
BNC connector
VGA connector ( Missed)
8P8C connector
Which of the answers listed below refers to the Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector?
PCIe 6/8-pin connector

Three-row 15-pin connector ( Missed)
Two-row 40-pin connector
Three-row 29-pin connector
Examples of interfaces providing the capability for transmission of both video and audio data include: (Select all that
apply)
S/PDIF
DVI
S-Video
VGA
HDMI ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the VGA
connectors and cables? (Select 2 answers)
Video and audio

Audio
Video only ( Missed)
Digital and analog
Analog only ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below describe the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the
HDMI connectors and cables? (Select 2 answers)
Analog signal
Video only
Digital signal ( Missed)
3/5
Audio only
Video and audio ( Missed)
Which of the following interfaces takes advantage of the 19-pin Type A connector?
USB
Thunderbolt
FireWire
DisplayPort
HDMI ( Missed)
Which of the Digital Visual Interface (DVI) connector types does not provide support for digital signal transmission?
DVI-D
DVI-A ( Missed)
DVI-I
DVI-A/D
Which of the following answers describes(s) the characteristic features of S/PDIF? (Select all that apply)
Twisted-pair cabling
Digital audio interface ( Missed)
Coaxial cabling ( Missed)
Video interface
Fiber-optic cabling ( Missed)
"Phono connector", "Cinch connector", and "A/V jack" are terms that refer to a popular type of electrical connector
commonly used to carry analog/digital audio and analog video signals. This type of connector is formally known as
the:
DVI connector
RCA connector ( Missed)
VGA connector
RJ-45 connector
The DVI-I connector type provides support for both digital and analog video signal transmission.
True ( Missed)
False
Examples of connector types used for carrying audio signals include: (Select all that apply)
TRS connector ( Missed)

DVI-A connector
VGA connector
4/5
S/PDIF connector ( Missed)
Which of the Digital Visual Interface (DVI) connector types does not provide support for analog signal transmission?
DVI-D ( Missed)
DVI-A
DVI-I
DVI-A/D
Your Final Report
Total marks 34
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following connector types are used with twisted-pair copper cabling? (Select all that apply)
ST
RJ-45 ( Missed)
RG-6
RJ-11 ( Missed)
F-connector
BNC
RG-59
What are the characteristic features of the RJ-11 connector? (Select 2 answers)
Used with telephone cabling ( Missed)

Copper cabling connector ( Missed)
Used with Ethernet network cabling
Fiber-optic cabling connector
Coaxial cabling connector
Which of the connector types listed below plugs into a port of an Ethernet NIC?
DB15
S/PDIF
RCA
RJ-45 ( Missed)
Used with telephone cabling

Used with Ethernet network cabling ( Missed)
A single copper-based Thunderbolt cable provides the capability for a simultaneous transfer of: (Select all that apply)
Data from connected PCI Express (PCIe) devices ( Missed)

DC power ( Missed)
Data from connected DisplayPort devices ( Missed)
AC power
Which of the following answers lists the maximum allowable length for Thunderbolt copper cabling?
1/5
3 meters ( Missed)
4.5 meters
5 meters
10 meters
What is the maximum length of a fiber-optic Thunderbolt cable?
30 meters
40 meters
50 meters
60 meters ( Missed)
Thunderbolt v1 supports data transfer rates of: (Select 2 answers)
15 Gbps per channel

20 Gbps (total bandwidth) ( Missed)
10 Gbps per channel ( Missed)
40 Gbps (total bandwidth)
20 Gbps per channel
30 Gbps (total bandwidth)
Thunderbolt v2 allows for combining two physical channels into a single logical channel which results in a maximum
available throughput of up to:
10 Gbps
20 Gbps ( Missed)
30 Gbps
40 Gbps
Thunderbolt v3 increases the bandwidth offered by its predecessors to:
10 Gbps
20 Gbps
30 Gbps
40 Gbps ( Missed)
Connector types used with Thunderbolt devices include: (Select 2 answers)
USB Type-A
DVI-A
Mini DisplayPort (MDP) ( Missed)
USB Type-B
VGA connector
USB Type-C ( Missed)
2/5
Which of the following answers list(s) examples of wireless connectivity media? (Select all that apply)
RF ( Missed)
HDMI
IEEE 802.3
IR ( Missed)
NFC ( Missed)
Bluetooth ( Missed)
The 15-pin ATX PSU SATA power connector supplies electrical power at the voltage(s) of: (Select all that apply)
+3 V
+3.3 V ( Missed)
+4 V
+5 V ( Missed)
+12 V ( Missed)
Which of the auxiliary PC connectors is used for supplying dedicated power to the CPU?
4/8-pin 12v ( Missed)

P1
PCIe 6/8-pin
T568B
Which of the following connectors would be used to increase the power consumption limit for a high-end graphics
card?
T568A
15-pin VGA
PCIe 6/8-pin ( Missed)
4/8-pin 12v
The optional 6-pin PCIe connector increases the maximum allowable power consumption of a PCIe card by
additional 75 Watts.
True ( Missed)
False
The optional 8-pin PCIe power connector increases the power consumption limit for connected device to:
75 W
150 W ( Missed)
25 W
125 W
ATX PSU connectors providing main power to the PC motherboard consist of: (Select 2 answers)
3/5
14 pins
20 pins ( Missed)
22 pins
24 pins ( Missed)
28 pins
PC Power Supply Units (PSUs) may accept an AC current of 110-120 volts (standard AC current in the United States
and Canada) or 220-240 volts (European AC standard). A PSU might have either a manual selector switch on the
back of the device for adjusting the supplied voltage (these types of PSUs are referred to as fixed-input devices), or
automatically adapt to the supplied AC voltage (auto-switching PSUs).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to the type of electric current supplied to most of the internal PC
components?
AC
PFC
DC ( Missed)
A/V
PC Power Supply Units (PSUs) capable of operating with either 110-120 or 220-240 volt power input ranges are
referred to as dual rail PSUs.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the hardware requirements listed below should be given priority while assembling a custom
graphic/CAD/CAM design workstation? (Select 3 answers)
High-end GPU ( Missed)

Multicore CPU ( Missed)
High-end cooling
Maximum amount of RAM ( Missed)
High-capacity HDD
Dual monitors
What type of hardware components would be the most important for an A/V editing workstation? (Select all that
apply)
Maximum amount of RAM

Specialized sound card ( Missed)
Dual monitors ( Missed)
Specialized GPU ( Missed)
Multicore CPU
4/5
High-capacity fast HDD ( Missed)
For best performance, a custom workstation designed for virtualization tasks requires: (Select 2 answers)
High-capacity HDD
Specialized GPU
High-end cooling
Which of the following hardware requirements should be given priority while building a PC designed for computer
gaming? (Select all that apply)
Dual monitors
High-capacity fast HDD
High-end cooling ( Missed)
High definition sound card ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 47
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
What type of hardware components would be the most important for a custom Home Theater PC (HTPC)? (Select
all that apply)
TV tuner ( Missed)
Surround sound audio ( Missed)
HDMI output ( Missed)
Motherboard form factor ( Missed)
Specialized GPU
Multicore CPU
A computer on a network where most functions are carried out on a central server, or a software application that
uses client-server model wherein the server performs all the processing is commonly referred to as:
Thick client
Active Hub
Thin client ( Missed)
Virtual machine
Which of the following hardware components should be given priority in order to ensure optimal performance of a
home server PC? (Select 2 answers)
High-end video
Gigabit NIC ( Missed)
Multicore processor
HDD RAID setup ( Missed)
Specialized audio
Which of the LCD technologies listed below offers the fastest response time?
Twisted Nematic (TN) ( Missed)

Cathode Ray Tube (CRT)
Ultra Extended Graphics Array (UXGA)
In-Plane Switching (IPS)
What are the characteristic features of the In-Plane Switching (IPS) LCD panel technology? (Select 3 answers)
High color quality ( Missed)

Fast response times
Wide viewing angles ( Missed)
Low color quality
Slow response times ( Missed)
1/6
Low viewing angles
Which of the following answers describe the features of the Twisted Nematic (TN) LCD panel technology? (Select 3
answers)
Low viewing angles ( Missed)

Fast response times ( Missed)
Low color quality ( Missed)
High color quality
Slow response times
Wide viewing angles
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to an LCD panel taking advantage of fluorescent lamps?
LED
CCFL ( Missed)
DFS
OLED
Which of the following answers describe the function of a power inverter? (Select 2 answers)
Converts AC power into DC power

Used for supplying voltage to backlights of an LCD panel ( Missed)
Converts DC power into AC power ( Missed)
Used for supplying voltage to backlights of an OLED display
Examples of devices posing risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage include: (Select all that apply)
CRTs ( Missed)
Power supplies ( Missed)
Inverters ( Missed)
CPUs
Laser printers ( Missed)
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a new type of thin and lightweight display devices offering higher
contrast ratio and color quality in comparison to LCD without the need for a special light source to produce a visible
image?
OLED ( Missed)
LED
HDMI
HTPC
In computer graphics, the frequency at which the screen is redrawn is called:
Aspect ratio
2/6
Interlacing
Refresh rate ( Missed)
Screen resolution
Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply)
A digital image displayed on the graphics monitor screen consists of pixels arranged in rows and columns (
Missed)
The term "screen resolution" refers to the maximum number of pixels in each dimension (horizontal and
vertical) that can be addressed by a digital display device ( Missed)
In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a CRT monitor it is usually recommended to set
the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the CRT's native resolution)
The term "screen resolution" refers to the relative horizontal and vertical size of a digital image displayed on
the graphics monitor screen
The smallest unit of a digital image represented on the digital display device is known as pixel ( Missed)
In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a LCD monitor it is usually recommended to set
the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the LCD's native resolution) (
Missed)
What type of unit is used to describe the refresh rate of a computer screen?
Hz ( Missed)
cd/m2
MHz
Lumen
KHz
Which of the following units is used for measuring the brightness of an image rendered by an image projector?
dB
cd/m2
Lumen ( Missed)
Hz
The brightness of an LCD display screen is measured in:
Hz
Lumens
dB
cd/m2 ( Missed)
Which of the following countermeasures prevents shoulder surfing?
Cable locks
Video surveillance
Privacy filters ( Missed)
3/6
Security guards
Screensavers
A monitor filter used to reduce reflection from the surface of a CRT or LCD display is called:
Widescreen
Antiglare ( Missed)
Flat panel
Privacy filter
The relative horizontal and vertical size of a digital image displayed on the graphics monitor screen is referred to as:
Frame rate
Screen resolution
Aspect ratio ( Missed)
Native resolution
Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of the Extended Graphics Array (XGA) display
standard? (Select 2 answers)
4:3 aspect ratio ( Missed)

1280 x 1024 resolution
16:10 aspect ratio
1024 x 768 resolution ( Missed)
5:4 aspect ratio
Display devices with aspect ratios of 16:10 and 16:9 are commonly referred to as:
UXGA displays
Fullscreen displays
Widescreen displays ( Missed)
WUXGA displays
The Super Extended Graphics Array (SXGA) display standard features: (Select 2 answers)

16:10 aspect ratio
4:3 aspect ratio
Which of the following answers refers to the standard display format for HDTV?
4:3 aspect ratio

4/6
5:4 aspect ratio
16:10 aspect ratio
What are the characteristic features of the Ultra Extended Graphics Array (UXGA) display standard? (Select 2
answers)
16:10 aspect ratio

5:4 aspect ratio
Which of the answers listed below refer to the Widescreen Ultra Extended Graphics Array (WUXGA) display
standard (Select 2 answers)

4:3 aspect ratio
4:3 aspect ratio
Which of the following display standards use(s) the 4:3 aspect ratio? (Select all that apply)
XGA ( Missed)
SXGA
UXGA ( Missed)
WUXGA
Your Final Report
Total marks 45
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/6
6/6
Which of the display standards listed below uses the 16:10 aspect ratio?
XGA
SXGA
UXGA
WUXGA ( Missed)
Examples of connectors providing the capability for carrying both video and audio signals include: (Select 2
answers)
S-Video
S/PDIF
DVI-I
DisplayPort ( Missed)
HDMI ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to the features of DisplayPort?
Analog video connector

Audio only connector
Digital audio/video connector ( Missed)
Analog audio connector
Video only connector
Which of the connector types listed below are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers)
ST
MT-RJ
BNC ( Missed)
LC
F-connector ( Missed)
The PS/2 connector is a 6-pin Mini-DIN connector used for connecting: (Select all that apply)
Modem
Sound card
Mouse ( Missed)
Hard drive
Keyboard ( Missed)
In computer security, the term "Biometrics" refers to physical characteristics of the human body that can be used for
1/5
identification and access control purposes.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following are biometric devices? (Select all that apply)
Retinal scanner ( Missed)

Flatbed scanner
Iris scanner ( Missed)
Barcode reader
Fingerprint reader ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the function of digitizer? (Select all that apply)
Translates analog data into a format suitable for computer processing ( Missed)
Output device
An example of motion detector device
Component of a mobile device's screen that allows to control the device with a fingertip ( Missed)
An example of media converter device
Input device ( Missed)
Common areas of implementation of smart card reader devices include: (Select 2 answers)
Physical security ( Missed)

Mobile devices
Computer networking
Digital security
Commerce ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer to the examples of output devices? (Select 3 answers)
Printer ( Missed)
Barcode reader
Display device ( Missed)
Smart card reader
Motion sensor
Speaker ( Missed)
What is the name of a hardware device that allows for administering multiple hosts with the use of a single mouse,
keyboard, and computer screen?
Device Manager
KVM switch ( Missed)
Set-top box
2/5
Port replicator
UTM appliance
The term "Smart TV" refers to a type of advanced television set that enables more interactive user experience by
offering additional features such as web browsing or video streaming.
True ( Missed)
False
A standalone appliance connected to a TV set or other display device that enables receiving television signal and/or
Internet data is commonly referred to as:
Smart TV
Thick client
Set-Top Box ( Missed)
UTM appliance
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a technical standard for digital representation and transmission of
sound?
MAPI
MIDI ( Missed)
MIME
MIMO
Which of the following answers refer(s) to device(s) capable of providing both input and output functions? (Select all
that apply)
Touch screen ( Missed)

Touch pad
Keyboard
Smart TV ( Missed)
Set-Top Box ( Missed)
MIDI enabled devices ( Missed)
A printer's capability to print on both sides of a paper sheet is known as:
Duplex printing ( Missed)

Dual printing
Double printing
Simplex printing
In printing, the term "Collation" refers to a configuration setting for organizing printer output in a specific order.
True ( Missed)
3/5
False
Network printer sharing through a wired connection can be implemented with the use of which of the following
interfaces? (Select all that apply)
Parallel ( Missed)
USB ( Missed)
Bluetooth
Serial ( Missed)
802.11x
Ethernet ( Missed)
An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is commonly referred to
as:
Demarc
Access Point (AP) ( Missed)
Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)
Active hub
A wireless networking topology in which client devices communicate directly with each other without the use of a
controlling Access Point (AP) is known as: (Select 3 answers)
Mesh topology
Ad hoc mode ( Missed)
Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) ( Missed)
Peer-to-peer mode ( Missed)
Infrastructure mode
Wireless interfaces that can be used for the purpose of network device sharing include: (Select 2 answers)
802.11x ( Missed)
Serial
USB
Bluetooth ( Missed)
Ethernet
A common network communication protocol used for enabling two hosts to establish a network connection and
exchange data is known as:
STP
WPS
UTP
TCP ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to an Apple technology that allows for automatic discovery of services and
4/5
network-enabled devices on a local network?
iCloud
Bonjour ( Missed)
Spotlight
Boot Camp
An Apple technology built into most popular printer models enabling network printing service without the need for
manual configuration from the user side is called:
AirPort
TCP/IP
AirPrint ( Missed)
Bonjour
Which of the following answers refers to a laser printer component responsible for transferring the toner and image
or text to the paper?
Feeder
Print head
Duplexing assembly
Imaging drum ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 45
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
A laser printer component applying high temperature and pressure to bond the toner to the paper is called:
Print head
Transfer roller
Fuser assembly ( Missed)
Imaging drum
Which of the answers listed below refers to the correct sequence of steps in the laser printing process?
Processing, exposing, charging, transferring, developing, fusing, cleaning

Developing, cleaning, exposing, transferring, charging, fusing, processing
Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning ( Missed)
Cleaning, fusing, exposing, developing, transferring, processing, charging
In impact printing, calibration helps to ensure that the colors and layout represented on the monitor display match
the colors and layout of the printed image.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the printer types are used in Point of Sale (PoS) systems?
Inkjet
Laser
Thermal ( Missed)
Impact
Which of the following printer types fall(s) into the category of impact printers? (Select all that apply)
Laser
Inkjet
Daisy wheel ( Missed)
Thermal
Dot matrix ( Missed)
Which type of printer takes advantage of tractor feed during printing process?
Inkjet
Laser
Impact ( Missed)
Thermal
1/5
Which of the printer types listed below provide(s) the capability to produce duplicate pages (multipart forms) during
printing process? (Select all that apply)
Inkjet
Thermal
Impact ( Missed)
Laser
Which of the following printer types use inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper? (Select 2 answers)
Inkjet
Thermal
Laser
A single sheet or roll of printing paper with holes punched along each side is designed for use with:
Laser printers
Dot-matrix printers ( Missed)
Inkjet printers
Thermal printers
Which of the printing methods utilizes the XPS format?
Laser printing
Inkjet printing
Thermal printing
Virtual printing ( Missed)
File formats commonly used in virtual printing include: (Select 2 answers)
XPS ( Missed)
GDI
PCL
PDF ( Missed)
TXT
Which of the following answers refers to a legacy parallel printer port?
RS-232
LPT ( Missed)
COM
USB
2/5
A language used for describing the appearance of a printed page is called:
DLT
CCFL
SSL
PCL ( Missed)
A Microsoft Windows OS component responsible for representing graphical objects and transmitting them to output
devices such as monitors and printers is called:
GDI ( Missed)
IDS
PostScript
PCL
Which of the following allow(s) for print device sharing over a wired connection? (Select all that apply)
USB ( Missed)
Parallel ( Missed)
802.11x
Bluetooth
Ethernet ( Missed)
Infrared (IR)
Serial ( Missed)
Parallel printer cable connector examples include: (Select 2 answers)
USB type A connector

RJ-45 Ethernet cable connector
Centronics connector ( Missed)
USB type B connector
DB-25 connector ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer to parallel printer port operation modes? (Select 2 answers)
ECP ( Missed)
EFS
ERD
EPP ( Missed)
ECC
Examples of network protocols designed to enable remote printing include: (Select 2 answers)
IMAP
RDP
3/5
Telnet
IPP ( Missed)
LPD/LPR ( Missed)
Which of the following allow(s) for print device sharing over a wireless connection? (Select all that apply)
Bluetooth ( Missed)
Ethernet
802.11x ( Missed)
Parallel
USB
Infrared (IR) ( Missed)
What are the characteristic features of fiber-optic cabling? (Select 3 answers)
High signal attenuation

Immunity to electromagnetic interference ( Missed)
Less suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling
Provides higher level of security than copper cabling (difficult to tap into) ( Missed)
Low bandwidth capacity
More suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to connector type(s) used with fiber-optic cabling? (Select all that apply)
ST ( Missed)
DB-25
SC ( Missed)
RG-59
LC ( Missed)
RG-6
RJ-11 and RJ-45 are connector types used with:
Twisted-pair cabling ( Missed)

Coaxial cabling
Fiber-optic cabling
Twinaxial cabling
An Ethernet crossover cable uses:
T568A pin/pair assignments on both ends

T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on the opposite end ( Missed)
BNC connectors on both ends
T568B pin/pair assignments on both ends
4/5
Which of the following connector types are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers)
ST
MT-RJ
BNC ( Missed)
LC
The advantages of multi-mode fiber-optic cabling over single-mode cabling include data transfer rates over longer
distances, higher speed, and lower cost.
True
False ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 42
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the cabling types listed below provide(s) protection against an outside signal interference? (Select all that
apply)
UTP
Coaxial ( Missed)
Fiber-optic ( Missed)
STP ( Missed)
One of the differences between the UTP and STP cabling is that the STP cable takes advantage of additional
protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources.
True ( Missed)
False
In twisted-pair cabling wires are grouped into pairs and wires in each pair are twisted around each other in order to
reduce:
Cross-talk ( Missed)
Cable diameter
Collisions
Bend radius
What is the typical cable segment length for a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable?
33 meters
55 meters
100 meters ( Missed)
250 meters
Category 3 (CAT3) cable is a 10 Mbps twisted-pair copper cable used in telephone wiring.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following twisted-pair copper cabling types is most commonly used in modern Ethernet networks?
CAT3
CAT4
CAT5
CAT5e ( Missed)
What is the maximum cable segment length for a CAT5e cable?
25 meters
1/5
50 meters
250 meters
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristics of a Category 5e (CAT5e) cabling? (Select all that
apply)
10 Gbps Ethernet
RJ-11 connector
RJ-45 connector ( Missed)
Fiber-optic cabling
Copper cabling ( Missed)
1 Gbps Ethernet ( Missed)
What is the minimum cabling requirement for a 10 Gbps connection over copper twisted-pair?
CAT5
CAT5e
CAT6 ( Missed)
CAT6A
The Category 6 (CAT6) cabling supports 10 Gbps data transfer rate at a limited range of up to 55 meters, whereas
CAT6A (Augmented) cabling allows for 10 Gbps data transfer rate over a standard cable segment length of 100
meters.
True ( Missed)
False
The term "Plenum" refers to an enclosed space used for airflow, such as the one between dropped ceiling and
structural ceiling in a building. Cabling coated with a fire-retardant jacket placed in this space is referred to as
plenum-rated cabling. Plenum-rated cabling must meet special requirements so that it doesn't catch on fire easily.
True ( Missed)
False
Materials from which the plenum-rated cable's cover is made include: (Select 2 answers)
FPM
PVC ( Missed)
EPP
FEP ( Missed)
ECP
Which of the following answers list examples of coaxial cabling types? (Select 2 answers)
STP
2/5
RG-59 ( Missed)
Multi-mode fiber
UTP
RG-6 ( Missed)
Single-mode fiber
Which of the terms listed below refers to a loss in signal strength during transmission caused by increasing distance
and obstacles encountered on the signal path?
Amplitude
Cross-talk
Attenuation ( Missed)
Brownout
What is the bit length of an IPv4 address?
32 bits ( Missed)
48 bits
64 bits
128 bits
Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of the 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 IPv4 address
space? (Select 2 answers)
Class A range ( Missed)

Public IP address range
Class B range
Non-routable (private) IP address range ( Missed)
Class C range
Which of the answers listed below refer to the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)
Class A range
Class B range ( Missed)
Class C range
What are the characteristic features of the 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 IP address space? (Select 2 answers)
Class A range
Class B range
3/5
Class C range ( Missed)
An IPv4 address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates problem with what type of service?
SMTP
DNS
DHCP ( Missed)
SNMP
An IPv6 address consists of:
32 bits
48 bits
64 bits
128 bits ( Missed)
IPv6 addresses are expressed with the use of:
Octagonal numbers
Binary numbers
Hexadecimal numbers ( Missed)
Decimal numbers
A double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing only zeroes has been compressed to
make the address notation shorter.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to an IPv6 link-local address?
2002::/16
FE80::/64 ( Missed)
2001::/32
::1/128
An IP address assigned permanently to a computer by an Internet Service Provider (ISP) is known as:
Static IP address ( Missed)

Private IP address
Dynamic IP address
Public IP address
A system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data, such as for example numerical IP
addresses is known as:
IDS
4/5
DNS ( Missed)
SQL
DFS
Your Final Report
Total marks 35
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following is an example of a valid subnet mask?
255.255.225.0
255.255.191.0
255.255.127.0
255.255.64.0
None of the above is a valid subnet mask ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a CIDR notation for 255.255.224.0 subnet mask?
/19 ( Missed)
/20
/21
/22
What is the binary representation of 255.255.128.0 subnet mask?
11111111.11111111.10000000.00000000 ( Missed)
11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000
11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000
11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000
Which of the following answers lists a CIDR notation for 255.255.128.0 subnet mask?
/16
/17 ( Missed)
/18
/19
Information required for manual configuration of network adapter settings in MS Windows includes: (Select all that
apply)
IP address ( Missed)
Subnet mask ( Missed)
Default gateway ( Missed)
MAC address
DNS server address ( Missed)
SSID (aka network name)
The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Control Connection for administering a session is established through port number:
20
1/5
22
21 ( Missed)
25
The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Data Connection for sending file data is established through port number:
23
25
20 ( Missed)
21
The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol uses:
Port 23
Port 25
Port 21
Port 22 ( Missed)
Port number 23 is assigned to:
Secure Shell (SSH)

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Telnet ( Missed)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) operates with the use of port:
110
25 ( Missed)
143
23
Which of the following port numbers is used by Domain Name System (DNS)?
25
23
53 ( Missed)
67
Port number 80 is used by:
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) ( Missed)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)
Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
Telnet
2/5
Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on port:
110 ( Missed)
143
123
443
Port 143 is assigned to:
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) ( Missed)
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
Which of the port numbers listed below is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)?
80
443 ( Missed)
53
143
A network technician uses a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS in order to remotely
troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-
in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection?
1701
139
3389 ( Missed)
548
Which of the following port numbers are reserved for NetBIOS services? (Select all that apply)
136
161
137 ( Missed)
162
138 ( Missed)
139 ( Missed)
Port 445 is used by: (Select 2 answers)

Server Message Block (SMB) ( Missed)
Common Internet File System (CIFS) ( Missed)
3/5
What is the port number for Service Location Protocol (SLP)?
143
427 ( Missed)
548
443
Which of the port numbers listed below is used by an Apple-proprietary file sharing protocol?
427
443
445
548 ( Missed)
What is the function of POP3?
Sending email messages

Retrieving email messages from a mail server ( Missed)
Translating domain names into IP addresses
File exchange
IMAP4 is used for:
Serving web pages

A secure version of the HTTP protocol offering traffic encryption is known as: (Select all that apply)
HSPA
HTTP over SSL ( Missed)
HSRP
HTTP over TLS ( Missed)
HTTPS ( Missed)
A Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with a graphical interface for connecting to another computer over
a network is known as:
RDP ( Missed)
IPP
RIP
WAP
4/5
Which of the following would be in use when a WINS server tries to resolve a host name into an IP address on a
Windows-based LAN?
TCP/IP
NetBIOS ( Missed)
Telnet
DNS
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
The function of the NetBT protocol is to allow NetBIOS services to be used over TCP/IP networks.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the protocols listed below is used for automated discovery of networked services on Local Area Networks
(LANs)?
SMB
AFP
CIFS
SLP ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer(s) to file sharing network protocol(s)? (Select all that apply)
RIP
FTP ( Missed)
NNTP
AFP ( Missed)
SNMP
A network protocol providing an alternative solution to the manual assignment of IP addresses is called:
DNS
SNMP
NAT
DHCP ( Missed)
LDAP is an example of:
Authentication protocol
Address resolution protocol
Directory access protocol ( Missed)
File exchange protocol
A protocol used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices is known as:
SMTP
ICMP
SNMP ( Missed)
IPsec
1/5
Server Message Block (SMB) and Common Internet File System (CIFS) are examples of network protocols used for
providing shared access to files, directories, and devices.
True ( Missed)
False
Examples of secure network protocols offering traffic encryption include: (Select 3 answers)
FTP
HTTPS ( Missed)
Telnet
HTTP
IPsec ( Missed)
SSH ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote
command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked
computers?
Telnet
SSH ( Missed)
Bcrypt
TFTP
Which of the protocols listed below was designed as a secure replacement for Telnet?
CHAP
FTP
SNMP
SSH ( Missed)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is an example of a connectionless protocol. TCP doesn't support three-way
handshake (thus it is also referred to as unreliable or best-effort protocol).
True
False ( Missed)
User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connection-oriented protocol that requires a set of initial steps in order to
establish connection (three-way handshake), supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the
amount of data that is being sent), and sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order).
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard
amendment? (Select all that apply)
Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps ( Missed)
2/5
5.0 GHz frequency band ( Missed)
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method ( Missed)
2.4 GHz frequency band
Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method
Which of the following answers list(s) the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard amendment? (Select all
that apply)

5.0 GHz frequency range
2.4 GHz frequency range ( Missed)
What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard amendment? (Select all that apply)
The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard amendment include: (Select all that apply)
Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) ( Missed)

Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
Which of the following answers refers(s) to the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard amendment?
Data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

3/5
Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) ( Missed)
Which of the wireless security standards listed below has been deprecated in favor of newer standards due to known
vulnerabilities resulting from implementation flaws?
AES
WPA2
PEAP
WEP ( Missed)
CCMP
Which of the following wireless encryption schemes offers the highest level of protection?
WEP
WPA2 ( Missed)
WAP
WPA
A security protocol introduced in order to strengthen existing WEP implementations without requiring the
replacement of legacy hardware is known as:
PEAP
TKIP ( Missed)
CCMP
WPA2
AES-based encryption mode is a characteristic feature of:
WEP
WPA2 ( Missed)
PAP
WPA
A portion of the available Radio Frequency (RF) band allocated for wireless communication is known as:
Scope
Channel ( Missed)
Service set
Layer
A situation in which multiple channels share the frequency band causing interference and performance degradation
for devices operating on channels that are too close to each other is known as:
Cross-talk
Channel overlapping ( Missed)
4/5
Collision
Channel bonding
A common example of channel overlapping in wireless networking would be the 2.4 GHz band used in 802.11,
802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n networks, where the 2.401 - 2.473 GHz frequency range is used for allocating 11
channels, each taking up a 22-MHz portion of the available spectrum. Setting up a wireless network to operate on a
non-overlapping channel (1, 6, and 11 in this case) allows multiple networks to coexist in the same area without
causing interference.
True ( Missed)
False
A server with private IP address has been set up to handle requests from an outside (public) network. Which of the
solutions listed below would enable its function?
Port triggering
Port bonding
Port forwarding ( Missed)
Port mirroring
Your Final Report
Total marks 40
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
A router configuration feature that allows for opening an inbound port temporarily based on the outbound requests
made by hosts placed inside a private network is called:
Port triggering ( Missed)

Port bonding
Port forwarding
Port mirroring
A lightly protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall is
commonly referred to as:
VPN
Bridge
VLAN
DMZ ( Missed)
Which of the following solutions is used to hide the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP
packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?
NAC
ACL
NAT ( Missed)
DMZ
A solution that alleviates the problem of depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the same private
LAN to share a single public IP address is known as:
DNS
APIPA
NAT ( Missed)
DHCP
Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) provides a permanent mapping between a private IP address and a
public IP address on a one-to-one basis.
True
False ( Missed)
Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) provides a mapping between private IP address and any of the IP
addresses belonging to the available public IP address pool.
True
False ( Missed)
1/5
Which of the following solutions allows network administrators to prioritize certain types of network traffic?
NAC
UAC
NAT
QoS ( Missed)
A software embedded into a hardware chip is commonly referred to as:
Adware
Shareware
Malware
Firmware ( Missed)
A type of architecture that simplifies networking by allowing devices to dynamically join a network, autoconfigure,
and learn about the presence and capabilities of other devices is known as:
DHCP
UPnP ( Missed)
S.M.A.R.T
UEFI
Which of the answers listed below refers to zero-configuration networking?
WAP
UPnP ( Missed)
TKIP
PnP
Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical
users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network?
WPA
WPS ( Missed)
UPnP
WAP
Examples of technologies that are not recommended and should be disabled due to their known vulnerabilities or
other security risks they might pose include: (Select 3 answers)
WPS ( Missed)
WAP
UPnP ( Missed)
WEP ( Missed)
TKIP
2/5
The use of cable modems within a standard cable television infrastructure for Internet access is commonly referred
to as:
Broadband cable ( Missed)

Frame relay
Metro-Ethernet
Dial-up
Which of the following enables broadband Internet access based on the cable television infrastructure?
SONET
GBIC
DOCSIS ( Missed)
SCADA
What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access?
VDSL
ADSL ( Missed)
SDSL
UDSL
Which of the following Internet access types takes advantage of the traditional PSTN lines?
Fiber-optic
Mobile broadband
Dial-up ( Missed)
WiMAX
Which of the Internet connection types listed below types is the slowest?
Dial-up ( Missed)
Cable
Satellite
DSL
Fiber
Which of the following choices refers to an Internet connection type that offers the highest data signaling rate?
DSL
Dial-up
Cable
Satellite
Fiber ( Missed)
What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select all that apply)
3/5
Lack of signal interference
Signal latency ( Missed)
High connection speed
Interference (weather dependent) ( Missed)
Relatively low connection speed ( Missed)
Which of the following solutions allows for simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network
services over a PSTN?
WiMAX
PoE
ISDN ( Missed)
HSPA+
A network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings is
commonly referred to as a:
PAN
LAN ( Missed)
MAN
WAN
A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is known as:
PAN
LAN
MAN
WAN ( Missed)
The Internet is an example of a large public WAN.
True ( Missed)
False
A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices
centered around a single workstation is called:
PAN ( Missed)
LAN
SAN
MAN
A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city or campus is called:
PAN
4/5
LAN
MAN ( Missed)
WAN
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
A type of network consisting of computers and peripheral devices that use high-frequency radio waves to
communicate with each other is commonly referred to as:
MAN
WLAN ( Missed)
LAN
VLAN
The disadvantage from using this device results from a fact that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-created
and sent out on any connected ports, which in turn forces all the connected devices to share the total amount of
available bandwidth.
Hub ( Missed)
Switch
Access point
Bridge
Which of the following answers refers to a data link layer (Layer 2) device designed to forward data packets between
Local Area Network (LAN) segments?
Router
Hub
Switch ( Missed)
Firewall
A device designed to filter and transfer IP packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called:
Hub
Switch
Load balancer
Router ( Missed)
as:
Captive portal
Active hub
What type of device would be the most convenient for interconnecting two or more physically separated network
segments?
1/5
Wireless bridge ( Missed)
Layer 3 switch
Wireless Access Point (WAP)
Cable modem
Which of the devices listed below allows for establishing a communication channel over a PSTN?
Analog modem ( Missed)

ICS server
Multilayer switch
Default gateway
Which of the following devices can be installed in an AMR slot?
Video adapter card

CPU
Modem ( Missed)
Keyboard
A software or hardware that checks information coming from the Internet and depending on the applied configuration
settings either blocks it or allows it to pass through is called:
Antivirus
Firewall ( Missed)
Antispyware
Malware
A simple device consisting of multiple computer ports arranged in rows used for the purpose of cable management is
known as:
F-connector
Media converter
Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
Patch panel ( Missed)
A type of network device that amplifies received signal so it can be transmitted over greater distance without loss in
quality is called:
Patch panel
Multiplexer
Repeater ( Missed)
Passive hub
Which of the answers listed below refers to a network device that allows to overcome limitations related to the
maximum allowable cable segment length?
2/5
Passive hub
Extender ( Missed)
Patch panel
Multiplexer
A computer networking technology that enables sending data over wiring used for transmission of electrical power is
called:
PLC ( Missed)
ECP
PoE
EPP
Which of the following acronyms refers to a solution that allows for carrying both data and electrical power over a
single twisted-pair Ethernet cable?
EPP
PoE ( Missed)
ECP
PLC
Which of the following tools would be used for attaching RJ-45 connectors to a twisted-pair Ethernet cable?
Cable tester
Needle-nose pliers
Punchdown tool
Crimper ( Missed)
What is the name of a tool used for removing electrical insulation cover from electric wires?
Cable crimper
Snips
Wire stripper ( Missed)
Punchdown tool
Which of the tools listed below would be used for testing power supply voltage output?
Torx screwdriver
Toner and probe kit
Loopback plug
Multimeter ( Missed)
What is the name of a networking tool used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle or tracing individual wires in a
cable?
Spectrum analyzer
3/5
Toner and probe kit ( Missed)
Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)
Multimeter
A type of tool used for verifying correct electrical connections of wires in a cable is known as:
Loopback plug
Tone generator
Cable tester ( Missed)
Multimeter
While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC's port can be tested
with the use of:
POST card
Cable tester
Multimeter
Loopback plug ( Missed)
Which of the networking tools listed below is used for attaching wires to a patch panel?
Cable crimper
Punchdown tool ( Missed)
Cable stripper
Needle-nose pliers
Which of the following networking tools would be of help in determining the optimal placement of a WAP?
Pentest
Vulnerability scanner
Proximity reader
Wi-Fi analyzer ( Missed)
A hardware solution designed to extend the functionality of a laptop computer by providing the capability to add
various types of devices on an external expansion card is called:
xD card
ExpressCard ( Missed)
SD card
CompactFlash (CF)
A hardware technology designed as a replacement for the PCMCIA standard is called:
PC Card
CompactFlash (CF)
CardBus
4/5
ExpressCard ( Missed)
ExpressCard /34 and ExpressCard /54 are two form factors specified by the ExpressCard standard. Numbers after
slash in these two form factors refer to the card's:
Width ( Missed)
Length
Thickness
Speed
Your Final Report
Total marks 25
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
A type of memory module form factor most commonly used for extending the capacity of primary storage in laptop
computers is called:
SO-DIMM ( Missed)
SRAM
MicroDIMM
RDIMM
Which of the answers listed below refers to a memory type commonly used as an additional external storage in
laptops?
ROM
Flash ( Missed)
USB
Magnetic drive
What is the most common type of laptop port used for the purpose of connecting peripheral devices?
eSATA
USB ( Missed)
FireWire
PS/2
Which of the following functionalities allows to overcome standard keyboard size restrictions in laptops?
Touchpad
Numeric keypad
Fn key ( Missed)
Digitizer
Internal hard drive types used in laptop computers include: (Select all that apply)
Flash drives
SSHDs ( Missed)
USB drives
Magnetic disks ( Missed)
SSDs ( Missed)
Which of the following answers describe the features of Solid-State Drives (SSDs)? (Select 3 answers)
Low performance
High device cost ( Missed)
1/5
Lower capacity compared to magnetic drives ( Missed)
High performance ( Missed)
Low device cost
Higher capacity compared to magnetic drives
What is the name of an HDD type that combines high performance and capacity at a relatively low device cost?
SSD
Flash drive
Magnetic drive
USB drive
SSHD ( Missed)
Which of the statements listed below refer to the characteristic features of traditional magnetic drives? (Select 3
answers)

Low device cost ( Missed)
High performance
Low capacity
High device cost
Low performance ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists the most common magnetic drive form factor used in laptops?
3.5-inch
5.25-inch
1.8-inch
2.5-inch ( Missed)
SSD form factors used in laptop computers include: (Select 2 answers)
1.5-inch
5.25-inch
1.8-inch ( Missed)
2.5-inch ( Missed)
1.3-inch
What is the most common battery type that can be found in modern portable devices?
Alkaline
Nickel–metal hydride
Lithium-ion ( Missed)
Nickel-cadmium
2/5
Compared to port replicators, docking stations:
Cannot be used with portable computers

Usually offer additional ports and capabilities ( Missed)
Offer exactly the same features
Usually offer less ports and capabilities
Which of the devices listed below offers the least amount of options when it comes to hardware upgrades that can be
performed by the device user?
Laptop
Workstation
Desktop
Tablet ( Missed)
Portable devices combining the capabilities of mobile phones and handheld PCs are commonly referred to as:
Phablets
Smartphones ( Missed)
PDAs
Thick clients
The term "Phablet" refers to a type of mobile device designed to combine the format of smartphones and tablet
computers.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to a portable device type designed primarily for the purpose of reading books
in digital format?
Phablet
E-reader ( Missed)
Subnotebook
Digitizer
Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology that enables carrying out mobile payment transactions with
the use of the physical phone device?
WAP
NFC ( Missed)
IR
RFC
Which of the following technologies can be used by devices communicating in a WPAN? (Select all that apply)
Bluetooth ( Missed)
3/5
IEEE 802.3
Near Field Communication (NFC) ( Missed)
100BASE-T
A proprietary connector type used by Apple mobile devices is known as:
8P8C connector
Lightning connector ( Missed)
BNC connector
Lucent Connector (LC)
A Wireless Access Point (WAP) or site offering public wireless Internet access is commonly referred to as:
Hotspot ( Missed)
Proxy
Hub
Gateway
Which of the following terms refers a mobile device's capability to share its Internet connection with other devices?
Pairing
Clustering
Tethering ( Missed)
Bonding
The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing: (Select best answer)

Del key during boot
The Advanced Boot Options screen allows for starting Windows in advanced troubleshooting modes. The Advanced
Boot Options menu can be accessed by turning on the PC and pressing a function key before Windows starts.
Which of the following keys provides access to that menu?
F1
Del
F8 ( Missed)
Esc
Unexpected system shutdowns and reboots can be caused by overheating of the PC's internal components.
True ( Missed)
False
4/5
Which of the answers listed below refers to launching Windows only with default settings and basic device drivers?
Standby mode
System restore
Safe mode ( Missed)
Guest account
Your Final Report
Total marks 34
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following acronyms refers to a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests performed by the startup BIOS
after the computer is powered on?
EIDE
POTS
ACPI
POST ( Missed)
A POST card:
Is used for troubleshooting computer startup problems ( Missed)

Terminates the SCSI chain
Allows for testing connector pins on the NIC port
Is used in biometric authentication
Which of the POST beep codes would be an indicator of RAM failure?
One long, two short beeps

Long continuous beep tone ( Missed)
One short beep
Steady, short beeps
Which of the following POST beep codes indicates video adapter card failure?
Single, short beep

Long continuous beep tone
Steady, short beeps
One long, two short beeps ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists a common solution for random time and date resets in Windows?
Windows Update
Primary storage module replacement
CMOS battery replacement ( Missed)
Which of the following could be of help in troubleshooting the "Invalid boot disk" error message? (Select all that
apply)
Disconnecting USB thumb drive ( Missed)

Checking BIOS settings for boot order ( Missed)
1/5
Removing floppy disk from the Floppy Disk Drive (FDD) ( Missed)
Administrative Tools
Possible causes of continuous system reboot loops include:
Overheating
Hardware failure
Corrupted OS installation
Misconfigured OS
All of the above ( Missed)
Continuous reboots of a Windows host upon encountering a persistent stop error might be caused by Startup and
Recovery configuration settings in the Control Panel System applet (System -> Advanced system settings ->
Advanced -> Startup and Recovery -> Settings... -> System failure).
True ( Missed)
False
A feature that can be found in some types of PC Power Supply Units (PSUs) that allows the PSU to automatically
adapt to the AC voltage supplied from the power socket is called:
Fixed-input
Inverter
Auto-switching ( Missed)
Hot plugging
Common fixes for PC components not getting enough power include disconnecting all extraneous peripheral
devices that might be putting too much load on the Power Supply Unit (PSU), reseating the PSU cable connectors
inside the computer case if necessary, and applying the PSU tester to check if the power supply is working properly.
True ( Missed)
False
Excessive dust buildup inside the computer case might be the cause of:
Overheating
Unexpected shutdowns
Intermittent device failure
Continuous reboots
Which of the PC components listed below would be the most probable source of problems when the issue symptoms
on a failing system include loud noise from the inside of the computer case? (Select 3 answers)
RAM modules
Magnetic Hard Disk Drive (HDD) ( Missed)
Cooling fans ( Missed)
2/5
Solid-State Drive (SDD)
Analog modem
Power Supply Unit (PSU) ( Missed)
Which of the CPU connectors on the motherboard should be checked/reseated in order to ensure that the CPU is
receiving power? (Select all that apply)

T568B
PCIe 6/8-pin
T568A
The Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) in MS Windows provides technical information that might be of help for advanced
users in solving the problem that caused the stop error. The information displayed on the screen when Windows
encounters this type of error typically includes error code, memory address where it occurred, and the name of the
driver that caused it.
True ( Missed)
False
"Pinwheel" is an informal term used for describing stop errors in:
Android
Linux
Mac OS ( Missed)
Windows
Which of the following actions would solve the problem of leaking/burst/bulged capacitors inside the computer case?
(Select 2 answers)
Motherboard replacement ( Missed)

Central Processing Unit (CPU) replacement
Memory module replacement
Power Supply Unit (PSU) replacement
Capacitor replacement ( Missed)
Which of the tools listed below can be used to isolate a failing hardware component inside the PC case? (Select all
that apply)
POST card ( Missed)

Tone probe
PSU tester ( Missed)
Maintenance kit
Tone generator
3/5
Which of the following could cause slow performance of a hard drive? (Select 2 answers)
Disk striping
File fragmentation ( Missed)
Disk mirroring
Insufficient amount of RAM ( Missed)
Disk duplexing
An actuator arm assembly failure manifested by loud clicking noise emitted from the inside of the computer case is a
problem symptom that should prompt for:
Data backup and hard drive replacement ( Missed)

Replacement of a faulty cooling fan
Central Processing Unit (CPU) replacement
Data backup and replacement of a faulty primary storage module
Power Supply Unit (PSU) replacement
Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.) allows for monitoring system for anticipated:
HDD failures ( Missed)

Network interface problems
Video adapter failures
Power spikes
Replacing a faulty mechanical component of a magnetic drive requires specialized environment and diagnostic
tools.
True ( Missed)
False
The /R switch of the CHKDSK utility: (Select all that apply)
Displays cleanup messages

Locates bad sectors and recovers readable information ( Missed)
Uses more system resource to perform a scan as fast as possible
Displays the full path and name of every file on the disk
Fixes errors on the disk ( Missed)
For a newly added hard drive, this command allows to configure the drive with a file system so that Windows can
store information on the disk.
FORMAT ( Missed)
NBTSTAT
MSTS
4/5
DEFRAG
Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) offers a set of tools and utilities to troubleshoot Windows startup issues.
Which of the command-line commands launches a tool for manual troubleshooting of problems related to master
boot record (MBR), boot sector, and Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store in Windows RE Command Prompt?
DISKPART
BOOTREC.EXE ( Missed)
CHKDSK
FIXBOOT
Which of the following commands in MS Windows launches a command-line partitioning utility?
REGSVR32
CHKDSK
DEFRAG
DISKPART ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 36
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Disk Defragmenter is a software tool used for rearranging data on magnetic drives in order to improve system
performance. Defragmentation results in faster read/write operations of the magnetic hard drive's read/write heads
as they can access the data sequentially without seeking data fragments in different areas of the disk
(defragmentation consolidates data into smallest contiguous regions).
True ( Missed)
False
Similarly to magnetic drives, Solid State-Drives (SSDs) require periodic defragmentation in order to improve system
performance.
True
False ( Missed)
When a computer monitor is unable to display image on the screen, the most common causes (and the easiest ones
to fix) for this problem include: (Select 2 answers)
Inverter failure
Loose cable connections ( Missed)
Bad LCD display
Wrong input selection ( Missed)
Backlight failure
A tiny spot on an LCD monitor display screen that permanently remains black when it should be activated and
displaying color is commonly referred to as stuck pixel.
True
False ( Missed)
A dim display on a laptop LCD screen might indicate a problem related to: (Select 2 answers)
Stuck pixels
Backlight ( Missed)
Dead pixels
Incorrect color patterns
Inverter ( Missed)
A permanent computer display screen discoloration caused by displaying the same static image for extended
periods of time is known as:
Artifact
Stuck pixel
Burn-in ( Missed)
1/5
Dead pixel
APIPA-assigned addresses are valid only for communications within a network segment that a given host is
connected to. A host with APIPA-assigned address (i.e. an IP address in the range between 169.254.0.1 and
169.254.255.254) cannot connect to the Internet. The assignment of such address, which can be checked with the
IPCONFIG command-line utility, typically indicates a DHCP-related problem.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following command-line utilities allows to test the reachability of a host across an IP network?
NETSTAT
IPCONFIG
TRACERT
PING ( Missed)
Which of the Windows Command Prompt tools listed below allows to display IP addresses, subnet mask, and
default gateway for all adapters?
NETSTAT
IFCONFIG
TRACERT
IPCONFIG ( Missed)
A Linux command-line utility used for displaying and modifying network interface configuration settings is called:
IFCONFIG ( Missed)
NET CONFIG
IPCONFIG
NETWORKSETUP
Microsoft Windows OS command-line command for displaying intermediary points on the packet route is called:
TRACERT ( Missed)
ROUTE PRINT
TRACEROUTE
NETSTAT
What is the name of a command-line utility in MS Windows that allows for displaying protocol statistics and current
TCP/IP network connections?
TRACERT
TRACEROUTE
NETSTAT ( Missed)
NSLOOKUP
Which of the following answers lists a Windows command-line utility designed to be of help in troubleshooting
2/5
NetBIOS name resolution problems?
NETSTAT
NSLOOKUP
NBTSTAT ( Missed)
TRACEROUTE
The following Windows command-line command can be used to display a list of domains, computers, or shared
resources available on a specific computer.
NET VIEW ( Missed)

REG
NETSTAT
VIEW
Which of the network administration command-line tools listed below is used for DNS queries?
TRACERT
NSLOOKUP ( Missed)
NETSTAT
PATHPING
Which of the actions listed below should be of help while troubleshooting non-responsive touchscreen of a mobile
device?
Reseating the device's battery

Erasing all content/settings and restoring the device to factory defaults (factory reset/hard reset)
Pressing a specific key combination/button to perform system restart (soft reset)
Removing screen protector and cleaning the screen
Which of the following steps would ensure the proper re-assembly of a serviced laptop? (Select all that apply)
Usage of appropriate hand tools ( Missed)

Documenting and labeling cable and screw locations ( Missed)
Magnetic mat/separate containers used for holding disassembled parts ( Missed)
Removing dust buildup inside the laptop case
Manufacturer documentation used as a reference ( Missed)
In laser printing, long vertical streaks on each output page indicate a problem related to:
Printer calibration
Damage to the imaging drum ( Missed)
Printer driver
Clogged print head nozzles
3/5
Which of the symptoms listed below would indicate a depleted toner cartridge as the source of a printing problem?
Faded printouts ( Missed)

Garbled characters on printer output pages
Ghost images
Printing blank pages ( Missed)
Vertical streaks on each output page
Which step of the laser printer imaging process requires troubleshooting if a printer produces ghost images on
output pages?
Charging
Fusing
Exposing
Developing
Cleaning ( Missed)
In laser printing, toner falling off of the printed copy indicates a problem with:
Toner cartridge
Print head
Cleaning blade
Fusing unit ( Missed)
Garbled characters on output pages would indicate a printing problem related to:
Calibration
Printer driver ( Missed)
Fuser assembly
Imaging drum
A set of printer replacement parts is commonly referred to as:
Spare kit
Field Replaceable Unit (FRU)
Maintenance kit ( Missed)
Standard technician toolkit
Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate to clean the inside of a laser printer? (Select all that
apply)
Toner vacuum ( Missed)

Can of compressed air ( Missed)
Regular vacuum
4/5
Cleaning brush
A software that temporarily stores print jobs on the computer hard disk or in memory until the printer is ready to print
them is called:
Feed assembly
Print spooler ( Missed)
Task Scheduler
Task Manager
Your Final Report
Total marks 32
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
What are the recommended minimum system requirements for Windows Vista Home Basic? (Select 4 answers)
128 MB of graphics RAM

40 GB HDD with 15 GB of free hard disk space
800 MHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) CPU ( Missed)
512 MB of system RAM ( Missed)
1 GHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) CPU
32 MB of graphics RAM ( Missed)
20 GB HDD with 15 GB of free hard disk space ( Missed)
1 GB of system RAM
Which of the answers listed below describe the recommended minimum system requirements for all Microsoft
Windows Vista releases other than the Home Basic version (Home Premium, Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate)?
(Select 4 answers)
512 MB of system RAM

1 GHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) CPU ( Missed)
1 GB of system RAM ( Missed)
800 MHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) CPU
128 MB of graphics RAM ( Missed)
40 GB HDD with 15 GB of free hard disk space ( Missed)
32 MB of graphics RAM
What are the system requirements for the 32-bit (x86) version of Microsoft Windows 7? (Select 4 answers)
1 GHz CPU ( Missed)

DirectX 9 graphics device with WDDM 1.0 or higher driver ( Missed)
512 MB of system RAM
16 GB of free hard disk space ( Missed)
800 MHz CPU
Which of the following answers describe system requirements for the 64-bit (x64) version of Microsoft Windows 7?
(Select 4 answers)
800 MHz CPU

16 GB of free hard disk space
1/6
1 GHz CPU ( Missed)
DirectX 9 graphics device with WDDM 1.0 or higher driver ( Missed)
1 GB of system RAM
Physical Address Extension (PAE) is a memory management feature that allows 32-bit CPUs to use more than 4 GB
of physical memory on capable versions of Microsoft Windows operating systems.
True ( Missed)
False
A type of feature used by CPUs for isolating areas of memory in order to prevent the execution of code from non-

Parity bit
Which of the following answers refers to the area of implementation of No-eXecute bit (NX bit)?
Parity checks
Data backup
Which of the terms listed below refers to a solution (a complimentary instruction set) that extends the capabilities of
a CPU?
RISC
SSE2 ( Missed)
EIDE
SSID
What are the recommended minimum system requirements for the 32-bit (x86) version of Microsoft Windows 8/8.1?
(Select 4 answers)
1 GHz CPU with support for PAE, NX, and SSE2 ( Missed)
Microsoft DirectX 9 graphics device with WDDM driver ( Missed)
2 GB of system RAM
1 GHz CPU
2/6
Which of the following answers refer to the recommended minimum system requirements for the 64-bit (x64) version
of Microsoft Windows 8/8.1? (Select 4 answers)
1 GHz CPU
Microsoft DirectX 9 graphics device with WDDM driver ( Missed)
1 GB of system RAM
1 GHz CPU with support for PAE, NX, and SSE2 ( Missed)
Physical Address Extension (PAE), No-eXecute bit (NX bit), and Streaming SIMD Extensions 2 (SSE2) are
mandatory CPU requirements for Microsoft Windows 8/8.1, therefore Windows 8/8.1 cannot be installed on
computer systems that lack support for these features.
True ( Missed)
False
A visual desktop experience included in Windows Vista and Windows 7 that adds various graphics intensive
features (such as animations and transparency effects) to the User Interface (UI) is known as:
Modern UI
Charms
Metro UI
Aero ( Missed)
Which of the following editions of Microsoft Windows Vista does not include Windows Aero desktop experience?
Windows Vista Home Basic ( Missed)

Windows Vista Home Premium
Windows Vista Business
Windows Vista Enterprise
Windows Vista Ultimate
Which of the Microsoft Windows 7 releases listed below do not include Windows Aero desktop experience? (Select
2 answers)
Windows 7 Starter ( Missed)

Windows 7 Home Basic ( Missed)
Windows 7 Home Premium
Windows 7 Professional
Windows 7 Enterprise
Windows 7 Ultimate
Windows Sidebar in Windows Vista is a long, vertical bar displayed on the desktop side that can be customized by
adding various simple-task applications called gadgets.
3/6
True ( Missed)
False
Windows Desktop Gadgets in Windows 7 provides similar functionality to Windows Sidebar known from Vista,
however it does not feature the vertical bar displayed on the desktop side.
True ( Missed)
False
Windows Sidebar (Vista) and Windows Desktop Gadgets (Windows 7) are not available in Windows 8 and newer
releases of MS Windows due to the risk of potential vulnerabilities that can be exploited through the use of gadget
apps.
True ( Missed)
False
Windows Vista and later releases of the Microsoft OS offer a security feature which limits privileges of software
applications and access to administrative tasks. When a program makes a change that requires administrator-level
permission or a user attempts to modify system settings that require administrative access, it triggers an on-screen
prompt requiring an administrator password to proceed. This functionality is called:
User Account Control (UAC) ( Missed)

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
Windows Firewall
Windows Defender real-time protection
What is the name of a Microsoft Windows feature that allows for encrypting entire drives?
LoJack
New Technology File System (NTFS)
BitLocker ( Missed)
Which of the Windows Vista releases listed below include the BitLocker functionality? (Select 2 answers)
Windows Vista Home Basic

Windows Vista Home Premium
Windows Vista Enterprise ( Missed)
Windows Vista Ultimate ( Missed)
Which of the following Windows 7 releases include the BitLocker functionality? (Select 2 answers)
Windows 7 Starter
Windows 7 Home Basic
4/6
Windows 7 Enterprise ( Missed)
Windows 7 Ultimate ( Missed)
Microsoft Windows 8/8.1 versions equipped with the BitLocker functionality include: (Select 2 answers)
Core
Starter
Pro ( Missed)
Enterprise ( Missed)
Ultimate
Previous versions are copies of files and folders that Windows automatically saves as part of a restore point.
Previous versions are sometimes referred to as:
Backup copies
Shadow copies ( Missed)
Primary copies
Mirror copies
With the release of Windows ME, Microsoft added a new built-in utility to their desktop operating systems which
allows to roll back system files and settings to an earlier point in time without affecting personal files. It provides a
yet another way to undo system changes to the computer when an installation of a new program or device driver
causes a problem and uninstalling doesn't fix the problem. The utility's interface contains a list allowing the user to
bring back the system to the state it was in before the selected event. Items on that list are called:
Roll-back points
Backup entries
Restore points ( Missed)
Recovery points
Which Microsoft Windows technology offers the capability to take advantage of unused space on a USB flash drive
or flash memory card to help improve PC performance?
Device Manager
Windows Easy Transfer
ReadyBoost ( Missed)
BitLocker To Go Reader
Your Final Report
Total marks 47
Total Questions 25
5/6
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
6/6
If an application written for an earlier version of Windows doesn't run correctly the operating system can emulate its
own older version to allow a given program to work with newer hardware or software. The compatibility mode
settings in Windows can be changed by:
Right-clicking the program icon and choosing "Restore previous versions" option from the menu
Right-clicking the program icon, clicking Properties, and then applying the required settings on the
Compatibility tab ( Missed)
Right-clicking the program icon and selecting "Run program using recommended compatibility settings"
option from the pop-up menu
Right-clicking the program icon and selecting "Run as administrator" option from the pop-up menu
Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the features of Windows XP Mode? (Select all that apply)
Available for Microsoft Windows 7 ( Missed)

Fully-licensed version of Windows XP ( Missed)
Requires Windows Virtual PC ( Missed)
Available for Microsoft Windows 8/8.1
Fully-functional version of Windows XP ( Missed)
Guest OS run in a virtual environment ( Missed)
Compatibility mode setting in MS Windows OSs
Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows 8/8.1 facilitate moving user accounts and settings, application
configuration data, and personal files from one computer to another with the use of:
Windows Ease of Access

Windows Easy Transfer ( Missed)
Windows System Restore
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Windows folder containing various system tools for administrators and
advanced users?
Control Panel
Computer Management
Administrative Tools ( Missed)
System Configuration
What is the function of Windows Defender software?
Managing access of network-enabled applications

Protection against viruses, spyware and other potentially unwanted software ( Missed)
Management of User Account Control (UAC) settings
1/5
Reviewing the computer's status and resolving issues
Which of the following answers lists a Windows built-in software component that monitors network traffic and
depending on the configuration settings applied to each data packet either blocks it or allows it to pass through?
Security Center
Windows Firewall ( Missed)
Action Center
Windows Defender
A Windows Vista operating system security and maintenance monitoring component is called:
Action Center
Windows Update
Windows Security Center ( Missed)
Security and Maintenance
What is the name of a system component designed for monitoring security and maintenance-related items in
Windows 7/8/8.1?
Action Center ( Missed)

Windows Update
Windows Security Center
When a program installed in Windows stops responding or encounters an error, logs describing the error can be
examined with the use of:
Event Viewer ( Missed)

Resource Monitor
Task Manager
System menu in Control Panel
System Information utility
Modern UI (aka Metro UI) is a Windows 8/8.1 replacement for Windows Aero desktop experience known from the
two previous releases of the OS (Windows Vista and Windows 7).
True ( Missed)
False
What is the name of a cloud-based data storage service provided by Microsoft?
iDrive
Cloud Drive
Dropbox
OneDrive ( Missed)
2/5
An online Microsoft software distribution platform for games and apps is known as:
Windows Store ( Missed)

Microsoft Store
App Store
Windows Marketplace
Which of the MS Windows versions listed below offers a built-in multi-monitor taskbar support feature?
Windows XP
Windows Vista
Windows 7
Windows 8/8.1 ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists the name of a quick-access pop-up taskbar in Windows 8/8.1 activated by
placing the mouse cursor at the right edge of the screen?
Charms ( Missed)
Gadgets
Sticky Keys
Tools
A type of extended command-line shell and a scripting language designed to simplify administrative tasks in
Microsoft Windows is known as Windows PowerShell.
True ( Missed)
False
An operating system installation that preserves system settings, personal files, and applications from the older OS
version is referred to as:
In-place upgrade ( Missed)

Unattended installation
Image deployment
Clean install
Which of the in-place upgrade paths listed below are not available for users who wish to migrate their OS from an
older version to a newer release of MS Windows? (Select all that apply)
Windows XP to Windows 8 ( Missed)

x86 to x64 ( Missed)
Windows 7 to Windows 8
Windows Vista to Windows 8 ( Missed)
Windows XP to Windows 7 ( Missed)
While upgrading from an earlier edition of Windows to Windows 7 it is important to make sure that programs and
devices will work with the new OS version. To find potential compatibility problems with computer's hardware,
3/5
devices, or programs that might affect the installation of Windows 7, Microsoft offers a free utility designed to check
for any issues and to provide recommendations on what to do before performing an upgrade to improve the PC's
compatibility with Windows 7. What is the name of that utility?
Files and Settings Transfer Wizard

Upgrade Assistant
Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor ( Missed)
Windows Upgrade Assistant is a free Microsoft tool released mainly for Windows 7/8 owners who wish to perform an
in-place upgrade from their OS versions to Windows 8 or 8.1. The tool also allows to check for hardware
compatibility of systems running Windows XP and Vista with Windows 8. This functionality is directed at those users
who wish to upgrade older versions of their Windows OSs to Windows 8 through the clean installation option, which
is the only upgrade path available in such case.
True ( Missed)
False
to as:
Power-on self-test (POST)

Boot record
Partition table
A UEFI functionality designed to prevent the loading of malware, untrusted operating systems and software during a
system's startup process is known as:
LoJack
Bitlocker
Kerberos
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the common storage media types that can be used locally to boot/install
an OS? (Select all that apply)
PXE
Netboot
Recovery partition on internal HDD ( Missed)
USB drive ( Missed)
CD-ROM disc ( Missed)
DVD disc ( Missed)
Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and Apple NetBoot are two examples of technologies that enable booting a
4/5
computer system with the use of a network interface.
True ( Missed)
False
The ability to replace computer system components without causing interruption to the system is known as:
Multitasking
Cold plugging
Which of the terms listed below refers to an automated installation process that relies on an answer file and does not
require user interaction or presence?
Unattended installation ( Missed)

Clean installation
Remote network installation
Repair installation
Your Final Report
Total marks 35
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
A type of Windows installation that erases the contents of the target partition is called:
Clean installation ( Missed)
Remote network installation
Repair installation
If a computer's hard disk has an adequate free disk space, it is possible to install more than one operating system
and then choose which OS to use during each startup. This type of configuration setup is known as:
Multi-mode
Single sign-on
Multiboot ( Missed)
Virtualization
Which of the following terms refers to a backup technique that allows for creating an exact copy of an entire drive
and replicating the drive to a new computer or to another drive on the same computer in case of a hard drive failure?
Repair installation
Drive imaging ( Missed)
Incremental backup
Differential backup
Which of the installation types listed below provides a simpler and less costly alternative to manual OS installation in
an environment consisting of multiple hosts requiring the same configuration settings?
Upgrade install
Repair installation
Image deployment ( Missed)
Clean install
A recovery disc is a general term for removable media commonly shipped with most new computers allowing a user
to reformat the hard drive and restore the operating system to the original factory condition as configured by an
Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM). Most OEM recovery systems for Microsoft Windows involve booting from
a separate CD-ROM or DVD, however in recent years bundled recovery CD-ROMs and DVDs have become less
common as in case of newer systems more frequently the recovery data becomes available on a separate partition
of a new computer's hard drive.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the new built-in software options added in Windows 8 allows for reinstallation of the OS without affecting
the existing user profiles and settings?
1/5
Reset
Refresh ( Missed)
Repair
Restore
A new maintenance feature added in Windows 8 that enables clean installation of the OS without the need for
installation media is called:
Reset ( Missed)
Refresh
Repair
Restore
The practice of dividing a hard disk drive (HDD) storage space into separate logical drives is known as:
Formatting
Partitioning ( Missed)
Virtualization
Disk imaging
What are the advantages of organizing hard drive space into multiple partitions? (Select all that apply)
Separated disk space used for virtual memory ( Missed)

Common preventative measure against physical hard drive failures
Separation of user files from the operating system and application files ( Missed)
Increase in the overall disk storage space available for user data
Multiboot environment ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists the most commonly used storage type found on computers running Microsoft
Windows OSs?
Dynamic disk
Striped volumes
Basic disk ( Missed)
Dynamic volumes
By creating volumes that span multiple disks (spanned and striped volumes), dynamic disks in Windows provide the
capability for software implementations of RAID.
True ( Missed)
False
Methods used by Microsoft Windows operating systems for organizing disk partitions include: (Select 2 answers)
GUI
MBR ( Missed)
2/5
FAT32
GPT ( Missed)
NTFS
Which of the answers listed below describe the available options of the Master Boot Record (MBR) partitioning
scheme? (Select 3 answers)
Overall number of partitions limited to four ( Missed)

Up to three primary partitions and one extended partition ( Missed)
Multiple logical drives within each primary partition
One primary partition and multiple extended partitions (up to three)
Only one logical drive within extended partition
Up to four primary partitions ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer to a labeling used in reference to a partition type that stores information about
the Windows OS and other partitions on the disk drive? (Select 2 answers)
Extended
Active ( Missed)
Basic
Logical
Bootable ( Missed)
A basic disk using the GPT partition style can have up to:
4 primary partitions
128 primary partitions ( Missed)
A Microsoft-proprietary file system optimized for flash drives is known as:
ext3
FAT32
NFS
exFAT ( Missed)
CDFS
The 4 GB maximum file size limit and 8 TB maximum partition size limit are the characteristic features of:
NTFS
FAT32 ( Missed)
NFS
exFAT
3/5
In order to create a system image of a Windows drive, the drive must be formatted to use:
FAT32 file system

CDFS file system
FAT file system
NTFS file system ( Missed)
Which of the following are advantages of the New Technology File System (NTFS) over FAT32 file system? (Select
best answer)
Disk quotas
Compression
Object permissions
Encryption
All of the above features are improvements implemented in NTFS not available in FAT32 ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a file system designed for optical media?
CDFS ( Missed)
FAT32
NTFS
exFAT
Which of the following terms refer to methods of storing and accessing data over computer network? (Select 2
answers)
ext3
DFS ( Missed)
ext4
FAT32
NFS ( Missed)
exFAT
ext3 and ext4 are examples of default file systems used by:
OS X
Mac OS
Windows Server
Linux distributions ( Missed)
Quick format is a disk formatting option in MS Windows that apart from deleting the file system structure also
checks the drive for bad sectors.
True
False ( Missed)
4/5
A computer program/code that provides software interface to hardware devices enabling operating systems and
other computer programs to interact with the device is commonly referred to as a device driver.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following sources allow(s) for obtaining, installing, and updating device drivers used by Microsoft
Windows OSs? (Select all that apply)
Windows Update ( Missed)

Computer Management
Device manufacturer ( Missed)
Performance Monitor
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following statements describing different methods for organizing Windows-based computers in
networks are true? (Select 3 answers)
Windows-based computers on home networks must be part of a homegroup

Windows-based computers on a network must be part of a workgroup or a domain ( Missed)
Windows-based computers on workplace networks are usually part of a domain ( Missed)
Windows-based computers on workplace networks are usually part of a workgroup
Windows-based computers on home networks are usually part of a workgroup ( Missed)
Windows-based computers on home networks are usually part of a domain
Which of the statements listed below apply to Windows workgroups? (Select 3 answers)
Security policies and permissions in workgroups are administered centrally

Logging on to any computer on the workgroup requires a single account
Workgroups typically consist of no more than twenty computers ( Missed)
There is no limit on the number of hosts that can become a part of a single workgroup
Logging on to any computer in the workgroup requires an account on that computer ( Missed)
Each computer in the workgroup has its own security policy ( Missed)
Which of the following statements apply to Windows domains? (Select 3 answers)
Logging on to any computer on the Windows domain requires a single set of credentials ( Missed)
Security policies and permissions on the Windows domain are administered centrally ( Missed)
Windows domains are based on the Peer-to-Peer networking architecture
Each computer on the Windows domain has its own security policy
Windows domains are based on the Client-Server networking architecture ( Missed)
All members of the Windows domain must be on the same local network or subnet
Which of the MS Windows command-line utilities allows to terminate tasks by process id or image name?
TASKKILL ( Missed)
SHUTDOWN
EXIT
TASKLIST
Provided that the process ID of NOTEPAD.EXE obtained with the TASKLIST command is 1230, which of the
following answers lists the correct syntax for a Windows Command Prompt TASKKILL command that would allow to
close this application?
TASKKILL /PID 1230 ( Missed)

TASKKILL -IM 1230
1/5
TASKKILL /IM 1230
TASKKILL -PID 1230
Which of the answers listed below refers to the correct syntax for a Windows Command Prompt TASKKILL
command that would allow to close NOTEPAD.EXE by providing its imagename?
TASKKILL /PID NOTEPAD

TASKKILL /IM NOTEPAD.EXE ( Missed)
TASKKILL /IMG NOTEPAD
TASKKILL /PID NOTEPAD.EXE
Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) offers a set of tools and utilities to troubleshoot Windows startup issues.
Which of the command-line commands launches a tool for manual troubleshooting of problems related to master
boot record (MBR), boot sector, and Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store in Windows RE Command Prompt?
DISKPART
CHKDSK
FIXBOOT
Which of the Windows Command Prompt commands writes a new master boot record to a disk?
BOOTREC /FIXBOOT
FIXBOOT
BOOTREC /FIXMBR ( Missed)
FIXBOOT
Which of the following commands in Windows Command Prompt writes a new boot sector to the system partition?
BOOTREC /FIXMBR
FIXBOOT
BOOTREC /FIXBOOT ( Missed)
FIXMBR
The following command can be used to shut down or restart local or remote hosts running MS Windows.
SHUTDOWN ( Missed)
TASKKILL
EXIT
REBOOOT
What would be the correct syntax for setting the time-out period of 60 seconds before powering off a Windows host?
POWEROFF /t 60
HALT /t 60
REBOOT /t 60
2/5
SHUTDOWN /t 60 ( Missed)
Which SHUTDOWN command switch in Windows Command Prompt forces full system shutdown and restart of the
Windows host?
-s -r
/r ( Missed)
/s r
-i
Which of the following command-line commands in Windows displays a list of currently running processes on a local
or remote host?
IEXPLORE
TASKLIST ( Missed)
SERVICES.MSC
NETSTAT
The MS Windows command-line commands used for creating a directory or subdirectory include: (Select 2
answers)
RMDIR
MD ( Missed)
MKDIR ( Missed)
CD
CHDIR
RD
The following command(s) can be used in Windows Command Prompt to delete a directory. (Select all that apply)
CLS
MKDIR
RD ( Missed)
RMDIR ( Missed)
MD
Which parameter of the RD command in Windows allows for the deletion of an entire directory tree? (the specified
directory and all its subdirectories, including all files)
/A
/S ( Missed)
/Y
/Q
Which of the following commands in Windows change(s) the current directory to the root directory? (Select all that
apply)
3/5
CHDIR /R
CD\ ( Missed)
CHDIR\ ( Missed)
CD..
DIR /ROOT
Which parameter of the CD command in Windows moves the command-line prompt one folder up in the directory
tree (sets the prompt at the parent folder of the current folder)?
\
/
+
... ( Missed)
Which of the Windows Command Prompt commands listed below can be used to delete one or more files? (Select
all that apply)
EDIT
TASKKILL
DEL ( Missed)
ERASE ( Missed)
MOVE
For a newly added hard drive, this command allows to configure it with a file system so that Windows can store
information on the disk.
MSTSC
DEFRAG
NBTSTAT
FORMAT ( Missed)
The following command-line command can be used to copy one or more files from one location to another.
SFC
COPY ( Missed)
MOVE
PUSHD
Which of the COPY command switches verifies that the new files are written correctly?
/-Y
/V ( Missed)
/Y
/A
Which of the COPY command switches suppresses the confirmation prompt displayed when Windows is about to
4/5
overwrite the contents of an existing file?
/V
/Y ( Missed)
/A
/-Y
Which of the Microsoft Windows command-line commands allow(s) for copying multiple files or entire directory trees
from one directory to another and for copying files across a network? (Select all that apply)
XCOPY ( Missed)
PUSHD
SHIFT
ROBOCOPY ( Missed)
MOVE
Which of the following commands in MS Windows launches a text-based command-line partitioning utility?
REGSVR32
CHKDSK
DEFRAG
DISKPART ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 36
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
The SFC utility in Windows:
Encrypts files and folders

Scans for and restores corrupted system files ( Missed)
Displays information about system hardware and software configuration
Starts Windows programs from command-line interface
The /R switch of the CHKDSK utility: (Select all that apply)

Locates bad sectors and recovers readable information ( Missed)
Uses more system resource to perform a scan as fast as possible
The /F switch of the CHKDSK utility:
Locates bad sectors and recovers readable information

Which of the command-line commands listed below allows for updating multiple Group Policy settings in MS
Windows?
CONVERT
GPUPDATE ( Missed)
BCDEDIT
GPRESULT
A command-line command in MS Windows that displays Group Policy information for a machine or user is known
as:
NBTSTAT
GPRESULT ( Missed)
VERIFY
GPUPDATE
Which of the following Windows Command Prompt commands can be used to list all directory's files and
subdirectories contained in the current directory? (Select 2 answers)
DIR ( Missed)
1/5
/?
DIR *.* ( Missed)
*.*
DIR /ALL
Which of the commands listed below allow(s) for exiting the command interpreter in Windows? (Select all that apply)
TASKKILL /IM CMD.EXE ( Missed)

CMD.EXE /S
TASKKILL CMD.EXE
SHUTDOWN CMD.EXE
EXIT ( Missed)
Which of the following commands in Windows can be used to display help information related to a specific
command-line utility? (Select all that apply)
[command name] /help

man [command name]
[command name] info
help [command name] ( Missed)
[command name] /? ( Missed)
Used without any parameters, the HELP command in MS Windows displays a list of available system commands
along with a brief description of each command.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Windows Command Prompt command used for uncompressing
cabinet files?
REPLACE
EXPAND ( Missed)
CONVERT
RECOVER
The "Run as administrator" option in MS Windows available after right-clicking on the Command Prompt application
icon allows for execution of shell commands reserved for a system administrator.
True ( Missed)
False
Many of the utilities available in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel are implemented as the
so-called Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-ins. The most prominent MMC component in this menu
(which contains a collection of other MMC snap-ins such as Device Manager, Disk Management, and Event Viewer)
is called:
2/5
Task Manager
Performance Monitor
Computer Management ( Missed)
If a device in Windows fails after driver update, the driver can be restored to the previously installed version in:
Device Manager ( Missed)

Windows Update menu
Programs and Features menu
Task Manager
Which of the command-line commands in Microsoft Windows launches the Device Manager tool?
MSCONFIG.EXE
DEVMGMT.MSC ( Missed)
APPWIZ.CPL
COMPMGMT.MSC
Local Users and Groups is a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in included by default in all versions of
MS Windows that enables creating custom user groups, moving accounts from one group to another, or
adding/removing accounts from different groups.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the tools listed below allows for managing multiple user accounts in home editions of MS Windows?
User Accounts ( Missed)

Ease of Access Center
UserAccountControlSettings.exe
Local Users and Groups
An MS Windows account that enables users to have temporary access to a computer without the capability to install
software or hardware, change settings, or create a user password is called:
Guest account ( Missed)

Temporary account
Standard account
Managed user account
Due to the fact that the Guest account in Windows allows a user to log on to a network, browse the Internet, and
shut down the computer, it is recommended to keep it disabled when it isn't needed.
True ( Missed)
False
3/5
The Local Security Policy administrative tool in home editions of MS Windows can be used by system administrators
to modify account and local policies, public key policies and IP security policies for a local host.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following tools in MS Windows is used to examine (both in real time and by collecting log data for later
analysis) how programs that are run affect a computer's performance?
Task Manager
Performance Monitor ( Missed)
System Properties
Computer Management
Event Viewer
An MS Windows Administrative Tools folder applet for managing background applications is called:
Services ( Missed)
Resource Monitor
Component Services
Which of the Microsoft Windows tools listed below can be used by system administrators to find and isolate
problems that might prevent the OS from starting correctly?
Task Manager
System Information
Computer Management
System Configuration ( Missed)
Windows Task Scheduler is a component of Microsoft Windows that provides the ability to schedule the launch of
programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals. Which of the following locations contains
the application icon shortcut which can be used to launch the Task Scheduler MMC snap-in?

Programs and Features menu in Windows Control Panel
Windows Command Prompt
Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to one of the Microsoft Windows Administrative Tools utilities designed for use
by application developers?
Component Services ( Missed)

Microsoft Management Console (MMC)
Windows PowerShell
4/5
The function of the Data Sources configuration utility in Windows is to facilitate communication between applications
and varying types of databases.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the tools listed below allow for administering print devices in Microsoft Windows? (Select 3 answers)
Printers applet in Control Panel in Windows OSs prior to Windows 7 ( Missed)

Print Management utility shipped by default with all versions of MS Windows
Devices and Printers applet in Control Panel in Windows 7 and later Microsoft OSs ( Missed)
Printers applet in Windows 7 and later Microsoft OSs
Devices and Printers applet in Control Panel in Windows OSs prior to Windows 7
Print Management utility in the Administrative Tools folder (not available in home versions of MS Windows) (
Missed)
A shortcut icon to the Windows Memory Diagnostic tool can be found in:
Hardware and Sound menu in Control Panel

Administrative Tools folder in Control Panel ( Missed)
Performance Information and Tools menu
System menu
Windows Memory Diagnostic Tool cannot be run inside Windows and requires computer restart (the utility is
launched during reboot before loading the operating system).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to a Windows built-in software component that monitors network traffic and
depending on the configuration settings applied to each data packet either blocks it or allows it to pass through?
Security Center
Action Center
Windows Defender
Which tab of the MSCONFIG utility in Windows lists choices for startup configuration modes?
Services
Boot
General ( Missed)
Startup
Tools
Which of the tabs of the System Configuration utility in Windows contains the Diagnostic startup option?
Tools
1/5
General ( Missed)
Services
Startup
Boot
Which of the configuration features listed below can be managed through the MSCONFIG Boot tab? (Select all that
apply)
Boot logging ( Missed)

Diagnostic startup
Startup items loaded during system boot
Default OS to load in a multiboot environment ( Missed)
Services loaded during system startup
Amount of hardware resources to be used by the chosen OS in a multiboot environment (e.g. the maximum
amount of RAM) ( Missed)
Safe boot options ( Missed)
The System Configuration tab containing a list of background applications that can be enabled/disabled during
system startup is called:
Boot
Applications
Services ( Missed)
General
Tools
Prior to Windows 8, the MSCONFIG Startup tab contained a list of user applications that could be enabled/disabled
during system boot. The contents of this tab are not available in the MSCONFIG utility shipped with later releases of
MS Windows.
True ( Missed)
False
In Windows 8 and later releases, contents of the MSCONFIG's Startup tab can be viewed and managed via:
Task Manager ( Missed)

Performance Monitor
Programs and Features applet
Device Manager
The System Configuration tab in MS Windows providing access to MMC snap-ins is called:
Services
Tools ( Missed)
Applications
2/5
Programs
Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the function of Windows Task Manager? (Select all that apply)
Provides tools for managing network traffic

Allows to close a non-responsive application in Windows ( Missed)
Displays information on programs, processes, and services that are currently running on the computer (
Missed)
Allows to schedule the launch of programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals
Provides real-time reports on how a computer running Windows OS is using system resources
(CPU/RAM/HDD/Network usage) ( Missed)
Allows system administrators for managing the currently logged-in users ( Missed)
Windows Task Manager can be launched by: (Select all that apply)
Ctrl+Shift+Esc key combination ( Missed)

Clicking the applet's shortcut icon in the Administrative Tools menu
Pressing Ctrl+Alt+Delete and selecting the Task Manager option from the list menu ( Missed)
Selecting the Task Manager applet in Windows Control Panel
Right-clicking on the Windows Taskbar and selecting Task Manager ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list Windows Task Manager tabs available only in Windows 7 and earlier releases of
the Microsoft OS? (Select all that apply)
Startup
Applications ( Missed)
Processes ( Missed)
App history
Performance ( Missed)
Networking ( Missed)
In Windows 8 and later releases, the real-time information about resources used by user applications and system
processes in Task Manager can be found grouped in one place under the Processes tab.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the Windows Task Manager tabs in Windows 8 includes the information about the network resources
usage listed under Networking tab in previous releases of the Microsoft OS?
Applications
Processes
Performance ( Missed)
Services
The Task Manager utility in Windows 8 contains a new tab previously included as part of the System Configuration
3/5
(MSCONFIG) utility which allows system administrators to control user applications that could be enabled/disabled
during system boot. What is the name of this tab?
Boot
Startup ( Missed)
App history
Details
Which of the following answers lists the correct sequence of steps required to close a non-responsive user
application in Task Manager in Windows 7?
On the Processes tab, click the program that isn't responding, click End Task button
On the Applications tab, click the program that isn't responding, click End Task button ( Missed)
On the Performance tab, click the program that isn't responding, click End Task button
On the App history tab, click the program that isn't responding, click End Task button
Which of the answers listed below describes the correct sequence of steps required to close a non-responsive user
application or process in Task Manager in Windows 8?
On the App history tab, click the program/process that isn't responding, click End Task button
On the Performance tab, click the program/process that isn't responding, click End Task button
On the Processes tab, click the program/process that isn't responding, click End Task button ( Missed)
On the Applications tab, click the program/process that isn't responding, click End Task button
A Windows Command Prompt command used for launching a GUI system utility for managing HDDs is called:
DISKMGMT.MSC ( Missed)
CONTROL.EXE
DISKPART.EXE
DEVMGMT.MSC
COMPMGMT.MSC
Which of the following provide(s) access to the Disk Management utility in Windows? (Select all that apply)

Disk Management shortcut icon in the Administrative Tools folder
Device Manager
Storage Spaces menu item in Windows Control Panel
Windows Command Prompt ( Missed)
In Windows Disk Management utility, a normal disk status indicating that the disk is ready for read/write operations
is labeled as:
Basic
Online ( Missed)
Dynamic
4/5
Unallocated
In Windows Disk Management utility on a local computer, a dynamic disk that has been moved from another
computer and found by the OS is labeled as:
Offline
Foreign ( Missed)
Disconnected
Online
Which of the following answers refers to a dynamic disk status indicating disk corruption or its temporal
unavailability?
Foreign
Unallocated
Offline ( Missed)
Imported
A temporary disk status set to "Initializing" indicates that a basic disk is in the process of being converted into a
dynamic disk.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report
Total marks 39
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the MS Windows tools listed below allow(s) for managing disks, partitions, and volumes? (Select all that
apply)
DISKPART.EXE ( Missed)
Computer Management
Disk Management ( Missed)
CHKDSK
Which of the following answers list(s) the correct sequence of steps for reducing partition size in Windows Disk
Management utility? (Select all that apply)
Right-click on a partition, select "Shrink Volume..." option from the pop-up menu, in the launched pop-up
window enter the amount of space to shrink in MB, click the "Shrink" button ( Missed)
In Disk Management Action menu select the partition to shrink, right-click on the partition, select "Shrink
Volume..." option from the pop-up menu, enter the amount of space to shrink in MB, click the "Shrink" button
Left-click on a partition in order to select it, in Disk Management Action menu select All Tasks menu item,
select "Shrink Volume..." option, in the launched pop-up window enter the amount of space to shrink in MB,
click the "Shrink" button ( Missed)
Right-click on a partition, select "Split Volume..." option from the pop-up menu, in the launched pop-up
window enter the amount of space to shrink in MB, click the "Split" button
What is the name of a Windows Disk Management interface option for increasing partition size with the use of an
unallocated disk space?
Extend ( Missed)
Add
Convert
Expand
Which of the DISKPART.EXE commands can be used for managing the size of a disk volume? (Select 2 answers)
ADD
EXTEND ( Missed)
CONVERT
SHRINK ( Missed)
COMPACT
Windows 8 introduces a virtualization technology that enables organization of multiple physical disks into logical
volumes in a fashion similar to RAID levels. What is the name of the Control Panel applet providing access to this
functionality?
1/5
Sync Center
Disk Management
Devices and Printers
Storage Spaces ( Missed)
Which of the following Windows tools allow(s) for migrating user data and user information to a new computer?

CHKDSK
USMT ( Missed)
MBSA
Files and Settings Transfer Wizard ( Missed)
Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows 8/8.1 facilitate moving user accounts and settings, application
configuration data, and personal files from one computer to another with the use of:

compatibility with Windows 7. What is the name of that utility?

Upgrade Assistant
Windows Upgrade Assistant is a free Microsoft tool released mainly for Windows 7/8 owners who wish to perform an
in-place upgrade from their OS versions to Windows 8 or 8.1. The tool also allows to check for hardware
compatibility of systems running Windows XP and Vista with Windows 8. This functionality is directed at those users
who wish to upgrade Windows XP/Vista to Windows 8 through the clean installation option, which is the only
upgrade path available in such case.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following system utilities in MS Windows provides access to a database containing system
configuration information?
2/5
NBTSTAT
MSCONFIG
REGEDIT ( Missed)
MSINFO32
Which other command-line command besides REGEDIT can be used to launch registry editor in Windows?
REGDT
COMMAND
REGEDIT32
MSTSC
REGEDT32 ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a command interpreter utility in Windows?
CMD ( Missed)
MSCONFIG
MSTSC
MMC
Which of the following answers lists a Windows command that launches an applet for managing background
applications?
MSCONFIG.EXE
APPWIZ.CPL
SERVICES.MSC ( Missed)
MSINFO32
A framework providing access to a collection of tools that can be used by administrators and advanced users to
manage networks, computers, services, and other system components in Windows is known as:
CMD
MSCONFIG
MMC ( Missed)
MSTSC
Which of the following answers refers to the MS Windows client application for Remote Desktop Services?
MBSA
REGSVR32
SERVICES.MSC
MSTSC ( Missed)
A simple Windows text-editing utility that can be launched from any place in the Command Prompt without the need
for specifying path to the application's file location is called:
3/5
WORDPAD
EXPLORER
NOTEPAD ( Missed)
MSWORD
What is the name of a GUI-based file and folder manager application in Windows?
EXPLORER ( Missed)
BOOTREC
IEXPLORE
MSTSC
A Microsoft Windows application utility that displays details about computer's hardware configuration, computer
components, software, and device drivers is known as:
MSCONFIG
NBTSTAT
MSINFO32 ( Missed)
IEXPLORE
Which of the answers listed below refers to a diagnostic tool for detecting display, sound, and input related problems
in MS Windows?
DXDIAG ( Missed)
MMC
DirectX
REGSVR32
An MS Windows system utility designed to improve file access speed by rearranging data stored on a disk or drive
is called:
FORMAT
DEFRAG ( Missed)
CHKDSK
DISKPART
A system utility available in Windows ME and newer releases of Microsoft operating systems that allows to roll back
system files and settings to an earlier point in time is known as:
Task Manager
Computer Management
System Restore ( Missed)
Which of the following DEFRAG command parameters allows to locate and consolidate fragmented files on all
volumes?
4/5
/A
/E
/V
/C ( Missed)
If personal files, such as email, documents, or photos are lost or deleted, Windows System Restore can be used to
recover such files.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Microsoft online service that allows for patching up system
vulnerabilities, improving system performance, and fixing coding errors found in Windows software?
Action Center
Security Center
Windows Store
Which of the following locations in MS Windows provide(s) access to the Internet Properties (INETCPL.CPL) system
utility? (Select all that apply)
Internet Options applet in Windows Control Panel ( Missed)

Internet Options menu item in Internet Explorer's Tools menu ( Missed)
Network and Sharing Center applet in Windows Control Panel (MS Vista and later releases) ( Missed)
Ease of Access applet in Windows Control Panel
Internet Options menu item in Microsoft Edge Tools menu
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the Windows Internet Properties system utility tabs provides access to proxy settings?
Security
Privacy
Advanced
Connections ( Missed)
The Internet Properties applet tab containing an option for configuring VPN settings is called:
General
Programs
Privacy
The Security tab of the Internet Properties utility in Windows allows for imposing restrictions on web content allowed
in Microsoft Internet Explorer web browser.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following tabs of the Windows Internet Properties applet provides an option for deleting temporary
Internet files, cookies, web browsing history, Internet Explorer saved passwords, and saved data typed into web
forms?
General ( Missed)
Privacy
Advanced
Security
A Windows Internet Properties applet tab containing an option for managing pop-up windows displayed by websites
is called:
Security
Programs
Privacy ( Missed)
General
What is the name of the Windows Internet Properties applet tab providing access to advanced cookie management
options?
Programs
Privacy ( Missed)
Connections
1/5
Security
A Windows Internet Properties system utility tab containing an option for managing Internet Explorer web browser
add-ons is called:
Privacy
General
Security
Programs ( Missed)
Which of the following tabs of the Windows Internet Properties applet provides an option for rolling back all of the
Internet Explorer web browser configuration settings to the state they were in when Internet Explorer was first
installed?
General
Security
Privacy
Advanced ( Missed)
The "View by Category" option in Windows Control Panel allows for displaying entire contents of the Control Panel
in a single window providing quick access to each Control Panel applet.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the locations listed below allow(s) for accessing computer display configuration settings in MS Windows?
Programs and Features applet in Windows Control Panel

Pop-up menu launched after right-clicking on the Windows Desktop screen area ( Missed)
Appearance and Personalization menu of the Windows Control Panel (Category view) ( Missed)
Administrative Tools folder in Windows Control Panel
The Display applet icon in Windows Control Panel (Icons view) ( Missed)
Which of the following actions are available within the standard Windows account in User Accounts Control Panel
applet? (Select 2 answers)
Change profile picture ( Missed)

Change account type
Change User Account Control (UAC) settings
Manage another account
Change account name
Change password ( Missed)
The Folder Options menu in File Explorer (also known as Windows Explorer in Windows releases prior to Windows
8) provides access to configuration settings that allow for displaying hidden files, folders, and drives.
2/5
True ( Missed)
False
A hidden file (or files) on the hard disk that Windows uses to hold parts of programs and data files that cannot be
stored in RAM due to the insufficient memory space is called: (Select all that apply)
Swap file ( Missed)

Paging file ( Missed)
Signature file
Virtual memory ( Missed)
Archive file
Which tab of the System Properties (SYSDM.CPL) Windows applet provides access to virtual memory configuration
settings?
Hardware
System Protection
Environment Variables
Performance
Advanced ( Missed)
The Remote tab of the System Properties applet in MS Windows contains configuration options for: (Select all that
apply)

Proxy settings
Remote Assistance connections ( Missed)
Virtual Private Network (VPN) settings
Remote Desktop ( Missed)
Which tab of the System Properties Windows applet provides access to the System Restore settings?
Advanced
Performance
System Protection ( Missed)
Environment Variables
Hardware
Which of the power-saving states in MS Windows uses the least amount of power?
Standby
Sleep
Hibernation ( Missed)
Suspend
The term "Power plan" refers to a collection of hardware and system settings that manage how a Windows-based
3/5
computer uses power. Available configuration options for managing power in MS Windows (accessible via the
Power Options applet in Windows Control Panel) include three pre-set power plans (Balanced, Power saver, and
High performance) along with the possibility of creating a custom power plan based on specific user preferences.
True ( Missed)
False
A power management mode in Windows that draws small amount of power, saves the system state in RAM, and
allows for quick resuming of full-power operation with the use of a power button or on command is known as:
Sleep ( Missed)
Power saver
High performance
Hibernation
The Programs and Features Windows Control Panel applet can be used for: (Select all that apply)
Uninstalling applications ( Missed)

Repair installation of a malfunctioning program ( Missed)
Changing application configuration settings ( Missed)
Adding/removing Windows components ( Missed)
Creating/deleting system restore points
Managing installed updates ( Missed)
Which of the following statements describing features of Windows HomeGroup are true? (Select 3 answers)
Communication between HomeGroup computers is encrypted with a pre-shared password ( Missed)

User passwords for accessing HomeGroup are stored centrally on a Domain Controller
Communication between HomeGroup computers is unencrypted
Home networking system for file and printer sharing ( Missed)
Computers running Microsoft operating systems earlier than Windows 7 cannot participate in HomeGroup (
Missed)
Which of the Control Panel items in Windows 7 and later releases replaces the Printers applet known from previous
versions of MS Windows?
Device Manager
Devices and Printers ( Missed)
Computer Management
Which of the locations listed below allow(s) for making adjustments to the volume of sound in Windows 7 and
Windows 8/8.1? (Select 2 answers)
System applet in Control Panel

Windows Taskbar notification area ( Missed)
4/5
Sounds and Audio Devices applet in Control Panel
AutoPlay applet in Control Panel
Sound applet in Control Panel ( Missed)
The Troubleshooting Control Panel applet introduced in Microsoft Windows 7 is a centralized place providing access
to several software tools that can automatically fix common problems related to application compatibility, hardware,
sound, networking, operating system, and security.
True ( Missed)
False
A Control Panel applet introduced in Windows Vista providing information about the network connection status is
called:
Networking
Phone and Modem
Internet Options
Network and Sharing Center ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 38
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the locations listed below provide access to the Device Manager applet in MS Windows? (Select 2
answers)

Control Panel ( Missed)
Troubleshooting
Which of the signs listed below indicates that a Windows network share is intended for administrative access?
#
$ ( Missed)
?
&
In MS Windows, the "$" sign appended to the end of the name of a network share indicates that the shared folder or
drive is:
Hidden ( Missed)
Inaccessible
Visible to any user
Accessible by any user
A system that uses public network (e.g. Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between
remote locations is known as:
Personal Area Network (PAN)

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Virtual Private Network (VPN) ( Missed)
Fiber-optic
Mobile broadband
Dial-up ( Missed)
WiMAX
A unique identifier for a WLAN (a wireless network name) is commonly referred to as:
1/6
EUI
SSID ( Missed)
OUI
CNAME
Setting up a wireless connection in Network and Sharing Center Control Panel applet in MS Windows requires:
Typing in the network's subnet mask

Providing the wireless network name ( Missed)
Selecting encryption type ( Missed)
Providing IP address of the Wireless Access Point (WAP)
Typing in the network security key (Wi-Fi password) ( Missed)
Encryption mechanisms designed for securing wireless networks include: (Select all that apply)
WMS
WPA ( Missed)
MD5
WPA2 ( Missed)
WEP ( Missed)
Which of the wireless encryption schemes listed below offers the highest level of protection?
WEP
WPA2 ( Missed)
WAP
WPA
A type of wireless network providing high-speed Internet access through mobile telecommunication cellular network
technologies is known as:
VLAN
WWAN ( Missed)
VPN
WLAN
Which of the following Control Panel applets in MS Windows provides an option for setting up a broadband, dial-up,
or VPN connection?
Phone and Modem

Network and Sharing Center ( Missed)
Windows Mobility Center
In computer networking, a computer system or an application that acts as an intermediary between another
2/6
computer and the Internet is commonly referred to as:
Bridge
Active hub
Server
Proxy ( Missed)
In Windows 7/8/8.1, the Remote Desktop Connection utility can be launched from the Start menu search box, from
the Run menu dialog box, or from a command line. Which of the following commands is used to start Remote
Desktop Connection from the Command Prompt?
MMC
MSDS
RDP
MSTSC ( Missed)
Which of the statements listed below refer(s) to the Windows Remote Assistance utility? (Select all that apply)
Access based on one-time password ( Missed)

Temporal remote access ( Missed)
Access based on local password (local user account password)
The host and invited user can both see the host's screen ( Missed)
Windows tool used for connecting remotely to the user's own computer
The host and invited user share control over host's mouse and keyboard ( Missed)
Permanent remote access
Windows tool used for assisted remote troubleshooting ( Missed)
Which of the following answers describe the features of Windows Remote Desktop tool? (Select 3 answers)
Permanent remote access ( Missed)

The host and invited user share control over host's mouse and keyboard
Access based on local password (local user account password) ( Missed)
Windows tool used for connecting remotely to the user's own computer ( Missed)
The host and invited user can both see the host's screen
Windows tool used for assisted remote troubleshooting
Access based on one-time password
Temporal remote access
The practice of allowing a program through a firewall is described as creating:
Tunnel
Static route
Exception ( Missed)
Event
3/6
Introduced in Windows Vista, Windows Firewall with Advanced Security MMC snap-in offers more detailed
configuration options allowing system administrators to execute more granular control over inbound and outbound
network traffic.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following Control Panel applets provides access to the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security tool?
Internet Options (Security tab)

Windows Firewall (Advanced settings) ( Missed)
Network and Sharing Center
Internet Options (Advanced tab)
Which of the locations listed below allow(s) for enabling/disabling Windows Firewall? (Select all that apply)
Internet Options (Security tab)

Internet Options (Advanced tab)
Windows Firewall with Advanced Security ( Missed)
Internet Options (Connections tab)
DNS
SNMP
NAT
DHCP ( Missed)
An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates a problem with what type of service?
SMTP
DNS
DHCP ( Missed)
SNMP
In order to be able to connect to a website on the Internet and display its contents, a URL entered in the web
browser address bar needs to be translated into an IP address. Which of the servers listed below is used to handle
this type of request?
ICS server
Web server
DNS server ( Missed)
DHCP server
Which of the Windows Command Prompt utilities allows to display IP addresses, subnet mask, and default gateway
4/6
for all adapters?
NETSTAT
IFCONFIG
TRACERT
IPCONFIG ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list(s) data required for manual configuration of network adapter settings in MS
Windows? (Select all that apply)
IP address ( Missed)
Subnet mask ( Missed)
Default gateway ( Missed)
MAC address
DNS server address ( Missed)
SSID (aka network name)
Which of the answers listed below describes the correct sequence of steps for accessing the IPv4 connection
manual configuration interface in MS Windows?
Control Panel (Category view) -> Network and Internet -> Internet Options -> Advanced tab -> Select
Internet Protocol version 4 (TCP/IPv4) from the connection components list -> Click the Properties button ->
Fill in the required fields
Control Panel (Icon view) -> Network and Sharing Center applet -> Change adapter settings -> Right-click
on the device -> Select Properties from the pop-up menu -> Select Internet Protocol version 4 (TCP/IPv4)
from the connection components list -> Click the Properties button -> Fill in the required fields ( Missed)
Control Panel (Category view) -> Network and Internet -> Network and Sharing Center applet -> Change
adapter settings -> Select Internet Protocol version 4 (TCP/IPv4) from the connection components list ->
Click the Properties button -> Fill in the required fields
Control Panel (Icon view) -> Internet Options applet -> Connections tab -> Click the "LAN settings" button ->
Select Internet Protocol version 4 (TCP/IPv4) from the connection components list -> Click the Properties
button -> Fill in the required fields
Your Final Report
Total marks 40
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/6
6/6
A type of transmission that takes place in two directions simultaneously is known as:
Full duplex ( Missed)

Broadcast
Simplex
Half duplex
Multicast
If a network adapter's "Speed & Duplex" property is set to Half Duplex, communication on the network will be taking
place:
Only in one direction at a time ( Missed)

In both directions at half the speed
In one direction at half the speed
In both directions simultaneously
Auto negotiation is an Ethernet procedure that allows two connected devices to exchange information about their
capabilities (such as supported speed and duplex modes) and automatically configure connection parameters based
on the highest performance settings supported by both devices.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below describes the correct sequence of steps for accessing the Speed & Duplex
settings of an Ethernet adapter in MS Windows?
Control Panel (Category view) -> View Devices and Printers -> Right-click on the device -> Select Properties
from the pop-up menu -> click the Configure... button -> On the Advanced tab select the Speed & Duplex
settings
Control Panel (Icon view) -> Internet Options applet -> Connections tab -> Click the "LAN settings" button ->
Right-click on the device -> Select Properties from the pop-up menu -> click the Configure... button -> On the
Advanced tab select the Speed & Duplex settings
Control Panel (Category view) -> Network and Internet -> View Network Computers and Devices -> Right-
click on the device -> Select Properties from the pop-up menu -> click the Configure... button -> On the
Advanced tab select the Speed & Duplex settings
Control Panel (Icon view) -> Network and Sharing Center applet -> Change adapter settings -> Right-click
on the device -> Select Properties from the pop-up menu -> click the Configure... button -> On the Advanced
tab select the Speed & Duplex settings ( Missed)
A solution that allows to turn on a network host remotely by sending a special data packet (known as Magic Packet)
is called:
RDP
1/5
Jumbo frame
Backdoor access
Wake-on-LAN ( Missed)
Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism that allows for controlling network resources and assigning
priority to different types of traffic? (Select best answer)
Quality of Service (QoS) ( Missed)

Bandwidth cap
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Fair access policy
Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the function of Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)
architecture? (Select all that apply)
Security
QoS ( Missed)
Authentication
Network traffic management ( Missed)
Accounting
In order to operate, an integrated component such as Network Interface Card (NIC) on a brand new motherboard
may need to be first:
Updated with the latest driver in Device Manager

Looked up on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
Checked with a loopback plug
Enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu ( Missed)
In a differential backup strategy, restoring data from backup requires only a working copy of the last full backup.
True
False ( Missed)
Restoring data from an incremental backup requires: (Select 2 answers)
Copy of the last incremental backup

All copies of differential backups made since the last full backup
Copy of the last differential backup
All copies of incremental backups made since the last full backup ( Missed)
Copy of the last full backup ( Missed)
The backup utility in Windows 8 that allows for restoration of different versions of saved personal files is called:
NTBackup
Backup and Restore
2/5
File History ( Missed)
System Restore
What is the function of archive bit?
Setting file attribute to read-only

Search indexing
Creating an additional copy of a file
Indicating whether a file has been modified since the last backup ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below describes the correct sequence of steps for accessing disk maintenance utilities
in Windows 8.1?
Windows Explorer (Windows logo key + E) -> Select This PC from the left menu item list to view storage
devices -> Right-click on the drive -> Select Properties from the pop-up menu -> Select a disk maintenance
utility from the Tools tab ( Missed)
Control Panel (Icon view) -> Backup and Restore -> Right-click on the drive -> Select Properties from the
pop-up menu -> Select a disk maintenance utility from the Tools tab
Windows Explorer (Windows logo key + E) -> Select My Computer from the left menu item list to view
storage devices -> Right-click on the drive -> Select Properties from the pop-up menu -> Select a disk
maintenance utility from the Tools tab
Control Panel (Category view) -> Select View devices and printers -> Select a storage device -> Right-click
on the drive -> Select Properties from the pop-up menu -> Select a disk maintenance utility from the Tools
tab
A Microsoft service providing software error patches for the Windows operating system and its installed components
is called:
Windows Anytime Upgrade

Windows Defender
Windows Security Essentials
Virus definition database files contain all the known viruses and countermeasures against them that can be applied
by a particular antivirus application. In order to be effective, an AV program needs up-to-date versions of these files
which can be obtained through an AV software update feature.
True ( Missed)
False
Data files containing detection and/or remediation code that antivirus or antispyware products use to identify
malicious code are known as:
Repositories
Signature files ( Missed)
Macros
Security logs
3/5
An antivirus software is kept up to date through: (Select 2 answers)
Driver updates
Audit trails
Engine updates ( Missed)
OS updates
Virus signature updates ( Missed)
Which of the following allows for backing up the entire Windows installation and restoring the entire contents of the
drive in case of hard drive failure?
System image ( Missed)

File History
Shadow Copy
System Restore
Time Machine
System repair disc, which is one of the features of the Backup and Restore Control Panel applet in Windows, allows
for creating a CD/DVD disc which can be used for recovering Windows from a serious error or restoring the
Windows installation from a system image.
True ( Missed)
False
Time Machine is a backup utility for:
Linux
Mac OS X ( Missed)
Windows
Other
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Mac OS disk maintenance tool?
DEFRAG
Disk Cleanup
Disk Management
CHKDSK
Disk Utility ( Missed)
An unresponsive application/process in Mac OS can be terminated with the use of:
Resource Monitor
Task Manager
TASKKILL command
Force Quit ( Missed)
4/5
Performance Monitor
A Mac OS X system feature providing a single-screen thumbnail preview of all open windows and applications is
called:
Spotlight
Mission Control ( Missed)
Desktop Window Manager
Which of the following Mac OS features allows for creation of switchable desktop environments?
Spaces ( Missed)
Personalization
Display
Aero
A password management system in Mac OS X is called:
Kerberos
LoJack
BitLocker
Keychain ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 28
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the answers listed below refers to the system search utility for Mac OS?
Explorer
File explorer
Spotlight ( Missed)
Finder
A service that enables storage of data on Apple cloud servers is called:
iCloud ( Missed)
Remote Disk
OneDrive
Dropbox
Which of the following answers refers to an interface capable of sensing more than one finger press at a time?
Touchscreen
Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI)
Digital Visual Interface (DVI)
Multi-touch ( Missed)
A desktop/file management system for Mac OS is known as:
Konqueror
Explorer
Finder ( Missed)
Nautilus
Which of the Mac OS X features allows for using the CD or DVD drive hosted from another computer?
Remote Disk
Dock
Boot Camp
Remote Disc ( Missed)
What is the name of a Mac OS equivalent of Windows Taskbar?
Explorer
Dock ( Missed)
Spotlight
Finder
1/5
Which of the Apple software utilities enables installation of an alternative OS in a multiboot environment?
Boot Camp ( Missed)

VirtualBox
Hyper-V
VMware Player
Which of the following commands in Linux is used to display information about files and directories contained within
the current working directory?
pwd
ls ( Missed)
grep
ps
A command-line command in Linux that allows to search files for lines containing a match to a given pattern is
called:
rm
chmod
find
grep ( Missed)
Which of the Linux command-line commands listed below is used for directory traversal?
cd ( Missed)
dir
ps
dig
The following command can be used for turning off or restarting a Linux host.
reboot
shutdown ( Missed)
exit
taskkill
A Linux command displaying an absolute path to (i.e. full filename of) the current working directory is called:
mv
pwd ( Missed)
rm
dir
A Linux command-line command allowing a user to change his/her own password is known as:
pwd
2/5
pass
passwd ( Missed)
password
A Linux command used for transferring files/directories to a different directory is called:
replace
export
move
mv ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Unix command for copying files and directories?
cp ( Missed)
copy
xcopy
robocopy
What is the name of a Linux command used for renaming files and directories?
rm
ps
mv ( Missed)
ls
A command-line command in Linux used for deleting files and directories is known as:
erase
rm ( Missed)
del
edit
What is the function of the Linux chmod command?
Changes file access permissions ( Missed)

Changes file owner and group permissions
Compares the contents of two files or sets of files
Changes the Linux command prompt
What is the function of the Linux chown command?
Changes the Linux command prompt

Compares the contents of two files or sets of files
Changes file owner and group permissions ( Missed)
Changes file access permissions
3/5
A Linux command-line utility used for displaying and modifying network interface configuration settings is called:
ifconfig ( Missed)
net config
ipconfig
networksetup
Which of the following answers refers to a Linux command-line command used for configuring network interface
parameters specific to the wireless communication?
net config
ifconfig
networksetup
iwconfig ( Missed)
What is the name of a Linux command-line utility used for reporting statistics on running processes?
ps ( Missed)
tasklist
nbtstat
id
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Linux command that allows for assuming the identity of a different
system user and executing commands with security privileges of that user account?
sync
id
usermod
su ( Missed)
A Linux command that allows for modifying security privileges in order to be able to execute a single command that
requires root access permissions is called:
id
sudo ( Missed)
usermod
su
Which of the answers listed below refers to a package management system most often used on Debian and Debian-
based Linux distributions?
KDE
APT ( Missed)
Yum
RPM
4/5
Your Final Report
Total marks 25
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers refers to a software tool used for searching and installing software packages on
Debian and Debian-based Linux distributions?
RPM
apt-rpm
Yum
apt-get ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a command used for invoking a text editor in Unix-like operating
systems?
edit
notepad
vi ( Missed)
bcdedit
A low-level utility that can be used for creating/restoring filesystem backup copies in Linux is called:
fsutil
diskpart
dd ( Missed)
format
Which of the following terms refers to a solution that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on
the same hardware?
Virtualization ( Missed)
Clustering
Hyperthreading
Load balancing
Which of the virtualization-related definitions listed below are correct? (Select 3 answers)
The term "Host machine" refers to an isolated operating system installation within the host operating system
An operating system run inside a virtual machine is referred to as a guest operating system ( Missed)
The term "Virtual machine" refers to a physical computer that uses virtualization software
The term "Host machine" refers to a computer that uses virtualization software to run virtual machines (
Missed)
An operating system run inside a virtual machine is referred to as a host operating system
The term "Virtual machine" refers to an isolated operating system installation within the host operating
system ( Missed)
1/5
Which components would have the highest priority while building a custom workstation designed to run virtual
machines? (Select 2 answers)
High-capacity HDD
Specialized GPU
High-end cooling
Hyper-V
AMD Catalyst
VT-x
AMD-V ( Missed)
A set of Intel CPU hardware enhancements improving support for virtualization is called:
EPV
VT-x ( Missed)
Catalyst
Hyper-V
The term "Emulator" refers to a solution that allows to bridge the gap between different OSs by enabling them to run
software specifically designed for other (incompatible) operating systems.
True ( Missed)
False
In virtualization technology, a software program that manages multiple operating systems (or multiple instances of
the same operating system) on a single computer system is called:
Hypervisor ( Missed)
Virtual switch
Host machine
Virtual machine
Which of the following statements describe(s) disadvantages of virtualization? (Select all that apply)
Multiple virtual machines run on a single host share hardware resources which has a degrading effect on
performance ( Missed)
Deployment of different types of operating systems or multiple copies of the same operating system or
application becomes more difficult in a virtualized environment due to hardware configuration issues
On a larger scale, virtualization has a negative effect on operational costs due to increased power supply
requirements
Hardware used for hosting virtual machines becomes a single point of failure ( Missed)
2/5
A cloud computing service model offering remote access to applications based on monthly pricing or annual
subscription fee is called:
PaaS
SaaS ( Missed)
IaaS
In which of the cloud computing service models clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase
computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment
and software?
IaaS ( Missed)
SaaS
PaaS
Which of the following cloud service types would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a
web app?
SaaS
PaaS ( Missed)
IaaS
Which of the answers listed below refers to a cloud computing deployment model in which the cloud infrastructure is
provisioned for open use by the general public?
Hybrid cloud
Private cloud
Community cloud
Public cloud ( Missed)
A cloud deployment model consisting of two or more interlinked cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public)
is referred to as a hybrid cloud.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the terms listed below refers to a cloud computing feature that allows for automatic allocation of computing
resources in proportion with the demand?
Rapid elasticity ( Missed)

Measured service
On-demand self-service
Resource pooling
Which of the following terms applies to cloud computing feature that allows consumers to control the volume and
type of utilized computing resources?
Measured service
3/5
On-demand self-service ( Missed)
Broad network access
Rapid elasticity
In cloud computing, the practice of grouping together computing resources and making them available for shared
access for multiple consumers is referred to as:
Broad network access

Measured service
On-demand self-service
Resource pooling ( Missed)
In cloud computing, the term "Measured service" refers to the cloud provider's ability to track the computing
resources consumers are accessing as well as the amount of resources they are consuming. It provides
transparency for both the provider and consumer and is used, among other applications, for the purpose of billing.
True ( Missed)
False
What is the function of an HTTP server?
File storage
Serving of web pages ( Missed)
Name resolution
Email handling
A dedicated file server is also referred to as:
SMTP server
DNS server
HTTP server
FTP server ( Missed)
Which of the server types listed below is used to assign dynamic IP addresses to devices on a network?
DNS server
DHCP server ( Missed)
FTP server
HTTP server
In order to be able to connect to a website and display its contents, a URL entered in the web browser address bar
needs to be translated into an IP address. Which of the following server types is used to handle this type of request?
ICS server
Web server
4/5
DHCP server
In computer networks, a computer system or an application that acts as an intermediary between another computer
and the Internet is commonly referred to as:
Bridge
Active hub
Web server
Proxy ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
What is the function of a SMTP server?
Email handling ( Missed)

Serving of web pages
Name resolution
File storage & sharing
Which of the server types listed below is used for the purpose of verification of the identity of a person or process?
Proxy server
DNS server
Authentication server ( Missed)
Web server
The term "Unified Threat Management" (UTM) refers to a network security solution (commonly in the form of a
dedicated device called UTM appliance) which combines the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards
such as for example URL filtering, spam filtering, gateway antivirus protection, intrusion detection or prevention,
content inspection, or malware inspection.
True ( Missed)
False
The term "Intrusion Detection System" (IDS) refers to a device or software application designed to detect malicious
activities and violations of security policies on a network and/or computer host. An IDS designed to monitor networks
is known as Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS), an IDS installed on a particular host monitoring only that
host is called Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS). IDSs do not take any active steps to prevent or stop the
intrusion relying only on passive response which may include sending an alert to a management console or saving
information about the event in logs.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following actions can be taken by an IDS? (Select 2 answers)
Firewall reconfiguration
Closing down connection
Logging ( Missed)
Terminating process
Sending an alert ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below illustrates the difference between passive and active security breach response?
HIPS vs. NIPS

UTM vs. Firewall
1/5
CSMA/CD vs. CSMA/CA
IDS vs. IPS ( Missed)
Which of the following statements describe(s) the characteristic features of open-source applications? (Select all that
apply)
Proprietary software
Permission to modify and redistribute the application ( Missed)
Free access to the application code ( Missed)
Permission to use the application only under certain conditions
Lack of free access to the application code
Windows Phone, iOS, and Android are all examples of closed-source operating systems.
True
False ( Missed)
Mobile apps for iOS are available for purchase and download through which of the following online marketplaces?
Amazon Appstore
App Store ( Missed)
Windows Marketplace for Mobile
Google Play
Which of the marketplaces listed below offer(s) apps for Android-based devices? (Select all that apply)
App Store
Google Play ( Missed)
Amazon Appstore ( Missed)
Modern mobile devices have the capability to present landscape or portrait views of the device's screen based on
the way the device is being held. Which of the following built-in functionalities allows for determining screen
orientation in those devices?
Hypervisor
Geotracking
Accelerometer ( Missed)
Gyroscope
Which of the following built-in functionalities available in modern mobile devices supplements the function of an
accelerometer by offering more accurate recognition of movement within a 3D space?
Direct3D
Multitouch
Gyroscope ( Missed)
2/5
Hypervisor
Resistive touchscreen displays rely on the electrical properties of the human body to detect when and where on a
display the user is touching. Because of this, resistive displays can be controlled with very light touches of a finger
and generally cannot be used with a mechanical stylus or a gloved hand. Another characteristic feature of resistive
touchscreens is that they do not require screen calibration.
True
False ( Missed)
Capacitive touchscreen displays are composed of two flexible sheets coated with a resistive material and separated
by an air gap or microdots. Pressure applied to the surface of the display by a finger or stylus causes the layers to
touch, which completes electrical circuits and tells the device where the user is touching. As such, capacitive
touchscreens require much more pressure to activate than resistive touchscreens as well as periodic screen
calibration in order to be able to register the exact touch location.
True
False ( Missed)
A procedure of identifying someone's physical location by obtaining GPS data from their mobile device or other
GPS-enabled devices is known as:
Geotagging
Wireless survey
Geotracking ( Missed)
Tethering
Which of the solutions listed below was designed to alleviate cellular network coverage problems?
Wi-Fi Calling ( Missed)

Voice over IP (VoIP)
Route aggregation
Quality of Service (QoS)
A type of mobile user interface presenting the main view of the device with a group of shortcut icons to apps is
known as:
Title screen
Launcher ( Missed)
Virtual assistant
Desktop
Which of the following acronyms refers to a set of tools used for developing applications for a specific platform?
GUI
SDLC
API
SDK ( Missed)
3/5
A package file format used by Android OS for distribution and installation of mobile apps is called:
XAP
APK ( Missed)
IPA
EXE
WAP
NFC ( Missed)
IR
RFC
A wireless network Access Point (AP) or site offering public wireless Internet access is commonly referred to as:
Hotspot ( Missed)
Proxy
Hub
Gateway
Which of the following terms refers a mobile device's capability to share its Internet connection with other devices?
Pairing
Clustering
Tethering ( Missed)
Bonding
The term "Airplane mode" refers to a functionality that allows to disable wireless transmission capability on a device
that comes equipped with this feature.
True ( Missed)
False
centered around a single workstation is known as:
PAN ( Missed)
LAN
SAN
MAN
The process of establishing connection between Bluetooth devices (for example between a Bluetooth enabled
headset and a Bluetooth enabled phone) is commonly referred to as:
Linking
4/5
Three-way handshake
Crosstalk
Pairing ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 28
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Personal Area Network (PAN) over Bluetooth is known as:
Intranet
Piconet ( Missed)
Extranet
Ethernet
Which of the following answers refers to a security feature used in Bluetooth device pairing?
PIN code ( Missed)

Multifactor authentication
Biometrics
Password
Mobile device email configuration settings required for retrieval of messages from a mail server include: (Select all
that apply)
IMAP ( Missed)
SLP
SMTP
POP3 ( Missed)
SNMP
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to POP3S encrypted communication? (Select all that apply)
TCP port 993

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) ( Missed)
TCP port 995 ( Missed)
Transport Layer Security (TLS) ( Missed)
TCP port 110
What are the characteristic features of the secure version of IMAP? (Select all that apply)
TCP port 143

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) ( Missed)
Transport Layer Security (TLS) ( Missed)
TCP port 995
What is the name of an email server software product developed by Microsoft?
Gmail
1/5
Outlook
IIS
Exchange ( Missed)
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME) specification extends the email message format beyond simple text
enabling the transfer of graphics, audio, and video files over the Internet mail system.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refer to S/MIME? (Select 2 answers)
Lack of authentication
Digital signatures ( Missed)
Encryption ( Missed)
Lack of non-repudiation
Unencrypted communication
Which of the answers listed below refers to the default configuration settings a mobile device is shipped with?
PRI ( Missed)
RIS
PII
PRL
The process of moving from one Wireless Access Point (WAP) coverage area to another without re-authentication or
loss in connectivity is commonly referred to as
Roaming ( Missed)
Switching
Routing
DHCP relay
A database on a mobile device containing bands, sub-bands and service provider IDs allowing the device to
establish connection with the right cell phone tower is called:
PRL ( Missed)
RIS
PRI
PII
Which of the following answers refers to a unique number used for identification of a physical mobile device?
MAPI
IMEI ( Missed)
SSID
2/5
IMSI
A unique number used for identification of a mobile network phone user is known as:
USMT
MIMO
IMSI ( Missed)
IMEI
Mobile device synchronization methods for Apple iOS devices include: (Select all that apply)
iTunes ( Missed)
OneDrive
Remote Disk
iCloud ( Missed)
Dropbox
An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as
separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is commonly referred to as:
Single Sign-On (SSO) ( Missed)

AAA framework
Network Access Control (NAC)
Harmful programs used to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive information, or gain unauthorized access to
computer systems are commonly referred to as:
Trojans
Malware ( Missed)
Viruses
Spyware
Malicious software collecting information about users without their knowledge/consent is known as:
Logic bomb
Adware
Computer worm
Spyware ( Missed)
A computer program containing malicious segment that attaches itself to an application program or other executable
component is called:
Adware
Spam
Virus ( Missed)
3/5
Flash cookie
A standalone malicious computer program that replicates itself over a computer network is known as:
Spyware
Worm ( Missed)
Trojan
Spam
Malicious software performing unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program is
called:
Adware
Computer worm
Trojan horse ( Missed)
Spyware
A collection of software tools used by a hacker in order to mask intrusion and obtain administrator-level access to a
computer or computer network is known as:
Trojan
Rootkit ( Missed)
Armored virus
Backdoor
Which of the following answers refers to an undocumented (and often legitimate) way of gaining access to a
program, online service, or an entire computer system?
Root access
Administrative access
Zero-day vulnerability
Backdoor ( Missed)
Malware that restricts access to a computer system by encrypting files or locking the entire system down until the
user performs requested action is known as:
Grayware
Adware
Ransomware ( Missed)
Spyware
A social engineering technique whereby attackers under disguise of legitimate request attempt to gain access to
confidential information they shouldn't have access to is commonly referred to as:
Phishing ( Missed)
Privilege escalation
Backdoor access
4/5
Shoulder surfing
A fraudulent email requesting its recipient to reveal sensitive information (e.g. user name and password) used later
by an attacker for the purpose of identity theft is an example of: (Select 2 answers)
Phishing ( Missed)
Watering hole attack
Social engineering ( Missed)
Zero-day exploit
Vishing
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Phishing scams targeting a specific group of people are generally referred to as:
Vishing
Spear phishing ( Missed)
Spoofing
Whaling
An email sent from an unknown source disguised as the source known to the message receiver is an example of:
(Select 2 answers)
Spoofing ( Missed)
Dictionary attack
Trojan horse
Brute forcing
Tailgating
Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol used in the most common types of spoofing attacks?
SMTP ( Missed)
RDP
SNMP
Telnet
An unauthorized practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating people into disclosing sensitive data
is known as:
Zero-day attack
MITM attack
Backdoor access
Which of the following fall(s) into the category of social engineering attacks? (Select all that apply)
MITM attack
Dictionary attack
Shoulder surfing ( Missed)
Zero-day attack
Tailgating ( Missed)
1/5
In computer security, a situation in which an unauthorized person is able to view another user's display or keyboard
to learn their password or other confidential information is known as:
Spear phishing
Tailgating
Spoofing
A zero-day attack exploits:
New accounts
Patched software
Vulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the software developer ( Missed)
Well known vulnerability
A computer that has been compromised by a virus or Trojan horse that puts it under the remote control of an online
hijacker is called:
Honeypot
Zombie ( Missed)
Logic bomb
Proxy
Which of the following terms is used to describe a collection of intermediary compromised systems under control of
a hacker?
Honeynet
Botnet ( Missed)
Intranet
Malware
An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power in order to check all possible keys and
passwords until the correct one is found is known as a brute-force attack.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the password attacks listed below takes advantage of a predefined list of words?
Replay attack
Birthday attack
Dictionary attack ( Missed)
Brute-force attack
What type of security measure is in place when a client is denied access to the network due to an outdated antivirus
software?
2/5
NAS
DMZ
NAC ( Missed)
NAT
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the implementation of best security practices in a corporate environment?
User education ( Missed)

Strong authentication ( Missed)
Principle of least privilege ( Missed)
Patch/update management ( Missed)
Appropriate data destruction and disposal methods ( Missed)
Virtualization support
What is tailgating?
Acquiring unauthorized access to confidential data

Looking over someone's shoulder in order to get information
Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person ( Missed)
Manipulating a user into disclosing confidential information
Which of the following is an example of active eavesdropping?
Spoofing
Zero-day attack
Spear phishing
MITM ( Missed)
The term "Mantrap" refers to a physical security access control system used to prevent unauthorized users from
gaining access to restricted areas by following another person. An example mantrap could be a two-door entrance
point connected to a guard station wherein a person entering mantrap from the outside remains locked inside until
he/she provides authentication token required to unlock the inner door.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the security controls listed below is used to prevent tailgating?
Hardware locks
Mantraps ( Missed)
Video surveillance
EMI shielding
Which of the following provides physical security measure against laptop theft?
3/5
Cable locks ( Missed)
Geotracking
LoJack for Laptops
Which of the tools listed below allows for secure disposal of physical documents?
Shredder ( Missed)
Hard drive sanitation
Degaussing tool
Recycle Bin
A type of identification badge that can be held within a certain distance of the reader to authenticate the holder is
called:
ID badge
Smart card
Security token
RFID badge ( Missed)
Privacy filter (aka privacy screen) is a protective overlay placed on the computer screen that narrows the viewing
angle so data is only visible directly in front of the monitor and cannot be seen by others nearby. Privacy filter is one
of the countermeasures against shoulder surfing.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following prevention methods fall(s) into the category of physical security controls? (Select all that
apply)
Key fob ( Missed)

Door lock ( Missed)
Biometrics ( Missed)
Firewall
The two factors that are considered important for creating strong passwords are:
Password length ( Missed)

Minimum password age
Password history
Password complexity ( Missed)
Maximum password age
4/5
Authentication process can be based on different categories of authentication factors, including unique physical
traits of each individual such as fingerprints ("something you are"), physical tokens such as smart cards ("something
you have"), or user names and passwords ("something you know"). Additional factors might include geolocation
("somewhere you are"), or user-specific activity patterns, such as for example keyboard typing style ("something you
do"). Multifactor authentication systems require implementation of authentication factors from two or more different
categories.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following examples meets the requirement of multifactor authentication?
Password and biometric scan ( Missed)

Username and PIN
Smart card and identification badge
Iris and fingerprint scan
Your Final Report
Total marks 36
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following functionalities allows a DLP system to fulfil its role?
Motion detection
Environmental monitoring
Content inspection ( Missed)
Loop protection
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a security solution designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use
and transmission of confidential information outside of the corporate network?
DEP
RADIUS
DLP ( Missed)
PGP
One of the measures for securing networking devices includes the practice of disabling unused ports.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted
access to objects as well as what operations are allowed on a given object?
CRL
NAT
BCP
ACL ( Missed)
Digital security prevention methods include: (Select all that apply)
Antimalware ( Missed)
Email filtering ( Missed)
Directory permissions ( Missed)
Biometrics
Privacy filters
Antivirus ( Missed)
What is the best countermeasure against social engineering?
User authentication
Strong passwords
Changing default user names
1/5
A set of rules enforced in a network that restricts the use to which the network may be put is known as:
SLA
AUP ( Missed)
MOU
SOW
A security rule that prevents users from accessing information and resources that lie beyond the scope of their
responsibilities is known as principle of least privilege.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following default local groups has the least amount of access privileges in MS Windows?
Backup operator
Power user
Guest ( Missed)
Standard user
Which of the statements listed below are true? (Select 2 answers)
NTFS permissions apply only to local users

NTFS permissions can be applied only on a folder level
NTFS permissions apply to both network and local users ( Missed)
NTFS permissions can be applied to a folder or individual file ( Missed)
Which of the following statements describing share permissions in MS Windows are true? (Select 2 answers)
Apply only to network users ( Missed)

Can be set on a file level
Apply to both network and local users
Can be set on a folder level ( Missed)
In NTFS filesystem, the term "Permission propagation" refers to a situation where a folder or file created inside
another folder takes on (inherits) permissions applied to that folder (permissions applied to the so-called parent
folder propagate down to its child objects, i.e. folders and files created inside that folder).
True ( Missed)
False
In NTFS filesystem, a folder or file copied from one location to another on the same volume retains its original
permissions.
True ( Missed)
False
2/5
In NTFS filesystem, a folder or file moved from one location to another on the same volume inherits permissions of
its new parent folder.
True
False ( Missed)
ATTRIB is a command used to set and remove file attributes in Microsoft Windows operating systems. Available
options for this command include: read-only (R), archive (A), system (S), and hidden (H). With ATTRIB, the "+"
symbol sets an attribute for a file, the "-" sign removes the attribute. Which of the answers listed below refers to the
correct syntax for applying the read-only attribute to a file?
ATTRIB +R [drive:] [path] [filename] ( Missed)

ATTRIB [drive:] [path] [filename] /read-only
ATTRIB /R [drive:] [path] [filename]
ATTRIB [drive:] [path] [filename] +R
separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is known as:
SSO ( Missed)
WAP
TPM
OVAL
The "Run as administrator" option in MS Windows allows users with lower-level permissions to perform tasks
reserved for system administrators. This feature requires providing Administrator account credentials and
temporarily elevates the current user's privileges to perform a given task. It also simplifies common system tasks,
such as for example installation of new software, which would otherwise require logging out and switching to an
admin account.
True ( Missed)
False
LoJack
BitLocker ( Missed)
A Microsoft Windows feature specifically designed to enable encryption of removable drives is known as:
BitLocker
BitLocker To Go ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Windows built-in component that allows for encryption of individual
3/5
files?
Encrypting File System (EFS) ( Missed)

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Which of the following passwords is the most complex?
T$7C52WL4SU
GdL3tU8wxYz
@TxBL$nW@Xt
G$L3tU8wY@z ( Missed)
Which of the security settings in MS Windows determines the number of unique new passwords that have to be
associated with a user account before an old password can be reused?
Password history setting ( Missed)

Maximum password age setting
Account lockout threshold setting
Minimum password age setting
Which of the security policy settings in MS Windows prevents users from repeatedly changing their passwords to
bypass the password history policy setting and get back to their original/preferred password?
Minimum password age setting ( Missed)

Password complexity setting
Login time restrictions
Which of the security policy settings listed below prevents attackers using cracked passwords from gaining
permanent access to a Windows workstation?

Password complexity setting
Maximum password age setting ( Missed)
The importance of changing default user names and passwords can be illustrated on the example of certain network
devices (such as for example routers) which are often shipped with default and well-known admin credentials that
can be looked up on the web.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report
4/5
Total marks 30
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Screensaver password requirement falls into the category of security best practices as it allows to block access of
unauthorized persons to a user's workstation in situations where the user is forced to leave their desk for a short
period of time.
True ( Missed)
False
What kind of user permission restrictions can be set in BIOS? (Select all that apply)

Password-restricted access to the BIOS setup utility (Supervisor password) ( Missed)
Which type of password provides the highest level of permissions in BIOS?
root password
Supervisor password ( Missed)
Administrator password
Power User password
Which of the account management security measures listed below narrows down a user's computer access to
specified hours?
Principle of least privilege

Guest account
Failed logon attempts lockout
Login time restrictions ( Missed)
Which of the following account management options provides a countermeasure against brute-force attacks?

Password-protected screensaver
Failed logon attempts lockout ( Missed)
An MS Windows feature enabling automatic execution of code contained on a mounted drive is known as:
Plug and Play (PnP)

AutoRun ( Missed)
Universal Plug and Play (UPnP)
Zeroconf
1/5
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to Microsoft Windows OS feature(s) that should be disabled due to
potential security risks? (Select all that apply)
explorer.exe
Windows Aero
iexplore.exe
AutoRun ( Missed)
The process of OS hardening involves: (Select all that apply)
Disabling unnecessary services ( Missed)

Patch/update management process ( Missed)
Fixing configuration errors ( Missed)
Setting up a network-based firewall
A user interface element controlling access to a mobile device after the device is switched on is called:
Launcher
Screen lock ( Missed)
Privacy filter
Hardware lock
Which of the following answers lists screen lock types used for securing mobile devices?
Fingerprint lock
Face lock
Swipe lock
Passcode lock
Which of the answers listed below refers to a security countermeasure that allows to erase data on a lost or stolen
mobile device?
Remote lock
Degaussing
Low-level formatting
Remote wipe ( Missed)
A mobile device's built-in functionality enabling the usage of locator applications is called:
WPS
GSM
IMEI
GPS ( Missed)
2/5
The ability to use mobile apps from unofficial sites typically requires changing a mobile OS's security configuration
setting that enables downloading and installing apps from unknown sources.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refers to a policy that allows employees to use their own mobile devices on a
corporate network?
BSOD
BYOD ( Missed)
JBOD
BYOB
Which of the following methods provides the most effective way for permanent removal of data stored on a magnetic
drive?
Quick format
Overwriting data
Degaussing ( Missed)
Standard format
Which of the Windows utilities listed below is used for the purpose of hard drive low-level formatting?
CHKDSK
BOOTREC
FORMAT
DISKPART
None of the above ( Missed)
Disabling SSID broadcast:
Is one of the measures used in securing wireless networks

Makes a WLAN harder to discover ( Missed)
Blocks access to a WAP
Prevents wireless clients from accessing the network
Which of the following WAP configuration settings allows for adjusting the boundary range of a wireless signal?
Beacon frame
Power level controls ( Missed)
Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)
Which of the tools listed below would be of help in troubleshooting signal loss and low wireless network signal
coverage? (Select 2 answers)
3/5
Heat map ( Missed)
Logical network diagram
Protocol analyzer
WAP power level controls ( Missed)
Physical network diagram
A solution that simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to
easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network is known as:
WPA
WPS ( Missed)
WEP
WAP
Which of the following wireless technologies are not recommended and should not be used due to their known
vulnerabilities? (Select 2 answers)
WPS ( Missed)
WAP
WPA2
WAF
WEP ( Missed)
A network access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine
access to the network is called:
Hardware lock
Post-admission NAC
Rule-Based Access Control (RBAC)
MAC filter ( Missed)
An IP address assigned permanently to a computer by an Internet Service Provider (ISP) is known as:
Static IP address ( Missed)

Private IP address
Dynamic IP address
Public IP address
A server with a private IP address has been set up to handle requests from an outside (public) network. Which of the
solutions listed below would enable this function?
Port bonding
Port labeling
Port mirroring
4/5
An application software used to selectively block access to certain websites is an example of:
Captive portal
Media converter
Content filter ( Missed)
Proxy server
Your Final Report
Total marks 31
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
An MS Windows stop error is informally referred to as:
JBOD
BYOD
BSoD ( Missed)
DDOS
Which of the following solutions would be the easiest while troubleshooting Windows blue screen?
System restart ( Missed)

Safe mode
Driver rollback
Fixboot
Which of the OSs listed below uses a spinning wait cursor (aka spinning beach ball) to indicate that an application
entered unresponsive state?
Android
Linux
Mac OS ( Missed)
Windows
A type of software that manages the startup sequence of an operating system is known as:
OS kernel
Startup BIOS
Boot loader ( Missed)
System BIOS
Which of the hardware-related solutions listed below can be used in troubleshooting failed system boot process?
(Select 2 answers)
Safe mode
Drive cable/connector check ( Missed)
Hard drive replacement ( Missed)
Log analysis
Which of the following could be of help in troubleshooting the "Invalid boot disk" error message in MS Windows?
1/5
Safe mode
Removing floppy disk from the floppy disk drive ( Missed)
Startup Repair (Windows Vista/7/10) and Automatic Repair (Windows 8/8.1) is a Windows recovery tool (available
under different names in different releases of the Microsoft OS) used for automatic troubleshooting of problems that
prevent the operating system from starting normally.
True ( Missed)
False
What is the name of the boot loader software used in Windows Vista and later releases of the Microsoft OS?
GRUB
NTLDR
WINLOAD.EXE ( Missed)
LILO
Which key/key combination should be pressed during system boot in Windows XP/Vista/7 to get access to the
Startup Repair utility?
F1
Ctrl + Alt + Delete
F8 ( Missed)
Ctrl+ Shift + Esc
Shift + F8
Which of the actions listed below enables access to the Automatic Repair utility during next system boot in Windows
8/8.1? (Select best answer)
Pressing the F8 key during next system boot

Checking the Safe boot option on the Boot tab of the System Configuration (MSCONFIG) utility while in
Windows
Holding the Shift key and left-clicking on the power options button (Shut down/Restart) while in Windows (
Missed)
Pressing the F8 key while holding the Shift key during next system boot
Checking the Safe boot option on the Startup tab of the System Configuration (MSCONFIG) utility while in
Windows
A boot loader application used in Windows XP is called:
LILO
BOOTMGR
GRUB
NTLDR ( Missed)
2/5
Which of the following allows to force Windows into Safe mode during next system boot?
Pressing the F8 key during next system boot

Checking the Safe boot option on the Boot tab of the System Configuration (MSCONFIG) utility while in
Windows ( Missed)
Shift + left click on the power options button (Shut down/Restart) while in Windows
Pressing the F8 key while holding the Shift key during next system boot
Checking the Safe boot option on the Startup tab of the System Configuration (MSCONFIG) utility while in
Windows
Windows Error Recovery (Windows XP/Vista/7) and Recovery (Windows 8/8.1) are menu screens displayed during
next boot when Windows detects that the system didn't shut down properly (triggering this menu in Windows 8/8.1
requires additional prerequisite). Both menu screens provide access to utilities for troubleshooting persistent
problems as well as additional options ("Start Windows normally" in Windows Vista/7 and "Exit and continue to
Windows" in Windows 8/8.1) that allow to attempt launching the OS without taking up any troubleshooting steps.
True ( Missed)
False
An essential Windows XP startup file containing a list of installed OSs as well as information on the location of the
operating system files is called:
BOOT.INI ( Missed)
WINLOAD.EXE
BCD (Boot Configuration Data)
NTDETECT.COM
Automatic boot to Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) in Windows 8/8.1 requires the system to fail the boot
process three times.
True ( Missed)
False
BOOTREC.EXE is a WinRE tool (available in Windows Vista and later releases of the Microsoft OS) used for
troubleshooting: (Select 3 answers)
Problems with missing DLLs

Boot sector errors ( Missed)
Compatibility errors
Master Boot Record (MBR) errors ( Missed)
Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store errors ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of boot loader software used in Linux operating systems? (Select
all that apply)
GRUB ( Missed)
NTLDR
3/5
BOOTMGR
LILO ( Missed)
In Windows Vista and newer releases of the Microsoft operating system the BOOT.INI file is replaced by:
NTDETECT.COM
Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file ( Missed)
NTBOOTDD.SYS
WINLOAD.EXE
BOOTMGR (Windows Boot Manager)
Which of the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) utilities would be used for manual troubleshooting of system
startup issues?
Startup Repair
REGSVR32
Automatic Repair
Which of the files listed below are required to start Windows XP? (Select 3 answers)

NTLDR ( Missed)
NTDETECT.COM ( Missed)
WINLOAD.EXE
BOOT.INI ( Missed)
Startup files required to launch Windows Vista/7/8/8.1 include: (Select 3 answers)
BOOTMGR (Windows Boot Manager) ( Missed)

NTLDR
BCD (Boot Configuration Data) ( Missed)
BOOT.INI
NTDETECT.COM
Which of the following sequence of steps in Windows Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC) allows for reverting back
to the previously installed driver when a device fails after driver update?
Right-click on the device and click the Roll Back Driver button
Double-click the device type to view devices in that category -> Right-click on the device and click the Roll
Back Driver button
Right-click on the device and select Properties -> On the Driver tab, click the Driver Details button -> Click
the Roll Back Driver button
4/5
Double-click the device type to view devices in that category -> Right-click on the device and select
Properties -> On the Driver tab, click the Roll Back Driver button ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a collection of precompiled functions designed to be used by more than
one Microsoft Windows application simultaneously in order to save system resources?
DLL ( Missed)
ISO
EXE
INI
What is the name of a Windows tool that can be used for troubleshooting problems related to Dynamic-Link Libraries
(DLLs) and ActiveX controls?
DXDIAG
REGSVR32 ( Missed)
WINLOAD.EXE
REGEDT32
Common troubleshooting steps related to Windows services that fail to start include: (Select 2 answers)
Starting the service manually in Windows Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC)

Checking for warnings and errors in Windows Logs and Application and Services Logs log spaces in the
Event Viewer (EVENTVWR) ( Missed)
Starting the service manually in the Services applet (SERVICES.MSC) ( Missed)
Checking for warnings and errors in the Services applet (SERVICES.MSC)
Your Final Report
Total marks 36
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
If an application written for an earlier version of MS Windows doesn't run correctly the operating system can emulate
its own older version to allow a given program to work with newer hardware or software. The compatibility mode
settings in Windows can be changed manually by right-clicking the program icon and:
Choosing "Restore previous versions" option from the pop-up menu

Selecting "Run program using recommended compatibility settings" option from the pop-up menu
Clicking on the Properties menu item, and then applying the required settings on the Compatibility tab (
Missed)
Selecting "Run as administrator" option from the pop-up menu
Program Compatibility Troubleshooter is a Windows system utility used for automatic resolution of problems with
older applications failing to run on newer versions of MS Windows. Program Compatibility Troubleshooter can be
accessed via the Troubleshooting applet in Windows 7/8/8.1 Control Panel. Selecting the "Run programs made for
previous versions of Windows" option in the Troubleshooting applet launches a guided tool for fixing problems with
older programs installed on the current version of Windows.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following could cause slow performance of a hard drive? (Select 3 answers)
Disk striping
Disk mirroring
Disk thrashing ( Missed)
Disk duplexing
Disk Defragmenter is a software tool used for rearranging data on disks and drives in order to improve system
performance. Defragmentation results in faster read/write operations of the magnetic hard drive's read/write heads
as they can access the data sequentially without seeking data fragments in different areas of the disk
(defragmentation consolidates data into smallest contiguous regions).
True ( Missed)
False
What is the correct sequence of steps for launching the disk defragmenter utility in MS Windows? (Select 3
answers)
In Windows Vista/7: Open Windows Explorer by pressing the E key while holding the Windows Logo key ->
Click on the Computer menu item list on the left to display all drives -> Right-click on the drive and select
Properties from the pop-up window -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility available on the Tools tab (
Missed)
1/6
In Windows 8/8.1: Open Windows Explorer by pressing the E key while holding the Windows Logo key ->
Click on the Computer menu item list on the left to display all drives -> Right-click on the drive and select
Properties from the pop-up window -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility available on the Hardware tab
Press the R key while holding the Windows Logo key -> type in "cmd" (without quotation marks), and hit
Enter -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility by typing in DEFRAG with the appropriate command switch (
Missed)
In Windows Vista/7: Open File Explorer by pressing the E key while holding the Windows Logo key -> Click
on the This PC menu item list on the left to display all drives -> Right-click on the drive and select Properties
from the pop-up window -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility available on the Hardware tab
In Windows 8/8.1: Open File Explorer by pressing the E key while holding the Windows Logo key -> Click on
the This PC menu item list on the left to display all drives -> Right-click on the drive and select Properties from
the pop-up window -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility available on the Tools tab ( Missed)
Press the R key while holding the Windows Logo key -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility by typing in
"DEFRAG" (without quotation marks) and pressing Enter
Similarly to magnetic drives, Solid State-Drives (SSDs) require periodic defragmentation in order to improve system
performance.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following might be the cause of slow computer system performance? (Select all that apply)
Unpatched OS ( Missed)
Disk mirroring
Malware presence ( Missed)
OS power management options ( Missed)
Disk striping
Disk thrashing ( Missed)
Automatic booting into Safe mode on a Windows-based host might be caused by: (Select 2 answers)
Overheating
MSCONFIG settings ( Missed)
RAID failure
Malware presence
Corrupt device driver ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to troubleshooting solution(s) used when a Windows-based host does not
start in Normal mode, but only in Safe mode? (Select all that apply)

Change in boot order
Driver rollback ( Missed)
2/6
Troubleshooting system startup files
Malware removal ( Missed)
Startup Repair utility ( Missed)
Examples of MS Windows system utilities that allow to pinpoint corrupt device drivers include: (Select 2 answers)
Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC) ( Missed)

Event Viewer (EVENTVWR) ( Missed)
Computer Management (COMPMGMT.MSC)
Performance Monitor (PERFMON)
Task Manager (TASKMGR)
Which of the Control Panel applets in Windows 7/8/8.1 provides access to a system tool used for troubleshooting
mismatched file associations?
File Explorer Options

Default Programs ( Missed)
Sync Center
Programs and Features
Which of the answers listed below refer to possible causes of the "NTLDR is missing" error message displayed
during system boot? (Select 2 answers)
Kernel panic
Damaged hard drive
Corrupt NTLDR file ( Missed)
Improper shutdown
The system is trying to boot from a non-bootable drive ( Missed)
Which of the following solutions would be of help in troubleshooting the "NTLDR is missing" error message displayed
during system boot? (Select all that apply)
Startup Repair utility ( Missed)

Disconnecting any external drives ( Missed)
Adjusting the boot sequence in CMOS setup utility ( Missed)
System File Checker (SFC.EXE)
One of the fixes for the "NTLDR is missing" error message during system boot relies on replacing the corrupt
NTLDR file with the same file copied from another Windows host using the same operating system (Windows XP),
or restoring it from the Windows XP installation CD. Copying the NTLDR file manually requires access to the
command-line interface which can be found as one of the options available in the Advanced Boot Options menu
displayed after pressing the F8 key during system boot. After gaining access to the CLI, the NTLDR file can be
restored with the COPY command from an external storage device (e.g. USB flash drive) to the root folder (typically
C:\) of the drive containing the corrupt version of the file.
3/6
True ( Missed)
False
While trying to start their Windows machine, a user receives "Windows Boot Configuration Data file is missing
required information" error message. Which of the following BOOTREC options should be used by a technician for
manual CLI troubleshooting of this error?
BOOTREC /ScanOs
BOOTREC /RebuildBcd ( Missed)
BOOTREC /FixMbr
BOOTREC /FixBoot
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to possible cause(s) of the "Missing operating system" error message
displayed during system boot? (Select all that apply)
Damaged hard drive ( Missed)

BIOS does not detect the hard drive ( Missed)
Windows starts in VGA mode
System partition not set as active ( Missed)
Kernel panic
Corrupt Master Boot Record (MBR) ( Missed)
Which of the following actions would be of help in troubleshooting the "Missing operating system" error message
displayed during system boot?
Run Startup Repair utility

Use BOOTREC.EXE to fix Master Boot Record (MBR) errors
Verify that the drive is detected in BIOS
Use DISKPART utility to label the system partition as active
Which of the solutions/software tools listed below would be of use when troubleshooting a missing system GUI in
MS Windows? (Select all that apply)
Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC)

Safe mode video driver update ( Missed)
Control Panel Display applet
System File Checker (SFC.EXE) ( Missed)
VGA mode ( Missed)
The term "Live CD" typically refers to a compact disc (although other types of media such as DVD or USB can also
be used to offer similar functionality) with a fully operational bootable Linux operating system distribution (the term is
also used with reference to other OSs) which is run in the computer's memory thus eliminating the need for its
installation on the hard drive. Live CDs can be used as an OS installation media, but also provide a convenient way
for testing a given distro before installation as well as means for troubleshooting various OS-related problems.
4/6
True ( Missed)
False
"Kernel panic" is a term used to describe stop errors in: (Select all that apply)
Windows
Linux ( Missed)
Android
Mac OS ( Missed)
Which of the following locations would be the right source for finding information pertaining to a digital certificate
validity?
User Account Control (UAC) applet

Web browser padlock icon menu ( Missed)
Storage Spaces Control Panel applet
Windows Security Account Manager (SAM)
Which of the file-related symptoms might indicate that the system has been infected by malware?
Renamed system files

Missing files
File permission changes
Denied file access
One of the best practices for malware removal involves the process of isolation of files and applications suspected of
containing malware in order to prevent further execution and potential harm to the user's system. This process is
referred to as:
Quarantine ( Missed)
Content filtering
Protected mode
Blacklisting
One of the recommended ways for enhancing a mobile device's security includes employing a web-based service
(an app scanner) that allows users to check for known potential security/privacy risks related to a mobile application
before downloading/purchasing the app.
True ( Missed)
False
The term "Cell tower analyzer" refers to a software tool that can be used for obtaining data on coverage, location,
and signal strength of a Wi-Fi network.
True
False ( Missed)
5/6
Your Final Report
Total marks 47
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
6/6
Which of the following tools are used to provide protection against ESD? (Select all that apply)
Antistatic bag ( Missed)

Ground mat ( Missed)
Tech bench
Antistatic wrist strap ( Missed)
Examples of devices/device components regulated under special disposal procedures due to environmental/safety
hazards include: (Select all that apply)
PSUs
Batteries ( Missed)
CRTs ( Missed)
Toner cartridges ( Missed)
LCDs
Which of the following devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage? (Select all that
apply)
CRTs ( Missed)
Inverters ( Missed)
CPUs
A document describing procedures for safe handling, use, storage and disposal of potentially hazardous materials is
called:
AUP
MSTSC
MAU
MSDS ( Missed)
Which of the terms listed below refers to an environmental control system?
SCADA
HIPS
TEMPEST
HVAC ( Missed)
The term "Brownout" refers to what kind of situation?
1/5
Power spike
Electromagnetic interference
Temporary drop in voltage ( Missed)
Power outage
What does the term "Blackout" refer to?
Power outage ( Missed)

Power spike
Drop in voltage
A device designed to provide emergency power during an unexpected main power source outage is called:
UPS ( Missed)
PoE
SVC
PSU
Which of the following solutions add(s) redundancy in areas identified as single points of failure? (Select all that
apply)
Virtualization
RAID ( Missed)
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) ( Missed)
Backup generator ( Missed)
A device designed to protect electronic devices from large voltage fluctuations is known as:

Surge suppressor ( Missed)
Voltage regulator module (VRM)
Which of the following tools would be used to clean the inside of a laser printer? (Select all that apply)
Regular vacuum
Cleaning brush
In cases where users are found in violation of policies related to prohibited content or activity, the elements of first
response should include: (Select all that apply)
Consulting co-workers
Reporting through proper channels ( Missed)
2/5
Multi-factor authentication
Problem identification ( Missed)
Data/device preservation ( Missed)
In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as:
Proxy list
Order of volatility
Access log
Chain of custody ( Missed)
A type of control access technology providing protection against copyright infringements is called:
OEM
EULA
DRM ( Missed)
AUP
An agreement granting a user the right to use software application in a manner determined by the software vendor
is known as:
AUP
RMA
EULA ( Missed)
DRM
Which of the following acronyms refers to any type of information pertaining to an individual that can be used to
uniquely identify that person?
PIN
Biometrics
PII ( Missed)
PKI
Examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing with difficult customer include: (Select 2
answers)
Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem (
Missed)
Restating the issue to verify understanding ( Missed)
Adjusting to the technical user conversation style by using technical jargon
Asking close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "Yes" or "No"
Clarifying customer statements by interrupting them if necessary
Which of the following is an example of good communication skills when dealing with a customer?
3/5
Arguing with a technical user if necessary to educate them
Listening to the customer and avoiding interruptions until he or she has finished describing the problem (
Missed)
Relying on your own judgment and not restating/clarifying what the customer says
Which of the answers listed below refers to an example of appropriate handling of customer's confidential data in a
situation where troubleshooting requires user's password?
Ask user to type in the password themselves ( Missed)

Ask user for password and their consent to use it
Break the password
Ask user for password and provide them with help in setting up new password after the problem is fixed
Which of the following actions should be the first step in the troubleshooting process?
Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem

Conducting external or internal research based on problem symptoms
Identifying the problem ( Missed)
Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem
Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem is a troubleshooting step that apart from conducting research
based on symptoms may also involve asking for assistance of a more experienced tech.
True
False ( Missed)
Once the theory of probable cause of the problem has been established, the next troubleshooting step should
involve:
Verifying full system functionality

Testing the theory to determine the problem cause ( Missed)
Implementing the solution
Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the troubleshooting methodology
process is to:
Conduct research based on symptoms

Test the theory to determine problem cause
Implement the solution ( Missed)
Establish a theory of probable cause of the problem
According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable
preventative measures should be performed:
After documenting findings, actions and outcomes
4/5
As the first step of the troubleshooting process
After implementing the solution ( Missed)
As the last step of the troubleshooting process
The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes. This step
comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventive measures.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report
Total marks 38
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Windows Vista and Windows 7 offer a security feature which limits privileges of software applications and access to
administrative tasks. When a program makes a change that requires administrator-level permission or a user
attempts to modify system settings that require administrative access, it triggers an on-screen prompt requiring an
administrator password to proceed. This functionality is called:
User Account Control (UAC) ( Missed)

Windows Firewall
Windows Defender real-time protection
Which of the following are the system memory requirements for Microsoft Windows 7?
64 MB of RAM (128 MB is recommended)

512 MB RAM
768 MB RAM
1 GB RAM (32-bit) or 2 GB RAM (64-bit) ( Missed)
Windows Aero: (Select 3 answers)
Changes the way in which windows are displayed by adding translucent window borders ( Missed)
Is a set of user interface enhancements available in premium editions of Windows Vista and Windows 7 (
Missed)
Was introduced in Windows XP
Is a set of user interface enhancements available in all editions of Windows Vista and Windows 7
Offers live preview of an entire open window after hovering over a taskbar icon (taskbar preview of open
windows) ( Missed)
LoJack
BitLocker ( Missed)
Previous versions are copies of files and folders that Windows automatically saves as part of a restore point.
Previous versions are sometimes referred to:
Spare copies
Shadow copies ( Missed)
Primary copies
Mirror copies
1/5
Management of User Account Control settings

Allowing and blocking applications through Windows Firewall
Protection against spyware and other potentially unwanted software ( Missed)
Reviewing computer's status and resolving issues
Which of the following CPU specifications complies with system requirements for Microsoft Windows 7?
Pentium 233 MHz processor or faster (300 MHz is recommended)

2 GHz or faster microprocessor
1 GHz or faster 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) processor ( Missed)
800 MHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) processor
Which Microsoft Windows technology offers the capability to take advantage of unused space on a USB flash drive
or flash memory card to help improve PC performance?
Device Manager
ReadyBoost ( Missed)
BitLocker To Go Reader
With the release of Windows ME, Microsoft added a new built-in utility to their desktop operating systems which
allows to roll back system files and settings to an earlier point in time without affecting personal files. It provides a
yet another way to undo system changes to the computer when an installation of a new program or device driver
causes a problem and uninstalling doesn't fix the problem. The utility's interface contains a list allowing the user to
bring back the system to the state it was in before the selected event. Items on that list are called:
Backup files
Restore points ( Missed)
System logs
Roll-back points
Windows 7 includes a collection of mini utility programs used to display information about date, time, weather, or
CPU usage in a form of standalone widgets that can be moved and arranged on the Windows desktop. Desktop
Gadgets in Windows 7 (also known as Windows Sidebar in Vista) can be configured in:
Programs and Features menu in Control Panel

Appearance and Personalization menu in Control Panel ( Missed)
Ease of Access menu in Control Panel
Clock, Language, and Region menu in Control Panel
If an application written for an earlier version of Windows doesn't run correctly the operating system can emulate its
own older version to allow a given program to work with newer hardware or software. The compatibility mode
settings in Windows can be changed by:
2/5
Right-clicking the program icon and selecting "Run program using recommended compatibility settings"
option from the pop-up menu
Right-clicking the program icon, clicking Properties, and then applying the required settings on the
Compatibility tab ( Missed)
Right-clicking the program icon and selecting "Run as administrator" option from the pop-up menu
Right-clicking the program icon and choosing "Restore previous versions" option from the menu
Windows Vista and Windows 7 facilitate moving user accounts and settings, application configuration data, and
personal files from one computer to another with the use of:

In order to work effectively, one of the applications listed below requires specific types of files containing up-to-date
definitions of potential software threats. Which of the following software included in Windows requires such files?
Event Viewer
Windows Firewall
Windows Defender ( Missed)
Windows Experience Index
Which of the following editions of Microsoft Windows OS do(es) not include Windows Aero desktop experience?
Windows 7 Home Basic ( Missed)

Windows 7 Starter ( Missed)
Windows Vista Home Basic ( Missed)
recover such files.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following are the hard disk space system requirements for Windows 7?
20 GB hard disk that has 10 GB of free hard disk space

40 GB hard disk that has 10 GB of free hard disk space
16 GB available hard disk space (32-bit) or 20 GB (64-bit) ( Missed)
1.5 GB of available space on the hard disk
Windows XP utility for transferring files and settings from an old computer to a new computer is called:
3/5
System Restore
Program Compatibility troubleshooter
One of the few advantages of the older 32-bit version of Windows is that it handles large amounts of random access
memory (RAM) more effectively than a 64-bit system.
True
False ( Missed)
An OS installation that doesn't preserve programs, files, or settings is sometimes referred to as:
Upgrade
Image deployment
Clean install ( Missed)
compatibility with Windows 7. What is the name of this utility?

Upgrade Assistant
Which of the following terms refers to an environment that allows to boot a PC through a network interface?
PoE
Multiboot
PXE ( Missed)
Fixboot
When a program installed in Windows stops responding or encounters an error, logs describing error can be
examined with the use of:
Event Viewer ( Missed)

System menu in Control Panel
Task Manager
System Information utility (MSINFO32)
Command Prompt (cmd.exe) is a feature of Microsoft Windows operating systems that allows for performing tasks
on the PC without the use of Windows graphical interface. Command Prompt can be invoked through which
sequence of steps? (Select all that apply / Fragments of text all in upper case are the actual commands to type in)
4/5
In Control Panel, change one of the settings in the Display menu to Console
Windows Logo key + L, type in CMD.EXE, Enter
Windows Logo key + R, type in CMD, Enter ( Missed)
Ctrl+Shift+Esc to invoke Task Manager, click New Task... button on the Applications tab in Task Manager,
type in CMD, Enter ( Missed)
BitLocker Drive Encryption is available in: (Select 2 answers)
Windows Vista Starter

Windows 7 Enterprise ( Missed)
Windows 7 Ultimate ( Missed)
Which of the following commands in Windows is used to display help information related to a specific command-line
utility?
[command] /? ( Missed)
$ [command] --help
$ man [command]
$ info [command]
Your Final Report
Total marks 31
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
If a computer's hard disk has adequate free disk space, it is possible to install more than one operating system and
then choose which OS to use during each startup. This type of configuration setup is often referred to as:
Single sign-on
Multi-mode
Multiboot ( Missed)
Clean install
Migrating from an earlier Microsoft operating system version to Windows 7 through an Upgrade install: (Select 2
answers)
Installs new version of Windows alongside the current operating system

Doesn't preserve personal files, settings, and programs
Replaces the current version of Windows with Windows 7 ( Missed)
Keeps personal files, settings, and programs in place on the computer ( Missed)
Which of the following statements describing different methods for organizing Windows-based computers in
networks are true? (Select 3 answers)
Windows-based computers on home networks must be part of a homegroup

Windows-based computers on a network must be part of a workgroup or a domain ( Missed)
Windows-based computers on workplace networks are usually part of a domain ( Missed)
Windows-based computers on workplace networks are usually part of a workgroup
Windows-based computers on home networks are usually part of a workgroup ( Missed)
Windows-based computers on home networks are usually part of a domain
Which of the power-saving states in Windows uses the least amount of power?
Sleep
Standby
High performance
Hibernation ( Missed)
What is the name of a Windows Command Prompt command that can be used to shut down, restart, log off, or
hibernate the computer?
EXIT
TASKKILL
SHUTDOWN ( Missed)
PROMPT
Which of the following terms describes a hard disk partition that can contain only one logical drive?
1/5
Logical
Extended
Primary ( Missed)
Locked
By creating volumes that span multiple disks (spanned and striped volumes), dynamic disks in Windows provide the
capability for software implementations of RAID.
True ( Missed)
False
Quick format is a disk formatting option in MS Windows that apart from deleting the file system structure also
checks the drive for bad sectors.
True
False ( Missed)
What is the name of a Windows network diagnostic tool for displaying the path and measuring transit delays of
packets across an Internet Protocol (IP) network?
TRACEROUTE
NETSTAT
IPCONFIG
TRACERT ( Missed)
and replicating the drive to a new computer or to another drive on the same computer in case of a hard drive failure?
Repair installation
Incremental backup
Differential backup
Which of the following terms refers to a Windows command-line network administration utility used to test the
communication with another computer on an Internet Protocol (IP) network?
PING ( Missed)
IPCONFIG
MSINFO32
IFCONFIG
DXDIAG
Microsoft's New Technology File System (NTFS) provides several improvements over earlier File Allocation Table
(FAT) file systems. These improvements include: (Select all that apply)
Encrypting File System (EFS) which allows for encryption of any file or folder on an NTFS volume ( Missed)
Providing the capability to set permissions on a file and folder level ( Missed)
2/5
Extending the limit for maximum volume size to 2TB (terabytes)
Extending the maximum file size limit for a single file to 4GB (gigabytes)
File compression ( Missed)
Disk quotas which allow the administrator to set a threshold of disk space that users may use and also to
keep track of how much disk space each user is using ( Missed)
A recovery disc is a general term for removable media commonly shipped with most new computers to allow the
user to reformat the hard drive and restore the operating system to the original factory condition as configured by an
True ( Missed)
False
The following command-line utility in Windows can be used to display information about computer's network
configuration settings (including its IP address, subnet mask, DNS server address, and default gateway).
TRACERT
PING
IFCONFIG
NETSTAT
IPCONFIG ( Missed)
Which of the following commands in Windows Command Prompt can be used to display help information related to
a specific command-line utility? (Select 2 answers)
info [command]
[command] /help
$ man [command]
help [command] ( Missed)
System Configuration is a Windows tool that can help in finding and isolating problems that might prevent Windows
from starting correctly by providing the capability to choose which common services and programs should be run
during startup. Which of the following commands is used to launch System Configuration from the Command
Prompt?
TASKMGR
MSINFO32
APPWIZ.CPL
WSCUI.CPL
MSCONFIG ( Missed)
To create a system image of a Windows drive, the drive must be formatted to use:
3/5
FAT32 file system
CDFS file system
FAT file system
NTFS file system ( Missed)
The shortcut icon to run Windows Memory Diagnostic tool can be found in:
System menu
Hardware and Sound menu in Control Panel
Administrative Tools menu in Control Panel ( Missed)
Performance Information and Tools menu
Which of the following commands can be used to open Windows Explorer from the Command Prompt?
EXPLORER ( Missed)
IEXPLORE.EXE
SERVICES.MSC
REGEDIT
Both upgrade and full editions of Windows 7 include the same features and both can be used to migrate an older
Microsoft OS to Windows 7, however upgrading an earlier operating system than Windows XP (for example,
Windows 95 or Windows 2000) requires full edition of Windows 7 and a custom (clean) installation.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following Windows Command Prompt commands are used to create a directory or subdirectory?
(Select 2 answers)
CHDIR
CD
MKDIR ( Missed)
DIR
RD
MD ( Missed)
In Windows 7, the Remote Desktop Connection can be launched from the Start menu search box, from the Run
menu dialog box, or from a command line. Which of the following commands is used to start Remote Desktop
Connection from the Command Prompt?
MMC
EXPLORER
MSTSC ( Missed)
NSLOOKUP
SFC
4/5
In order to make sure that a hard disk has no errors, Windows operating systems offer a utility tool that can be used
to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and to replace incorrect versions with correct Microsoft
versions. Which of the following Command Prompt commands is used to launch this tool and make it repair
corrupted files?
SFC /SCAN+VERIFY
SFC /VERIFYONLY
DISKPART /CLEAN
SFC /SCANNOW ( Missed)
NBTSTAT
A collection of computers on a Windows network where servers are used to control the security and permissions for
all computers is called:
Workgroup
Homegroup
Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
Domain ( Missed)
Which of the following Windows command-line utilities allow for copying entire directory structures with
subdirectories and files? (Select all that apply)
COPY
MKDIR
XCOPY ( Missed)
ROBOCOPY ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 34
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the menus in Windows 7 Control Panel provides the quickest access to screen resolution settings?

Display ( Missed)
Personalization
System
Which of the following is an example of a biometric authentication? (Select all that apply)
Fingerprint scan ( Missed)

User name
Retinal scan ( Missed)
Password
Smart card
The way in which files and folders function and how items are displayed in Windows 7 can be changed by:
Using Administrative Tools menu in Control Panel

Right-clicking on any folder or file icon and setting the required options in the Properties menu
Setting the required options in the Personalization menu
Using Folder Options menu in Control Panel ( Missed)
The built-in antispyware software included with Windows is called:
AVG
Windows Firewall
Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool
Gaining unauthorized access to a restricted area by following someone through the door they just unlocked is
referred to as:
Shoulder surfing
Phishing
Mantrap
Virus definition database files contain all the known viruses and countermeasures against them that can be applied
by a particular antivirus application. In order to be effective, an AV program needs up-to-date versions of these files
which can be obtained:
Through AV software updates ( Missed)
1/5
Through Windows updates
From technical support
As an additional, paid option
Which of the following terms refers to a technology that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on
the same hardware?
Hyperthreading
Multi core
Combo drive
If a network adapter's "Speed & Duplex" property is set to Half Duplex, it means that communication on the network
will be taking place:

In two directions simultaneously
In two directions at half the speed
Which of the following Windows tools allow(s) for migrating user data and user information to a new computer?

CHKDSK
USMT ( Missed)
MBSA
Allowing a program through a firewall is known as creating:
Static route
Tunnel
Exception ( Missed)
Event
Which of the following Windows Command Prompt commands are used for creating a new directory or
subdirectory? (Select 2 answers)
RD
MD ( Missed)
COPY
MKDIR ( Missed)
CD
2/5
Many of the utilities available in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel are implemented as the
so-called Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-ins. The most prominent MMC component in this menu
(which contains a collection of other MMC snap-ins such as Device Manager, Disk Management, and Event Viewer)
is called:
Task Manager
Performance Monitor
System Configuration is a Windows utility used for identifying problems that might prevent Windows from starting
correctly. It can be launched from the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel, but also from the
Windows Command Prompt. Which of the following commands is used to start System Configuration from Windows
command line?
MSCONFIG ( Missed)
COMPMGMT.MSC
TASKMGR.EXE
MSINFO32
CONTROL.EXE
Which of the following Windows Command Prompt commands is used to display all active TCP / IP connections and
listening ports?
NSLOOKUP
NET VIEW
TRACERT
NETSTAT -R
NETSTAT -A ( Missed)
A type of identification badge that can be held within a certain distance of the reader to authenticate the holder is
called:
Biometric device
Private key
Ethernet card
Which of the following Control Panel menus in Windows 7 offers an option to create a system repair disc?

Backup and Restore ( Missed)
System Restore
The Advanced Boot Options screen allows for starting Windows in advanced troubleshooting modes. The Advanced
3/5
Boot Options menu can be accessed by turning on the PC and pressing a function key before Windows starts.
Which of the following keys provides access to this menu?
F1
Del
F8 ( Missed)
Esc
The Recovery Console available in earlier versions of Windows has been removed in Windows Vista / 7 and
replaced by several tools located in the System Recovery Options menu. The System Recovery Options menu can
be accessed through:
Advanced Boot Options screen during startup ( Missed)

System Configuration console in the Administrative Tools menu
Computer Management console in the Administrative Tools menu
Backup and Restore menu in Windows Control Panel
Which of the following options of BOOTREC.EXE can be used to write a new Windows 7 or Windows Vista-
compatible master boot record to the system partition?
/ScanOs
/FixMbr ( Missed)
/FixBoot
/RebuildBcd
Which of the following Windows Command Prompt commands are used to delete a directory? (Select all that apply)
XCOPY
CHDIR
RMDIR ( Missed)
ROBOCOPY
CD
RD ( Missed)
If a device in Windows fails after driver update, the driver can be restored to the previously installed version in:
Device Manager ( Missed)

Windows Update menu
Programs and Features menu
Task Manager
Which of the following locations can provide access to the System Recovery Options menu? (Select all that apply)
Hard disk (if a computer has preinstalled recovery options) ( Missed)

Windows Control Panel
Windows installation disc ( Missed)
4/5
Computer Management console
Custom system repair disc ( Missed)
Windows Task Scheduler is a component of Microsoft Windows that provides the ability to schedule the launch of
programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals. Which of the following locations contains
the application icon shortcut which can be used to launch the Task Scheduler MMC snap-in?
Personalization menu in Windows Control Panel

Programs and Features menu in Windows Control Panel
Windows Command Prompt
Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel ( Missed)
Advanced details (including real-time reports) on how a computer running Windows OS is using system resources
such as random access memory (RAM) and the central processing unit (CPU) can be viewed: (Select all that apply)
In Windows Task Scheduler

On the General tab in System Configuration menu
In Windows Resource Monitor system tool ( Missed)
On the Performance tab in Task Manager ( Missed)
On the Performance tab in Device Manager

Tailgating
Authentication
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following Command Prompt commands launches the Remote Desktop Connection utility in Windows?
MSTSC ( Missed)
MMC
SERVICES.MSC
EXPLORER
In Microsoft Windows OSs, system configuration information is stored centrally in a hierarchical database called:

COMPMGMT.MSC
MSCONFIG
Registry ( Missed)
Which item in Windows Control Panel contains an option that allows to display hidden files, folders, and drives?
Folder Options ( Missed)

System
Computer Management
In computer security, the practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating and / or deceiving people is
called:
Bluejacking
White box testing
Hacking
Which of the following terms refers to a collection of Microsoft Windows technologies used by many of the
multimedia applications for handling display, sound, and input related tasks?
Lynx
DirectX ( Missed)
DXDIAG
OpenGL
i.LINK
After moving a dynamic disk to the local computer from another computer its status in Windows Disk Management
utility is set to:
Foreign ( Missed)
1/5
drive?
Quick format
Overwriting data
Low-level format
A standalone malicious computer program that replicates itself over a computer network is commonly referred to as:
Adware
Worm ( Missed)
Spyware
Spam
Trojan
Which of the following wireless encryption standards provides the lowest level of security?
WEP ( Missed)
WPA
WPA2
WAP
Unwanted programs designed specifically to damage or disrupt the operation of a computer system are commonly
referred to as:
Adware
Malware ( Missed)
Spyware
Grayware
Which of the following default local groups has the least amount of access privileges in Windows?
Administrators
Backup Operators
Power Users
Guests ( Missed)
Which of the following prevention methods fall into the category of digital security? (Select all that apply)
Retinal scanner
Antivirus ( Missed)
1/5
Privacy filter
Firewall ( Missed)
RFID badge
Antispyware ( Missed)
responsibilities is called:
Clean desk policy

Fair access policy
Privacy policy
A network security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to
determine access to the network is commonly referred to as:
MAC filtering ( Missed)

Network Address Translation (NAT)
Static IP addressing
Which of the following is an example of an APIPA address?
127.0.0.1
192.168.0.3
169.254.10.20 ( Missed)
65.55.57.27
Which of the following prevention methods fall into the category of physical security controls? (Select all that apply)
Firewall
Key fob ( Missed)
Door locks ( Missed)
Antivrus
Directory permissions
A set of physical characteristics of the human body that can be used for identification and access control purposes is
generally referred to as:
Personally Identifiable Information (PII)
Physical token
AAA framework
Which of the following provides the best defense against social engineering attacks?
2/5
Implicit deny policy
Strong passwords
Phishing ( Missed)
Permission sharing
Zero-day exploit
Unathorized access
An antivirus software can be kept up to date through virus signature updates.
True ( Missed)
False
An error screen displayed in MS Windows after crash is commonly referred to as:
BSoD ( Missed)
BNC
JBOD
BYOD
Software that performs unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program is commonly
referred to as:
Adware
Spyware
Backdoor
Which of the following technologies allows one core on the microprocessor to appear as multiple cores to the
operating system?
QPI
HTT ( Missed)
HyperTransport
CrossFireX
An MS Windows account that allows users to have temporary access to a computer without the capability to install
software or hardware, change settings, or create a user password is called:

3/5
Temporary account
Standard account
Managed user account
In computer security, a malicious software designed to hide the existence of certain processes or programs from
normal methods of detection and enable continued unathorized access to a computer is known as:
Backdoor
Hypervisor
Rootkit ( Missed)
Spyware
DNS
DHCP ( Missed)
APIPA
SNMP
Which of the following examples falls into the category of biometric authentication?
Password
Retinal scan ( Missed)
Smart card
User name
Malicious computer programs collecting information about users without their knowledge or consent are commonly
referred to as: (Select best answer)
Malware
Grayware
Adware
Spyware ( Missed)
Which of the following terms refer(s) to a method for securing mobile devices that allows for removing data stored on
a lost or stolen device? (Select all that apply)
Passcode lock ( Missed)

Remote wipe ( Missed)
Hardware lock
Failed login attempts restriction ( Missed)
Degaussing
4/5
Phishing ( Missed)
Backdoor access
Shoulder surfing
Which of the following security measures can be applied to a wired SOHO network? (Select all that apply)
Disabling unused ports ( Missed)

Disabling SSID broadcast
Changing SSID
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Online
Missing
Basic
In Windows XP / Vista / 7, cookie management settings can be accessed through:
Command Prompt interface

Programs and Features applet in Control Panel
Internet Options applet in Control Panel ( Missed)
Administrative Tools folder
Which of the following Windows Command Prompt commands launches the Registry Editor?
MSTSC
REGEDIT ( Missed)
MMC
MSCONFIG
VLAN
WWAN ( Missed)
VPN
WLAN
In computer networks, a computer system or an application that acts as an intermediary between another computer
and the Internet is commonly referred to as a:
Bridge
Active hub
Web server
Proxy ( Missed)
A system that uses public network (such as Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections
between remote locations is called:
VLAN
Proxy
VPN ( Missed)
TELNET
Which of the following locations in Windows Control Panel provides access to proxy settings?
System Configuration (MSCONFIG) in Administrative Tools

Connections tab in Internet Options (LAN Settings) ( Missed)
2/5
Security tab in Internet Options (Custom level...)
Privacy tab in Internet Options (Advanced)
Since the release of Service Pack 2 for Windows XP, Microsoft operating systems (including Windows Vista and
Windows 7) offer a Control Panel item providing users with the ability to review the status of security and (starting
from Windows 7) system maintenance settings. The applet interface lists important messages about settings that
require user attention and informs the user about recommended actions via a pop-up notification balloon in the
taskbar area. In Windows 7, this Control Panel item is called:

Security Center
A solution that allows someone to turn on a network computer remotely by sending a special data packet (known as
Magic Packet) is known as:
Jumbo frame
Backdoor access
Wake-on-LAN ( Missed)
Tailgating
Which of the following Windows diagnostic tools allows for detecting problems with display, sound, and input
settings?
MSCONFIG
DirectX
DXDIAG ( Missed)
MSINFO32
Task Scheduler is a Windows MMC snap-in for setting up automated tasks that perform actions at a specific time or
when a certain event occurs. Which of the following commands can be used to launch this utility in Windows
Command Prompt?
TASKMGR.EXE
TASKSCHD.MSC ( Missed)
WSCUI.CPL
COMPMGMT.MSC
What is the name of a new improved functionality introduced in Windows 7 that allows for managing different types
of files in a structure similar to Windows folder?
Cluster
Partition
Library ( Missed)
Media Center
3/5
Alongside the WorkGroup system used by previous versions, Windows 7 adds a new ad hoc home networking
system known as:
User State Migration Tool (USMT)

Single Sign-On
Directory service
HomeGroup ( Missed)
ATTRIB is a command used to set and remove file attributes. Available options include read-only (R), archive (A),
system (S), and hidden (H). With ATTRIB, the + symbol sets an attribute for a file, - sign removes the attribute.
Which of the following answers contains the correct syntax for setting the read-only attribute to a file?
ATTRIB +R [drive:] [path] [filename] ( Missed)

ATTRIB /R [drive:] [path] [filename]
ATTRIB [drive:] [path] [filename] +R
ATTRIB [drive:] [path] [filename] /read-only
Which of the following Windows Command Prompt commands launches a utility for managing system partitions?
CONTROL.EXE
WUAPP.EXE
COMPMGMT.MSC
Which of the following statements describing features of Windows HomeGroup are true? (Select all that apply)
Communication between HomeGroup computers is encrypted with a pre-shared password ( Missed)

Communication between HomeGroup computers is unencrypted
User passwords for accessing HomeGroup are stored centrally on a Domain Controller
Computers running Microsoft operating system earlier than Windows 7 cannot participate in HomeGroup (
Missed)
Computers running Windows XP and Windows Vista can participate in HomeGroup
What is the function of archive bit in Windows?
Search indexing
Creating an extra copy of a file
Converting a dynamic disk back to a basic disk in Windows: (Select all that apply)
Destroys all data on the disk ( Missed)

Can be performed by members of the Backup Operators group ( Missed)
Doesn't have any effect on the stored data
4/5
Can be performed by members of the Administrator group ( Missed)
Which of the following Windows Control Panel items contains an option to create a password reset disk?
System Restore
Parental Controls
User Accounts ( Missed)
DHCP ( Missed)
SNMP
ICMP
DNS
Your Final Report
Total marks 28
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following acronyms refers to a file system designed for optical media?
CDFS ( Missed)
FAT32
NTFS
CD-RW
In Windows Command Prompt, the TASKLIST command:
Starts Windows Task Scheduler

Displays a list of currently running processes ( Missed)
Displays active TCP connections
Checks a disk and displays a status report
Which of the following answers lists the correct sequence of steps required to close a non-responsive application in
Windows Task Manager?
Click the Applications tab, click the program that isn't responding, and choose End Selected from the Task
Manager Options menu
Click the Applications tab, click the program that isn't responding, and then click End Task ( Missed)
Click the Performance tab, click the program that isn't responding, and then click End Task
Click the Applications tab, right-click the program that isn't responding, and choose Bring To Front option
from the pop-up menu
A hidden file (or files) on the hard disk that Windows uses to hold parts of programs and data files that cannot be
stored in RAM due to the insufficient memory space is called: (Select all that apply)
Swap file ( Missed)

Paging file ( Missed)
Signature fle
Archive file
The recommended ways to solve or prevent low memory problems in Windows include: (Select 3 answers)
Running fewer programs at one time ( Missed)

Disabling ReadyBoost on a USB flash drive
Decreasing the paging file (virtual memory) size
Installing more RAM ( Missed)
Increasing the paging file (virtual memory) size ( Missed)
In Windows, a computer program that operates in the background and provides support to other programs is called:
1/5
Server
Firmware
Daemon
Service ( Missed)
Startup configuration modes in Windows allow an administrator to choose which services and drivers should be run
when the computer starts up, which in turn helps in identifying problems that might prevent the OS from starting
correctly.
True ( Missed)
False
Which tab of the MSCONFIG utility in Windows lists choices for startup configuration modes?
Services
Boot
General ( Missed)
Startup
Which tab of the System Configuration utility in Windows lists applications that run when the computer starts up?
Applications
Processes
Boot
Startup ( Missed)
In Windows, changing a basic disk to dynamic allows for creating volumes that span multiple drives.
True ( Missed)
False
A command-line utility that provides disk partitioning functions in Windows 7 is called:
DISKPART ( Missed)
MSTSC
REGEDIT
FDISK
Which of the following Control Panel applets are unique to Windows 7? (Select 3 answers)
Problem Reports and Solutions

Troubleshooting ( Missed)
HomeGroup ( Missed)
Pen and Input Settings
Tablet PC Devices
2/5
Which of the following answers refer to Windows dynamic volumes consisting of disk space on more than one
physical disk? (Select 2 answers)
Striped ( Missed)
Basic
Simple
Spanned ( Missed)
System
In computer networking, a solution that allows to prioritize certain types of network traffic is known as:

Quality of Serive (QoS) ( Missed)
Which of the following DEFRAG parameters allows for locating and consolidating fragmented files on all volumes?
DEFRAG /H
DEFRAG /A
DEFRAG /C ( Missed)
DEFRAG /E
Which of the following Control Panel applets are unique to Windows Vista? (Select 3 answers)
Troubleshooting
Problem Reports and Solutions ( Missed)
Pen and Input Settings ( Missed)
Action Center
Tablet PC Devices ( Missed)
HomeGroup
According to the troubleshooting theory, the last step of the troubleshooting process should include verification of full
system functionality and implementation of preventive measures.
True
False ( Missed)
A technology implemented in modern tablets and smartphones providing an alternative to traditional input devices
such as mice and keyboards is called:
Windows Aero
KVM switch
Multitouch ( Missed)
Graphical User Interface (GUI)
3/5
A database in Windows containing detailed information about system hardware, installed programs and settings,
and profiles of each of the user accounts is called:
BIOS
SAM
Hive
Registry ( Missed)
Protected operating system files required to start and run Windows (files labeled as System and Hidden) are by
default not visible in Windows Explorer.
True ( Missed)
False
Mobile apps for iOS are available for purchase and download through which of the following online marketplaces?
Amazon Appstore
App Store ( Missed)
Google Play
Which of the following operating systems is an open-source application?
Android ( Missed)
iOS
Windows 7
Windows Phone
Protected operating system files can be displayed in Windows Explorer after selecting "Show hidden files, folders,
and drives" setting in Folder Options menu.
True
False ( Missed)
Android mobile apps are available for purchase and download through which of the following online marketplaces?
App Store
Android Market ( Missed)
Windows Store
Which of the following Command Prompt commands in Windows launch Registry Editor? (Select 2 answers)
REGEDT32 ( Missed)
DISKPART
BOOTREC
REGEDIT32
4/5
REGEDIT ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 34
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Personal Area Network (PAN) over Bluetooth is known as:
Extranet
Piconet ( Missed)
Intranet
Ethernet
According to the troubleshooting theory, identifying the problem by questioning the user about user changes to the
computer should be:
Preceded by documenting findings, actions and outcomes

Carried out after establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem
Preceeded by establishing a theory of probable cause (questioning the obvious)
The first step of the troubleshooting process ( Missed)
Which of the following tools would be the most suitable for diagnosing problems with a NIC port?
POST card
ESD strap
Screwdriver
A tiny spot on an LCD monitor display that permanently remains black when it should be activated and displaying
color is commonly referred to as dead pixel.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following connection types is the slowest?
Dial-Up ( Missed)
STP
DSL
ADSL
A circuit board or part that can be quickly and easily removed and replaced by the user or by a technician without
having to send the entire product or system to a repair facility is called:
RMA
EMI
FRU ( Missed)
OEM
1/5
Which of the following devices offers the least amount of options when it comes to hardware upgrades that can be
performed by the device user?
Laptop
Workstation
Desktop
Tablet ( Missed)
Windows Phone, iOS, and Android are all examples of closed-source operating systems.
True
False ( Missed)
The process of establishing connection between Bluetooth devices (for example between a Bluetooth enabled
headset and a Bluetooth enabled phone) is commonly referred to as:
Linking
Three-way handshake
Crosstalk
Pairing ( Missed)
VDSL
ADSL ( Missed)
UDSL
SDSL
Which type of cabling provides protection against EMI? (Select all that apply)
STP ( Missed)
UTP
Coaxial ( Missed)
Mantraps are preventative measures against:
Phishing
Malware
Shoulder surfing
Which of the following terms refers to communication that takes place in two directions simultaneously?
Half duplex
Simplex
2/5
Broadcast
Which of the following storage media types cannot be sanitized by degaussing? (Select all that apply)
USB flash drive ( Missed)

Magnetic hard drive
Tape cartridge
Floppy disk
Solid State Drive (SSD) ( Missed)
Which of the following tools are used for testing power supply voltage output? (Select 2 answers)
Tone probe
Torx screwdriver
Power supply tester ( Missed)
Loopback plug
POST card:
Helps in troubleshooting computer startup problems ( Missed)

Terminates the SCSI chain
Allows for testing connector pins on the NIC port
Is used in biometric authentication
Which of the following tools would be used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle?
Crimper
Punchdown tool
Multimeter
Degaussing button in CRT monitors is used for correcting image and color distortion on the monitor screen resulting
from the impact of external magnetic field.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following tools would be used for locating faults and breaks in fiber-optic cabling?
TDR
Toner and probe kit
Multimeter
OTDR ( Missed)
Which of the following tools would be the best for attaching wires to a patch panel?
3/5
Cable certifier
Crimper
Needle-nose pliers
Which of the following ensure(s) proper reassembly of a laptop? (Select all that apply)
Documenting and labeling cable and screw locations ( Missed)

Using manufacturer documentation as a reference ( Missed)
Questioning the user and identifying user changes to computer
Performing scheduled backups
Adjusting the signal strength on Wireless Access Point (WAP) provides a countermeasure against which type of
security threat?
Unauthorized network access ( Missed)

Tailgating
Shoulder surfing
Social engineering
Which of the following tools would be used for locating faults and breaks in a twisted-pair or coaxial cabling?
NTLDR
OTDR
TDR ( Missed)
Loopback plug
Makes the network more vulnerable to DDOS attacks

Blocks access to a Wireless Access Point (WAP)
Which of the following tools would be the best for attaching an RJ-45 connector to the end of a twisted-pair Ethernet
cable?
Cable tester
Needle-nose pliers
Punchdown tool
Crimper ( Missed)
Your Final Report
4/5
Total marks 30
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which tab of the Internet Options applet in Windows 7 Control Panel provides access to proxy configuration
settings?
Privacy
Security
Content
Which of the following recovery tools are part of the System Recovery Options menu in Windows 7? (Select 3
answers)
Memory Diagnostic tool ( Missed)

Startup Repair ( Missed)
Task Manager
Disk Defragmenter
Performance Monitor
A software or hardware that checks information coming from the Internet or a network and depending on settings
either blocks it or allows it to pass through is called:
Antispyware
Firewall ( Missed)
Malware
Antivirus
Which security measure is in place when a client is denied access to the network due to outdated antivirus
software?
DMZ
NAC ( Missed)
NAT
MAC filter
Which of the following acronyms refers to a Microsoft-proprietary network access control method?
NAP ( Missed)
NAC
WPS
NAS
Which of the following applets in Windows 7 Control Panel allow for checking the status of Windows Firewall?
1/5
Internet Options
Performance Monitor
The System Recovery Options menu contains several tools that can help in recovering Windows from a serious
error. This set of tools can be on the computer's hard drive (preinstalled by the computer manufacturer), or on the
Windows installation disc. If none of these two options is available, it is also possible to create a system repair disc
containing recovery tools while logged in in Windows.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following tools allows for secure disposal of physical documents?
Shredder ( Missed)
Hard drive sanitation
Degaussing tool
Recycle Bin
Antispyware
Strong passwords
According to the troubleshooting theory, the first step of the troubleshooting process should consist of establishing a
plan of action to resolve the problem and implementing the solution.
True
False ( Missed)
Modern mobile devices have the capability to present landscape or portrait views of the device's screen based on
the way the device is being held. Which of the following built-in functionalities allows for determining screen
orientation in those devices?
Hypervisor
Geotracking
Accelerometer ( Missed)
Gyroscope
Which tab of the Internet Options menu in Windows Internet Explorer provides access to proxy configuration
settings?
2/5
Content
Security
Privacy
Amber light on NIC's LED indicates:
No connectivity
Collisions on the network ( Missed)
Intermittent connectivity
Other issue
Which of the following applets in Windows 7 Control Panel contains an option to create a system repair disc?

System
Backup and Restore ( Missed)
Device Manager
Provided that folder A resides inside folder B, which of the following commands changes the location of folder A one
level up in the directory tree and places it on the same level as folder B?
MKDIR A
COPY A ..
CD A B
MOVE A .. ( Missed)
A user interface element on mobile devices controlling access to a device after the device is switched on is called:
Accelerometer
Single Sign-On (SSO)
Lock screen ( Missed)
Locator application
Which of the following built-in functionalities available in modern mobile devices supplements the function of an
accelerometer by offering more accurate recognition of movement within a 3D space?
Multitouch
Hypervisor
Gyroscope ( Missed)
DirectX
Which of the following statements describe(s) the characteristic features of open-source applications? (Select all that
apply)
Proprietary software
3/5
Permission to modify and redistribute the application ( Missed)
Free access to the application code ( Missed)
Permission to use the application only under certain conditions
Lack of free access to the application code
Resistive touchscreen displays rely on the electrical properties of the human body to detect when and where on a
display the user is touching. Because of this, resistive displays can be controlled with very light touches of a finger
and generally cannot be used with a mechanical stylus or a gloved hand.
True
False ( Missed)
According to the troubleshooting theory, establishing a theory of probable problem cause should come as the first
step of the troubleshooting process.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to an interface capable of sensing more than one finger press at a time?
Multitouch ( Missed)
Digital Visual Interface (DVI)
Touchscreen
Graphical User Interface (GUI)
Which of the following answers list(s) methods for securing mobile devices? (Select all that apply)
Degaussing
Remote wipes ( Missed)
File defragmentation
Failed login attempts restrictions ( Missed)
Passcode locks ( Missed)
Capacitive touchscreen displays are composed of two flexible sheets coated with a resistive material and separated
by an air gap or microdots. Pressure applied to the surface of the display by a finger or stylus causes the layers to
touch, which completes electrical circuits and tells the device where the user is touching. As such, capacitive
touchscreens require much more pressure to activate than resistive touchscreens.
True
False ( Missed)
A procedure of identifying someone's physical location by obtaining GPS data from their mobile device or other
GPS-enabled devices is known as:
Phishing
Wireless survey
Geotracking ( Missed)
4/5
Vishing
Which of the following answers refers to a mail server developed by Microsoft?
Gmail
PXE
IMAP
Exchange ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 31
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following tools can be used to rearrange data on disks and drives in order to improve system
performance?
CHKDSK
File recovery software
Performance Monitor
Disk Defragmenter ( Missed)
Rebuilding an array and recovering data after failure of one of the drives in a RAID 0 hardware setup can be
performed by replacing the faulty drive.
True
False ( Missed)
An IP conflict occurs when computers on a LAN have:
The same network ID

Unique host ID
Class C IP address
None of the above answers is correct ( Missed)
A wireless connection management utility included with Microsoft Windows XP that dynamically selects a wireless
network to connect to based on a user's preferences and various default settings is called:
Wireless Zero Configuration (WZC) ( Missed)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
WLAN AutoConfig
Low RF signal issues can be caused by: (Select all that apply)
Interfering devices ( Missed)

Ethernet cabling
Insufficient range ( Missed)
APIPA addressing
IP conflict
NAC
UAC
NAT
1/5
QoS ( Missed)
Bent or broken video connector pins can prevent a monitor screen from displaying one of the base colors (red,
green, or blue).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following Windows NT tools scan for and attempt recovery of bad sectors? (Select 2 answers)
CHKDSK.EXE ( Missed)
Backup and Restore
Error-checking ( Missed)
Disk Defragmenter
ScanDisk

Power spikes
Which of the following POST beep codes would be an indicator of RAM memory failure?
One long, two short beeps

Long continuous beep tone ( Missed)
One short beep
Steady, short beeps
Which of the following acronyms refers to the process of returning a product in order to receive a refund,
replacement, or repair during the product's warranty period?
HCL
MSDS
QoS
RMA ( Missed)
Which of the following could be of help in troubleshooting the "Invalid boot disk" error message? (Select all that
apply)

Safe mode
Removing floppy disk from the floppy disk drive ( Missed)
2/5
Which of the following would be the easiest step to troubleshoot a CRT producing discoloration on the display?
Recycling
Recovery console
CRT replacement
Which of the following steps ensure proper re-assembly of a serviced laptop? (Select all that apply)
Question the user and identify user changes to computer

Document and label cable and screw locations ( Missed)
Remove dust buildup inside laptop case
Refer to manufacturer documentation ( Missed)
POST messages allow to exclude various computer internal components as probable points of failure.
True ( Missed)
False
If a program written for an earlier version of Windows doesn't run correctly, its settings can be adjusted so that the
current OS version can run the program emulating settings from a previous version of Windows. Which of the
following answers lists the correct steps for manual change of compatibility settings?
Right-click the program icon, click Properties, and then apply required settings on the Compatibility tab (
Missed)
Open Programs and Features applet in Windows Control Panel, right-click the program icon, and then apply
required settings on the Compatibility tab
Right-click the program icon and select Restore previous versions from the application menu
Open Backup and Restore applet in Windows Control Panel and select Recover system settings from the
applet menu
A wireless locator device can be used for finding hotspots and measuring wireless signal strength.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following POST beep codes indicates video adapter card failure?
Single, short beep

Long continuous beep tone
Steady, short beeps
One long, two short beeps ( Missed)
Which of the following steps could be of help in resolving the problem of excessive heat and improve heat
dissipation inside computer case? (Select all that apply)
Reapplying thermal paste on the CPU ( Missed)

Permanently removing side panel from the computer case and leaving the case open at all times
3/5
Reapplying thermal paste on the GPU ( Missed)
Removing dust buildup ( Missed)
Overclocking
Failure of one of the drives in a RAID 1 hardware setup does not affect the data stored in the array.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to a Windows Vista and windows 7 built-in tool that can be used to to detect
the available wireless networks and automatically connect to the most preferred wireless network?
Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)

Wireless Zero Configuration (WZC)
WLAN AutoConfig ( Missed)
Wireless locator
Which of the symptoms listed below points to a DHCP problem?
Low RF signal
Local connectivity ( Missed)
Slow transfer speeds
Browser redirection
While troubleshooting disk problems, a loud clicking noise can be an indicator of an issue with:
SDD
NTLDR
HDD ( Missed)
MBR
Which of the following Microsoft Windows tools allows to check for the presence of an APIPA address?
IPCONFIG ( Missed)
CHKDSK
IFCONFIG
MSCONFIG
Which of the following tools allows to scan for and restore corruptions in Windows system files?
DXDIAG
SFC.EXE ( Missed)
SERVICES.MSC
DEFRAG
Your Final Report

4/5
Total marks 32
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following files are required to start Windows XP? (Select all that apply)

NTLDR ( Missed)
NTDETECT.COM ( Missed)
WINLOAD.EXE
BOOT.INI ( Missed)
Which of the following allows to start Windows only with default settings and basic device drivers?
Standby mode
System restore
Safe Mode ( Missed)
Guest account
Which of the following could cause slow performance of a hard drive? (Select all that apply)

Disk mirroring
Disk duplexing
Which of the following tools can be used to create backup copy of critical Windows system and boot files? (Select 2
answers)
ASR ( Missed)
ERD ( Missed)
ESD
HTPC
CDFS
Which of the following should be performed regularly in order to help restore a computer’s data after hard drive
failure?
System Restore
Factory Restore
Windows Memory Diagnostics
Scheduled Backups ( Missed)
Unexpected system shutdowns and reboots can be caused by overheating.
1/5
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following would be the easiest step to troubleshoot Windows blue screen?
System restart ( Missed)

Safe Mode
Driver rollback
Fixboot
Which of the following commands would be used to repair the OS boot sector?
FIXMBR
FIXBOOT ( Missed)
FORMAT
CHKDSK
Microsoft service that provides updates for the Windows operating system and its installed components is called:
Windows Anytime Upgrade

Windows Defender
Windows Security Essentials
What is the name of the anti-malware software distributed with Windows?
Event Viewer
Windows Firewall
Recovery console
A technician just finished removing spyware from a computer and now they are not able to connect to any websites.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Proxy settings ( Missed)

Automatic configuration
Network card driver is corrupted
The Internet is not functioning
Which of the following files are required to start Windows Vista/7? (Select all that apply)
BOOTMGR (Windows Boot Manager) ( Missed)

NTLDR
BCD (Boot Configuration Data) ( Missed)
BOOT.INI
2/5
NTDETECT.COM
Which of the following Windows tools allows for troubleshooting Dynamic-link libraries (DLLs) and ActiveX controls?
REGSVR32.EXE ( Missed)
MSCONFIG
NTLDR
DEVMGMT.MSC
Which of the following answers lists the most probable cause for garbled characters on paper printout?
Printer driver ( Missed)

Ink cartridge
Print spooler
Wrong type of paper used
Print head
Cleaning blade
Toner cartridge
Erase lamp
Which of the following Windows 7 Control Panel items allows for detecting external displays?
Devices and Printers menu

Screen Resolution in Display menu ( Missed)
System menu
Device Manager menu
System Configuration in Administrative Tools menu
A user calls about their workstation not powering on in the morning. According to the troubleshooting theory, which
of the following steps should the technician perform next?
Verify that the workstation is able to boot up

Purchase the appropriate replacement part
Document the resolution to problem
Ask the user about any previous changes ( Missed)
Dim display on laptop screen could result from failure of which of the following components? (Select 2 answers)
Inverter ( Missed)
Backlight ( Missed)
Video driver
Laptop battery
3/5
Virus
Which of the following tools would be used to clean the inside of a printer? (Select all that apply)
Regular vacuum
Cleaning brush
Which of the following places allows for easy access to all queued print jobs?
SERVICES.MSC
Windows Taskbar ( Missed)
Devices and Printers applet in Control Panel
Device Manager
Which of the following commands writes a new master boot record to a disk?
REGEDIT
CHKDSK
FIXMBR ( Missed)
FIXBOOT
JBOD
BYOD
BSoD ( Missed)
DDOS
In Windows Vista and later Microsoft operating systems, the BOOT.INI file containing boot-configuration data was
replaced by:
NTDETECT.COM
Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file ( Missed)
NTBOOTDD.SYS
WINLOAD.EXE
A customer reports that their operating system crashes during usage. Which of the following is a common acronym
used to describe this condition?
BSoD ( Missed)
JBOD
Stop error
BYOD
4/5
Which of the following answers lists the most common fix for random time and date resets in Windows?
Power supply tester

Windows Update
Driver Rollback
CMOS battery replacement ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
to as:
Power-on self-test (POST)

Boot record
Partition table
After a normal system shutdown, when the computer is turned off, contents of the memory used to store BIOS
settings are:
Erased
Saved on hard drive
Retained ( Missed)
Stored in page file
What is LoJack?
Loopback adapter
Security feature used for locating stolen desktops, laptops, or tablets ( Missed)
Connector standard
RJ11 plug
Which of the following terms refers to a technology that allows for storing passwords, certificates, or encryption keys
in a hardware chip?

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) ( Missed)
Which of the following are power management specifications? (Select 2 answers)
ACPI ( Missed)
HCL
TPM
EMI
APM ( Missed)
In modern PCs, the procedure of replacing BIOS contents in order to upgrade to a newer version is sometimes
1/5
referred to as:
Direct memory access (DMA)

Overclocking
Flashing the BIOS ( Missed)
Hard boot
QoS
POTS
CMOS
POST ( Missed)
What kind of security features can be set in BIOS? (Select all that apply)

Password-restricted access to the BIOS setup utility ( Missed)
A computer supporting LoJack technology has two main components installed: an Application Agent residing in the
operating system which sends tracking signals to the monitoring center allowing the law enforcement to locate and
recover stolen device, and Persistence Module which restores the Application Agent and allows it to survive
operating system re-installation or hard drive format. The highest level of security offered by LoJack can be
achieved when Persistence Module resides in:
Operating system
Partition gap on the hard drive
USB key
Computer's BIOS ( Missed)
Which of the following is an example of firmware?

Basic Input / Output System (BIOS) ( Missed)
Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)
Windows Operating System
Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled / disabled in the BIOS setup utility (if a BIOS comes
equipped with this feature). Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside the computer case, this option can be
used to check if the case was opened and display a notification alert during next boot.
True ( Missed)
False
2/5
Which of the following resources can be used by an operating system to communicate with hardware? (Select 2
answers)
Secure Shell (SSH)

Device Manager
System BIOS ( Missed)
Device drivers ( Missed)
After replacing a modular hardware component inside computer case, the updated information about specific
parameters of the new device is stored in:
System BIOS
Startup BIOS
Secondary storage
CMOS RAM ( Missed)
A BIOS might be reflashed in order to: (Select all that apply)
Fix physical hardware faults found in replaceable components inside the computer's case
Fix known programming errors discovered in the current BIOS version ( Missed)
Repair damaged BIOS ( Missed)
Provide support for new types of attached hardware ( Missed)
The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing: (Select best answer)

Del key during boot
A software embedded into a hardware chip is commonly referred to as:
Shareware
Malware
Firmware ( Missed)
Adware
After launching Windows Virtual PC application technician receives error message stating that the hardware-
assisted virtualization (HAV) feature is not enabled on the computer. Which of the following steps might help in fixing
this problem? (Select best answer)
Increasing the amount of physical RAM on the system

Re-installation of the Windows Virtual PC application
Getting into the CMOS setup utility and enabling the virtualization technology setting ( Missed)
Safe Mode troubleshooting
3/5
Which Windows OS utility can be used to view basic information about computer's BIOS?
MSINFO32.EXE ( Missed)
Control Panel
WINVER.EXE
IPCONFIG
CMOS settings can be set to factory defaults by: (Select all that apply)
Using a jumper that can be found on the motherboard ( Missed)

Changing settings in Windows Device Manager
Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard ( Missed)
Choosing the default configuration option in the CMOS setup utility ( Missed)
Which of the following terms refer to BIOS types that can be updated without removing the BIOS chip from a
motherboard? (Select 2 answers)
EEPROM ( Missed)
ROM
Plug and Play (PnP)
EPROM
Flash Memory ( Missed)
While trying to enable the entire drive encryption feature in Windows technician receives the following error
message: "A compatible Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Security Device must be present on this computer, but a
TPM was not found". Knowing that the system has a TPM chip installed, which of the following steps might help in
solving this problem?
Hard drive replacement

Enabling the TPM security feature in CMOS setup menu ( Missed)
Enabling the TPM security feature in Windows Control Panel
Re-installation of the OS
Which of the following acronyms refers to an integrated circuit that keeps track of the current time in a PC?
CRT
CMOS
RTC ( Missed)
MBR
Which of the following are the features offered by LoJack? (Select all that apply)
Remote installation of LoJack's BIOS component

Remote sanitation (removal of data) ( Missed)
Remote device lock to deny access to any unauthorized users ( Missed)
Ability to track down the physical location of a stolen device ( Missed)
4/5
The term "BIOS extension" refers to a situation where peripheral cards such as hard-drive controllers or video
display adapters come equipped with their own BIOS chips to provide additional functionality or to replace the
motherboard BIOS services with their own versions of those services. BIOS found on extension cards is also
referred to as:
Shadow Copy
Backup BIOS
Option ROM ( Missed)
Add-in BIOS
In order to retain its configuration data, CMOS RAM requires constant supply of electricity which is provided by the:
AC adapter
Your Final Report
Total marks 35
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
A standardized specification of a motherboard (including its dimensions, supported power supply types, and layout
of components) is known as the motherboard's: (Select best answer)
Architecture
Blueprint
Form factor ( Missed)
Diagram
Which of the following is an example of a serial expansion bus?
PATA
PCIe ( Missed)
ISA
IEEE 1284
For CPUs without integrated memory controller, which part of the chipset manages communication between the
CPU and memory?

Northbridge ( Missed)
Platform Controller Hub (PCH)
Southbridge
Which of the following slots on the motherboard allow for attaching a dedicated video card? (Select 2 answers)
PGA
AGP ( Missed)
ATX connector
PCIe ( Missed)
Slot A
Which of the following are motherboard form factors? (Select all that apply)
Micro-ATX ( Missed)
Chipset
ITX ( Missed)
miniPCI
ATX ( Missed)
CNR slot:
Is a general purpose expansion slot
1/5
Allows for connecting dedicated video adapter cards
Is used for specialized networking, audio, and telephony equipment ( Missed)
Allows for connecting mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives
Which of the following devices can be installed in an AMR slot?
RAM
Video adapter card
CPU
Modem ( Missed)
Keyboard
ECC type RAM:
Digest
Binary number
Hash value
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following sockets is designed to work with CPUs manufactured by AMD?
Socket AM3 ( Missed)

Socket T
LGA 1366
Socket B
What is the name of the most common connector type used for providing power to various hardware components
inside computer case?
RJ-45
BNC
2/5
Molex ( Missed)
USB
A type of PCI slot designed for expansion cards installed in laptops characterized by a much smaller form factor
when compared to its desktop version is called:
PCIe
miniPCI ( Missed)
AGP
PCI-X
Each switch and LED on the front panel of a computer case has a connector attached to it that must be attached to
the appropriate pins on the:
Riser card
Expansion slot
Power supply
Motherboard ( Missed)
The most notable difference between pin grid array (PGA) and land grid array (LGA) packaging relates to the
True
False ( Missed)
Rambus DRAM design requires memory modules to be installed in sets of two. Any remaining open memory slots
must be filled with:
ECC memory modules

Continuity modules (CRIMMs) ( Missed)
Dual in-line memory (DIMM) modules
Parity RAM
An expansion card equipped with slots for additional adapter cards is called: (Select best answer)
Printed circuit board (PCB)

Riser card ( Missed)
Field replaceable unit (FRU)
Motherboard
Which of the following statements about Blu-ray Disc (BD) technology are true? (Select all that apply)

A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 15GB of data
A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 25GB of data ( Missed)
A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 30GB of data
3/5
BD-RE discs can be erased and re-recorded multiple times ( Missed)
A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 50GB of data ( Missed)
Which of the following configuration settings can be applied to Parallel ATA (PATA) drives to set their priority when
multiple drives are attached to the same cable? (Select all that apply)
SCSI ID
Cable select ( Missed)
Master ( Missed)
Logical Unit Number (LUN)
Slave ( Missed)
Which of the following CPU socket types is compatible with an AMD microprocessor?
LGA 775 / Socket T

Socket FM1 ( Missed)
LGA 1155 / Socket H2
LGA 1366 / Socket B
LGA 1156 / Socket H
volume size, improve performance, or reliability is known as:
Serial ATA (SATA)

Parallel ATA (PATA)
Hardware-based RAID Level 0: (Select 3 answers)


4/5

Which of the following socket types are designed for Intel CPUs? (Select 3 answers)
Socket 940
Socket FM1
LGA 1366 / Socket B ( Missed)
Socket AM3
LGA 775 / Socket T ( Missed)
LGA 1156 / Socket H ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 40
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
The ability to replace computer system components without causing interruption to the system is referred to as:
Multitasking
Cold plugging
SCSI ID:
Is used to identify SCSI devices on a network

Is used as another term for Logical Unit Number (LUN)
Identifies logical device embedded in the physical device on a SCSI chain
Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain ( Missed)
Platters of a magnetic hard drive spin at a rate measured as:

Which of the following answers describe(s) the characteristic feature(s) of tape drives? (Select all that apply)
Lack of moving parts

Solid-state storage medium
Low capacity
What is the capacity of a standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc?
7.8 GB
8.544 GB
15.6 GB
25 GB ( Missed)
Which of the following terms refers to a proprietary flash memory card format used mainly in older digital cameras?
xD ( Missed)
SD
1/5
SSD
Mini-SD
Micro-SD
2 drives
3 drives
4 drives ( Missed)
5 drives

7.8 GB of data
8.5 GB of data
15.6 GB of data
What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller?
31
63
127 ( Missed)
255
Red stripe on the edge of the floppy disk ribbon cable is used for:
Marking drive B on the cable

Marking the connection with PIN 1 on the motherboard ( Missed)
Marking which drive will be drive A
Designating main drive on the cable
What is the maximum cable length for USB devices?
18 inches
4.5 meters
5 meters ( Missed)
1 meter
8.544 GB
4.7 GB
7.8 GB
15.6 GB ( Missed)
2/5
An improved heat dissipation from the CPU is achieved through the use of:
Hyperthreading
Surge suppressor
Thermal compound ( Missed)
Backplane
Which of the following are memory form factors used in laptops? (Select 2 answers)
SO-DIMM ( Missed)
ECC
AGP
SO-RIMM ( Missed)
C-RIMM
What is the maximum speed supported by the USB 1.1 standard?
480 Mbps
12 Mbps ( Missed)
1.5 Mbps
3.2 Gbps
Which of the following terms refer(s) to RAID Level 1? (Select all that apply)
Disk duplexing ( Missed)

Disk striping with distributed parity
Disk mirroring ( Missed)
Disk striping
A memory cache on the microprocessor chip is known as:
Level 1 (L1) cache ( Missed)

VRAM
Level 2 (L2) cache
DRAM
What is the maximum allowable cable length defined in the Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard?
18 inches ( Missed)
2 meters
5 meters
1 meter
Which of the following values refers to the number of pinouts that can be found on a floppy disk cable?
68
3/5
80
50
34 ( Missed)
Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to:
18 inches
2 meters
5 meters
Which of the following is the maximum speed supported by the IEEE 1394b interface?
400 Mbps
12 Mbps
480 Mbps
800 Mbps ( Missed)
A 3.5-inch floppy disk can store up to:
360 KB
1.44 MB ( Missed)
360 KB
1.2 MB
Which of the following are the two main CPU manufacturers for personal computers? (Select 2 answers)
ASUS
nVidia
AMD ( Missed)
EVGA
Intel ( Your answer)
Which of the following components is used for passive cooling of the CPU?
Heat sink ( Missed)

Computer case
Cooling fan
Chipset

15.6 GB of data
4.7 GB of data
4/5
7.8 GB of data
Your Final Report
Total marks 30
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 1
Percentage secured 3.33%
5/5
What is the name of a hardware device that allows for administering multiple hosts with the use of a single mouse,
keyboard, and computer screen?
Device Manager
Docking station
Which of the following statements apply to the USB 3.0 standard? (Select 3 answers)
USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as Hi-Speed USB

Backward compatibility with all preceding USB standards ( Missed)
Speed of up to 800 Mbps
USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as Full-Speed USB
Speed of up to 5 Gbps ( Missed)
USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as SuperSpeed USB ( Missed)
Which of the following ATA versions allows for attaching devices other than hard drives?
ATA-2
ATAPI ( Missed)
ATA-1
ATA-3
6 Gbps ( Missed)
800 Mbps
3 Gbps
480 Mbps
IEEE 1394 standard specifies the maximum cable length of:
5 meters
2 meters
1 meter
The SATA standard specifies a power connector consisting of:
7 pins
34 pins
1/5
40 pins
15 pins ( Missed)
A single Parallel ATA (PATA) cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket with:
Up to 2 devices ( Missed)
Up to 3 devices
Only 1 device
Up to 4 devices
480 Mbps
3 Gbps ( Missed)
800 Mbps
6 Gbps
A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket with:
Up to 3 devices
Up to 2 devices
Only 1 device ( Missed)
Up to 4 devices
Which of the following statements list(s) data transfer rate(s) of the USB 1.1 standard? (Select all that apply)
12 Mbps ( Missed)
1.5 Mbps ( Missed)
800 Mbps
5 Gbps
480 Mbps
Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling has a maximum allowable length of:
2 meters
4.5 meters
18 inches ( Missed)
5 meters
What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Hi-Speed USB?
800 Mbps
480 Mbps ( Missed)
400 Mbps
12 Mbps
2/5
Which type of standard FireWire connector has the capability of supplying voltage to a device?
2-pin connector
4-pin connector
8-pin connector
Serial ATA (SATA) cabling offers a maximum allowable length of:
1 meter ( Missed)
18 inches
5 meters
4.5 meters
What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by SuperSpeed USB?
800 Mbps
1.5 Gbps
5 Gbps ( Missed)
480 Mbps
Which of the following are parallel communication interfaces? (Select all that apply)
AGP ( Missed)
PCI ( Missed)
IEEE 1284 ( Missed)
IEEE 1394
PCI Express
What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Low-Speed USB?
15 Mbps
1.2 Mbps
1.5 Mbps ( Missed)
12 Mbps
Which of the following statements refer(s) to the IEEE 1394a standard? (Select all that apply)

FireWire 800
3/5
1.5 Gbps ( Missed)

1 Gbps
2.5 Gbps
3 Gbps
Which of the following interfaces is used for digital audio?
DVI
AGP
VGA
S/PDIF ( Missed)
What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Full-Speed USB?
400 Mbps
12 Mbps ( Missed)
480 Mbps
15 Mbps
A feature that can be found in some types of PC Power Supply Units that allows a PSU to automatically adapt to the
AC voltage supplied from the power socket is called:
Fixed-input
Inverter
Auto-switching ( Missed)
Hot plugging
A single IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to:
127 devices
255 devices
15 devices
63 devices ( Missed)
Which of the following statements refer(s) to the IEEE 1394b standard? (Select all that apply)

FireWire 400
What is the maximum length for external SATA (eSATA) cable?

4/5
18 inches
5 meters
2 meters ( Missed)
1 meter
Your Final Report
Total marks 32
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers describe the features of tape drives? (Select 3 answers)
Fast seek times

Low capacity
Volatile storage medium
A smaller, faster memory type for storing copies of the data from frequently used main memory locations used by the
central processing unit of a computer to reduce the average time to access memory is called:
Secondary storage
RAM
ECC memory
CPU cache ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to the Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector?

A computer on a network where most functions are carried out on a central server or a software application that
uses the client-server model where the server performs all the processing is called:
Thick client
Active Hub
Thin client ( Missed)
Virtual machine
Which of the following units is used for measuring clock speed in modern CPUs?
GHz (gigahertz) ( Missed)

Gbps (gigabit per second)
RPM (revolutions per minute)
MHz (megahertz)
1/5
Which components would have the highest priority while building a custom workstation designed to run virtual
machines? (Select 2 answers)
High-end video
CPU ( Missed)
HTPC compact form factor
RAM ( Missed)
HDMI output
UART
ALU ( Missed)
GUI
LUN
Aspect ratio
Interlacing
Screen resolution
Which of the following terms refer to CPU technologies designed to minimize the CPU's power consumption and
heat generation? (Select 2 answers)
64-bit processing
CPU throttling ( Missed)
Overclocking
SpeedStep ( Missed)
Hyperthreading
Brightness of an LCD monitor (the level of light emitted by an LCD display) is measured in:
Pixels
Candelas per square metre (cd/m2) ( Missed)
Watts
Dots per inch (DPI)
A component of computer graphics display adapters which converts digitally encoded images into analog signals
that can be displayed by a monitor is called:
2/5
OLED
CAD
RAMDAC ( Missed)
CRT
Which of the following display standards use 4:3 aspect ratio? (Select 2 answers)
UXGA ( Missed)
HDTV 720p
WUXGA
SVGA ( Missed)
HDTV 1080p
The practice of running a motherboard or microprocessor at a higher speed than recommended by the manufacturer
is commonly referred to as:
Throttling
Overclocking ( Missed)
Hyper-Threading
Virtualization
In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a CRT monitor it is usually recommended to set the
monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the CRT's native resolution).
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following terms refers to a monitor filter used to reduce reflection from the surface of a CRT or LCD
display?
OLED
Widescreen
Antiglare ( Missed)
Flat panel
Which of the following statements describe(s) disadvantages of virtualization? (Select all that apply)
Multiple virtual machines run on a single host share hardware resources which has a degrading effect on
performance ( Missed)
Deployment of different types of operating systems or multiple copies of the same operating system or
application becomes more difficult in a virtualized environment due to hardware configuration issues
On a larger scale, virtualization has a negative effect on operational costs due to increased power supply
requirements
Hardware used for hosting virtual machines becomes a single point of failure ( Missed)
Which type of DVI connector doesn't provide output for digital signal?
3/5
DVI-D
DVI-A ( Missed)
DVI-I
S/PDIF
In personal computer microprocessor architecture, a computer bus used to connect the CPU to CPU cache memory
is called:
Front-side bus (FSB)

North Bridge
South Bridge
Which of the following acronyms refers to a new type of thin and lightweight display devices offering higher contrast
ratio and color quality in comparison to LCD without the need for a special light source to produce a visible image?
OLED ( Missed)
LED
HDMI
HTPC
Which of the following interfaces provides the capability for transmission of both video and audio data?
S/PDIF
DVI
S-Video
VGA
HDMI ( Missed)
Which of the following interfaces is used for digital audio?
AGP
DVI
VGA
S/PDIF ( Missed)
Computer displays with aspect ratios of 16:10 and 16:9 are commonly referred to as:
UXGA displays
Fullscreen displays
SVGA displays
In virtualization technology, a software program that manages multiple operating systems (or multiple instances of
the same operating system) on a single computer system is called:
4/5
Guest OS
KVM switch
Projector
Which of the following physical security measures can be applied to a computer screen?
Content filter
Power level controls
Privacy filter ( Missed)
Password protection
Your Final Report
Total marks 31
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
The SATA standard defines data cable connector consisting of:
40 pins
34 pins
15 pins
7 pins ( Missed)
Which of the following acronyms refers to a technology enabling more efficient use of electric power in a PSU?
PFC ( Missed)
PXE
PVC
PCB
The colored stripe on one of the edges of a floppy drive ribbon cable is used to indicate the proper alignment
between the cable connector and the motherboard socket.
True ( Missed)
False
A type of connector that typically provides power to hard drives, video cards, fans and motherboard inside a
computer case is commonly referred to as:
RJ-45
SATA
PS/2
Molex ( Missed)
Which of the following connectors increases the power consumption limit for advanced graphics cards?
T568A
15-pin VGA
4/8-pin 12v
Main motherboard power connectors typically consist of: (Select 2 answers)
34 pins
40 pins
20 pins ( Missed)
68 pins
24 pins ( Missed)
1/5
The floppy drive ribbon cable connector consists of:
34 pins ( Missed)
15 pins
80 pins
40 pins
Which of the following auxiliary connectors is used to supply dedicated power for a high-end CPU?

P1
PCIe 6/8-pin
T568A
The SATA standard specifies power connector consisting of:
34 pins
15 pins ( Missed)
40 pins
7 pins
Which of the following connectors are used with optical fiber cabling? (Select all that apply)
ST ( Missed)
SC ( Missed)
BNC
LC ( Missed)
RJ-11
An Ethernet crossover cable uses:
T568A pin/pair assignments on both ends

T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on the opposite end ( Missed)
BNC connectors on both ends
T568B pin/pair assignments on both ends
Optional 8-pin PCIe power connector increases the power consumption limit for connected device to:
75 W
150 W ( Missed)
25 W
125 W
The FTP protocol is designed for:
Sending email messages between servers
2/5
Serving web pages
File exchange ( Missed)
Which of the following connector types can be used for connecting keyboards and mice to a PC? (Select all that
apply)
S/PDIF
PS/2 ( Missed)
6-pin Mini-DIN ( Missed)
USB ( Missed)
PCIe 6/8-pin
Which of the following connector types are used with twisted-pair cabling? (Select 2 answers)
BNC
LC
RJ-45 ( Missed)
RJ-11 ( Missed)
ST
What is the function of IMAP and POP?
Exchange of email messages between servers

Retrieval of email messages from servers ( Missed)
Serving of web pages
Translation of domain names into IP addresses
Which of the following acronyms refers to a Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with graphical interface
to connect to another computer over a network connection?
SMTP
RDP ( Missed)
DHCP
DNS
Optional 6-pin PCIe power connector increases the power consumption limit for connected device to:
75 W ( Missed)
150 W
25 W
125 W
Which of the following answers refer(s) to specification(s) used for coaxial cabling? (Select all that apply)
RJ-45
3/5
RJ-11
RG-6 ( Missed)
RGB
RG-59 ( Missed)
Which of the following protocols was designed as a secure replacement for Telnet?
SSH ( Missed)
FTP
SMTP
SNMP
A twist in the floppy ribbon cable wiring is used for the purpose of identifying drives on the cable.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following acronyms refers to a protocol used in network management systems for the monitoring of
network-attached devices?
SMTP
IMAP
HTTPS
SNMP ( Missed)
Which of the following video standards offers the highest resolution?
RGB
HDMI ( Missed)
VGA
S-Video
Which of the following interfaces support(s) hot plugging? (Select all that apply)
USB ( Missed)
IEEE 1394 ( Missed)
GUI
SATA ( Missed)
EIDE
PATA
Which of the connectors types listed below are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers)
ST
BNC ( Missed)
4/5
LC
RJ-11
Your Final Report
Total marks 35
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
TCP port 143 is used by:

Which of the following port numbers is used by Telnet?
20
21
22
23 ( Missed)
An Internet service used for translating domain names into IP addresses is called:
SNMP
DHCP
HTTP
DNS ( Missed)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) runs by default on TCP ports: (Select 2 answers)
25
22
21 ( Missed)
20 ( Missed)
23
A security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine
Hardware lock
Subnetting
Encryption standard
Line of sight wireless internet service
1/5
Cable rating
Which of the following TCP port numbers is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)?
110
25 ( Missed)
22
143
32 bits ( Missed)
128 bits
64 bits
48 bits
Which of the following port numbers is used by DNS?
80
443
110
53 ( Missed)
Server Message Block (SMB) is an example of:
Network topology
Media Access Control (MAC) address
Network file sharing protocol ( Missed)
Ethernet frame
HTTPS
IMAP
HTTP ( Missed)
Telnet
Which of the following network protocols provides secure alternative to FTP?
TFTP
HTTP
Telnet
SFTP ( Missed)

2/5
Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS) ( Missed)
255.255.225.0
255.255.191.0
255.255.127.0
255.255.64.0
A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company's firewall consisting of publicly available servers is
Bridge
VLAN
DMZ ( Missed)
VPN
32 bits
48 bits
64 bits
128 bits ( Missed)
Which of the following networking protocols automates the process of assigning dynamic IP addresses?
SMTP
SNMP
DHCP ( Missed)
DNS
IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing:
Ethernet
WiMAX
WLANs ( Missed)
Bluetooth
Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on TCP port:
110 ( Missed)
143
25
3/5
443
IEEE 802.16 is a series of standards defining high-speed, long-distance wireless communication, also known as:
WiMAX ( Missed)
WPA
Bluetooth
Ethernet
Which of the following default port numbers is not used by a remote administration tool?
23
22
3389
25 ( Missed)
A computer network consisting of interconnected PDA devices is known as:
PAN ( Missed)
LAN
MAN
WAN
Which of the following port numbers is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)?
3389 ( Missed)
143
3398
443
Which of the following wireless encryption schemes offers the highest level of security?
SSID
WPA2 ( Missed)
WEP
WPA
single cable?
WPA
PoE ( Missed)
PnP
QoS
Your Final Report

4/5
Total marks 26
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
WPA
WPS ( Missed)
WEP
WAP
Which of the following wireless standards allows for the highest data transfer rate?
IEEE 802.11a
IEEE 802.11g
IEEE 802.11n ( Missed)
IEEE 802.11b
Which of the following offers the highest level of security?
WEP
802.11i ( Missed)
WPA
802.3
IEEE 802.11g offers backward compatibility with which of the following wireless standards?
802.11a
802.3
802.11b ( Missed)
802.11n
802.11a devices operate in the frequency range of:
11 GHz
2.4 GHz
5 GHz ( Missed)
1.2 GHz
Which of the following standards allows for achieving the highest distance between Wireless Access Point (WAP)
and connecting wireless devices?
IEEE 802.11n ( Missed)

IEEE 802.11b
IEEE 802.11g
1/5
IEEE 802.11a
802.11a devices support data transfer rates of up to:
1 Gbps
100+ Mbps
54 Mbps ( Missed)
11 Mbps
Which of the following acronyms refers to a technology utilizing multiple antennas at both the transmitter and
receiver to increase wireless bandwidth and range?
MIMO ( Missed)
AES
CCFL
OLED
802.11b devices operate in the frequency range of:
1.2 GHz
2.4 GHz ( Missed)
11 GHz
5 GHz
UTP cabling falls into the category of:
Multi-mode fiber-optic cabling

Coaxial cabling
Single-mode fiber-optic cabling
802.11b devices support data transfer rates of up to:
1 Gbps
54 Mbps
100+ Mbps
11 Mbps ( Missed)
Cabling with a fire-retardant jacket placed in the space between dropped ceiling and structural ceiling is known as:
T568A
PVC
T568B
Plenum ( Missed)
802.11g devices operate in the frequency range of:
2/5
1.2 GHz
5 GHz
11 GHz
2.4 GHz ( Missed)
Which of the following hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers
while in transit across a traffic routing device?
DNS
VLAN
NAT ( Missed)
VPN
IEEE 802.11n offers backward compatibility with which of the following standards? (Select all that apply)
802.11g ( Missed)
802.11a ( Missed)
802.3
802.11b ( Missed)
In structured cabling, the interference between signals sent over adjacent wires is commonly referred to as
Crosstalk (XT).
True ( Missed)
False
802.11g devices support data transfer rates of up to:
100+ Mbps
1 Gbps
54 Mbps ( Missed)
11 Mbps
A type of network topology where each node has a connection to every other node in the network is known as:
Bus
Ring
Star
Mesh ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists the IPv6 loopback address?
127.0.0.1
192.168.0.1
169.254/16
::1 ( Missed)
3/5
802.11n devices operate in the frequency range of: (Select all that apply)
11 GHz
2.4 GHz ( Missed)
1.2 GHz
5 GHz ( Missed)
2.5 GHz
In UTP and STP cabling wires in wire pairs are twisted around one another in order to minimize signal interference.
True ( Missed)
False
802.11n devices support data transfer rates of up to:
2 Mbps
100+ Mbps ( Missed)
54 Mbps
11 Mbps
Fast Ethernet is a collective term for a number of Ethernet standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of:
10 Mbps
100 Mbps ( Missed)
1 Gbps
10 Gbps
802.11n improves upon the previous IEEE 802.11 standards by offering which of the following features? (Select best
answer)
MIMO ( Missed)
Data transfer rates of up to 54 Mbps
WEP encryption
Multi-user MIMO (MU-MIMO)
Which of the following takes advantage of the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?
WEP
WPA
WAP
WPA2 ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 28
4/5
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers lists an example of a connectionless protocol?
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list the characteristics of Microdrive (MD): (Select 2 answers)
Solid-State Drive (SSD)

Fits into CF II slot ( Missed)
USB thumb drive
Fits into CF I slot
Small form factor HDD ( Missed)
ExpressCard /34 and ExpressCard /54 are two form factors specified by the ExpressCard standard. Numbers after
slash in these two form factors refer to the card's:
Width ( Missed)
Length
Thickness
Speed
Every computer on a single LAN must have unique host and nework ID.
True
False ( Missed)
Compared to port replicators, docking stations:
Cannot be used with portable computers

Usually offer additional ports and capabilities ( Missed)
Offer exactly the same features
Usually offer less ports and capabilities
Which of the following functionalities allows to overcome keyboard size restrictions in laptops?
Touchpad
Numeric keypad
Fn key ( Missed)
Digitizer
1/5

eSATA
SmartMedia ( Missed)
Memory Stick ( Missed)
Which of the following tools would be used for attaching cables to a patch panel?
Crimper
Snips
Cable stripper
help make the address shorter.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following tools would be best for verifying the correct electrical connections of wires in a cable?
Loopback plug
Tone generator
Multimeter
The two most common form factors used in modern HDDs include: (Select 2 answers)
3.5-inch ( Missed)
5.25-inch
2.5-inch ( Missed)
1.8-inch
Inverter: (Select all that apply)

Supplies voltage to backlights of an LCD panel ( Missed)
Supplies voltage to backlights of an OLED display
Which of the following answers lists the most common battery type that can be found in modern portable devices?
Nickel–metal hydride
2/5
Lithium-ion ( Missed)
Alkaline
Nickel-cadmium
Which of the following answers lists an HDD form factor used in laptops?
3.5-inch
5.25-inch
1.8-inch
2.5-inch ( Missed)
Which of the following provides physical security measure against laptop theft?
Security slot and locking cable ( Missed)

Geotracking
LoJack for Laptops
Router
Switch
Bridge
Hub ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists an obsolete flash memory card format used in older digital cameras?
Memory Stick
SO-DIMM
Secure Digital (SD)
Guidelines outlining safe handling and disposal of various computer components can be found in: (Select best
answer)
User manual
MBSA
Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
MSDS documentation ( Missed)
In incident response procedures the process that ensures proper handling of collected evidence is called chain of
custody.
True ( Missed)
3/5
False
Which of the following flash memory card formats offers the highest capacity?
xD-Picture Card
ExpressCard
SmartMedia
Which of the following answers refers to a group of technologies enabling telephone calls over the Internet?
VoIP ( Missed)
Ethernet
802.16
POTS
Which of the following answers lists an HDD form factor used in desktops?
5.25-inch
2.5-inch
3.5-inch ( Missed)
1.8-inch
A dedicated computer appliance designed for storing and serving files on a network is known as:
NAT
NAS ( Missed)
Bridge
SAN
The term "brownout" refers to what kind of situation?
Power spike
Power outage
A network protocol that allows multiple devices on a private LAN to connect to a public network with the use of the
same public IPv4 address is called:
NAT ( Missed)
WPS
APIPA
VPN
Your Final Report

4/5
Total marks 32
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
them is called:

Task Manager
Feed assembly
Task Scheduler
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following printer types use(s) inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper? (Select all that apply)
Inkjet
Laser
Thermal
Parallel printer cable connector examples include: (Select 2 answers)

IEEE 1394
Which of the following answers lists a standard unit for measuring print resolution?
Pixels per inch (ppi)

Dots per inch (dpi) ( Missed)
Candelas per square metre (cd/m2)
Aspect ratio
The speed of a printer is measured in:
Revolutions per minute (rpm)

Megabytes per second (MBps)
Instructions per second (IPS)
1/5
Pages per minute (ppm) ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists the correct order of the laser printing process?

Installing a third-party printer driver in Windows requires administrative access.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following printer types fall into the category of impact printers? (Select 2 answers)

Laser
Inkjet
Thermal
Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve ordinary solid combustibles, such as paper and wood?
Class A ( Missed)
Class B
Class C
Class D
Which of the following devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage?
CRT monitor
Power supply unit (PSU)
Inverter
Laser printer
All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to a technician's
safety ( Missed)
Which of the following answers is an example of appropriate handling of customer's confidential data in a situation
where troubleshooting requires user password?

Break the password
Which of the following printer components allows for automatic printing on both sides of the page?
2/5
Roller
Print head
Duplexing assembly ( Missed)
Feeder
Print device sharing through a wired connection can be implemented with the use of which of the following
Parallel ( Missed)
USB ( Missed)
Bluetooth
Serial ( Missed)
802.11x
Ethernet ( Missed)
Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve ordinary flammable liquids and gases?
Class A
Class B ( Missed)
Class C
Class D
Ask close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "Yes" or "No"
Argue with a technical user if necessary to educate them
Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she has finished describing the problem ( Missed)
Rely on your own judgment and do not restate and clarify what the customer says
Which of the following tools are used to protect against ESD? (Select all that apply)

Tech bench
Which of the following printer types have the capability to produce duplicate pages (multipart forms) during printing
process? (Select all that apply)

Thermal
Impact ( Missed)
Laser
3/5
Inkjet
Software that cannot be clearly classified as malware is known as:
Trojan horse
Backdoor
Logic bomb
Grayware ( Missed)
Which of the following are examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing with difficult
customer? (Select 2 answers)
Missed)
Talking to co-workers while interacting with the customer
Which of the following printer types can often be found as part of point of sale systems?
Inkjet
Thermal ( Missed)
Daisy wheel
PostScript
The quality of output produced by 9-pin dot-matrix printers is referred to as:
Near Letter Quality (NLQ)

Typewriter-like quality
Letter Quality (LQ)
Draft quality ( Missed)
Print device sharing through a wireless connection can be implemented with the use of which of the following
Bluetooth ( Missed)
802.11x ( Missed)
Parallel
USB
Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve energized electrical equipment?
Class A
Class B
4/5
Class C ( Missed)
Class D
Your Final Report
Total marks 40
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
CompTIA A+ 220-901 Certification - Exam Acronyms Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-220-901-certification-exam-acronyms-quiz
Which of the following terms refers to a microchip embedded on the motherboard of a personal computer or laptop
that can store keys, passwords and digital certificates?
UTM
EFS
MBR
TPM ( Your answer)
The ECC type RAM:
cameras?
xD ( Missed)
SD
SSD
Mini-SD
Micro-SD
Which of the following answers describe the features of SSDs? (Select 3 answers)
Low performance
High device cost ( Missed)
Lower capacity compared to magnetic drives ( Missed)
High performance ( Missed)
Low device cost
Higher capacity compared to magnetic drives
What is the name of an HDD type that combines high performance and capacity at a relatively low device cost?
SSD
SRAM
USB
SSHD ( Missed)
1/19
CF
Mini-SD
eMMC ( Missed)
Micro-SD
xD
LGA is a type of integrated circuit packaging that is notable for having pins arranged in a regular array on the
underside of the package.
True
False ( Missed)
is known as:
RISC ( Missed)
HPFS
EPIC
CISC
The bus between the CPU and the L2 cache inside the CPU housing is called:
ICH
FSB
USB
BSB ( Missed)
PGA is a type of surface-mount packaging for ICs that is notable for having pins on the socket rather than the
integrated circuit.
True
False ( Missed)
The bus between the CPU and northbridge is known as:
BSB
USB
ICH
FSB ( Missed)
ZIF ( Missed)
TPM
ZIP
2/19
FRU
FRU
UART
ALU ( Missed)
LUN
Which of the terms listed below refers to a situation where a single CPU appears as multiple virtual CPUs to the
OS?
HTT ( Missed)
eMMC
TPM
AHCI
The most notable difference between PGA and LGA packaging relates to the placement of contact pins, which in
case of PGA can be found on the socket, and in case of LGA on the CPU.
True
False ( Missed)
graphics card?
ALU
BSB
GPU ( Missed)
FSB
DLP
NX bit ( Missed)
ECC
Parity bit
"DB-15", "DE-15", and "HD-15" are terms referring to the different variants of the:
RJ-45 connector
BNC connector
8P8C connector
A type of interface providing the capability for transmission of both video and audio data is known as:
3/19
S/PDIF
DVI
S-Video
VGA
HDMI ( Missed)
Which of the DVI connector types does not provide support for digital signal transmission?
DVI-D
DVI-A ( Missed)
DVI-I
DVI-A/D
Which of the following answers describes(s) the characteristic features of S/PDIF? (Select all that apply)
Video interface
Which of the connector types listed below plugs into a NIC port?
DB15
S/PDIF
RCA
RJ-45 ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list(s) examples of wireless connectivity media? (Select all that apply)
RF ( Missed)
HDMI
IEEE 802.3
IR ( Missed)
NFC ( Missed)
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to the type of electric current supplied to most of the internal PC
components?
AC
PFC
DC ( Missed)
A/V
PSUs capable of operating with either 110-120 or 220-240 volt power input ranges are referred to as dual rail PSUs.
4/19
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the hardware requirements listed below should be given priority while assembling a custom CAD/CAM
design workstation? (Select 3 answers)
High-end GPU ( Missed)

High-end cooling
High-capacity HDD
Dual monitors
What type of hardware components would be the most important for an A/V editing workstation? (Select all that
apply)
Maximum amount of RAM

Specialized sound card ( Missed)
Dual monitors ( Missed)
Multicore CPU
High-capacity fast HDD ( Missed)
Which of the following hardware requirements should be given priority while building a custom HTPC? (Select all
that apply)
TV tuner ( Missed)
Surround sound audio ( Missed)
HDMI output ( Missed)
Motherboard form factor ( Missed)
Specialized GPU
Multicore CPU
TN ( Missed)
CRT
UXGA
IPS
What are the characteristic features of the IPS LCD panel technology? (Select 3 answers)

Fast response times
5/19
Low color quality
Low viewing angles
Which of the following answers describe the features of the TN LCD panel technology? (Select 3 answers)

High color quality
Slow response times
Wide viewing angles
LED
CCFL ( Missed)
DFS
OLED
A type of thin and lightweight display device offering higher contrast ratio and color quality in comparison to LCD
without the need for a special light source to produce a visible image is referred to as:
IPS
OLED ( Missed)
LED
CRT
Hz ( Missed)
cd/m2
MHz
Lumen
KHz
Hz
Lumens
dB
cd/m2 ( Missed)
XGA
6/19
SXGA
UXGA
WUXGA ( Missed)
A technical standard for digital representation and transmission of sound is known as:
MAPI
MIDI ( Missed)
MIME
MIMO
An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is called:
DMZ
AP ( Missed)
IDF
WPS
Which of the following answers refers to a common network communication protocol used for enabling two hosts to
establish a network connection and exchange data?
STP
WPS
UTP
TCP ( Missed)
Which printer type is often used as a PoS terminal component?
Inkjet
Laser
Thermal ( Missed)
Impact
XPS ( Missed)
GDI
PCL
PDF ( Missed)
TXT
Which of the following answers refers to a legacy parallel printer port?
RS-232
LPT ( Missed)
COM
7/19
USB
Which of the answers listed below refers to a language used for describing the appearance of a printed page?
DLT
CCFL
SSL
PCL ( Missed)
GDI ( Missed)
IDS
PostScript
PCL
Which of the following answers refer to parallel printer port operation modes? (Select 2 answers)
ECP ( Missed)
EFS
ERD
EPP ( Missed)
ECC
IMAP
RDP
LDAP
IPP ( Missed)
LPD/LPR ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to connector type(s) used with fiber-optic cabling? (Select all that apply)
ST ( Missed)
DB-25
SC ( Missed)
RG-59
LC ( Missed)
RG-6
One of the differences between the UTP and STP cabling is that the STP cable takes advantage of additional
protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources.
True ( Missed)
8/19
False
Materials from which the plenum-rated cable's cover is made include: (Select 2 answers)
FPM
PVC ( Missed)
EPP
FEP ( Missed)
ECP
An IPv4 address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates problem with what type of service?
SMTP
DNS
DHCP ( Missed)
SNMP
IDS
DNS ( Missed)
SQL
DFS

File exchange
IMAP4 is used for:
Serving web pages

RDP ( Missed)
IPP
RIP
WAP
9/19
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the protocols listed below is used for automated discovery of networked services on LANs?
SMB
AFP
CIFS
SLP ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer(s) to file sharing network protocol(s)? (Select all that apply)
RIP
FTP ( Missed)
NNTP
AFP ( Missed)
SNMP
DNS
SNMP
NAT
DHCP ( Missed)
SMTP
ICMP
SNMP ( Missed)
IPsec
SMB and CIFS are examples of network protocols used for providing shared access to files, directories, and
devices.
True ( Missed)
False
10/19
FTP
HTTPS ( Missed)
Telnet
HTTP
IPsec ( Missed)
SSH ( Missed)
computers?
PPP
HTTPS
SSH ( Missed)
IPsec
CHAP
FTP
SNMP
SSH ( Missed)
TCP is an example of a connectionless protocol. TCP doesn't support three-way handshake (thus it is also referred
to as unreliable or best-effort protocol).
True
False ( Missed)
UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that requires a set of initial steps in order to establish connection (three-way
handshake), supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the amount of data that is being sent),
and sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order).
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the wireless security standards listed below has been deprecated in favor of newer standards due to known
AES
WPA2
PEAP
WEP ( Missed)
CCMP
11/19
WEP
WPA2 ( Missed)
WAP
WPA
A security protocol introduced in order to strengthen existing WEP implementations without requiring the
replacement of legacy hardware is known as:
PEAP
TKIP ( Missed)
CCMP
WPA2
WEP
WPA2 ( Missed)
PAP
WPA
A lightly protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall is
WWAN
VPN
DMZ ( Missed)
VLAN
NAC
ACL
NAT ( Missed)
DMZ
A solution that alleviates the problem of depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the same private
LAN to share a single public IP address is known as:
DNS
APIPA
NAT ( Missed)
DHCP
DNAT provides a permanent mapping between a private IP address and a public IP address on a one-to-one basis.
12/19
True
False ( Missed)
SNAT provides a mapping between private IP address and any of the IP addresses belonging to the available public
IP address pool.
True
False ( Missed)
NAC
UAC
NAT
QoS ( Missed)
A type of architecture that simplifies networking by allowing devices to dynamically join a network, autoconfigure,
and learn about the presence and capabilities of other devices is known as:
DHCP
UPnP ( Missed)
S.M.A.R.T
UEFI
Which of the answers listed below refers to zero-configuration networking?
WAP
UPnP ( Missed)
TKIP
PnP
WPA
WPS ( Missed)
UPnP
WAP
Examples of technologies that are not recommended and should be disabled due to their known vulnerabilities or
other security risks they might pose include: (Select 3 answers)
WPS ( Missed)
WAP
UPnP ( Missed)
WEP ( Missed)
13/19
TKIP
SONET
GBIC
DOCSIS ( Missed)
SCADA
VDSL
ADSL ( Missed)
SDSL
UDSL
PAN
LAN ( Missed)
MAN
WAN
PAN
LAN
MAN
WAN ( Missed)
True ( Missed)
False
centered around a single workstation is called:
PAN ( Missed)
LAN
SAN
MAN
PAN
14/19
LAN
MAN ( Missed)
WAN
MAN
WLAN ( Missed)
LAN
VLAN
called:
PLC ( Missed)
ECP
PoE
EPP
EPP
PoE ( Missed)
ECP
PLC
A type of memory module form factor most commonly used for extending the capacity of primary storage in laptop
computers is called:
SO-DIMM ( Missed)
SRAM
MicroDIMM
RDIMM
WAP
NFC ( Missed)
IR
RFC
15/19
EIDE
POTS
ACPI
POST ( Missed)
Windows BSoD provides technical information that might be of help for advanced users in solving the problem that
caused the stop error. The information displayed on the screen when Windows encounters this type of error typically
includes error code, memory address where it occurred, and the name of the driver that caused it.
True ( Missed)
False
S.M.A.R.T. technology allows for monitoring system for anticipated:

Power spikes
Which of the answers listed below refers to a standard that relies on serial communication?
ISA
PCI-X
IEEE 1284
PCI
PATA
PCIe ( Missed)
Motherboard slots that enable installation of dedicated graphics controllers include: (Select 2 answers)
PGA
AGP ( Missed)
CNR slot
ATX connector
PCIe ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a firmware interface designed as a replacement for BIOS?
UEFI ( Missed)
ACPI
CMOS
USMT
Which of the following slot types allows for adding primary storage modules to the motherboard?
USB
16/19
SATA
RAM ( Missed)
PATA
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the features of a motherboard's CPU socket? (Select all that apply)
PGA ( Missed)
TPM
LGA ( Missed)
FRU
ZIF ( Missed)
PGA2 ( Missed)
Which of the memory types listed below are designed to store permanent data that cannot be changed? (Select all
that apply)
RAM
EPROM
ROM ( Missed)
PROM ( Missed)
EEPROM
SO-DIMM ( Missed)
DIMM
MicroDIMM
C-RIMM
C-RIMM
MicroDIMM ( Missed)
SO-DIMM
DIMM
True
False ( Missed)
VRAM
DVD-RAM ( Missed)
Static RAM
17/19
Buffered memory
DRAM
What type of safety measures should accompany the installation of an adapter card?
ESD protection ( Missed)

EMI protection
RFI protection
EMP protection
A PCB that can be installed in a motherboard slot in order to extend the system functionality is commonly referred to
as an expansion card.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refer to examples of power management specifications? (Select 2 answers)
ACPI ( Missed)
HCL
ATM
AHCI
APM ( Missed)
PCIe is a high-speed, serial expansion bus designed as a replacement for: (Select all that apply)
PCI ( Missed)
SATA
USB
PCI-X ( Missed)
AGP ( Missed)
Examples of CPU hardware enhancements improving support for virtualization include: (Select 2 answers)
AHCI
VT-x ( Missed)
NX bit
AMD-V ( Missed)
EVP
Your Final Report
Total marks 148
Total Questions 110
18/19
Success ratio 0.91%
Marks secured 1
19/19
CompTIA A+ 220-902 Certification - Exam Acronyms Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-220-902-certification-exam-acronyms-quiz
Which of the following terms refers to an environment that allows to boot a PC through a network interface?
PoE
EFS
PXE ( Missed)
DLP
Methods used by Microsoft Windows operating systems for organizing disk partitions include: (Select 2 answers)
GUI
MBR ( Missed)
FAT32
GPT ( Missed)
NTFS
A Microsoft-proprietary file system optimized for flash drives is known as:
FAT32
NFS
exFAT ( Missed)
CDFS
Which of the answers listed below refers to a file system designed for optical media?
CDFS ( Missed)
FAT32
NTFS
exFAT
Which of the following terms refer to methods of storing and accessing data over computer network? (Select 2
answers)
exFAT
NTFS
DFS ( Missed)
FAT32
NFS ( Missed)
An MS Windows tool used for migrating user data and user information to a new computer is called:
UEFI
MMC
1/12
USMT ( Missed)
MBSA
A system that uses public network (such as Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections
between remote locations is called:
WWAN
VPN ( Missed)
DNS
VLAN
VLAN
WWAN ( Missed)
VPN
WLAN
DNS
SNMP
NAT
DHCP ( Missed)
SMTP
DNS
DHCP ( Missed)
SNMP
Which of the following is an example of an APIPA address?
127.0.0.1
192.168.0.3
169.254.10.20 ( Missed)
65.55.57.27
IDS
DNS ( Missed)
SQL
2/12
DFS
Which of the solutions listed below allows network administrators to prioritize certain types of network traffic?
NAC
UAC
NAT
QoS ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a type of software embedded into hardware device?
API
BIOS ( Missed)
HAL
NetBIOS
A cloud computing service model offering remote access to applications based on monthly pricing or annual
PaaS
SaaS ( Missed)
IaaS
In which of the cloud computing service models clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase
computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment
and software?
IaaS ( Missed)
SaaS
PaaS
web app?
SaaS
PaaS ( Missed)
IaaS
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a network security solution combining the functionality of a firewall with
additional safeguards such as URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection?
MTU
WPA
UTM ( Missed)
WAP
Which of the following actions can be taken by an IDS? (Select 2 answers)
3/12
Logging ( Missed)
Terminating process
Which of the answers listed below illustrates the difference between passive and active security breach response?
HIPS vs. NIPS

UTM vs. Firewall
CSMA/CD vs. CSMA/CA
A mobile device's built-in functionality enabling the usage of locator applications is called:
WPS
GSM
IMEI
GPS ( Missed)
A Windows command used for launching a GUI system utility for managing HDDs is called:
CONTROL.EXE
DISKPART.EXE
DEVMGMT.MSC
COMPMGMT.MSC
A set of tools used for developing applications for a specific platform is referred to as:
GUI
SDLC
API
SDK ( Missed)
A package file format used by Android OS for distribution and installation of mobile apps is known as:
XAP
APK ( Missed)
IPA
EXE
PAN ( Missed)
4/12
LAN
SAN
MAN

File exchange
IMAP4 is used for:
Serving web pages

Mobile device email configuration settings required for retrieval of messages from a mail server include: (Select all
that apply)
IMAP ( Missed)
SLP
SMTP
POP ( Missed)
SNMP
Which of the following protocols are used for securing HTTP connections? (Select 2 answers)
SCP
EFS
SSL ( Missed)
TLS ( Missed)
STP
HSPA
HSRP
HTTPS ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer to S/MIME? (Select 2 answers)
Lack of authentication
5/12
Lack of non-repudiation
Unencrypted communication
Which of the answers listed below refers to the default configuration settings a mobile device is shipped with?
PRI ( Missed)
RIS
PII
PRL
A database on a mobile device containing bands, sub-bands and service provider IDs allowing the device to
establish connection with the right cell phone tower is called:
PRL ( Missed)
RIS
PRI
PII
Which of the following answers refers to a unique number used for identification of a physical mobile device?
MAPI
IMEI ( Missed)
SSID
IMSI
A unique number used for identification of a mobile network phone user is known as:
USMT
MIMO
IMSI ( Missed)
IMEI
SSO ( Missed)
WAP
TPM
OVAL
Which security measure is in place when a client is denied access to the network due to an outdated antivirus
software?
NAS
6/12
DMZ
NAC ( Missed)
NAT
VoIP
DDoS
CIFS
MITM ( Missed)
Which of the following prevention methods fall(s) into the category of physical security controls? (Select all that
apply)
Key fob ( Missed)

Door lock ( Missed)
DLP
ACL
Firewall
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to software or hardware based security solutions designed to detect and
prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside of the corporate network?
DEP
RADIUS
DLP ( Missed)
PGP
Motion detection
Loop protection
A set of rules enforced in a network that restricts the use to which the network may be put is known as:
SLA
AUP ( Missed)
MOU
SOW
A Windows built-in component that allows for encryption of individual files is called:
7/12
EFS ( Missed)
AES
TPM
NTFS
A firmware interface designed as a replacement for BIOS is known as:
UEFI ( Missed)
ACPI
CMOS
USMT
Which of the answers listed below refers to a policy that allows employees to use their own mobile devices on a
corporate network?
BSOD
BYOD ( Missed)
JBOD
BYOB
A wireless network name is referred to as:
BSS
SSID ( Missed)
ESS
IBSS
A solution that simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to
easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network is known as:
WPA
WPS ( Missed)
WEP
WAP
WPS ( Missed)
WAP
WPA2
WAF
WEP ( Missed)
Which of the access control models listed below enforces the strictest set of access rules?
8/12
MAC ( Missed)
RBAC
DAC
HMAC
ARP is used to perform what kind of resolution?
IP to FQDN
MAC to IP
IP to MAC ( Missed)
FQDN to IP
IP filter
Post-admission NAC
RBAC
JBOD
BYOD
BSoD ( Missed)
DDOS
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of boot loader software used in Linux operating systems? (Select
all that apply)
GRUB ( Missed)
NTLDR
BOOTMGR
LILO ( Missed)
A collection of precompiled functions designed to be used by more than one Microsoft Windows application
simultaneously in order to save system resources is known as:
DLL ( Missed)
ISO
EXE
INI
Antistatic bags, antistatic wrist straps, and ground mats are all countermeasures used to protect computer and
communications equipment components against:
9/12
RFI
ESD ( Missed)
SVC
EMI
PSUs
Batteries ( Missed)
CRTs ( Missed)
LCDs
called:
AUP
MSTSC
MAU
MSDS ( Missed)
SCADA
HIPS
TEMPEST
HVAC ( Missed)
A device designed to provide emergency power during an unexpected main power source outage is referred to as:
UPS ( Missed)
PoE
SVC
PSU
What is the name of a control access technology providing protection against copyright infringement?
OEM
EULA
DRM ( Missed)
AUP
A type of agreement granting a user the right to use software application in a manner determined by the software
vendor is known as:
10/12
AUP
RMA
EULA ( Missed)
DRM
Which of the following tools can be used to create a backup copy of critical Windows system and boot files? (Select
2 answers)
ASR ( Missed)
ERD ( Missed)
USMT
SCP
CDFS
An access control method based on the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong is called:
HMAC
DAC ( Missed)
MAC
RBAC
Which of the following attacks uses multiple compromised computer systems against its target?
DoS
MITM
ECP
DDoS ( Missed)
A dedicated file server is also referred to as:
SMTP server
DNS server
HTTP server
FTP server ( Missed)
A network admin is able to ping remote host by its IP address, but not by FQDN. Which of the following is the most
probable source of the problem?
ICMP
DNS ( Missed)
NetBIOS
DHCP
A list of computer hardware that is compatible with a particular operating system or device management software is
referred to as:
11/12
SLA
HCL ( Missed)
WDS
HAL
What is the function of an HTTP server?
File storage
Serving of web pages ( Missed)
Name resolution
Email handling
manage networks, computers, services, and other system components in MS Windows is known as:
CMD
MSCONFIG
MMC ( Missed)
MSTSC
The SFC utility in Windows:
Encrypts files and folders

Scans for and restores corrupted system files ( Missed)
Displays information about system hardware and software configuration
Starts Windows programs from command-line interface
Your Final Report
Total marks 86
Total Questions 70
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
12/12
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Connectors & Cabling Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-connectors-and-cabling-quiz
Which of the following answers lists the maximum allowable length for a USB cable?
4.5 meters
1 meter
5 meters ( Your answer)
2 meters
The Land Grid Array (LGA) is a type of integrated circuit packaging that is notable for having the pins arranged in a
True ( Your answer)

False ( Missed)
A single Serial ATA (SATA) cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket to:
Two mass storage devices

Only one device ( Your answer)
Four mass storage devices
Three devices
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the characteristics of Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling? (Select all that apply)
Fiber-optic cabling
Cable consisting of 40 wires ( Your answer)
RJ-11 connector
Ribbon cable ( Your answer)
Cable consisting of 80 wires ( Missed)
Coaxial cabling
Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling uses:
68-pin connectors
40-pin connectors ( Your answer)
15-pin connectors
80-pin connectors
The maximum allowable cable length of 4.5 meters is a characteristic feature of: (Select all that apply)
IEEE 1394 ( Missed)

USB ( Your answer)
FireWire ( Missed)
PATA
1/11
eSATA (external SATA)
The PS/2 connector is a 6-pin Mini-DIN connector used for connecting: (Select all that apply)
Modems
Sound cards
Mice ( Missed)
Hard drives
Keyboards ( Missed)
Which of the following cabling types are used in optical-fiber communication links? (Select 2 answers)
Multimode ( Missed)
RG-6
Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
RG-59
Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
Single mode ( Missed)
Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector is a:

Parallel printer cable connectors include: (Select 2 answers)

IEEE 1394 connector
Which of the following answers refer(s) to S/PDIF? (Select all that apply)
Video interface
High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)
The Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard specifies the maximum allowable cable length of:
2/11
4.5 meters
1 meter
18 inches ( Missed)
2 meters
Which of the answers listed below refer to coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers)
RG-59 ( Missed)
UTP
Multimode
STP
RG-6 ( Missed)
Single mode
Which of the following devices connects to the motherboard via a 34-pin ribbon cable?
USB thumb drive

Floppy Disk Drive (FDD) ( Missed)
CRT monitor
Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
Audio/Modem Riser (AMR)
the pins on the socket rather than the integrated circuit.
True
False ( Missed)
The Serial ATA (SATA) interface standard defines a data cable connector consisting of:
40 pins
7 pins ( Missed)
15 pins
4 pins
34 pins
The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard specifies that type A connectors can be attached to: (Select 2 answers)
Target devices
Devices that supply power ( Missed)
Host devices ( Missed)
Any type of device
Devices that receive power
Which of the following connector types are used with fiber-optic cabling? (Select all that apply)
3/11
ST ( Missed)
SC ( Missed)
T568A
LC ( Missed)
RJ-11
BNC
True ( Missed)
False
The Serial ATA (SATA) interface specification defines the maximum allowable cable length of:
4.5 meters
1 meter ( Missed)
18 inches
2 meters
Which of the following connector types are used with coaxial cabling? (Select all that apply)
T568A
RJ-11
LC
RJ-45
BNC ( Missed)
T568B
SC
The external Serial ATA (eSATA) standard defines the maximum allowable cable length of:
4.5 meters
5 meters
1 meter
2 meters ( Missed)
Which of the following Digital Visual Interface (DVI) connector types does not provide support for digital signal
transmission?
DVI-D
DVI-A ( Missed)
DVI-I
4/11
DVI-A/D
Which of the following answers list the most common areas of application of the RJ-11 connector? (Select 2
answers)
Telephone equipment ( Missed)

Dial-up networking ( Missed)
Coaxial cabling
Fiber-optic communication
Ribbon cable
What is the maximum number of devices that can be attached to a PC through a single PATA cable?
1
2 ( Missed)
3
4
Which of the following twisted-pair cabling types provides additional protection against electromagnetic
interference?
STP ( Missed)
T568B
UTP
T568A
The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard specifies that type B connectors can be attached to: (Select 2 answers)
Target devices ( Missed)

Devices that supply power
Host devices
Any type of device
Devices that receive power ( Missed)
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following connector types are used with twisted-pair cabling? (Select all that apply)
ST
RJ-45 ( Missed)
RG-6
RJ-11 ( Missed)
5/11
F-connector
BNC
RG-59
The Serial ATA (SATA) interface standard defines a power connector consisting of:
7 pins
40 pins
15 pins ( Missed)
34 pins
Which of the following Digital Visual Interface (DVI) connector types does not provide support for analog signal
transmission?
DVI-D ( Missed)
DVI-A
DVI-I
DVI-A/D
The purpose of the characteristic "twist" in an FDD cable wiring is to allow the controller to differentiate between
drive A and drive B on the cable.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following connectors provide the capability for carrying both video and audio signals? (Select 2
answers)
S-Video
S/PDIF
DVI
DisplayPort ( Missed)
HDMI ( Missed)
Which of the following Digital Visual Interface (DVI) connector types provides support for both digital and analog
video signal transmission?
DVI-A
S/PDIF
DVI-I ( Missed)
Composite
DVI-D
Phono connector, Cinch connector, and "A/V jack" all refer to a popular type of electrical connector commonly used
to carry audio and video signals. This type of connector is formally known as:
DVI connector
6/11
VGA connector
RJ-45 connector
DE-15, DB-15, and HD-15 are names referring to the different variants of the:
RJ-45 connector
BNC connector
8P8C connector
In building construction, a space between the structural floor and the dropped ceiling (or under a raised floor)
facilitating air circulation for heating and air conditioning systems typically used to house the communication cables
for the building's computer and telephone network is known as plenum.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following connector types allow(s) for attaching keyboard to a PC? (Select all that apply)
PS/2 ( Missed)
6-pin Mini-DIN ( Missed)
DE-15
USB ( Missed)
F-connector
RJ-45
The standardized pin/pair assignment methods for twisted pair cabling are known as:
T568A and T568B ( Missed)

STP and UTP
RG-6 and RG-59
RJ-11 and RJ-45
Class A and Class B
The 20- or 24-pin connector providing main power to the motherboard is commonly referred to as:
RCA connector
ST connector
PS/2 connector
According to the fire safety standards, the jacket of a plenum-rated cable should be made of a low-smoke material
providing good resistance against fire.
True ( Missed)
7/11
False
Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the VGA
Video and audio

Audio
Video only ( Missed)
Digital and analog
Analog only ( Missed)
What is the cable segment length limit for CAT3, CAT5, and CAT5e cabling?
50 meters
180 feet
500 meters
Which of the following answers refers to the features of DisplayPort?
Analog video connector

Audio only connector
Video only connector
Digital audio/video connector ( Missed)
Analog audio connector
The most popular type of power connector in desktop PCs is commonly referred to as:
EPS12V
Molex ( Missed)
PCIe 6/8-pin
RCA connector
ATX12V
Mini-DIN
BNC connector
P1 connector
Which of the following answers refers to an 8-pin secondary power connector designed to supply dedicated power
for the CPU on high-end/server motherboards?
ATX12V
PCIe 6/8-pin
8/11
EPS12V ( Missed)
F-connector
Which of the following connector types plugs into a port of an Ethernet NIC?
DB15
S/PDIF
RCA
RJ-45 ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the HDMI
Analog signal
Video only
Digital signal ( Missed)
Audio only
Video and audio ( Missed)
Which older generation of personal computers relied on a 25-pin SCSI port for connecting mass storage devices?
AMD
Apple Macintosh ( Missed)
Intel
Windows-based PCs
Which types of standard FireWire connectors have the capability of supplying voltage to a device? (Select 2
answers)
2-pin connector
4-pin connector
8-pin connector
For optical connections, The IEEE 1394b standard extends the maximum allowable cable length to 100 meters.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following interfaces takes advantage of the 19-pin Type A connector?
USB
Thunderbolt
FireWire
DisplayPort
9/11
HDMI ( Missed)
Examples of connector types used for carrying audio signals include: (Select all that apply)
TRS connector ( Missed)

DVI-A connector
VGA connector
S/PDIF connector ( Missed)
A proprietary connector type used by Apple mobile devices is known as:
8P8C connector
Lightning connector ( Missed)
BNC connector
Lucent Connector (LC)
A single copper-based Thunderbolt cable provides the capability for a simultaneous transfer of: (Select all that apply)
Data from connected PCI Express (PCIe) devices ( Missed)

DC power ( Missed)
Data from connected DisplayPort devices ( Missed)
AC power
Which of the following answers lists the maximum allowable length for Thunderbolt copper cabling?
3 meters ( Missed)
4.5 meters
5 meters
10 meters
What is the maximum length of a fiber-optic Thunderbolt cable?
30 meters
40 meters
50 meters
60 meters ( Missed)
Connector types used with Thunderbolt devices include: (Select 2 answers)
USB Type-A
DVI-A
Mini DisplayPort (MDP) ( Missed)
USB Type-B
VGA connector
10/11
USB Type-C ( Missed)
Which of the following connectors is used for the purpose of increasing the power consumption limit of advanced PC
graphics cards?
15-pin VGA
F-connector
4/8-pin 12v
Your Final Report
Total marks 87
Total Questions 60
Success ratio 5%
Marks secured 5
11/11
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - CPU Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-cpu-quiz
Which of the following units is used for measuring the speed of modern CPUs?
GHz ( Your answer)

rpm
Gbps
MHz
A type of CPU architecture where a single physical CPU contains more than one execution core on a single die or
chip is known as:
Parallel processing
Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP)
Multicore ( Your answer)
Hyperthreading (HTT)
The Land Grid Array (LGA) is a type of integrated circuit packaging that is notable for having pins arranged in a
True ( Your answer)

False ( Missed)
Hyper-V
AMD Catalyst
VT-x
AMD-V ( Your answer)
What are the characteristic features of Socket T? (Select 3 answers)

PGA packaging
Intel CPU socket ( Your answer)
LGA packaging ( Your answer)
1150 contacts ( Your answer)
AMD CPU socket
Which of the following provides a CPU with the fastest access to frequently used data?
Flash memory
Multi-level cache ( Your answer)
Random Access Memory (RAM)
1/8
Secondary storage
The NX bit technology implemented in CPUs manufactured by Intel is called:
EVP
XD bit ( Your answer)
VT-x
Hyper-V
Which of the answers listed below refer to the features of Socket H2? (Select 3 answers)

AMD CPU socket
PGA packaging ( Your answer)
is known as:
RISC ( Your answer)

HPFS
EPIC
CISC
pins on the socket rather than the integrated circuit.
True ( Your answer)

False ( Missed)
Which of the following answers describe the characteristic features of Socket H/H1? (Select 3 answers)
AMD CPU socket ( Your answer)

PGA packaging
The bus between the CPU and the internal memory cache (L2 cache) inside the CPU housing is called:

Front-side bus (FSB) ( Your answer)
2/8
A set of Intel CPU hardware enhancements improving support for virtualization is known as:
EPV
VT-x ( Your answer)
Catalyst
Hyper-V
What are the characteristic features of Socket B? (Select 3 answers)

Intel CPU socket ( Your answer)
775 contacts
LGA packaging ( Your answer)
AMD CPU socket
PGA packaging ( Your answer)
The bus between the CPU and northbridge is called:
Back-side bus (BSB)

Universal Serial Bus (USB) ( Your answer)
Front-side bus (FSB) ( Missed)
Mini-DIN
BNC connector
P1 connector ( Your answer)
Which of the answers listed below describe the features of Socket H3? (Select 3 answers)
1366 contacts
AMD CPU socket ( Your answer)
PGA packaging
ZIF ( Missed)
TPM
3/8
ZIP
FRU
UART
ALU ( Missed)
GUI
LUN
Which of the following answers refer(s) to example(s) of Intel CPU(s) designed for desktop/workstation computers?
Itanium
Celeron ( Missed)
Pentium ( Missed)
Core i3 ( Missed)
Athlon
Core i5 ( Missed)
Core i7 ( Missed)
What is the name of a server-dedicated CPU series designed by AMD?
Athlon
Opteron ( Missed)
Itanium
Phenom
Sempron
Which of the following answers refer to the characteristics of Socket R? (Select 3 answers)

PGA packaging
AMD CPU socket
1366 contacts
Intel CPU server brands include: (Select 2 answers)
Xeon ( Missed)
Celeron
Opteron
Itanium ( Missed)
4/8
Sempron
Atom
The NX bit technology implemented by AMD in its CPUs is known as:
EVP ( Missed)
XD bit
VT-x
Hyper-V
The AMD CPU brands designed for desktop/workstation computers include: (Select all that apply)
Opteron
Athlon ( Missed)
Sempron ( Missed)
Phenom ( Missed)
FX ( Missed)
As opposed to active cooling components, such as cooling fans, heat sinks fall into the category of passive cooling
components because they do not need to draw any electrical power in order to operate.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers describe the features of Socket FM2? (Select 3 answers)
LGA packaging
Intel CPU socket
905 contacts
PGA packaging
A 64-bit CPU can be used either with a 32-bit or 64-bit version of the Microsoft Windows operating system.
True ( Missed)
False
What are the characteristic features of Socket FM2+? (Select 3 answers)

Intel CPU socket
PGA packaging
905 contacts
5/8
LGA packaging
Which of the terms listed below refers to a situation where a single CPU appears as two virtual CPUs to the
operating system?
Stepping
Multicore
Hyperthreading ( Missed)
Multitasking
What are the characteristic features of Socket AM3? (Select 3 answers)
PGA packaging
Intel CPU socket
942 contacts
LGA packaging
The most notable difference between Pin Grid Array (PGA) and Land Grid Array (LGA) packaging relates to the
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to solution(s) aimed at improving CPU heat dissipation? (Select all that
apply)
Heat sink ( Missed)

CPU fan ( Missed)
Dual rail
Thermal paste ( Missed)
Liquid-based cooling ( Missed)
P1 connector
graphics card?
DisplayPort
Integrated GPU ( Missed)
Multicore architecture
Hyperthreading
VGA mode
6/8
What are the characteristic features of Socket FM1? (Select 3 answers)

PGA packaging
Intel CPU socket
LGA packaging
904 contacts
In CPU cooling, thermal compound is applied to fill in the narrow space between:
CPU and heat sink ( Missed)

Heat sink and CPU fan
CPU and cooling pad
Heat sink and cooling pad
Which of the answers listed below refers to the area of implementation of No-eXecute bit (NX bit)?
Parity checks
Data backup
What are the characteristic features of Socket AM3+? (Select 3 answers)
LGA packaging
941 contacts
PGA packaging
Intel CPU socket

Parity bit
Which of the CPU models listed below are compatible with the LGA 775 socket?
Celeron, Sempron, Pentium, Core i3, Core i5, Core i7, Xeon E3, Xeon E5, Xeon E7
7/8
Athlon II X2, Athlon II X3, Athlon II X4, Phenom II, Phenom II X2, Phenom II X4, Phenom II X6, FX
Pentium 4, Pentium D, Celeron, Celeron D, Pentium XE, Core 2 Duo, Core 2 Extreme, Core 2 Quad, Xeon (
Missed)
Celeron, Pentium, Core i3, Core i5, Core i7, Xeon E3, Xeon E5, Xeon E7, Opteron
Your Final Report
Total marks 73
Total Questions 40
Success ratio 17.5%
Marks secured 13
8/8
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Display Devices Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-display-devices-quiz
A tiny spot on an LCD monitor display screen that permanently remains black when it should be activated and
displaying color is commonly referred to as stuck pixel.
True
False ( Missed)
A permanent computer display screen discoloration caused by displaying the same static image for extended
periods of time is known as:
Artifact
Stuck pixel
Burn-in ( Missed)
Dead pixel
Which of the actions listed below should be of help while troubleshooting non-responsive touchscreen of a mobile
device?
Reseating the device's battery

Erasing all content/settings and restoring the device to factory defaults (factory reset/hard reset)
Pressing a specific key combination/button to perform system restart (soft reset)
Removing screen protector and cleaning the screen
Twisted Nematic (TN) ( Missed)

Cathode Ray Tube (CRT)
Ultra Extended Graphics Array (UXGA)
In-Plane Switching (IPS)
What are the characteristic features of the In-Plane Switching (IPS) LCD panel technology? (Select 3 answers)

Fast response times
Low color quality
Low viewing angles
Which of the following answers describe the features of the Twisted Nematic (TN) LCD panel technology? (Select 3
answers)
1/6
High color quality
Slow response times
Wide viewing angles
LED
CCFL ( Missed)
DFS
OLED
Which of the following answers describe the function of a power inverter? (Select 2 answers)

Used for supplying voltage to backlights of an LCD panel ( Missed)
Used for supplying voltage to backlights of an OLED display
Examples of devices posing risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage include: (Select all that apply)
CRTs ( Missed)
Inverters ( Missed)
CPUs
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a new type of thin and lightweight display devices offering higher
contrast ratio and color quality in comparison to LCD without the need for a special light source to produce a visible
image?
OLED ( Missed)
LED
HDMI
HTPC
Aspect ratio
Interlacing
Screen resolution
2/6
A digital image displayed on the graphics monitor screen consists of pixels arranged in rows and columns (
Missed)
The term "screen resolution" refers to the maximum number of pixels in each dimension (horizontal and
vertical) that can be addressed by a digital display device ( Missed)
In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a CRT monitor it is usually recommended to set
the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the CRT's native resolution)
The term "screen resolution" refers to the relative horizontal and vertical size of a digital image displayed on
the graphics monitor screen
The smallest unit of a digital image represented on the digital display device is known as pixel ( Missed)
In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a LCD monitor it is usually recommended to set
the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the LCD's native resolution) (
Missed)
Hz ( Missed)
cd/m2
MHz
Lumen
KHz
Which of the following units is used for measuring the brightness of an image rendered by an image projector?
dB
cd/m2
Lumen ( Missed)
Hz
Hz
Lumens
dB
cd/m2 ( Missed)
Cable locks
Video surveillance
Security guards
Screensavers
A monitor filter used to reduce reflection from the surface of a CRT or LCD display is called:
3/6
Widescreen
Antiglare ( Missed)
Flat panel
Privacy filter
The relative horizontal and vertical size of a digital image displayed on the graphics monitor screen is referred to as:
Frame rate
Screen resolution
Native resolution
Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of the Extended Graphics Array (XGA) display

16:10 aspect ratio
5:4 aspect ratio
Display devices with aspect ratios of 16:10 and 16:9 are commonly referred to as:
UXGA displays
Fullscreen displays
WUXGA displays
The Super Extended Graphics Array (SXGA) display standard features: (Select 2 answers)

16:10 aspect ratio
4:3 aspect ratio
Which of the following answers refers to the standard display format for HDTV?
4:3 aspect ratio

5:4 aspect ratio
16:10 aspect ratio
4/6
What are the characteristic features of the Ultra Extended Graphics Array (UXGA) display standard? (Select 2
answers)
16:10 aspect ratio

5:4 aspect ratio
Which of the answers listed below refer to the Widescreen Ultra Extended Graphics Array (WUXGA) display
standard (Select 2 answers)

4:3 aspect ratio
4:3 aspect ratio
Which of the following display standards use(s) the 4:3 aspect ratio? (Select all that apply)
XGA ( Missed)
SXGA
UXGA ( Missed)
WUXGA
A dim display on a laptop LCD screen might indicate a problem related to: (Select 2 answers)
Stuck pixels
Backlight ( Missed)
Dead pixels
Incorrect color patterns
Inverter ( Missed)
XGA
SXGA
UXGA
WUXGA ( Missed)
When a computer monitor is unable to display image on the screen, the most common causes (and the easiest ones
to fix) for this problem include: (Select 2 answers)
5/6
Inverter failure
Loose cable connections ( Missed)
Bad LCD display
Wrong input selection ( Missed)
Backlight failure
Which of the terms listed below refers to the distorted display geometry issue?
Frame rate
Native resolution
Refresh rate
Screen Resolution is a Windows utility used for changing the appearance of connected displays. The tool includes a
feature that allows to click and drag a graphical representation of connected display device which in turn enables
troubleshooting of multiple monitor misalignment/orientation issues.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report
Total marks 48
Total Questions 30
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
6/6
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Network Devices & Tools Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-network-devices-and-tools-quiz
Hub ( Missed)
Switch
Access point
Bridge
Router
Hub
Switch ( Missed)
Firewall
A device designed to filter and transfer IP packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called:
Hub
Switch
Load balancer
Router ( Missed)
as:
Captive portal
Active hub
segments?

Layer 3 switch
Cable modem

1/4
ICS server
Multilayer switch
Default gateway
Antivirus
Firewall ( Missed)
Antispyware
Malware
A simple device consisting of multiple computer ports arranged in rows used for the purpose of cable management is
known as:
F-connector
Media converter
Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
Patch panel ( Missed)
A type of network device that amplifies received signal so it can be transmitted over greater distance without loss in
quality is called:
Patch panel
Multiplexer
Repeater ( Missed)
Passive hub
Which of the answers listed below refers to a network device that allows to overcome limitations related to the
maximum allowable cable segment length?
Passive hub
Extender ( Missed)
Patch panel
Multiplexer
called:
PLC ( Missed)
ECP
PoE
EPP
2/4
EPP
PoE ( Missed)
ECP
PLC
Which of the following tools would be used for attaching RJ-45 connectors to a twisted-pair Ethernet cable?
Cable tester
Needle-nose pliers
Punchdown tool
Crimper ( Missed)
Cable crimper
Snips
Punchdown tool
Which of the tools listed below would be used for testing power supply voltage output?
Torx screwdriver
Toner and probe kit
Loopback plug
What is the name of a networking tool used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle or tracing individual wires in a
cable?
Spectrum analyzer
Multimeter
A type of tool used for verifying correct electrical connections of wires in a cable is known as:
Loopback plug
Tone generator
Multimeter
While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC's port can be tested
with the use of:
POST card
Cable tester
3/4
Multimeter
Which of the networking tools listed below is used for attaching wires to a patch panel?
Cable crimper
Cable stripper
Needle-nose pliers
Which of the following networking tools would be of help in determining the optimal placement of a WAP?
Pentest
Proximity reader
Wi-Fi analyzer ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 20
Total Questions 20
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
4/4
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Network Protocols Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-network-protocols-quiz
What is the bit length of an IPv4 address?
32 bits ( Missed)
48 bits
64 bits
128 bits
Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv4 loopback address?
::1
FE80::/64
169.254/169
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
127.0.0.1 ( Missed)
Octagonal numbers
Binary numbers
Decimal numbers
32 bits
48 bits
64 bits
128 bits ( Missed)
Which of the following are IPv6 loopback addresses? (Select 2 answers)
127.0.0.1
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 ( Missed)
169.254/16
::1 ( Missed)
FE80::/64
make the address shorter.
True ( Missed)
False
1/8

Serving web pages
computers?
Telnet
SSH ( Missed)
Bcrypt
TFTP
CHAP
FTP
SNMP
SSH ( Missed)
Telnet does not offer encryption and sends passwords in cleartext.
True ( Missed)
False
FTP
HTTPS ( Missed)
Telnet
HTTP
IPsec ( Missed)
SSH ( Missed)
What is the function of SMTP?
File exchange
Sending email messages between mail servers ( Missed)
Serving web pages
Which of the following answers refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data,
such as for example numerical IP addresses?
2/8
TCP/IP
DNS ( Missed)
SQL
DHCP
needs to be translated into an IP address. Which of the servers listed below is used to handle this type of request?
ICS server
Web server
DHCP server
A protocol used for retrieving contents of an Internet page from a web server is called:
SNMP
HTTP ( Missed)
SMTP
IMAP
HSPA
HSRP
HTTPS ( Missed)
Sending email messages between mail servers

File exchange
IMAP4 is used for:
Serving web pages

RDP ( Missed)
3/8
IPP
RIP
WAP
Which of the following would be in use when a WINS server tries to resolve a host name into an IP address on a
Windows-based LAN?
TCP/IP
NetBIOS ( Missed)
Telnet
DNS
True ( Missed)
False
Server Message Block (SMB) and Common Internet File System (CIFS) are examples of network protocols used for
providing shared access to files, directories, and devices.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the protocols listed below is used for automated discovery of networked services on Local Area Networks
(LANs)?
SMB
AFP
CIFS
SLP ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a file sharing network protocol?
RIP
NNTP
AFP ( Missed)
SNMP
DNS
SNMP
NAT
DHCP ( Missed)
Which of the server types listed below is used to assign dynamic IP addresses to devices on a network?
DNS server
4/8
DHCP server ( Missed)
FTP server
WINS server
SMTP
DNS
DHCP ( Missed)
SNMP
True
False ( Missed)
establish a connection (three-way handshake), supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the
amount of data that is being sent), or sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order).
True
False ( Missed)
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) provides what kind of resolution?
IPv6 to IPv4
MAC to IP
Domain name to IP
IP to MAC ( Missed)
Which of the protocols listed below is used by the PING utility?
IPsec
SNMP
SSH
ICMP ( Missed)
A type of network protocol used for exchanging information concerning the state of the IP network (e.g. testing the
reachability of a remote host) is known as:
CIFS
IMAP
ICMP ( Missed)
PPTP
Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used for performing printing-related task on a network?
5/8
PPP
IPP ( Missed)
NTP
PPTP
The term Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) refers to a suite of protocols providing authentication and encryption
features in order to ensure secure exchange of IP packets.
True ( Missed)
False
What is the function of NNTP?
Retrieval of email messages from a mail server

Posting, distribution, and retrieval of newsgroup messages ( Missed)
Synchronizing clocks over a computer network
Translation of domain names into IP addresses
A network protocol used for synchronizing clocks over a computer network is called:
NTP ( Missed)
AFP
SLP
RTC
Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used for establishing a dedicated point-to-point link between two
networked devices?
IPP
SLP
NTP
PPP ( Missed)
Which of the network protocols listed below allows for creating encrypted links over unsecure public networks such
as the Internet and sending regular traffic through those secure links?
IPP
PPTP ( Missed)
RIP
6/8
PPP
Which of the following answers lists an example of a routing protocol?
RDP
CIFS
RIP ( Missed)
TKIP
SMTP
ICMP
SNMP ( Missed)
IPsec
What are the characteristic features of TFTP? (Select all that apply)
Provides no security features ( Missed)

Typically used for exchanging files over the Internet
A very basic form of file sharing protocol ( Missed)
Frequently used for exchanging boot and configuration files on private LANs ( Missed)
Provides authentication and encryption
A solution designed to strengthen existing WEP implementations without the requirement for replacement of legacy
hardware is called:
IPsec
TKIP ( Missed)
SSH
HTTPS
What is the common term for a group of protocols used to carry voice data over a packet-switched network?
VoIP ( Missed)
PSTN
PBX
POTS
Which of the answers listed below refers to a suite of protocols used to enable Internet access on mobile devices?
WPA
WAP ( Missed)
WEP
WPS
7/8
Your Final Report
Total marks 52
Total Questions 45
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
8/8
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Port Numbers Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-port-numbers-quiz
20
22
21 ( Missed)
25
23
25
20 ( Missed)
21
Port 23
Port 25
Port 21
Port 22 ( Missed)
Secure Shell (SSH)

Telnet ( Missed)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) operates with the use of port:
110
25 ( Missed)
143
23
Which of the following port numbers is used by Domain Name System (DNS)?
25
23
53 ( Missed)
67
1/3
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) ( Missed)

Telnet
Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on port:
110 ( Missed)
143
123
443
Port 143 is assigned to:

Which of the port numbers listed below is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)?
80
443 ( Missed)
53
143
A network technician uses a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS in order to remotely
troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-
in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection?
1701
139
3389 ( Missed)
548
136
161
137 ( Missed)
162
138 ( Missed)
139 ( Missed)
2/3
Port 445 is used by: (Select 2 answers)

Server Message Block (SMB) ( Missed)
Common Internet File System (CIFS) ( Missed)
What is the port number for Service Location Protocol (SLP)?
143
427 ( Missed)
548
443
Which of the port numbers listed below is used by an Apple-proprietary file services protocol?
427
443
445
548 ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 18
Total Questions 15
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
3/3
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Printers Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-printers-quiz
Which of the following places in Microsoft Windows allows for easy access to all queued print jobs?
Control Panel
Windows Taskbar ( Missed)
Device Manager
Print spooler
In laser printing, long vertical streaks on each output page indicate a problem related to:
Printer calibration
Damaged imaging drum ( Missed)
Printer driver
Clogged print head nozzles
Which of the answers listed below refer to languages used for describing the appearance of a printed page? (Select
2 answers)
DLT
PRL
PostScript ( Missed)
PCL ( Missed)
LPT
Garbled characters on the output pages would indicate a problem related to the printer's:
Calibration
Device driver ( Missed)
Fuser assembly
Imaging drum
Which of the following allow(s) for print device sharing over a wired connection? (Select all that apply)
USB ( Missed)
Parallel ( Missed)
802.11x
Bluetooth
Ethernet ( Missed)
Infrared (IR)
Serial ( Missed)
1/6
them is called:
Task Scheduler
Feed assembly
Task Manager
What is the name of a Windows Vista Control Panel applet used for adding, removing, and managing printers?
HomeGroup
Printers and Faxes
Printers ( Missed)
Which of the printer types listed below use inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper? (Select 2 answers)
Inkjet
Laser
Thermal
Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate to clean the inside of a laser printer? (Select all that
apply)

Regular vacuum
Cleaning brush
XPS ( Missed)
GDI
PCL
PDF ( Missed)
TXT
Which of the answers listed below refers to a standard unit for measuring print resolution?
Aspect ratio
Pixels per inch (ppi)
Candelas per square metre (cd/m2)
Dots per inch (dpi) ( Missed)
Which of the printing methods utilizes the XPS format?

2/6
Laser
Inkjet
Thermal
Virtual ( Missed)
PRL
RDP
IPP ( Missed)
LPD/LPR ( Missed)
PRI
Which of the following answers lists the correct sequence of steps in the laser printing process?

Which type of printer takes advantage of tractor feed during printing process?
Inkjet
Laser
Impact ( Missed)
Thermal
GDI ( Missed)
IDS
PostScript
PCL
Imaging drum is a printer component used in:
Inkjet printers
Thermal printers
Impact printers
Which of the printer types listed below fall into the category of impact printers? (Select 2 answers)
Laser
Inkjet
3/6
Thermal
A set of printer replacement parts is commonly referred to as:
Spare kit
Field Replaceable Unit (FRU)
Maintenance kit ( Missed)
Standard technician toolkit
Which of the following allow(s) for print device sharing over a wireless connection? (Select all that apply)
Bluetooth ( Missed)
Ethernet
802.11x ( Missed)
Parallel
USB
What is the name of a printer component that allows for automatic printing on both sides of the page?
Pickup roller
Duplexing assembly ( Missed)
Transfer roller
Fuser assembly
Examples of parallel printer cable connectors include: (Select 2 answers)

IEEE 1394
Which of the following Windows 7/8/8.1 Control Panel applets allows for adding, removing, and managing printers?
Printers
Devices and Printers ( Missed)
Action Center
Printers and Faxes
True
4/6
False ( Missed)
Toner cartridge
Print head
Cleaning blade
Which of the printer types listed below provide(s) the capability to produce duplicate pages (multipart forms) during
printing process? (Select all that apply)
Inkjet
Thermal
Impact ( Missed)
Laser
Which printer type is often used as a PoS terminal component?
Inkjet
Laser
Thermal ( Missed)
Impact
Which step of the laser printer imaging process requires troubleshooting if a printer produces ghost images on
output pages?
Charging
Fusing
Exposing
Developing
Cleaning ( Missed)
Which of the symptoms listed below would indicate a depleted toner cartridge as the source of a printing problem?
Faded prints ( Missed)

Garbled characters on paper
Ghost images
Printing blank pages ( Missed)
Vertical streaks on each output page
A single sheet or roll of printing paper with holes punched along each side is designed for use with:
5/6
Laser printers
Dot-matrix printers ( Missed)
Inkjet printers
Thermal printers
Your Final Report
Total marks 45
Total Questions 30
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
6/6
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - RAM Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-ram-quiz
Random Access Memory (RAM) falls into the category of the so-called volatile storage media. It requires a
continuous flow of electricity to preserve its contents thus all the data stored in RAM lasts only while the power is on.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Static Random Access Memory
(SRAM)? (Select all that apply)

Faster than Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) ( Missed)
motherboard)
More expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) ( Missed)
Slower than Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)
Utilized for CPU cache memory chips ( Missed)
Less expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)
Which of the following answers describes(s) the characteristics of Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)?

Utilized for CPU cache memory chips
More expensive in comparison to Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
Slower than Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) ( Missed)
motherboard) ( Missed)
Faster than Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
Less expensive in comparison to Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) ( Missed)
The term "Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (SDRAM)" refers to a broad category of DRAM modules
that rely on the signal sent by the system clock in order to coordinate their functioning with other internal PC
components.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the statements listed below are true? (Select all that apply)
The speed of the system bus is measured in clock cycles ( Missed)

1/7
In computer architecture, the term "word" refers to a group of bits processed as a unit ( Missed)
The speed of the system bus in modern PCs is measured in GHz (i.e. billions of cycles per second)
A single clock cycle is an equivalent of a period of time between two adjacent signals sent by the system
clock ( Missed)
The speed of the system bus in modern PCs is measured in MHz (i.e. millions of cycles per second) (
Missed)
Depending on the system specs, a single clock cycle might be an equivalent of multiple ticks of the system
clock
A Single Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (SDR SDRAM) can read/write one word of data
per clock cycle.
True ( Missed)
False
What is the number of contact pins used in SDR SDRAM modules?
144
168 ( Missed)
184
240
The placement of a notch on the RAM module contact surface allows for proper alignment of the module with the
memory bank on the motherboard and prevents the installation of incompatible memory types.
True ( Missed)
False
What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (DDR
SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

168 contact pins
Which of the answers listed below refers to the industry name used for DDR-333 modules?
PC-2100
PC-2400
PC-2700 ( Missed)
PC-3200
What is the peak transfer rate of a DDR-266 module?
2/7
1600 MB/s
2133 MB/s ( Missed)
2666 MB/s
3200 MB/s

204 contact pins
Which of the following answers refers to the industry name used for DDR2-1066 modules?
PC2-4200
PC2-5300
PC2-6400
PC2-8500 ( Missed)
What is the total bandwidth of a DDR2-533 module?
3200 MB/s
4266 MB/s ( Missed)
5333 MB/s
6400 MB/s

204 contact pins
Which of the answers listed below refers to the industry name used for DDR3-1333 modules?
PC3-6400
PC3-8500
PC3-10600 ( Missed)
3/7
PC3-12800
What is the maximum amount of data that can be transferred each second by a DDR3-1600 module?
6400 MB/s
8533 MB/s
10667 MB/s
12800 MB/s ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the characteristics of Dual In-line Memory Modules (DIMMs)? (Select
all that apply)
Printed Circuit Board (PCB) type used as a placeholder for memory chips ( Missed)
32-bit data path
Separate electrical contacts on each side of the module ( Missed)
Obsolete memory packaging type used only in legacy systems
64-bit data path ( Missed)
Unified electrical contact surface spanning both sides of the module
Used with various SDRAM memory types (SDR, DDR, DDR2, and DDR3) ( Missed)
SO-DIMM ( Missed)
DIMM
MicroDIMM
C-RIMM
Which of the following answers lists the number of pins used by SO-DIMM DDR SDRAM memory modules?
168
172
200 ( Missed)
204
DDR2 SO-DIMM memory modules have: (Select 2 answers)
144 pins ( Missed)

172 pins
200 pins ( Missed)
214 pins
240 pins
What is the number of pins used by SO-DIMM DDR3 SDRAM modules?
168
172
4/7
204 ( Missed)
214
C-RIMM
MicroDIMM ( Missed)
SO-DIMM
DIMM
Which of the answers listed below refers to the number of pins used by MicroDIMM DDR SDRAM memory modules?
168
172 ( Missed)
204
214
What is the number of pins used by MicroDIMM DDR2 SDRAM modules?
200
204
214 ( Missed)
240
ECC type RAM:
Digest
Binary number
Hash value
True
False ( Missed)
The color-coded memory slots on the motherboard indicate that the system is capable of taking advantage of the
5/7
multi-channel memory architecture.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following characteristics apply to the type of RAM most commonly used as the main system memory in
desktop PCs? (Select 3 answers)
Buffered memory
Non-ECC memory ( Missed)
Static RAM
Unbuffered memory ( Missed)
Dynamic RAM ( Missed)
ECC memory
Taking advantage of the performance benefits offered by the multi-channel memory architecture requires: (Select all
that apply)
Memory modules of matching types ( Missed)

Memory modules of matching speeds ( Missed)
Installing memory modules in any of the free memory slots on the motherboard
Memory modules of the same capacity ( Missed)
Installing modules in appropriate memory slots (slots of matching color) on the motherboard ( Missed)
A type of typically more expensive memory modules equipped with additional circuitry designed to ensure better
system stability and accuracy of data processing is known as: (Select all that apply)
VRAM
RDIMM ( Missed)
Synchronous DRAM
UDIMM
Unbuffered memory
A single-sided memory module type can have memory chips placed on both sides of the module.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following RAM types would be the most suitable choices for a high-end server? (Select 3 answers)
UDIMM
Non-ECC memory
RDIMM ( Missed)
6/7
Unbuffered memory
ECC memory ( Missed)
VRAM
DVD-RAM ( Missed)
SRAM
Buffered memory
DRAM
Your Final Report
Total marks 62
Total Questions 35
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
7/7
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Storage Devices & Media Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-storage-devices-and-media-quiz
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of storage media type(s) that can be read, but not written to?
BD-R
CD-ROM ( Missed)
DVD-RW
BD-RE
DVD-ROM ( Missed)
CD-RW
Which of the terms listed below refers to computer data storage systems, data storage devices, and data storage
media that can be written to once, but read from multiple times?
DVD-RW
Tape library
Floppy disk
WORM ( Missed)
Which of the following is an example of Write Once, Read Many (WORM) storage media type?
BD-R ( Missed)
Flash drive
CD-RW
Magnetic tape
CD-ROM
What are the storage limitations of a standard CD-ROM media format? (Select 2 answers)
Less than 800 MB of data storage capacity ( Missed)

120 minutes of uncompressed audio
More than 800 MB of data storage capacity
Up to 80 minutes of uncompressed audio ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of storage media type(s) that can be erased and written to multiple
times? (Select all that apply)
BD-R
CD-ROM
DVD-RW ( Missed)
BD-RE ( Missed)
DVD-ROM
1/8
CD-RW ( Missed)
Platters of a magnetic hard drive spin at a rate measured in:

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a dedicated storage appliance that can be added to a local network?
SPS
NAS ( Missed)
SAN
NFS
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of hot-swappable drives? (Select all that apply)
USB drive ( Missed)

PATA drive
FireWire drive ( Missed)
IDE drive
SATA drive ( Missed)
eSATA drive ( Missed)
A type of storage device with no moving parts that uses memory chips instead of magnetic platters is commonly
referred to as a Solid-State Drive (SSD).
True ( Missed)
False

SATA
IEEE 1394
eSATA
cameras?
xD ( Missed)
SD
SSD
2/8
Mini-SD
Micro-SD
A hybrid drive provides a combination of which of the following technologies? (Select 2 answers)
SD
HDD ( Missed)
xD
SSD ( Missed)
CF
CF
Mini-SD
eMMC ( Missed)
Micro-SD
xD
volume size, improve performance, or reliability is called:
Serial ATA (SATA)

Parallel ATA (PATA)
RAID 5
Disk duplexing
RAID 0 ( Missed)
Disk mirroring
RAID 1

3/8

The term "Disk duplexing" refers to a more reliable RAID Level 1 configuration setup where each disk relies on its
own hardware that controls the drive.
True ( Missed)
False

Which of the following RAID array types has the highest disk overhead?
RAID Level 3
RAID Level 5
RAID Level 6
RAID Level 1 ( Missed)
2 drives
3 drives
4 drives ( Missed)
5 drives
Which of the answers listed below refer to a nested (hybrid) RAID level? (Select 2 answers)
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 1+0 ( Missed)
RAID 5
RAID 10 ( Missed)
4/8
Which type of RAID level creates a striped set from a series of mirrored drives?
RAID 0
RAID 1
RAID 5
RAID 10 ( Missed)

7.8 GB of data
8.5 GB of data
15.6 GB of data

15.6 GB of data
4.7 GB of data
7.8 GB of data
Which of the following statements describing the Blu-ray Disc (BD) technology are true? (Select 4 answers)
A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 15 GB of data

BD-RE discs can be erased and written to multiple times ( Missed)
A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 50 GB of data ( Missed)
A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB of data ( Missed)
BD-RE discs can be written to once
A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 30 GB of data
BD-R discs can be erased and written to multiple times
A single-layer mini Blu-ray disc can store up to:
8.544 GB of data
4.7 GB of data
15.6 GB of data
8.544 GB
4.7 GB
7.8 GB
15.6 GB ( Missed)
5/8
Which of the answers listed below describe the features of tape drives? (Select 3 answers)
Fast seek times

Low capacity
Volatile storage media

What is the name of a cloud-based data storage service provided by Microsoft?
iDrive
Cloud Drive
Dropbox
OneDrive ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the common storage media types that can be used locally to boot/install
an OS? (Select all that apply)
PXE
Netboot
Recovery partition on internal HDD ( Missed)
USB drive ( Missed)
CD-ROM disc ( Missed)
DVD disc ( Missed)
The term "Recovery disc" refers to a removable media type commonly shipped with most new computers allowing a
user to reformat the hard drive and restore the operating system to the original factory condition as configured by an
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers lists an HDD form factor used in desktops?
5.25-inch
6/8
2.5-inch
3.5-inch ( Missed)
1.8-inch
On a SCSI bus, each device is assigned a number from 0 to 15 known as:
SCSI ID ( Missed)
Device ID
OUI
Bus ID

Power spikes
drive?
Quick format
Overwriting data
Low-level format
VRAM
DVD-RAM ( Missed)
SRAM
Buffered memory
DRAM
A 3.5-inch floppy disk can store up to:
360 KB
1.44 MB ( Missed)
360 KB
1.2 MB
What is the HDD form factor used in laptops?
3.5-inch
5.25-inch
1.8-inch
7/8
2.5-inch ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 64
Total Questions 40
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
8/8
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Security Threats &
Vulnerabilities Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-security-threats-and-vulnerabilities-quiz
Harmful programs used to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive information, or gain unauthorized access to
Trojans
Malware ( Missed)
Viruses
Spyware
Logic bomb
Adware
Computer worm
Spyware ( Missed)
Adware
Spam
Virus ( Missed)
Flash cookie
Spyware
Worm ( Missed)
Trojan
Spam
called:
Adware
Computer worm
Spyware
1/5
Trojan
Rootkit ( Missed)
Armored virus
Backdoor
Root access
Administrative access
Zero-day vulnerability
Backdoor ( Missed)
Grayware
Adware
Spyware
Phishing ( Missed)
Backdoor access
Shoulder surfing
Phishing ( Missed)
Zero-day exploit
Vishing
Phishing scams targeting selected individuals/groups of users are referred to as:
Vishing
MITM attack
Whaling
An email sent from unknown source disguised as a source known to the message receiver is an example of: (Select
2/5
2 answers)
Spoofing ( Missed)
Dictionary attack
Trojan horse
Brute-force attack
Tailgating
Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol used in the most common types of spoofing attacks?
SMTP ( Missed)
RDP
SNMP
Telnet
The unauthorized practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating people into disclosing sensitive data
is known as:
Zero-day attack
MITM attack
Backdoor access
MITM attack
Dictionary attack
Zero-day attack
Tailgating
Man-in-the-middle attack
Brute-force attack
A zero-day attack exploits:
New accounts
Patched software
3/5
hijacker is called:
Honeypot
Zombie ( Missed)
Logic bomb
Proxy
Which of the following terms is used to describe a collection of intermediary compromised systems under control of
a hacker?
Honeynet
Botnet ( Missed)
Intranet
Malware
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the password attacks listed below takes advantage of a predefined list of words?
Replay attack
Birthday attack
Brute-force attack
What type of security measure is in place when a client is denied access to the network due to an outdated antivirus
software?
NAS
DMZ
NAC ( Missed)
NAT
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the implementation of best security practices in a corporate environment?

Strong authentication ( Missed)
Patch/update management ( Missed)
4/5
Appropriate data destruction and disposal methods ( Missed)
Virtualization support
What is tailgating?
Acquiring unauthorized access to confidential data

Spoofing
Zero-day attack
Spear phishing
MITM ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Windows System Utilities Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-windows-system-utilities-quiz
Which of the following system utilities in Windows provides access to a database containing system configuration
information?
NBTSTAT
MSCONFIG
REGEDIT ( Missed)
MSINFO32
Which other command-line command besides REGEDIT can be used to launch registry editor in Windows?
REGDT
COMMAND
REGEDIT32
MSTSC
REGEDT32 ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a command interpreter utility in Windows?
CMD ( Missed)
MSCONFIG
MSTSC
MMC
A Microsoft Windows tool for managing background applications is called:
MSCONFIG
SERVICES.MSC ( Missed)
BCDEDIT
MSINFO32
manage networks, computers, services, and other system components in Windows is known as:
CMD
MSCONFIG
MMC ( Missed)
MSTSC
Which of the following answers refers to the MS Windows client application for Remote Desktop Services?
MBSA
REGSVR32
1/3
SERVICES.MSC
MSTSC ( Missed)
A simple Windows text-editing utility that can be launched from any place in the Command Prompt without the need
for specifying path to the application's file location is called:
WORDPAD
EXPLORER
NOTEPAD ( Missed)
MSWORD
What is the name of a GUI-based file and folder manager application in Windows?
EXPLORER ( Missed)
BOOTREC
IEXPLORE
MSTSC
A Microsoft Windows application utility that displays details about computer's hardware configuration, computer
components, software, and device drivers is known as:
MSCONFIG
NBTSTAT
MSINFO32 ( Missed)
IEXPLORE
Which of the answers listed below refers to a diagnostic tool for detecting display, sound, and input related problems
in MS Windows?
DXDIAG ( Missed)
MMC
DirectX
REGSVR32
An MS Windows system utility designed to improve file access speed by rearranging data stored on a disk or drive
is called:
FORMAT
DEFRAG ( Missed)
CHKDSK
DISKPART
A system utility available in Windows ME and newer releases of Microsoft operating systems that allows to roll back
system files and settings to an earlier point in time is known as:
Task Manager
2/3
Computer Management
Which of the following DEFRAG command parameters allows to locate and consolidate fragmented files on all
volumes?
/A
/E
/V
/C ( Missed)
recover such files.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a Microsoft online service that allows for patching up system vulnerabilities,
improving system performance, and fixing coding errors found in Windows software?
Action Center
Security Center
Windows Store
Your Final Report
Total marks 15
Total Questions 15
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
3/3
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam - Operational Procedures Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-a-plus-certification-exam-operational-procedures-quiz
Which of the following tools are used to provide protection against ESD? (Select all that apply)

Tech bench
PSUs
Batteries ( Missed)
CRTs ( Missed)
LCDs
apply)
CRTs ( Missed)
Inverters ( Missed)
CPUs
called:
AUP
MSTSC
MAU
MSDS ( Missed)
SCADA
HIPS
TEMPEST
HVAC ( Missed)
The term "Brownout" refers to what kind of situation?
1/5
Power spike
Power outage
What does the term "Blackout" refer to?
Power outage ( Missed)

Power spike
Drop in voltage
UPS ( Missed)
PoE
SVC
PSU
apply)
Virtualization
RAID ( Missed)
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) ( Missed)
A device designed to protect electronic devices from large voltage fluctuations is known as:

Surge suppressor ( Missed)
Voltage regulator module (VRM)
Which of the following tools would be used to clean the inside of a printer? (Select all that apply)
Regular vacuum
Cleaning brush
2/5
Proxy list
Order of volatility
Access log
A type of control access technology providing protection against copyright infringement is called:
OEM
EULA
DRM ( Missed)
AUP
A type of agreement granting a user the right to use software application in a manner determined by the software
vendor is known as:
AUP
RMA
EULA ( Missed)
DRM
PIN
Biometrics
PII ( Missed)
PKI
Examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing with difficult customer include: (Select 2
answers)
Missed)
3/5
Arguing with a technical user if necessary to educate them
Listening to the customer and avoiding interruptions until he or she has finished describing the problem (
Missed)
Relying on your own judgment and not restating/clarifying what the customer says
Which of the answers listed below refers to an example of appropriate handling of customer's confidential data in a
situation where troubleshooting requires user's password?

Break the password
Which of the following actions should be the first step in the troubleshooting process?
Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem

Conducting external or internal research based on problem symptoms
Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem is a troubleshooting step that apart from conducting research
based on symptoms may also involve asking for assistance of a more experienced tech.
True
False ( Missed)
Once the theory of probable cause of the problem has been established, the next troubleshooting step should
involve:

Implementing the solution
Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the troubleshooting methodology
process is to:
Conduct research based on symptoms

Test the theory to determine problem cause
Implement the solution ( Missed)
Establish a theory of probable cause of the problem
According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable
preventative measures should be performed:
After documenting findings, actions and outcomes
4/5
As the first step of the troubleshooting process
After implementing the solution ( Missed)
As the last step of the troubleshooting process
The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes. This step
comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventive measures.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report
Total marks 38
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
CompTIA Network+ Exam - Wireless Networking Quiz (part 1 of
2)
examcompass.com/wireless-networking-quiz-part-1-of-2
A wireless networking topology consisting of at least one Access Point (AP) providing client devices with access to
network resources is known as:
Infrastructure mode ( Missed)

Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
Ad hoc mode
Peer-to-peer mode
Which of the following answers refers to a loss in wireless signal strength during transmission caused by increasing
distance and obstacles encountered on the signal path?
Amplitude
Channel bonding
Attenuation ( Missed)
Cross-talk
Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) is a network protocol providing means for controlling access to transmission
medium. "Carrier Sense" refers to the capability of a networked host to continuously monitor other hosts sharing the
transmission medium to see if they are transmitting. "Multiple Access" refers to the presence of multiple hosts
sharing the transmission medium.
True ( Missed)
False
The IEEE 802.11g wireless networking standard amendment provides for backward compatibility with:
802.11a
802.11n
802.16
802.11b ( Missed)
In half-duplex communication transmission takes place:
In one direction only

Half-duplex communication is a characteristic feature of wireless networking.
True ( Missed)
False
1/7
The IEEE 802.11b wireless standard amendment specifies the use of frequency band of:
5.0 GHz
2.4 GHz ( Missed)
3.6 GHz
5.4 GHz
The IEEE 802.11i amendment to the 802.11 wireless networking standard specifies security mechanisms for
wireless networks.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the terms listed below refers to WPA2?
IEEE 802.11i ( Missed)

IEEE 802.1q
IEEE 802.11n
IEEE 802.3
802.11 is the IEEE standard for implementing what kind of networks?
Ethernet
Fiber optic
WLANs ( Missed)
Token ring
A type of management frame containing information about the wireless network that helps wireless-capable devices
discover the presence of a wireless LAN is known as:
Beacon frame ( Missed)

Magic packet
Service Set Identifier (SSID)
Jumbo frame
Scope
Channel ( Missed)
Service set
Layer
Which of the following answers refers to the modification of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) network
access method used in wireless networks?
CSMA/CD
HSPA+
2/7
CSMA/CA ( Missed)
WiMAX
The IEEE 802.11a wireless standard amendment specifies the use of frequency band of:
5.0 GHz ( Missed)

2.4 GHz
3.6 GHz
5.4 GHz
Which of the following terms is used as a synonym for a rogue Access Point (AP)?
Trojan horse
Evil twin ( Missed)
Backdoor
Computer worm
WEP
WPA
WPS
WPA2 ( Missed)
The IEEE 802.11b wireless standard amendment specifies maximum data signaling rate of:
11 Mbps ( Missed)
1 Mbps
54 Mbps
2 Mbps
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the signal modulation methods specified in the IEEE 802.11 standard?
Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS) ( Missed)

Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) ( Missed)
Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) ( Missed)
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
A feature of some wireless routers and network adapters that enables support for connections on both 2.4-GHz and
5-GHz links is known as:
Dual-band capability ( Missed)

Channel bonding
Frame aggregation
3/7
Infrastructure mode
Which of the following technologies uses multiple antennas in order to increase performance and range?
MDI-X
Ethernet
MIMO ( Missed)
WiMAX

Infrastructure mode
The IEEE 802.11a wireless standard amendment specifies maximum data signaling rate of:
11 Mbps
54 Mbps ( Missed)
2 Mbps
600 Mbps
WPA
WPS ( Missed)
WEP
WAP
Which of the following wireless security measures are not recommended and should be disabled due to their known
WPS ( Missed)
WAP
WPA2
WAF
WEP ( Missed)
The IEEE 802.11a wireless standard amendment specifies a signal modulation technique known as:

4/7
Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
A type of highly directional antenna for long-range point-to-point bridging links is known as:
Dipole antenna
Omnidirectional antenna
Dish antenna ( Missed)
Non-directional antenna
for devices operating on channels that are too close to each other is known as:
Cross-talk
Collision
Channel bonding
The IEEE 802.11n wireless standard amendment specifies the use of frequency band(s) of: (Select all that apply)
2.0 GHz
5.4 GHz
2.4 GHz ( Missed)
5.0 GHz ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer to the signal modulation techniques specified in the IEEE 802.11g wireless
standard amendment? (Select 2 answers)

The term "war driving" refers to:
Penetration testing
The practice of marking unsecured wireless networks
Vulnerability scanning
Scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car ( Missed)
loss in connectivity is commonly referred to as:
Roaming ( Missed)
5/7
Switching
Routing
DHCP relay
Which of the following answers lists an example of a protocol used for implementing control over multiple Wireless
Access Points (WAPs)?
RTSP
LWAPP ( Missed)
LDAP
MGCP
What type of device would be the most suitable for interconnecting two or more LANs in order to extend the network
range?

Layer 3 switch
VPN concentrator
The process of planning and designing new WLANs for optimal performance, security and compliance typically
involves:
Penetration testing
Wireless site survey ( Missed)
End user awareness and training
An administrator needs to adjust multiple Access Point (AP) placement in order to ensure the best coverage for the
network. Which of the following tools would be of help while identifying the areas of low signal strength?
Heat map ( Missed)

Wi-Fi hotspots
Your Final Report
Total marks 42
Total Questions 35
Success ratio 0%
6/7
Marks secured 0
7/7
CompTIA Network+ Exam - Wireless Networking Quiz (part 2 of
2)
examcompass.com/wireless-networking-quiz-part-2-of-2
An infrastructure device designed for connecting client devices to a network is commonly referred to as an Access
Point (AP).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the wireless security protocols listed below has been deprecated in favor of newer standards due to known
AES
PEAP
WEP ( Missed)
CCMP
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication framework frequently used in wireless networks and
point-to-point connections. EAP provides an authentication framework, not a specific authentication mechanism.
There are many authentication mechanisms (referred to as EAP methods) that can be used with EAP. IEEE 802.11
wireless networks use several EAP methods, including EAP-TLS, EAP-TTLS, PEAP, and EAP-SIM.
True ( Missed)
False
The IEEE 802.11g wireless standard amendment specifies maximum data signaling rate of:
11 Mbps
2 Mbps
54 Mbps ( Missed)
100 Mbps
Which of the following answers refers to an antenna type used as standard equipment on most Access Points (APs)
for indoor Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) deployments?
Dipole antenna ( Missed)

Dish antenna
Unidirectional antenna
Yagi antenna
What is the name of the signal modulation technique specified in the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard amendment?

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)
1/7

In computer networking, the term "Collision" is used to describe a situation in which two or more demands are made
simultaneously on equipment that can handle only one at any given moment.
True ( Missed)
False
The purpose of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) protocol is to verify the absence of other traffic on a
shared medium before transmitting in order to prevent collisions and loss of data.
True ( Missed)
False
In Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs), collisions are resolved with the use of Carrier Sense Multiple Access /
Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method.
True
False ( Missed)
The IEEE 802.11n standard amendment provides for backward compatibility with: (Select all that apply)
802.11b ( Missed)
802.11g ( Missed)
802.11ac
802.11a ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer to the 3G/4G mobile broadband telecommunications standards? (Select 2
answers)
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
Evolved High-Speed Packet Access (HSPA+) ( Missed)
Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
Long Term Evolution (LTE) ( Missed)
The IEEE 802.11n wireless standard amendment specifies a signal modulation technique known as:

2/7
Which of the following protocols was introduced to strengthen existing WEP implementations without requiring the
replacement of legacy hardware?
PEAP
TKIP ( Missed)
CCMP
WPA2
Which of the following answers refers to an authentication framework frequently used in wireless networks and
point-to-point connections?
RDP
CCMP
EAP ( Missed)
LDAP
AES-based encryption mode implemented in WPA2 is known as:
CCMP ( Missed)
TPM
TKIP
MTBF
Which of the following protocols encapsulates EAP within an encrypted and authenticated TLS tunnel?
CHAP
PAP
IPsec
PEAP ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer to collision avoidance methods specified in the 802.11 wireless networking

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)
Distributed Coordination Function (DCF) ( Missed)
Point Coordination Function (PCF) ( Missed)
Which of the device types listed below offers the highest coverage of a wireless signal?
802.11g
3/7
802.11a
802.11n ( Missed)
802.11b
Which of the following WAP configuration settings allows for adjusting the boundary range of a wireless signal?
Beacon frame
Which of the following answers refer(s) the characteristic features of the 802.11a wireless standard amendment?

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) modulation ( Missed)
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) ( Missed)
Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS) modulation
An optimal Wireless Access Point (WAP) antenna placement provides a countermeasure against:
War chalking
Tailgating
War driving ( Missed)
Shoulder surfing
The IEEE 802.11g wireless standard amendment specifies the use of frequency band of:
5.0 GHz
2.4 GHz ( Missed)
2.0 GHz
5.4 GHz
The IEEE 802.11n wireless standard amendment specifies maximum data signaling rate of:
54 Mbps
600 Mbps ( Missed)
11 Mbps
100 Mbps
Which of the following answers list(s) the characteristic features of the 802.11n wireless standard amendment?
4/7

Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS) modulation
Frequency bands for WLANs using IEEE 802.11 protocols include: (Select 2 answers)
5.0 GHz ( Missed)

2.4 GHz ( Missed)
5.4 GHz
2.0 GHz
Which of the following answers list(s) the characteristic features of the 802.11b wireless standard amendment?
Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) modulation

Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) modulation ( Missed)
Which of the following is an example of a wireless site survey?
Spear phishing
Bluejacking
Shoulder surfing
War chalking
Which of the following answers list(s) the characteristic features of the 802.11g wireless standard amendment?
5/7
Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) modulation ( Missed)
A Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) operating in an infrastructure mode with the use of more than one Access
Point (AP) is referred to as:

Extended Service Set (ESS) ( Missed)
Basic Service Set (BSS)
Which of the following answers refers to the measurement of data transfer rate that excludes all protocol overhead
information as well as retransmission of lost data packets?
Goodput ( Missed)
Bandwidth cap
Throughput
Baseline
Modified older wireless standards that allow complaint devices to achieve higher speeds include: (Select all that
apply)
802.11x
802.11a-ht ( Missed)
802.11ac
802.11g-ht ( Missed)
Which of the antenna types listed below provide a 360-degree horizontal signal coverage? (Select 2 answers)
Dish antenna
Omnidirectional antenna ( Missed)
Yagi antenna
Which of the answers listed below refers to the new feature introduced with the IEEE 802.11ac standard?
MIMO
40-Hertz mode
MU-MIMO ( Missed)
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps
6/7
Which of the following serves as a unique identifier for a WLAN (a wireless network name)?
EUI
SSID ( Missed)
OUI
CNAME
Your Final Report
Total marks 57
Total Questions 35
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
7/7
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam - OSI Layers Quiz
examcompass.com/osi-quiz
The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model consists of:
7 layers ( Missed)
3 layers
9 layers
5 layers
Physical layer of the OSI model is also referred to as:
Layer 2
Layer 7
Layer 1 ( Missed)
Layer 4
Which of the following protocols reside(s) at the application layer of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)
HTTP ( Missed)
FTP ( Missed)
SMTP ( Missed)
NetBIOS
ARP
Which of the following terms refers to the OSI network layer?
Layer 2
Layer 5
Layer 3 ( Missed)
Layer 4
Layer 6 of the OSI model is also known as:
Application layer
Presentation layer ( Missed)
Session layer
Transport layer
In the OSI model, physical addressing takes place at the:
Data link layer ( Missed)

Layer 4
Physical layer
1/6
Session layer
OSI layer 7 is also referred to as:
Application layer ( Missed)

Session layer
Presentation layer
Transport layer
Which of the following reside(s) at the physical layer of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)
Router
Hub ( Missed)
Switch
Network cabling ( Missed)
Bridge
In the OSI model, data compression takes place at the:

Session layer
Network layer
Physical layer
Which OSI layer assumes responsibility for managing network connections between applications?
Network layer
Data link layer
Application layer
Session layer ( Missed)
Transport layer ( Missed)

Network layer
Data link layer
Session Layer
Presentation layer is another term for:
Layer 7 of the OSI model

Layer 6 of the OSI model ( Missed)
What is the name of a data unit used at the OSI physical layer?
2/6
Frame
Segment
Bit ( Missed)
Packet
In the OSI model, Media Access Control (MAC) and Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayers are the components of:
Session layer
Transport layer
Network layer
Transport layer
Network layer
Physical layer
User Datagram Protocol (UDP) resides at: (Select 2 answers)

Layer 3
Layer 4 ( Missed)
Network layer
Layer 6
Data link layer
Which OSI layer is responsible for breaking up data into segments?
Network layer
Presentation layer
Data link layer
Transport layer resides between which two other layers of the OSI model?
Network and Session ( Missed)

Presentation and Application
Physical and Network
Physical and Data link
Routers operate at: (Select two answers)
Physical layer of the OSI model
3/6
Application layer of the OSI model
Network layer of the OSI model ( Missed)
Layer 5 of the OSI model is called:

Application layer
Transport layer
Presentation layer
In the OSI model, session layer is also known as:
Layer 4
Layer 6
Layer 5 ( Missed)
Layer 3
At which of the OSI layers IP addressing takes place?
Layer 3 ( Missed)
Layer 1
Layer 4
Layer 6
Layer 3 of the OSI model is also referred to as:
Data link layer

Network layer ( Missed)
Session layer
Transport layer
Data encryption and decryption typically takes place at the:

Presentation layer of the OSI model ( Missed)
Data link layer of the OSI model
Application layer of the OSI model is known as:
Layer 3
Layer 6
Layer 7 ( Missed)
4/6
Layer 5
Which of the following devices resides at the data link layer of the OSI model?
Router
Passive Hub
Ethernet switch ( Missed)
Repeater
In the OSI model, Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) resides at: (Select all that apply)

Layer 3
Application layer
Layer 4 ( Missed)
Network layer
Layer 7
Which of following protocols reside(s) at the OSI network layer? (Select all that apply)
IPv4 ( Missed)
UDP
IPsec ( Missed)
TCP
IPv6 ( Missed)
ICMP ( Missed)
Which of the protocols listed below resides at the session layer of the OSI model?
HTTP
UDP
SMTP
NetBIOS ( Missed)
IP
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) resides at:

Transport layer of the OSI model
Session layer of the OSI model
Presentation layer of the OSI model
Your Final Report
5/6
Total marks 39
Total Questions 30
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
6/6
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam - Routing Quiz
examcompass.com/routing-quiz
A device designed to filter and transfer data packets between different types of computer networks is called:
Router ( Missed)
Load balancer
Active hub
Switch
A collection of IP networks and routers under the control of one administrative entity is commonly referred to as:
Looking glass site

Medianet
Wide Area Network (WAN)
Autonomous system ( Missed)
Which of the cable types listed below is often used to connect a computer terminal to a router's console port?
Crossover cable
Straight-through cable
Patch cable
Rollover cable ( Missed)
What are the characteristic features of the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Select 2 answers)
Distance-vector routing protocol

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) ( Missed)
Hybrid routing protocol ( Missed)
Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP)
Link-state routing protocol

A field in an IP datagram that specifies how many more hops a packet can travel before being discarded is called:
SPB
TTL ( Missed)
1/6
MTU
VTC
The term "Default route" refers to the network path used by a router for forwarding all packets with destination
addresses not listed in its routing table.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the devices listed below is used for separating broadcast domains?
Active hub
Router ( Missed)
Layer 2 switch
Repeater
Examples of link-state routing protocols include: (Select 2 answers)
RIPv2
OSPF ( Missed)
RIP
IS-IS ( Missed)
OTDR
Which of the following provides a replacement for the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
SIP
PGP
SPB ( Missed)
RTP
A set of rules stored on a Layer 3 switch or a networked host that allows to determine the topology of the
surrounding network is commonly referred to as:
Routing metrics
Loopback interface
Routing table ( Missed)
Which of the following metrics describes the largest allowable data unit that can be transmitted across the network?
UTM
MTU ( Missed)
TTL
QoS
Which of the following command-line commands in MS Windows is used to display the contents of a routing table?
2/6
ipconfig /all
tracert
print route
netstat -r ( Missed)
In computer routing, a rough measure of distance between two networked hosts is commonly referred to as:
Latency
Default route
Hop count ( Missed)
MTU
Which of the following answers lists an example of a hybrid routing protocol?
OSPF
RIPv2
BGP ( Missed)
IS-IS
A loopback interface on a router provides the means for basic testing whether the router is on and operational.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following can be used to prevent routing loops? (Select 2 answers)
Maximum hop count ( Missed)

Time to live (TTL) ( Missed)
Default route
Load balancing
The term "Convergence state" refers to a situation where:
A server receives the final ACK packet

All routers have finished updating their routing tables ( Missed)
Some of the WAPs have duplicate IP addresses
Rogue access points are configured with legitimate SSIDs
Which of the answers listed below refers to a distance-vector routing protocol?
OSPF
RIPv2 ( Missed)
OTDR
IS-IS
3/6
A manually-configured routing entry is known as:
Static route ( Missed)

Dynamic route
Route redistribution
Default route
Which of the answers listed below refers to the process of the automated update of a routing table?
Static routing
Dynamic routing ( Missed)
Route aggregation
Examples of interior gateway routing protocols include: (Select all that apply)
BGP
RIPv2 ( Missed)
OSPF ( Missed)
IS-IS ( Missed)
Which of the following protocol types is used for sharing routing information between autonomous systems (routing
domains)?
IGP
OSPF
EGP ( Missed)
IS-IS
Autonomous System Number (ASN) is a globally unique number allocated for a collection of networked systems that
operate common routing protocols and are under control of a single administrative authority.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the protocols listed below are used for designating a backup router in the event of an active router failure?
(Select 2 answers)
DSCP
VRRP ( Missed)
ISAKMP
HSRP ( Missed)
TKIP
A solution used to optimize and decrease the size of a routing table is known as:
Route aggregation ( Missed)
4/6
Dynamic routing
Static routing
Which of the following networking protocols provide(s) redundancy? (Select all that apply)
DSCP
VRRP ( Missed)
ISAKMP
HSRP ( Missed)
TKIP
A solution used to translate routing information between routers configured to use different routing protocols is
known as:
Route redistribution ( Missed)

Route aggregation
eDiscovery
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an example of a link-state routing protocol.
True
False ( Missed)
netstat -a
route print ( Missed)
ipconfig /all
print route
Your Final Report
Total marks 38
Total Questions 30
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/6
6/6
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam - Subnetting Quiz
examcompass.com/subnetting-quiz
What is the last usable host IP address for the 172.45.120.0/23 network?
172.45.120.254
172.45.121.254 ( Missed)
172.45.122.254
172.45.123.254
How many usable IP addresses can be assigned to hosts on a /26 subnet?
254
126
62 ( Missed)
30
What is the dot-decimal representation of a /13 subnet mask?
255.240.0.0
255.248.0.0 ( Missed)
255.252.0.0
255.254.0.0
What is the maximum number of subnets and hosts per subnet for the 192.168.50.247 255.255.255.224 network?
2 subnets, 126 hosts per subnet

8 subnets, 30 hosts per subnet ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists the decimal notation of the binary number 11100000?
192
224 ( Missed)
240
248
What is the first usable host IP address on the 172.26.56.110/27 network?
172.26.56.97 ( Missed)
172.26.56.111
172.26.56.126
172.26.56.127
1/6
Which of the following answers lists the binary notation of the decimal number 252?
11110010
11111000
11111010
11111100 ( Missed)
What is the maximum number of hosts per subnet for the 10.47.255.1/20 network?
512 hosts
1022 hosts
2046 hosts
4094 hosts ( Missed)
What is the maximum valid range for IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on the 192.168.100.248
255.255.255.248 network?
192.168.100.249 - 192.168.100.255
192.168.100.248 - 192.168.100.254
192.168.100.249 - 192.168.100.254 ( Missed)
192.168.100.248 - 192.168.100.255
Which of the following answers lists the broadcast address for the 192.168.50.155/20 network?
192.168.31.255
192.168.47.255
192.168.63.255 ( Missed)
192.168.79.255

Class B range
Class C range
What is the last usable host IP address on the 192.168.32.9/30 network?
192.168.32.9
192.168.32.10 ( Missed)
192.168.32.11
192.168.32.12
What is the binary representation of the 255.255.128.0 subnet mask?
2/6
11111111.11111111.10000000.00000000 ( Missed)
11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000
11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000
11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000
In IPv4 addressing, the leading octet of an IP address with a value of 1 through 126 denotes that the IP address
within that range belongs to the:
Class A address space ( Missed)

Class B address space
Class C address space
Class D address space
What is the network address for the 154.24.67.147/22 host?
154.24.48.0
154.24.60.0
154.24.62.0
154.24.64.0 ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists the CIDR notation for 255.255.224.0 subnet mask?
/19 ( Missed)
/20
/21
/22
Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 IPv4 address
Class A range
Class C range
What is the first valid host address for a node residing in the 10.119.136.143/20 network?
10.119.96.1
10.119.128.1 ( Missed)
10.119.132.1
10.119.136.1
255.255.225.0
3/6
255.255.191.0
255.255.127.0
255.255.64.0
Which of the following answers lists the CIDR notation of the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
/25
/26
/27 ( Missed)
/28
What is the binary representation of the 255.254.0.0 subnet mask?
11111111.11111100.00000000.00000000
11111111.11111110.00000000.00000000 ( Missed)
11111111.11111101.00000000.00000000
11111111.11111000.00000000.00000000
Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 IP address
Class A range
Class B range
What is the leading octet value range for an IPv4 address belonging to a class B network?
128 - 191 ( Missed)

1 - 126
192 - 223
224 - 239
Class A address space

Class C address space ( Missed)
/10 ( Missed)
4/6
/11
/12
/13
Which of the following answers refer to the leading octet value range and class of the IPv4 multicast address block?
(Select 2 answers)
128 - 191
Class B
192 - 223
Class C
224 - 239 ( Missed)
Class D ( Missed)
46.31.255.255
46.63.255.255 ( Missed)
46.127.255.255
46.255.255.255
What is the network address for the 192.168.223.15 255.255.255.252 host?
192.168.223.10
192.168.223.11
192.168.223.12 ( Missed)
192.168.223.13
Compared to the number of all IPv4 addresses available per subnet, the total number of usable IPv4 addresses that
can be assigned to hosts from that pool is reduced by two. Those two addresses that cannot be assigned to hosts
are used as: (Select 2 answers)
Network address ( Missed)

Unicast address
Broadcast address ( Missed)
Multicast address
What is the maximum valid range for IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on the 134.170.185.46
255.255.128.0 network?
134.170.128.1 - 134.170.255.254 ( Missed)

134.170.128.1 - 134.170.191.254
134.170.160.1 - 134.170.191.254
134.170.176.1 - 134.170.191.254
Your Final Report

5/6
Your Final Report
Total marks 35
Total Questions 30
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
6/6
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam - TCP and UDP Ports Quiz
examcompass.com/tcp-and-udp-ports-quiz
Ports between 0 and 1023 are known as: (Select 2 answers)
Ephemeral ports
Well-known ports ( Missed)
System ports ( Missed)
Dynamic ports
Registered ports
TCP port 23
TCP port 25
TCP port 21
SSH
FTP
Telnet ( Missed)
SMTP
Which of the following port numbers are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP)? (Select 2 answers)
25
53
20 ( Missed)
21 ( Missed)
23
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) operates with the use of TCP port:
110
25 ( Missed)
143
23
TCP port number 80 is used by:
HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) ( Missed)

HyperText Transfer Protocol over SSL/TLS (HTTPS)
1/7
Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)
Which TCP port is used by the Post Office Protocol Version 3 (POP3)?
110 ( Missed)
123
143
119
Port numbers in the range from 1024 to 49151 are referred to as: (Select 2 answers)
Private ports
Dynamic ports
Well-known ports
User ports ( Missed)
Registered ports ( Missed)
Which of the following port numbers is reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP)?
143
119
80
123 ( Missed)
20
22
21 ( Missed)
25

Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP)
DNS runs on: (Select 2 answers)
TCP port 67
UDP port 53 ( Missed)
TCP port 43
UDP port 67
2/7
UDP port 43
Ports referred to as dynamic, or private, or ephemeral ports have numbers in the range of:
49152 - 65535 ( Missed)

0 - 1023
1024 - 49151

Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3)
Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP) ( Missed)
HyperText Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL runs on:
UDP port 161

TCP port 143
TCP port 80
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses:
TCP port 23
UDP port 67
UDP port 69 ( Missed)
UDP port 53
UDP port 67 is used by: (Select 2 answers)
Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) ( Missed)
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Kerberos
Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) ( Missed)
Which of the following UDP ports are reserved for the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? (Select 2
answers)
143
161 ( Missed)
137
162 ( Missed)
138
3/7
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS) remote authentication protocol runs by default on
port:
80
67
53
49 ( Missed)
23
25
20 ( Missed)
21
136
161
137 ( Missed)
162
138 ( Missed)
139 ( Missed)
Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) protocol runs on: (Select 2 answers)
Port 1723
Port 3388
Port 1722
Port 1813 ( Missed)
Port 3389
Port 1812 ( Missed)
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) uses:
TCP port 3389

UDP port 138
UDP port 49
TCP port 993
Port number 3389 is reserved for:
Layer 2 Forwarding Protocol (L2F)

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) ( Missed)
4/7
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) runs on port 1723 ( Missed)

HyperText Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL runs on TCP port 143
Port number 88 is reserved for Kerberos ( Missed)
Port number 443 is reserved for Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
Port 1701 is used by Layer 2 Forwarding Protocol (L2F) and Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) ( Missed)
FTPS is an extension to the Secure Shell protocol (SSH) and runs by default on port number 22.
True
False ( Missed)
An SNMP Agent receives requests on UDP port:
161 ( Missed)
138
162
139
An SNMP management station receives SNMP notifications on UDP port:
161
137
162 ( Missed)
138
Which of the port numbers listed below is commonly used for Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) non-encrypted traffic?
5004
5005
5060 ( Missed)
5061
Port number 5061 is typically used for Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) traffic encrypted with Transport Layer
Security (TLS).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following port numbers are assigned to the Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)? (Select 2
answers)
5/7
5004
5060
2427 ( Missed)
5005
2727 ( Missed)
5061
MGCP
RTP ( Missed)
H.323
RTCP
RTP Control Protocol (RTCP) runs by default on port:
5004
5060
5005 ( Missed)
5061
TCP port 1720 is the default port number for:
MGCP
RTP
H.323 ( Missed)
RTCP
Which of the following protocols runs on TCP port 445?
RDP
SMB ( Missed)
SIP
RTP
Your Final Report
Total marks 47
Total Questions 35
Success ratio 0%
6/7
Marks secured 0
7/7
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam - Command Line Quiz
examcompass.com/comptia-network-plus-certification-exam-command-line-quiz
What is the name of a Windows command-line utility that can be used to display TCP/IP configuration settings?
ifconfig
nslookup
ipconfig ( Missed)
netstat
Used without any parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers lists an ipconfig command parameter used for displaying the full TCP/IP
configuration information for all adapters?
-a
/?
/all ( Missed)
/-a
Which ipconfig parameter allows to view the physical address of a Network Interface Card (NIC)?
-S srcaddr
/all ( Missed)
-i address
eth_addr
Which of the following command-line commands in MS Windows are used for resetting the DHCP configuration
settings for all adapters? (Select 2 answers)
ifconfig eth0 down

ipconfig /release ( Missed)
ifconfig eth0 up
ipconfig /renew ( Missed)
What is the name of a Linux command-line utility that can be used to display TCP/IP configuration settings?
ifconfig ( Missed)
netstat
nslookup
ipconfig
A command-line utility in MS Windows used for displaying protocol statistics and current TCP/IP network
1/6
connections is called:
tracert
traceroute
netstat ( Missed)
nslookup
Which netstat parameter allows to display all active TCP connections and the TCP and UDP ports on which the
computer is listening?
-a ( Missed)
-p
-e
-r
netstat -a
ipconfig /all
print route
Which of the options listed below allows for execution of a command if the requested operation in the command-line
interface in MS Windows requires elevation?
sudo
Ctrl+Shift+Esc
Run as administrator ( Missed)
mode
Which of the netstat utility parameters listed below allows to display the contents of the IP routing table?
-a
-e
-p
-r ( Missed)
Which netstat parameter allows to display the names of applications and executable file components that are
accessing the network?
-a
-n
-b ( Missed)
-p
What is the name of a command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote host?
2/6
netstat
ping ( Missed)
nslookup
nbtstat
A command-line network administration utility that operates by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
echo request packets to the destination host and waiting for a reply in order to test the communication with another
computer on an Internet Protocol (IP) network is called ping.
True ( Missed)
False
The -t switch in the MS Windows' ping utility is used for:
Executing the ping command in a loop ( Missed)

Settting the number of ICMP packets to send
Setting the TTL value
Setting the ICMP packet size
Which of the following key combinations allows to stop the execution of the current command run in Windows
Command Prompt?
Ctrl+Alt+Delete
Esc
Ctrl+Shift+Esc
Ctrl+C ( Missed)
Which of the following commands in MS Windows is used to display help information related to a specific network
command-line utility?
man [command]
[command] --help
info [command]
What is the correct syntax for checking the IPv6 connectivity with another network node (host1) in MS Windows?
(Select 2 answers)
ping host1 -6 ( Missed)

ping 6 host1
ping host1.6
ping -6 host1 ( Missed)
Which of the command-line commands listed below allows for sending an ICMPv6 echo request to another network
node (host1) in Linux OS?
ping host1 -6
3/6
ping ipv6.host1
ping6 host1 ( Missed)
ping -6 host1
A network command-line utility in MS Windows that tracks and displays the route taken by IPv4 packets on their
way to another host is called:
ping
traceroute
nslookup
tracert ( Missed)
A Linux command-line utility for displaying intermediary points (routers) the IPv4 packet is passed through on its
way to another network node is known as:
nbtstat
traceroute ( Missed)
netstat
tracert
Which of the following commands in MS Windows displays the route taken by IPv6 packets on their way to another
host?
traceroute6
tracert6
traceroute -6
tracert -6 ( Missed)
A network command-line utility in Linux that tracks and displays the route taken by IPv6 packets on their way to
another network node is known as: (Select 2 answers)
traceroute6 ( Missed)
tracert6
traceroute -6 ( Missed)
tracert -6
nbtstat ( Missed)
ping
netstat
tracert
Which of the nbtstat parameters allows to resolve remote host (host1) by its name?
nbtstat -a host1 ( Missed)

4/6
nbtstat host1 -A
nbtstat -A host1
nbtstat host1 -a
Which of the nbtstat parameters allows to resolve remote host (192.168.1.10) by its IP address?
nbtstat -a 192.168.1.10
nbtstat 192.168.1.10 -A
nbtstat -A 192.168.1.10 ( Missed)
nbtstat 192.168.1.10 -a
Which of the following tools allows for obtaining a domain name to IP address mapping?
netstat
nslookup ( Missed)
tracert
pathping
Which of the following network administration command-line utilities can be used for DNS queries?
tracert
nslookup ( Missed)
tracert
pathping
Which command in MS Windows displays a table consisting of IP addresses and their resolved Ethernet or Token
Ring physical addresses?
arp -e
netstat -n
nslookup
arp -a ( Missed)
Which of the network command-line utilities in MS Windows combines the features of ping and tracert?
nbtstat
pathping ( Missed)
nslookup
netstat
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 30
5/6
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
6/6
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam - Malware Quiz
examcompass.com/malware-quiz
Harmful programs used to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive information, or gain access to private
Adware
Malware ( Missed)
Computer viruses
Spyware
Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of an advertising-supported software? (Select 2
answers)
Unsolicited or undesired electronic messages

Advertisements embedded in a computer application ( Missed)
A type of software commonly referred to as malware
Malicious program that sends copies of itself to other computers on the network
A type of software commonly referred to as adware ( Missed)
Adware
Spam
Virus ( Missed)
Flash cookie
In computer security, the part of malware code responsible for performing malicious action is referred to as:
Payload ( Missed)
Frame
Exploit
Logic bomb
Trojan
Backdoor
Virus
Adware
Spyware ( Missed)
The term "companion virus" refers to an older type of computer virus which doesn't alter files and works by creating
infected companion file with the exact same name as the legitimate program, but with different file extension. The
1/9
virus takes advantage of the fact that in the old MS-DOS command-line interface executables can be run by
providing only the file name which facilitates the execution of infected code by an unaware user.
True ( Missed)
False
known as:
Adware
Backdoor
Trojan ( Missed)
Spyware
Which type of files pose the greatest risk related to the distribution of malware?
.png
.exe ( Missed)
.txt
.pdf
In computer security, an automatic download performed without the user's consent (and often without any notice)
aimed at installing malware or potentially unwanted programs is known as a drive-by download.
True ( Missed)
False
A collection of zombies is known as:
Extranet
Intranet
Botnet ( Missed)
Ethernet
Which of the following answers lists an example of spyware?
Keylogger ( Missed)
Screen lock
Packet sniffer
Protocol analyzer
The iframe tag can be used for loading malicious code (often in the form of JavaScript applet) onto an otherwise
trusted page.
True ( Missed)
False
2/9
A computer virus that actively attacks an antivirus program in an effort to prevent detection is called:
Phage virus
Armored virus
Macro virus
Retrovirus ( Missed)
Trojan
Rootkit ( Missed)
Armored virus
Backdoor
program, online service or an entire computer system?
Spyware
Trojan horse
Rootkit
Backdoor ( Missed)
The process of isolation of files and applications suspected of containing malware in order to prevent further
execution and potential harm to the user's system is known as:
Safe mode
Quarantine ( Missed)
Protected mode
Blacklisting
In its more intrusive form, adware can track browsing habits in order to serve better targeted ads based on user
interests.
True ( Missed)
False
Computer code or command that takes advantage of a design flaw in software is commonly referred to as:
Bug
Backdoor
Exploit ( Missed)
Rootkit
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the ways of delivering online advertising content utilized by adware?
3/9
Replay attack
Pop-up ( Missed)
Bluesnarfing
Pop-under ( Missed)
Stegangraphy
hijacker is called:
Honeypot
Zombie ( Missed)
Logic bomb
Adware
Which of the computer virus types listed below deletes or corrupts contents of the target host file instead of attaching
itself to the file?
Armored virus
Retrovirus
Companion virus
Phage virus ( Missed)
Web browser extensions (a.k.a. plugins, or add-ons) are downloadable components that extend the browser's
functionality by enabling interactive features of web pages. Downloading and installing browser extensions can be
risky, because some of them may contain malicious code and in disguise of a legitimate program introduce malware
to the system.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following terms describes a method employed by many computer antivirus programs designed to
detect previously unknown types of malware?
Heuristics ( Missed)
Steganography
Quarantine
Signature-based detection
A group of computers running malicious software under control of a hacker is known as:
Honeynet
Botnet ( Missed)
Ethernet
Honeypot
Which of the following answers best describes a type of mobile software that while running in disguise of a
legitimate program tries to harm user devices or personal data?
4/9
Phage virus
Computer worm
Malicious app ( Missed)
Trojan horse
Spyware
An antivirus software identifying non-malicious file as a virus due to faulty virus signature file is an example of a
false negative error.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the application types listed below fall(s) into the category of anti-malware solutions? (Select all that apply)
Anti-spyware ( Missed)
Kerberos
Antivirus ( Missed)
GNU Privacy Guard (GPG)
Anti-spam ( Missed)
Pop-up blocker ( Missed)
Which of the following components pose a risk of unintended downloading and execution of malware on a PC?
(Select 2 answers)
Tracking cookies
Browser plugins ( Missed)
ActiveX controls ( Missed)
Polymorphic malware
Keylogger
A type of rogue application that exploits dialup connections by making unauthorized telephone calls is known as:
Dialer ( Missed)
Keylogger
Dropper
Trojan
Which of the following answers refers to an anti-antivirus exploit?
Retrovirus ( Missed)
Phage virus
Polimorphic virus
Armored virus
A malware-infected networked host under remote control of a hacker is commonly referred to as:
5/9
Trojan
Worm
Bot ( Missed)
Honeypot
Which of the following answers refers to a technique used by certain types of malware to cause an error in a
program and make it easier to run malicious code?
Bluejacking
Buffer overflow ( Missed)
Malicious add-on
Input validation
Pentest
A software that automatically plays, displays, or downloads advertisements to a computer is known as:
Spyware
Malware
Adware ( Missed)
Shareware
A type of virus that takes advantage of various mechanisms specifically designed to make tracing, disassembling
and reverse engineering its code more difficult is known as:
Phage virus
Armored virus ( Missed)
Retrovirus
Companion virus
Macro virus
Which of the following acronyms refers to a network security solution combining the functionality of a firewall with
MTU
MGCP
UTM ( Missed)
PGP
Repositories
Macros
Security logs
6/9
Malicious code activated by a specific event is known as:
Trojan horse
Logic bomb ( Missed)
Spyware
Armored virus
Which of the following answers refers to the process by which a computer virus makes copies of itself to carry out
subsequent infections?
Polymorphism
Pharming
Replication ( Missed)
Phishing
Phage virus
Computer worm ( Missed)
Macro virus
Trojan horse
A type of Trojan designed to transfer other malware onto a PC via Internet connection is known as:
Dialer
Dropper
Downloader ( Missed)
Proxy
software?
NAC ( Missed)
DMZ
VLAN
NAT
A type of Trojan designed to install other malware files onto a PC without the need for an active Internet connection
is known as:
Proxy
Downloader
Dropper ( Missed)
Dialer
7/9
Grayware
Adware
Spyware
Entry fields of web forms lacking input validation are vulnerable to what kind of attacks?
Spear phishing
Tailgating
SQL injection ( Missed)
Which type of computer virus takes advantage of the capability for creating and embedding simple scripts in popular
office applications?
Phage virus
Macro virus ( Missed)
Retrovirus
Armored virus
The process by which malicious software changes its underlying code in order to avoid detection is known as
polymorphism.
True ( Missed)
False
An antivirus software can be kept up to date through: (Select all that apply)
Audit trails
OS updates

Reviewing the computer's status and resolving issues
Protection against viruses, spyware and other potentially unwanted software ( Missed)
Which of the following terms refers to unwanted applications or files that are not classified as malware, but can
worsen the performance of computers and pose security risk?
Grayware ( Missed)
Shareware
Ransomware
8/9
Freeware
Which of the terms listed below refers to a computer security vulnerability allowing attackers to insert malicious code
into a trusted website?
Replay attack
Buffer overflow
URL hijacking
Cross-site scripting ( Missed)
Xmas attack
Your Final Report
Total marks 57
Total Questions 50
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
9/9
Glossary of Malware Terms
examcompass.com/malware-glossary
AddThis Sharing Buttons
ActiveX controls
A type of downloadable web browser plug-ins for Microsoft Internet Explorer providing additional interactive
features to web pages. Malicious ActiveX controls pose a risk of unintended execution of malware.
Adware
Software that automatically plays, displays, or downloads advertisements to a computer.
Armored virus
A type of computer virus that takes advantage of various mechanisms specifically designed to make tracing,
disassembling and reverse engineering its code more difficult.
Backdoor
An undocumented (and often legitimate) way of gaining access to a program, online service or an entire
computer system.
Botnet
A group of computers running malicious software under control of a hacker.
Buffer overflow
A technique used by certain types of malware to cause an error in a program and make it easier to run
malicious code.
Companion virus
An older type of computer virus which doesn't alter files and works by creating infected companion file with
the exact same name as the legitimate program, but with different file extension. The virus takes advantage of
the fact that in the old MS-DOS command-line interface executables can be run by providing only the file
name which facilitates the execution of infected code by an unaware user.
Computer worm
A standalone malicious computer program that replicates itself over a computer network.
Cross-site scripting
A computer security vulnerability allowing attackers to insert malicious code into a trusted website.
Dialer
A rogue application designed to exploit dialup connections by making unauthorized telephone calls.
Downloader
A type of Trojan designed to transfer other malware onto a PC via Internet connection.
Drive-by download
An automatic download performed without the user's consent (and often without any notice) aimed at
installing malware or potentially unwanted programs.
Dropper
A type of Trojan designed to install other malware files onto a PC without the need for an active Internet
connection.
Executable file
A type of computer file that when opened runs a program or series of instructions contained in the file.
Exploit
Computer code or command that takes advantage of software design flaws.
Grayware
A category of applications which despite of not being classified as malware can worsen the performance of a
computer and pose security risk.
Heuristics
A method employed by many computer antivirus programs designed to detect previously unknown types of
1/3
malware.
iframe
An HTML tag for embedding another web document within the current HTML web page. The downside of
utilizing iframes relates to the fact that they can be used for the purpose of injecting malicious code (often in
the form of JavaScript applet) into an otherwise trusted page.
Keylogger
An application collecting information about user keyboard activity. Typically, malicious keyloggers are installed
and run on a system without the user's knowledge/consent to steal logon credentials, credit card numbers,
and other sensitive data.
Logic bomb
Malicious code activated by a specific event.
Macro virus
A type of computer virus that exploits the capability for creating and embedding simple scripts in popular office
and cooperative applications.
Malicious app
Mobile application designed to harm user devices or personal data acting in disguise of a legitimate program.
Malware
A generic term for various types of malicious software used to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive
information, or gain access to private computer systems. The category of malware encompasses all sorts of
malicious applications, including Trojan horses, most rootkits and backdoors, computer viruses, worms,
spyware, keyloggers, more intrusive forms of adware, and other malicious programs.
Payload
The part of malware performing malicious action.
Phage virus
A type of computer virus that deletes or corrupts contents of the target host file instead of attaching itself to the
file.
Polymorphic malware
A type of malicious software capable of changing its underlying code in order to avoid detection.
Pop-under
One of the ways of delivering online advertising content utilized by adware. Advertising pop-unders are
usually displayed in a new browser window hidden beneath the current page and are not seen until the
covering window is closed.
Pop-up
One of the ways of delivering online advertising content utilized by adware. Advertising pop-ups are usually
displayed in a new web browser window and cover the contents of the current page.
Quarantine
Isolation of files and applications suspected of containing malware in order to prevent further execution and
potential harm to the user's system.
Ransomware
Malware that restricts access to a computer system by encrypting files or locking the entire system down until
the user performs requested action.
Replication
The process by which a virus makes copies of itself to carry out subsequent infections.
Retrovirus
A computer virus that actively attacks an antivirus program in an effort to prevent detection.
Rootkit
A collection of software tools used by a hacker in order to mask intrusion and obtain administrator-level
access to a computer or computer network.
Signature file
A file containing new malicious code patterns used by the antivirus application as a reference in the process
2/3
of malware removal.
Spyware
Malicious software collecting information about users without their knowledge/consent.
SQL injection
Execution of SQL commands aimed at gaining unauthorized access to an online database. This type of attack
occurs when for example entry fields of web forms designed to collect information from users allow passing
unchecked user input to the database. The countermeasure against this type of code injection is input
validation, which limits the scope of user input that can be passed through an online form.
Trojan horse
Malicious software performing unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program.
Virus
A computer program containing malicious segment that attaches itself to an application program or other
executable component.
Windows Defender
A built-in application tool for Microsoft operating systems providing protection against viruses, spyware, and
other potentially unwanted programs.
XSS
A shorthand term for cross-site scripting.
Zero-day attack
A type of attack exploiting vulnerabilities that are present in already released software but unknown to the
software developer.
Zombie
A computer that has been compromised by a virus or Trojan horse that puts it under the remote control of an
online hijacker.
Malware Quiz (50 questions)
3/3
CompTIA Network+ Certification Practice Test 1 (Exam N10-006)
examcompass.com/comptia-network-plus-certification-practice-test-1-exam-n10-006
A device designed to filter and transfer data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called:
Hub
Load balancer
Router ( Missed)
Switch
Switch ( Missed)
Firewall
Router
Hub
A device that apart from the function of an ordinary network switch can also provide additional functions at higher
levels of the OSI reference model is known as a multilayer switch.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to a software or hardware that monitors network traffic and depending on the
configuration settings applied to each data packet either blocks it or allows it to pass through?
HIDS
Firewall ( Missed)
Load balancer
A security solution implemented on an individual computer monitoring that specific system for malicious activities or
policy violations is referred to as:
NIPS
MAC filter
Firewall
HIDS ( Missed)
Which of the following answers illustrates the difference between passive and active security breach response?
HIPS vs. NIPS

UTM vs. Firewall
CSMA/CD vs. CSMA/CA
1/5
as:
Demarc
Active hub
An application software used to selectively block access to certain websites is an example of:
Captive portal
Media converter
Content filter ( Missed)
Proxy server
A network device designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources
is called:
Layer 3 switch
Access Point (AP)
Load balancer ( Missed)
Domain controller
The disadvantage from using this device results from the fact that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-
created and sent out on any connected ports which has a negative impact on network performance.
Router
Switch
Bridge
Hub ( Missed)

ICS server
Multilayer switch
Default gateway
A technology that allows for prioritizing certain types of network traffic in order to improve the overall network
effectiveness and performance is known as:
AAA framework
Packet shaping ( Missed)
Content filtering
2/5
Port forwarding
Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated device for managing encrypted connections established over
an untrusted network, such as the Internet?
VPN concentrator ( Missed)

Load balancer
Managed switch
Multilayer switch
A system that uses public network (e.g. Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between
remote locations is known as:
Personal Area Network (PAN)

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Virtual Private Network (VPN) ( Missed)
An SSL VPN connection typically requires a dedicated VPN client application.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)?
Tunneling protocol ( Missed)

IEEE 802.1Q
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Which of the following solutions are used for implementing VPNs? (Select all that apply)
IPsec ( Missed)
GRE ( Missed)
SDLC
SSL/TLS ( Missed)
PPTP ( Missed)
In the AAA security architecture, the process of tracking accessed services as well as the amount of consumed
resources is called:
Authentication
Authorization
Accounting ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to the process of granting or denying access to resources?
Authentication
3/5
Authorization ( Missed)
Accounting
Which part of the AAA security architecture deals with the verification of the identity of a person or process?
Authentication ( Missed)
Authorization
Accounting
Which of the following solutions provide(s) the AAA functionality? (Select all that apply)
PAP
RADIUS ( Missed)
TACACS+ ( Missed)
PPTP
MSCHAP
A dial-up or VPN connection allowing remote users to access corporate network requires what type of service?
RAS ( Missed)
PoE
NAS
WPS
A software solution designed to enable interaction between two devices over a network is generally referred to as:
Proxy
Web service ( Missed)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
Virtual switch
An IP PBX system is an example of:
UTM appliance
Peer-to-Peer (P2P) architecture
Unified voice services ( Missed)
Reverse proxy
Which of the following answers lists an example of a protocol used for implementing control over multiple Access
Points (APs)?
LDAP
LWAPP ( Missed)
RTSP
MGCP
4/5
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following solutions provides an alternative to manual assignment of IP addresses?
DNS
SNMP
NAT
DHCP ( Missed)
One of the features of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the capability for static allocation of an IP
address based on the IP-to-MAC address mapping.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following terms refers to permanent IP address assignment from a DHCP server?
Scope
Reservation ( Missed)
DHCP relay
Lease
A range of IP addresses assigned to hosts requesting dynamic IP address from a DHCP server is known as:
Lease
DHCP relay
Scope ( Missed)
Reservation
The duration of time a DHCP client can use an IP address dynamically assigned by the DHCP server is referred to
as:
Option
Reservation
Scope
Lease ( Missed)
DHCP allows for passing additional configuration settings to DHCP clients on a network. The additional settings
might include (among other types of configuration info) the default gateway IP address, or DNS server IP address.
Which of the answers listed below refers to the part of a DHCP message containing those settings?
Options ( Missed)
Scope
Reservation
1/5
Lease
Networked clients not residing on the same subnet as the DHCP server can still obtain an IP address from the
server through a DHCP relay agent.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data,
such as for example numerical IP addresses?
TCP/IP
DNS ( Missed)
SQL
DHCP
needs to be translated into an IP address. Which of the servers listed below is used to handle this type of request?
ICS server
Web server
DHCP server
Which of the DNS database records listed below returns a 32-bit IPv4 address?
MX
AAAA
CNAME
A ( Missed)
PTR
Which of the following DNS database records maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain?
AAAA
MX ( Missed)
PTR
CNAME
A
The DNS database AAAA record creates a pointer that maps a hostname to:
IPv4 address
Mail server
IPv6 address ( Missed)
Canonical name
2/5
Which of the DNS database records listed below allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address?
MX
CNAME ( Missed)
AAAA
PTR
A
Which of the following statements describing the function of a DNS PTR record are true? (Select 2 answers)
PTR record creates a pointer that maps a hostname to an IP address for reverse lookups.
The functionality provided by a PTR record allows multiple domain names to resolve to the same IP address.
PTR record resolves an IP address to a hostname for reverse lookups. ( Missed)
The functionality provided by a PTR record is the opposite of A and AAAA DNS records. ( Missed)
PTR record maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that domain.
Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution that allows for keeping a domain name linked to a changing IP
address?

Domain Name System (DNS)
Dynamic DNS (DDNS) ( Missed)
In computer networking, a system or an application processing requests on behalf of another system is commonly
referred to as:
Proxy ( Missed)
Web server
Man-in-the-middle (MITM)
First responder
Which of the following statements describe the function of a forward proxy? (Select 2 answers)
Acts on behalf of a client ( Missed)

Hides the identity of a client ( Missed)
Acts on behalf of a server
Hides the identity of a server
Which of the statements listed below describe the function of a reverse proxy? (Select 2 answers)
Acts on behalf of a client

Hides the identity of a client
Acts on behalf of a server ( Missed)
Hides the identity of a server ( Missed)
3/5
Which of the following solutions alleviates the problem of depleting number of routable IPv4 addresses?
DNS
NAT ( Missed)
GRE
VPN
Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) provides a permanent mapping between a private IP address and a
public IP address on a one-to-one basis.
True
False ( Missed)
Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) provides a mapping between private IP address and any of the IP
addresses belonging to the available public IP address pool.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a Network Address Translation (NAT) method that binds a combination of
private IP address and port number with a corresponding public IP address and port information?
PAT ( Missed)
RAS
GPG
EAP
A server with a private IP address has been set up to handle requests from an outside (public) network. Which of the
solutions listed below would enable this function?
Port bonding
Port labeling
Port mirroring
A type of network covering large geographic areas is commonly referred to as:
LAN
MAN
WLAN
WAN ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list(s) the characteristic feature(s) of fiber-optic cabling? (Select all that apply)
High signal attenuation

Immunity to electromagnetic interference ( Missed)
Provides higher level of security than copper cabling (difficult to tap into) ( Missed)
4/5
Low bandwidth capacity
More suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 30
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers refers to an international standard for high-speed data communications over fiber-
optic media?
ISDN
HSPA+
LTE
SONET ( Missed)
A method that allows to combine multiple analog or digital data streams for transmission over a shared medium is
known as:
Multiplexing ( Missed)
Load balancing
Packet shaping
Frame aggregation
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the multiplexing method(s) used in fiber-optic communication? (Select all
that apply)
CDMA
CWDM ( Missed)
CSMA
DWDM ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer to examples of packet-switching communication methods? (Select 2
answers)
Frame relay ( Missed)

POTS
T-carrier
ATM ( Missed)
E-carrier
What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select all that apply)
Lack of signal interference

Signal latency ( Missed)
Interference (weather dependent) ( Missed)
Low connection speed ( Missed)
The use of cable modems within a standard cable television infrastructure for Internet access is commonly referred
1/5
to as:
Broadband cable ( Missed)

Frame relay
Metro-Ethernet
Dial-up
VDSL
ADSL ( Missed)
SDSL
UDSL
Which of the following solutions allows for simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network
services over a PSTN?
WiMAX
PoE
ISDN ( Missed)
HSPA+
What is the size of an ATM cell?
32 bits
53 bytes ( Missed)
48 bits
56 bytes
Which of the following answers refers to a method for establishing a dedicated point-to-point link between two
networked devices?
PSK
PTR
PKI
PPP ( Missed)
MLPPP provides a method for combining two or more physical communication links into one logical interface for the
purpose of improved speed and redundancy.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the technologies listed below enables the use of different types of network protocols on the same network?
LWAPP
MPLS ( Missed)
2/5
MLPPP
MIBS
Which of the following answers refer to cellular technologies used in mobile networks? (Select 3 answers)
CDMA ( Missed)
GSM ( Missed)
CSMA
LTE ( Missed)
DWDM
What type of standard is LTE?
1G
2G
3G
4G ( Missed)
The characteristic feature of the Evolved High-Speed Packet Access (HSPA+) standard is the use of:
SDLC
MIMO ( Missed)
CSMA/CD
KVM
Fiber-optic
Mobile broadband
Dial-up ( Missed)
WiMAX
The IEEE 802.16 standards defining high-speed, long-distance wireless communication are also commonly referred
to as:
ISDN
SONET
WiMAX ( Missed)
HSPA+
In terms of size and reach, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) can be placed between a LAN (smaller type of
network) and a WAN (larger type of network).
True ( Missed)
False
"Metro-Ethernet" is a general term for a computer network larger than a Local Area Network (LAN) and based on
3/5
Ethernet standards.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers lists a more costly alternative to VPN?
Dial-up
Leased line ( Missed)
Broadband cable
Satellite
T1 lines support data transfer rates of up to:
1.544 Mbps ( Missed)

2.048 Mbps
34.368 Mbps
44.736 Mbps
Which of the following answers lists the maximum data transfer rate of an E1 connection?
1.544 Mbps
34.368 Mbps
44.736 Mbps
T3 lines support data transfer rates of up to:
1.544 Mbps
2.048 Mbps
34.368 Mbps
Which of the answers listed below refers to the maximum data transfer rate of an E3 connection?
1.544 Mbps
2.048 Mbps
44.736 Mbps
Optical Carrier (OC) transmission rate specifications adhere to a pattern whereby OC prefix is followed by a number
designating a multiple of the base unit of 51.84 Mbps.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report

4/5
Total marks 31
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
An OC-3 line supports transmission rates of up to:
1.544 Mbps
51.84 Mbps
44.736 Mbps
Which of the answers listed below refers to the maximum data transfer rate of an OC-12 connection?

1244.16 Mbps
2488.32 Mbps
9953.28 Mbps
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to example(s) of circuit-switching communication method(s)? (Select all
that apply)
Frame relay
POTS ( Missed)
T-carrier ( Missed)
ATM
E-carrier ( Missed)
Used with telephone cabling ( Missed)

Used with Ethernet network cabling
Which of the following answers refer to the RJ-45 connector? (Select 2 answers)
Used with telephone cabling

Used with Ethernet network cabling ( Missed)
Which of the following connector types would be used for terminating a T-1 line?
RJ-45
1/5
RJ-48C ( Missed)
UTP
RJ-11
The RS-232 standard defines an interface for parallel data transmission method.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following connector types are used for connecting devices to a RS-232 port? (Select 2 answers)
RJ-11
DB-9/DE-9 ( Missed)
ST
RJ-48C
DB-25 ( Missed)
LC
A device used for the purpose of extending the length of various types of network cable runs is commonly referred to
as:
Coupler ( Missed)
Media converter
Amplifier
Cable certifier
Which of the connector types listed below are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers)
ST
MT-RJ
BNC ( Missed)
LC
A mechanism that allows for connecting one set of wires with another set of wires in telecommunications closets or
local area networks (LANs) is commonly referred to as a punch-down block
True ( Missed)
False
The 66 block (older type/used in telephony) and the 110 block (newer type/used in networking) are examples of
punch-down blocks.
True ( Missed)
False
One of the differences between the UTP and STP cabling is that STP cable takes advantage of additional protective
2/5
cover reducing signal interference from outside sources.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the cabling types listed below provide(s) protection against an outside signal interference? (Select all that
apply)
UTP
Coaxial ( Missed)
STP ( Missed)
In twisted-pair cabling wires are grouped into pairs and wires in each pair are twisted around each other in order to
reduce:
Cable diameter
Collisions
Bend radius
What is the typical cable segment length for a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable?
33 meters
55 meters
250 meters
Category 3 (CAT3) cable is a 10 Mbps twisted-pair copper cable used in telephone wiring.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers list(s) the characteristic feature(s) of a Category 5 (CAT5) cabling? (Select all that
apply)
Copper cable ( Missed)

RJ-45 connector ( Missed)
Fiber-optic cable
10 Gbps Ethernet
100 Mbps Ethernet ( Missed)
Which of the following twisted-pair copper cabling types is most commonly used in modern Ethernet networks?
CAT3
CAT4
CAT5
3/5
CAT5e ( Missed)
What is the minimum cabling requirement for a 10GBASE-T network?
CAT5
CAT5e
CAT6 ( Missed)
CAT6A
The Category 6 (CAT6) cabling supports a 10 Gbps data transfer rate at a limited range of 33-55 meters, whereas
CAT6A (Augmented) cabling allows for 10 Gbps data transfer rate over a cable segment length of 100 meters.
True ( Missed)
False
A type of enclosed space in a building (such as the one between a dropped ceiling and the structural ceiling) used
for air handling is commonly referred to as:
Plenum ( Missed)
Access Point (AP)
Cable tray
HVAC system
A special type of cabling with a fire-retardant jacket placed inside the space between structural floor and dropped
ceiling or inside walls is known as a plenum-rated cabling.
True ( Missed)
False
Materials from which the plenum-rated cable's cover is made include low-smoke polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and
fluorinated ethylene polymer (FEP).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers list examples of coaxial cabling types? (Select 2 answers)
STP
RG-59 ( Missed)
Multimode fiber
UTP
RG-6 ( Missed)
Single mode fiber
Your Final Report
Total marks 36
4/5
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
What kind of termination would be used to create a straight-through Ethernet cable? (Select 2 answers)
T568A on both ends ( Missed)

Rollover / Yost
T568A and T568B
T568B on both ends ( Missed)
An Ethernet straight-through cable is also commonly referred to as:
Rollover cable
Crossover cable
Patch cable ( Missed)
Yost cable
An Ethernet crossover cable uses T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on the
opposite end.
True ( Missed)
False
What type of Ethernet cable would be used for establishing a direct communication link between two PCs?
Patch cable
Crossover cable ( Missed)
Rollover cable
Which of the cable types listed below is often used to connect a computer terminal to a router's console port?
Crossover cable
Patch cable
Rollover cable ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of fiber-optic connectors (Select all that apply)
ST ( Missed)
DB-25
SC ( Missed)
LC ( Missed)
MT-RJ ( Missed)
FC ( Missed)
1/5
RG-6
The advantages of multimode fiber-optic cabling over single-mode cabling include data transfer rates over longer
distances, higher speed, and lower cost.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer to solutions used for controlling the light signal at a termination point of a fiber-
optic connection? (Select 2 answers)
APC ( Missed)
SCP
UPC ( Missed)
AUP
DLP
A network link consisting of two dissimilar media types requires an intermediary device known as:
Content filter
Patch panel
Media converter ( Missed)
Coupler
Which of the following tools would be used for attaching an RJ-45 connector to the end of a twisted-pair Ethernet
cable?
Punch down tool

Cable crimpers ( Missed)
Needle-nose pliers
Cable certifier
Which of the answers listed below refers to a tool used for attaching cables to a 110 block?
Punch down tool ( Missed)

Crimp tool
Cable certifier
Needle-nose pliers
Cable crimper
Snips
Certifier
Which of the following answers refers to a specialized tool used for evening out wire ends?
2/5
Cable crimper
Needle-nose pliers
Wire stripper
Snips ( Missed)
What is the function of a Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR)?
Finding breaks in copper network cables ( Missed)

Locating the beginning and the end of a cable in a cabling bundle
Checking network installation for compliance with TIA or ISO standards
Finding breaks in fiber-optic network cables
Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) is a type of specialized cable tester that allows for locating faults and
breaks in fiber-optic cabling.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the tools listed below allows for verification of the network cabling installation performance and its
compliance with TIA or ISO standards?
Multimeter
Cable certifier ( Missed)
Toner probe
Cable tester
A network topology in which each node has a direct physical connection to every other node is called:
Star
Partial mesh
Bus
Full mesh ( Missed)
Ring
Which of the following answers lists the number of connections in a full mesh network consisting of 10 nodes?
21
28
36
45 ( Missed)
Which type of network topology provides the highest level of redundancy?
Ring
Mesh ( Missed)
Bus
3/5
Star
In which type of network topology the main network cable becomes a single point of failure?
Star
Full mesh
Bus ( Missed)
Partial mesh
A network topology in which each node connects to exactly two other nodes is called:
Partial mesh topology

Ring topology ( Missed)
Full mesh topology
Star topology
SONET networks are most often based on:
Star topology
Bus topology
Dual ring topology ( Missed)
Mesh topology
A network topology in which each node connects to a central device is called:
Bus topology
Ring topology
Star topology ( Missed)
Mesh topology
Logical bus over physical star is an example of hybrid network topology.
True
False ( Missed)
A hybrid network topology is a combination of several physical topologies.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report
Total marks 31
Total Questions 25
4/5
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following network topologies is most commonly used in contemporary Ethernet LANs?
Bus topology
Star topology ( Missed)
Ring topology
Mesh topology
Which of the answers listed below is an example of point-to-point network topology?
Leased line ( Missed)

IEEE 802.11
Star topology
WAN
The advantages of the client-server model over peer-to-peer networking model include: (Select 3 answers)
Higher level of security ( Missed)

Easier administration ( Missed)
Higher level of redundancy
Lower cost
Improved performance ( Missed)
PAN
LAN
MAN
WAN ( Missed)
True ( Missed)
False
PAN
LAN
MAN ( Missed)
WAN
1/5
PAN
LAN ( Missed)
MAN
WAN
MAN
WLAN ( Missed)
LAN
VLAN
Most modern WLANs are based on:
IEEE 802.11 ( Missed)

IEEE 802.1x
IEEE 802.3
IEEE 802.1q
Which of the following answers refers to a WLAN hotspot?
Network vulnerability
Bottleneck
Internet access ( Missed)
eDiscovery
PAN ( Missed)
LAN
MAN
WAN
Which of the following technologies can be used by devices communicating in a WPAN? (Select 3 answers)
Bluetooth ( Missed)
IEEE 802.3
Near Field Communication (NFC) ( Missed)
100BASE-T
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a general term used for a system providing the capability for remote
2/5
control, real-time monitoring, and gathering information related to industrial equipment?
RAS
ICS ( Missed)
KVM
IGP
Which of the following answers list examples of Industrial Control System (ICS) solutions? (Select 2 answers)
KVM
RADIUS
DCS ( Missed)
SCADA ( Missed)
IKE
Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) and Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) are examples of intelligent devices used in
systems designed to control and automate industrial processes.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to a Cisco network architecture designed to improve the performance of video
and rich-media applications?
Medianet ( Missed)
TACACS+
Metro-Ethernet
eDiscovery
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a solution that enables simultaneous two-way video and audio
transmissions between multiple networked hosts?
VPN
VTC ( Missed)
VDSL
VTP
The examples of technologies used for implementing VTC solutions include: (Select 2 answers)
UTM
IP/SIP ( Missed)
DCS
ISDN ( Missed)
SCADA
3/5
32 bits
48 bits
64 bits
128 bits ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to the example application of EUI-64?
Patch panel labeling

IPv6 auto-configuration ( Missed)
Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)
IPv6 address compression
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol version 6 (DHCPv6) is the IPv6 equivalent of the Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol (DHCP) for IPv4.
True ( Missed)
False
An IPv6 link-local address is the equivalent of IPv4:
APIPA address ( Missed)

Routable IP address
Public IP address
MAC address
Which of the following answers refers to an IPv6 link-local address?
2002::/16
FE80::/64 ( Missed)
2001::/32
::1/128
Octagonal numbers
Binary numbers
Decimal numbers
Which of the following are IPv6 loopback addresses? (Select 2 answers)
127.0.0.1
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 ( Missed)
169.254/16
::1 ( Missed)
FE80::/64
4/5
Your Final Report
Total marks 32
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
make the address shorter.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers lists a valid address of FE80:0000:0000:0000:02AA:0000:4C00:FE9A after

compression?
FE80::2AA::4C00:FE9A
FE80:0:2AA:0:4C:FE9A
FE80::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A ( Missed)
FE80:0:02AA::4C:FE9A
An IPv4 to IPv6 transition mechanism that allows IPv6 packets to be transmitted over an IPv4 network is known as:
6to4 ( Missed)
802.3af
eDiscovery
Miredo
What does the term "Miredo" refer to?
IPv4 to IPv6 migration mechanism

Load balancing solution
Teredo IPv6 tunneling software ( Missed)
Content filtering solution
Which of the following answers lists the binary notation of the decimal number 192?
10101100
11000000 ( Missed)
01111111
10101000
32 bits ( Missed)
48 bits
64 bits
128 bits
Which of the following answers lists the decimal notation of the binary number 10101100?
1/5
168
172 ( Missed)
192
255
255.255.225.0
255.255.191.0
255.255.127.0
255.255.64.0
Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class A network?
255.0.0.0 ( Missed)
255.128.0.0
224.0.0.0
255.224.0.0
Which of the following answers lists an example of an APIPA address?
192.168.0.3
127.0.0.1
169.254.10.20 ( Missed)
65.55.57.27
Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class B network?
255.252.0.0
255.255.0.0 ( Missed)
255.248.0.0
255.224.0.0
APIPA-assigned addresses are valid only for communications within a network segment that a given host is
connected to (a host with APIPA-assigned address cannot connect to the Internet).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class C network?
255.255.192.0
255.255.224.0
255.255.255.0 ( Missed)
255.255.252.0
2/5
An IPv4 address in the range 169.254.1.0 through 169.254.254.255 indicates a problem with what type of service?
SNMP
DNS
SMTP
DHCP ( Missed)
/25
/26
/27 ( Missed)
/28
What is the first valid host address for a node residing in the 10.119.136.143/20 network?
10.119.96.1
10.119.128.1 ( Missed)
10.119.132.1
10.119.136.1
What is the network address for a 154.24.67.147/22 host?
154.24.48.0
154.24.60.0
154.24.62.0
154.24.64.0 ( Missed)
192.168.31.255
192.168.47.255
192.168.63.255 ( Missed)
192.168.79.255

Class B range
Class C range
3/5
Class A address space ( Missed)
Class C address space
Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 IPv4 address
Class A range
Class C range
What is the leading octet value range for an IPv4 address belonging to a class B network?
128 - 191 ( Missed)

1 - 126
192 - 223
224 - 239
Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 IP address
Class A range
Class B range
Class A address space

Class C address space ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer to the IPv4 multicast address block? (Select 2 answers)
128 - 191
Class B
192 - 223
Class C
224 - 239 ( Missed)
4/5
Class D ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following solutions alleviates the problem of the depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple
hosts on the same private LAN to share a single public IP address?
DNS
APIPA
NAT ( Missed)
DHCP
Which of the following solutions hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet
headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?
QoS
DHCP
NAT ( Missed)
DNS
Network Address Translation (NAT) provides an IP proxy between a private LAN and a public network such as the
Internet.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to a Network Address Translation (NAT) method that binds a combination of
private IP address and port number with a corresponding public IP address and port information?
PAT ( Missed)
RAS
NAC
EAP
Which of the following answer(s) refer(s) to the characteristic features of a MAC address? (Select all that apply)
46-bit hexadecimal number

Hard-coded into a NIC ( Missed)
Dynamic address
48-bit hexadecimal number ( Missed)
Physical address ( Missed)
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) provides what kind of resolution?
IPv6 to IPv4
MAC to IP
1/5
Domain name to IP
IP to MAC ( Missed)
Which of the following commands would be used to display MAC address in Linux?
ifconfig ( Missed)
ipconfig /all
ipconfig
ipconfig -a
Which of the following answers lists a command-line command used to display MAC address in MS Windows?
ifconfig
ipconfig /all ( Missed)
ipconfig
ipconfig -a
A type of network traffic intended for a particular group of hosts is known as:
Unicast
Multicast ( Missed)
P2P
Broadcast
A type of network traffic intended for a single host identified by a unique IP address is commonly referred to as:
Unicast ( Missed)
Multicast
Link local
Broadcast
Which of the following transmission types would be used to reach a networked host with unknown address?
Multicast
Point-to-point
Unicast
Broadcast ( Missed)
Which of the devices listed below is used for separating broadcast domains?
Active hub
Router ( Missed)
Layer 2 switch
Repeater
Which of the following network attack types exploits broadcast traffic?
2/5
Bluejacking
Smurf attack ( Missed)
Brute force
Man-in-the-middle
In computer networking, a situation in which two or more demands are made simultaneously on equipment that can
handle only one at any given moment is commonly referred to as collision.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol providing means for controlling access to a
transmission medium?
CSMA ( Missed)
DWDM
CDMA
CWDM
Which of the following solutions allows for verifying the absence of other traffic on a shared medium before
transmitting in order to prevent collisions and loss of data in 802.3 networks?
CDMA
CSMA/CA
CWDM
CSMA/CD ( Missed)
Which of the following allows for controlling the shared medium in order to minimize collisions in 802.11 networks?
CWDM
CSMA/CD
CDMA
CSMA/CA ( Missed)
A loopback interface on a router provides the means for basic testing whether the router is on and operational.
True ( Missed)
False
A field in an IP datagram that specifies how many more hops a packet can travel before being discarded is called:
SPB
TTL ( Missed)
MTU
VTC
Which of the following mechanisms can be used to prevent routing loops? (Select 2 answers)
3/5
Maximum hop count ( Missed)
Time to live (TTL) ( Missed)
Default route
Load balancing
A set of rules stored on a Layer 3 switch or a networked host that allows to determine the topology of the
surrounding network is commonly referred to as:
Routing metrics
Loopback interface
Routing table ( Missed)
Which of the following command-line commands in MS Windows are used to display the contents of a routing table?
(Select 2 answers)
tracert
nslookup
ipconfig /all
print route
netstat -r ( Missed)
A manually-configured routing entry is known as:
Static route ( Missed)

Dynamic route
Default route
Convergence state in routing refers to a situation where:
A server receives the final ACK packet

All routers have finished updating their routing tables ( Missed)
Some of the WAPs have duplicate IP addresses
Rogue access points are configured with legitimate SSIDs
Which of the answers listed below refers to the process of the automated update of a routing table?
Static routing
Dynamic routing ( Missed)
Route aggregation
4/5
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
The term "Default route" refers to the network path used by a router for forwarding all packets with destination
addresses not listed in its routing table.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refers to a distance-vector routing protocol?
OSPF
RIPv2 ( Missed)
OTDR
IS-IS
Examples of link-state routing protocols include: (Select 2 answers)
RIPv2
OSPF ( Missed)
RIP
IS-IS ( Missed)
OTDR
Which of the following answers lists an example of a hybrid routing protocol?
OSPF
RIPv2
BGP ( Missed)
IS-IS
Examples of interior gateway routing protocols include: (Select all that apply)
BGP
RIPv2 ( Missed)
OSPF ( Missed)
IS-IS ( Missed)
A collection of IP networks and routers under the control of one administrative entity is commonly referred to as:
Looking glass site

Medianet
Wide Area Network (WAN)
Autonomous system ( Missed)
1/5
Which of the following protocol types is used for sharing routing information between autonomous systems (routing
domains)?
IGP
OSPF
EGP ( Missed)
IS-IS
What are the characteristic features of the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Select 2 answers)
Distance-vector routing protocol

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) ( Missed)
Hybrid routing protocol ( Missed)
Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP)
Link-state routing protocol
Autonomous System Number (ASN) is a globally unique number allocated for a collection of networked systems that
operate common routing protocols and are under control of a single administrative authority.
True ( Missed)
False
A solution used to translate routing information between routers configured to use different routing protocols is
known as:
Route redistribution ( Missed)

Route aggregation
eDiscovery
Which of the following networking protocols provide(s) redundancy? (Select all that apply)
DSCP
VRRP ( Missed)
ISAKMP
HSRP ( Missed)
TKIP
Which of the protocols listed below are used for designating a backup router in the event of an active router failure?
(Select 2 answers)
DSCP
VRRP ( Missed)
ISAKMP
HSRP ( Missed)
TKIP
2/5
A solution used to optimize and decrease the size of a routing table is known as:
Route aggregation ( Missed)

Default route
Loopback interface
In routing, a rough measure of distance between two networked hosts is commonly referred to as:
Latency
Default route
Hop count ( Missed)
MTU
Which of the following metrics describes the largest allowable data unit that can be transmitted across the network?
UTM
MTU ( Missed)
TTL
QoS
Which of the following provides a replacement for the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
SIP
PGP
SPB ( Missed)
RTP
What is the common term for a group of protocols used to carry voice data over a packet-switched network?
VoIP ( Missed)
PSTN
PBX
POTS
Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism that allows for controlling network resources and assigning
priority to different types of traffic? (Select best answer)
Quality of Service (QoS) ( Missed)

Bandwidth cap
Fair access policy
Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the function of Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)
architecture? (Select all that apply)
Security
3/5
QoS ( Missed)
Authentication
Traffic management ( Missed)
Accounting
What is the functionality provided by the Class of Service (CoS) parameter? (Select all that apply)
Security
QoS ( Missed)
Authentication
Traffic management ( Missed)
Accounting
Which optional field in an Ethernet frame header can be used to enable the Quality of Service (QoS) functionality?
Preamble
CoS ( Missed)
Payload
CRC
Which of the following terms best describe(s) a system/infrastructure that integrates various types of voice, video,
and data services in a single user interface? (Select all that apply)
UC server ( Missed)
VPN concentrator
Autonomous System (AS)
Honeypot
Unified communications ( Missed)
Which of the following terms refers to a solution that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on
the same hardware?
Clustering
Hyperthreading
Load balancing
A software application used to manage multiple guest operating systems on a single host system is called:
ICS server
UC server
Virtual switch
Which of the networking protocols listed below enables creation of virtual routers?
4/5
NNTP
STP
VRRP ( Missed)
VTP
Your Final Report
Total marks 34
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the answers listed below refers to a dedicated local network consisting of devices providing data access?
VLAN
SAN ( Missed)
iSCSI
NAS
A data transfer protocol for linking data storage components over a network is known as:
BootP
LDAP
iSCSI ( Missed)
SaaS
What is the maximum payload value for a standard Ethernet frame?
1000 bytes
1250 bytes
1500 bytes ( Missed)
2000 bytes
Which of the answers listed below refers to the MTU for a standard Ethernet frame?
500 bytes
750 bytes
1000 bytes
1500 bytes ( Missed)
A single non-standard Ethernet frame that allows for larger maximum payload size is commonly referred to as:
Magic packet
Jumbo frame ( Missed)
MTU black hole
Ping of death
A high-speed network technology primarily used to connect computer data storage is known as:
Fibre Channel (FC) ( Missed)

HSPA+
Frame relay
Network Attached Storage (NAS)
1/5
Which of the following acronyms refers to a dedicated storage appliance that can be added to a local network?
SPS
NAS ( Missed)
SAN
NFS
In which of the cloud computing infrastructure types clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software,
purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary
equipment?
IaaS ( Missed)
SaaS
PaaS
web app?
SaaS
PaaS ( Missed)
IaaS
A cloud computing infrastructure type where applications are hosted over a network (typically Internet) eliminating
the need to install and run the software on the customer's own computers is known as Software as a Service
(SaaS).
True ( Missed)
False
A cloud computing infrastructure offering a remote access to applications and pricing based on monthly or annual
Unified Communications (UC)

Software as a Service (SaaS) ( Missed)
Virtualization
Software-Defined Networking (SDN)
A dedicated software tool used to monitor and examine contents of network traffic is known as: (Select all that apply)
Port scanner
Packet sniffer ( Missed)
Protocol analyzer ( Missed)
Which of the following tools would be used to identify running services on a networked host?
Packet sniffer
Loopback interface
2/5
Protocol analyzer
Port scanner ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used in network management systems for the monitoring of
network-attached devices?
SIP
SNMP ( Missed)
NetBIOS
RTP
A software module on a managed device that sends SNMP notifications to the managing station is called:
Agent ( Missed)
UC gateway
Proxy
ICS server
Which of the following answers provides a replacement term for SNMP notification?
Jumbo frame
Trap ( Missed)
Community string
SSID broadcast
An SNMP management station receives SNMP notifications from Agents on UDP port:
161
137
162 ( Missed)
138
161 ( Missed)
137
162
138
Which of the following Net-SNMP commands are used for retrieving information from an SNMP-capable device?
snmpset
snmpwalk ( Missed)
snmpget ( Missed)
snmptranslate
3/5
An SNMP-compliant device includes a virtual database called Management Information Base (MIB) containing
information about configuration and state of the device that can be queried by the SNMP management station.
True ( Missed)
False
A type of server used for collecting system messages from networked devices is known as:
Web server
UC server
Syslog server ( Missed)
ICS server
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a technology that allows for real-time analysis of security alerts
generated by network hardware and applications?
LACP
DSCP
SIEM ( Missed)
LWAPP
Which of the following terms refers to a solution used for controlling temperature and humidity?
SCADA
HIPS
TEMPEST
HVAC ( Missed)
The process of planning and designing new WLANs for optimal performance, security, and compliance typically
involves:
Penetration testing
Wireless site survey ( Missed)
End user awareness and training
In half-duplex communication transmission takes place:

In one direction only
In both directions at half the speed
Your Final Report
Total marks 27
4/5
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
A type of transmission that takes place in two directions simultaneously is known as:

Broadcast
Simplex
Half duplex
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to a policy that allows employees to use their own mobile devices on the
corporate network? (Select all that apply)
Chain of custody
Mobile device on-boarding ( Missed)
Fair access policy
BYOD ( Missed)
Mobile device off-boarding
Which security measure is in place when a client is denied access to the network due to an outdated antivirus
software?
NAS
DMZ
NAC ( Missed)
NAT
Network Access Control (NAC) defines a set of rules enforced in a network that the clients attempting to access the
network must comply with. With NAC, policies can be enforced before or after end-stations gain access to the
network. NAC can be implemented as Pre-admission NAC where a host must, for example, be virus free or have
patches applied before it is allowed to connect to the network, and/or Post-admission NAC, where a host is being
granted/denied permissions based on its actions after it has been provided with the access to the network.
True ( Missed)
False
802.1X is an IEEE standard for implementing:
Token ring networks

Port-based network access control ( Missed)
VLAN tagging
Wireless networks
A logical network diagram is a document that describes the detailed layout of the building and the way the devices
are connected to the network through the actual cabling that transmits data.
1/5
True
False ( Missed)
A monitored host holding no valuable data specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts and divert
attacker's attention from the corporate network is known as:
Honeynet
Rogue access point
Honeypot ( Missed)
Flood guard
is called:

HIDS
Firewall
ICS server
VPN
Bridge
VLAN
DMZ ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer(s) to a type of software embedded into hardware device? (Select all that apply)
HIDS
Device driver
BIOS ( Missed)
Firmware ( Missed)
A computer program/code that provides software interface to hardware devices enabling operating systems and
other computer programs to interact with the device is commonly referred to as a device driver.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the terms listed below refers to a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to act as if they
were attached to the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location?
VLAN ( Missed)
DMZ
UC gateway
SNMP community
2/5
A Cisco-proprietary protocol for distributing VLAN information across the network is known as:
STP
VTP ( Missed)
VRRP
VTC
Which of the following solutions provide(s) protection against switching loops? (Select all that apply)
STP ( Missed)
802.1d ( Missed)
NTP
RSTP ( Missed)
VTC
802.1w ( Missed)
Which of the terms listed below refer(s) to a newer replacement for the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? (Select all
that apply)
802.1d
LACP
802.1w ( Missed)
RSTP ( Missed)
Data from multiple VLANs on a single switch is carried through a single network link between switches. This is often
referred to as:
Port labeling
Port trunking ( Missed)
Port bonding
Port filtering
A switch port configured to pass all the data, regardless of the VLAN number, between all switches on a LAN is
known as:
Default gateway
Trunk port ( Missed)
Captive portal
Mirrored port
To allow for multiple VLANs on a single link, frames from individual VLANs must be identified. The most common
and preferred method, IEEE 802.1Q, adds a tag to the Ethernet frame header labeling it as belonging to a certain
VLAN.
True ( Missed)
False
3/5
Which of the following solutions enables combining several physical ports into a single logical channel?
RSTP
VRRP
LACP ( Missed)
HSRP
Which of the following allows an administrator to inspect the traffic passing through a network switch?
Port mirroring ( Missed)

Fault-tolerant mode
Port scanner
VLAN tagging
VLAN membership can be configured through: (Select all that apply)
Switch ports ( Missed)

IP-address-to-VLAN mapping
TCP and UDP port numbers
MAC-address-to-VLAN mapping ( Missed)
In dynamic VLAN configuration, a device connecting to a certain switch port automatically becomes a member of
the VLAN assigned to that port.
True
False ( Missed)
Static VLAN configuration relies on assigning VLAN membership by examining the MAC address of the device
connecting to a switch port.
True
False ( Missed)
A solution that allows to supply electricity over standard Ethernet cables is known as: (Select all that apply)
IEEE 802.3ab
PoE ( Missed)
Metro-Ethernet
IEEE 802.3af ( Missed)
PSTN
Which of the standards listed below implements PoE+?
IEEE 802.1d
IEEE 802.3at ( Missed)
IEEE 802.1x
IEEE 802.3ab
4/5
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
The process of managing a network device via a connection other than the regular network link used by the device
to send and receive network traffic is known as:
Session hijacking
Out-of-band management ( Missed)
Backdoor access
In-band management
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Layer 2 network switch with configuration features that can be
changed through a user interface?
Unmanaged switch
Remote Terminal Unit (RTU)
Active hub
Managed switch ( Missed)
loss in connectivity is commonly referred to as:
Roaming ( Missed)
Switching
Routing
DHCP relay
Which of the following answers lists an example of a protocol used for implementing control over multiple Wireless
Access Points (WAPs)?
RTSP
LWAPP ( Missed)
LDAP
MGCP
segments?

Layer 3 switch
Cable modem
An administrator needs to adjust multiple Access Point (AP) placement in order to ensure the best coverage for the
network. Which of the following tools would be of help while identifying the areas of low signal strength?
1/5
Heat map ( Missed)
Wi-Fi hotspots
Frequency bands used by 802.11 networks include: (Select 2 answers)
5.0 GHz ( Missed)

5.4 GHz
2.0 GHz
2.4 GHz ( Missed)
Scope
Channel ( Missed)
Service set
Baseline
for devices operating on channels that are too close to each other is called:
Cross-talk
Collision
Channel bonding
Which of the following answers refers to the measurement of data transfer rate that excludes all protocol overhead
information as well as retransmission of lost data packets?
Goodput ( Missed)
Bandwidth cap
Throughput
Baseline
Modified older wireless standards that allow complaint devices to achieve higher speeds include: (Select all that
apply)
802.11x
802.11a-ht ( Missed)
802.11ac
802.11g-ht ( Missed)
An optimal Wireless Access Point (WAP) antenna placement provides a countermeasure against:
2/5
War chalking
Tailgating
Shoulder surfing
Which of the following answers refers to a common antenna type used as a standard equipment on most Access
Points (APs) for indoor Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) deployments?

Dish antenna
Yagi antenna
Which of the antenna types listed below provide a 360-degree horizontal signal coverage? (Select 2 answers)
Dish antenna
Omnidirectional antenna ( Missed)
Yagi antenna
Which of the following answers refer(s) to highly directional antenna type(s) used for long-range point-to-point
bridging links? (Select all that apply)
Dipole antenna
Omnidirectional antenna
Dish antenna ( Missed)
Non-directional antenna
Unidirectional antenna ( Missed)
Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) is a wireless technology that allows for significant increase in data
throughput due to the use of multiple antennas and multiple data streams.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refers to the new feature introduced with the IEEE 802.11ac standard?
MIMO
40-Hertz mode
MU-MIMO ( Missed)
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps
Which of the following WAP configuration settings allows for adjusting the boundary range of the wireless signal?
Fair access policy
3/5
Bandwidth cap
A type of management frame containing information about the wireless network that helps wireless-capable devices
discover the presence of a Wireless LAN (WLAN) is known as:
Beacon frame ( Missed)

Magic packet
Jumbo frame
Which of the following serves as a unique identifier for a WLAN (a wireless network name)?
EUI
SSID ( Missed)
OUI
CNAME


Infrastructure mode
A wireless networking topology consisting of at least one Access Point (AP) is known as:
Infrastructure mode ( Missed)

Ad hoc mode
Peer-to-peer mode
A Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) operating in an infrastructure mode with the use of more than one Access
Point (AP) is referred to as:
4/5
Extended Service Set (ESS) ( Missed)
Basic Service Set (BSS)
UPS ( Missed)
PoE
SVC
PSU
Your Final Report
Total marks 31
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers lists an example method for passive test of security controls?
Tabletop exercises
Pentest
Vulnerability scan ( Missed)
War chalking
Vulnerability scanning: (Select all that apply)
Only identifies lack of security controls ( Missed)

Actively tests security controls
Exploits vulnerabilities
Passively tests security controls ( Missed)
Penetration test performed by an authorized professional with the full prior knowledge on how the system that is to
be tested works is called:
Black hat
White box testing ( Missed)
Fuzz testing
Black box testing
Penetration testing: (Select all that apply)
Bypasses security controls ( Missed)

Only identifies lack of security controls
Actively tests security controls ( Missed)
Exploits vulnerabilities ( Missed)
Passively tests security controls
Penetration test of a computer system without the prior knowledge on how the system that is to be tested works is
commonly referred to as black box testing.
True ( Missed)
False
An attempt to flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system so that it becomes overwhelmed with false
requests and in result doesn't have time or resources to handle legitimate requests is called:
Bluejacking
MITM attack
Session hijacking
1/5
Bluesnarfing
DoS attack ( Missed)
As opposed to the simple Denial of Service (DoS) attacks that usually are performed from a single system, a
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack uses multiple compromised computer systems to perform attack against
its target.
True ( Missed)
False
A collection of intermediary compromised systems that are used as a platform for a DDoS attack is known as:
Honeynet
Botnet ( Missed)
Quarantine network
Network controllers
Malware
Which of the following answers apply to smurf attack? (Select 3 answers)
IP spoofing ( Missed)
DDoS ( Missed)
Polymorphic malware
Order of volatility
Large amount of ICMP echo replies ( Missed)
A smurf attack is an example of reflective Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following exploits takes advantage of the spoofed MAC address?
Bluejacking
DNS poisoning
MAC filtering
ARP poisoning ( Missed)
An email sent from unknown source disguised as a source known to the message receiver is an example of: (Select
all that apply)
Spoofing ( Missed)
Bluesnarfing
Shoulder surfing
Bluejacking
2/5
Which of the following terms is used as a synonym for a rogue Access Point (AP)?
Trojan horse
Evil twin ( Missed)
Backdoor
Computer worm
Which of the following is an example of a wireless site survey?
Spear phishing
Bluejacking
Shoulder surfing
The term "War driving" refers to:
Penetration test
Vulnerability scan
Marking unsecured wireless networks
What is war chalking?

Finding unsecured wireless networks
Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person
Marking unsecured wireless networks ( Missed)
The practice of sending unsolicited messages over Bluetooth is known as:
Phishing
Bluejacking ( Missed)
Vishing
Bluesnarfing
The practice of gaining unauthorized access to a Bluetooth device is referred to as:
MITM attack
Bluejacking
Phishing
Bluesnarfing ( Missed)
3/5
WPA
WPS ( Missed)
WEP
WAP
WPS ( Missed)
WAP
WPA2
WAF
WEP ( Missed)
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following provides a countermeasure against session hijacking?
Port filtering
Cleartext credentials
The unauthorized practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating people into disclosing sensitive data
is known as:

Zero-day attack
Backdoor access
by an attacker for the purpose of identity theft is an example of:
Bluesnarfing
Brute-force attack
Bluejacking
User authentication
4/5
Strong passwords
Your Final Report
Total marks 32
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Phishing
DDoS
Xmas attack
MITM ( Missed)
Switch spoofing and double tagging are two primary methods of attacking networked resources on:
WLAN
VPN
VLAN ( Missed)
PAN
Harmful programs used to disrupt computer operation, gather sensitive information, or gain access to private
Adware
Malware ( Missed)
Computer viruses
Spyware
Zero-day attack exploits:
New accounts
Patched software
Setting up a network-based firewall

Vulnerability patches ( Missed)
Fixing configuration errors ( Missed)
True ( Missed)
False
A hacker has captured network traffic with cleartext commands sent from the client to the server console. Which of
the following ports is being used by the network admin for the client-server communication?
1/5
49
23 ( Missed)
68
22
A secure version of the HTTP protocol is known as: (Select all that apply)
HSPA
HSRP
HTTPS ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a preferred replacement for the SLIP protocol?
PoE
PPP ( Missed)
CHAP
PAP
Which of the protocols listed below transmit(s) data in an unencrypted form? (Select all that apply)
SCP
IPsec
SNMPv1 ( Missed)
FTP ( Missed)
Telnet ( Missed)
SFTP
Which of the following protocols allow(s) for secure file transfer? (Select all that apply)
FTPS ( Missed)
TFTP
FTP
SFTP ( Missed)
SCP ( Missed)
FTPS is an extension to the Secure Shell protocol (SSH) and runs by default on port number 22.
True
False ( Missed)
Unblocking port number 22 enables what type of traffic? (Select all that apply)
SSH ( Missed)
2/5
SFTP ( Missed)
FTP
SCP ( Missed)
FTPS
Which of the following protocols does not provide authentication?
FTP
TFTP ( Missed)
SCP
SFTP
Which version(s) of the SNMP protocol offer(s) only authentication based on community strings sent in an
unencrypted form? (Select all that apply)
SNMPv1 ( Missed)
SNMPv2 ( Missed)
SNMPv3
SNMPv4
Of the three existing versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), versions 1 and 2 (SNMPv1 and
SNMPv2) offer authentication based on community strings sent in an unencrypted form (in cleartext). SNMPv3
provides packet encryption, authentication, and hashing mechanisms that allow for checking whether data has
changed in transit.
True ( Missed)
False
computers?
Telnet
SSH ( Missed)
Bcrypt
TFTP
CHAP
FTP
SSH ( Missed)
LDAP
The SCP protocol is used for:
Directory access
3/5
Secure file transfer ( Missed)
Network addressing
Sending emails
SCP
Telnet
SSL ( Missed)
SNMP
TLS ( Missed)
Which of the IPsec modes provides entire packet encryption?
Tunnel ( Missed)
Payload
Transport
Default
Which of the following solutions provides a shielded environment that protects against unintentional signal leakage
and eavesdropping?
SCADA
TEMPEST ( Missed)
HVAC
RADIUS
Repositories
Macros
Security logs
An antivirus software can be kept up to date through: (Select 2 answers)
Driver updates
Audit trails
OS updates
The term "DHCP snooping" refers to an exploit that enables operation of a rogue DHCP server on the network.
True
4/5
False ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 38
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following security solutions allows for discarding ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address
bindings?
DCS
SIEM
DAI ( Missed)
RARP
What is the name of a network access control method used to grant or deny access to the network based on the
physical address of the Network Interface Card (NIC)?

URL filter
Post-admission NAC
Content filter
Which of the following answers refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted
PKI
NAT
WPS
ACL ( Missed)
Which of the functionalities listed below allows a DLP system to fulfil its role?
Motion detection
Loop protection
What type of filtering allows for controlling specific types of network traffic (e.g. web, mail, file transfer)?
IP
URL
Port ( Missed)
MAC
Which of the following policies applies to any requests that fall outside the criteria defined in an ACL?
Fair access policy
1/5
Implicit deny policy ( Missed)
Encryption mechanisms designed for securing wireless networks include: (Select all that apply)
WMS
WPA ( Missed)
MD5
WPA2 ( Missed)
WEP ( Missed)
EAP
AES
WPA2
WEP ( Missed)
Solutions designed to strengthen existing WEP implementations without the requirement for replacement of legacy
hardware include: (Select 2 answers)
WPA ( Missed)
UTM
TKIP ( Missed)
802.11i
WPS
WEP
WPA2 ( Missed)
PAP
WPA
WEP
WPA2 ( Missed)
WAP
WPA
Which part of the AAA framework deals with verification of the identity of a person or process?
Authorization
2/5
Non-repudiation
Accounting
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is a remote access authentication protocol that periodically
re-authenticates client at random intervals in order to prevent session hijacking.
True ( Missed)
False
Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) does not offer encryption and sends passwords in clear text.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refers to a multi-protocol authentication framework frequently used in 802.11
networks and point-to-point connections?
PAP
MS-CHAP
EAP ( Missed)
CHAP
Which of the following is the default port number used by the Kerberos authentication system?
88 ( Missed)
443
84
3389
("somewhere you are"), or user-specific activity patterns, such as for example keyboard typing style ("something you
do"). Multifactor authentication systems require implementation of authentication factors from two or more different
categories.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following examples meets the requirement of two-factor authentication?

Username and password
3/5
separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is commonly referred to as:
Single sign-on ( Missed)

AAA framework
Hash functions allow for mapping large amounts of data content to a small string of characters. The result of hash
function provides the exact "content in a nutshell" (in the form of a string of characters) derived from the main
content. In case there's any change to the data after the original hash was taken, the next time when hash function
is applied the resulting hash value calculated after content modification will be different from the original hash. In
computer forensics procedures, comparing hashes taken at different stages of evidence handling process ensures
that the evidence hasn't been tampered with and stays intact.
True ( Missed)
False
SHA and MD5 are examples of:
Trust models
Encryption algorithms
Hash functions ( Missed)
Virus signatures
The term "Mantrap" refers to a physical security access control system used to prevent unauthorized users from
gaining access to restricted areas by following another person. An example mantrap could be a two-door entrance
point connected to a guard station wherein a person entering mantrap from the outside remains locked inside until
he/she provides authentication token required to unlock the inner door.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refer to physical security detective controls? (Select 2 answers)
Security guard
Hardware firewall
IP camera ( Missed)
Quarantine network
CCTV ( Missed)
In computer security, the term "Biometrics" refers to physical characteristics of the human body that can be used for
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refer(s) to physical security control solution(s)? (Select all that apply)
Cipher lock ( Missed)

4/5
Hardware firewall
Proximity reader ( Missed)
Video surveillance ( Missed)
Security guard ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following extends the functionality of a conventional firewall by preventing the execution of malicious
code?
Multilayer switch
Application firewall ( Missed)
Stateful packet inspection
Dynamic packet filtering
Which of the terms listed below refers to the dynamic packet filtering concept?
Port mirroring
Stateful inspection ( Missed)
Out-of-band management
Stateless inspection
Stateless inspection is a firewall technology that keeps track of the state of network connections and based on that
data determines which network packets to allow through the firewall.
True
False ( Missed)
MTU
MGCP
UTM ( Missed)
PGP
The term "Virtual wire" refers to a solution that allows for creating logical binding between two ports and passing all
traffic between them without any switching or routing.
True ( Missed)
False
An IEEE standard for port-based network access control is called:
802.1D
802.1Q
802.1W
802.1X ( Missed)
The process of searching, collecting, and securing electronic data with the intent of using it in a legal proceeding or
investigation is known as:
1/5
eDiscovery ( Missed)
Legal hold
Chain of custody
Logging
Proxy list
Order of volatility
Access log
In forensic analysis, taking hashes ensures that the collected digital evidence retains its:
Confidentiality
Integrity ( Missed)
Order of volatility
Availability
According to the network troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of
applicable preventative measures should come as the last two steps of the troubleshooting process.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following actions should be the first three main steps in the network troubleshooting process? (Select 3
answers)
Implementing the solution or escalating as necessary

Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem and identifying potential effects
Establishing a theory of probable cause ( Missed)
Which action should come next after the theory of probable problem cause has been established in the
troubleshooting process?
Questioning users
Duplicating the problem, if possible
Identifying symptoms
Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the network troubleshooting
methodology process is to:
Test the theory to determine cause

2/5
Question users
Implement the solution or escalate as necessary ( Missed)
Establish a theory of probable cause
Which of the following are the last two steps in the network troubleshooting process? (Select 2 answers)
Verifying full system functionality and if applicable implementing preventative measures ( Missed)
Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem and identifying potential effects
Documenting findings, actions and outcomes ( Missed)
Implementing the solution or escalating as appropriate
Testing the theory to determine cause
The very last step of the network troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes.
This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative
measures.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following commands in MS Windows is used to display help information related to a specific network
command-line utility?
man [command]
[command] --help
info [command]
What is the name of a Windows command-line utility that is used to display TCP/IP configuration settings?
ifconfig
nslookup
ipconfig ( Missed)
netstat
Which of the following answers lists an ipconfig command parameter used for displaying the full TCP/IP
configuration information for all adapters?
/?
/displaydns
/all ( Missed)
/-a
A command-line utility in MS Windows used for displaying protocol statistics and current TCP/IP network
connections is called:
tracert
traceroute
3/5
netstat ( Missed)
nslookup
Which netstat parameter allows to display all active TCP connections and the TCP and UDP ports on which the
computer is listening?
-a ( Missed)
-p
-e
-r
What is the name of a Linux command-line utility that is used to display TCP/IP configuration settings?
ifconfig ( Missed)
netstat
nslookup
ipconfig
A command-line network administration utility that operates by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
echo request packets to the destination host and waiting for a reply in order to test the communication with another
computer on an Internet Protocol (IP) network is called ping.
True ( Missed)
False
What is the correct syntax for checking the IPv6 connectivity with another network node (host1) in MS Windows?
(Select 2 answers)
ping host1 -6 ( Missed)

ping 6 host1
ping host1.ipv6
ping -6 host1 ( Missed)
Which of the command-line commands listed below allows for sending an ICMPv6 echo request to another network
node (host1) in Linux OS?
ping host1 -6
ping ipv6.host1
ping6 host1 ( Missed)
ping -6 host1
A network command-line utility in MS Windows that tracks and displays the route taken by IPv4 packets on their
way to another host is called:
ping
traceroute
nslookup
4/5
tracert ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
A Linux command-line utility for displaying intermediary points (routers) the IPv4 packet is passed through on its
way to another network node is known as:
nbtstat
traceroute ( Missed)
netstat
tracert
Which of the following commands in MS Windows displays the route taken by IPv6 packets on their way to another
host?
traceroute6
tracert6
traceroute -6
tracert -6 ( Missed)
A network command-line command in Linux that tracks and displays the route taken by IPv6 packets on their way to
another network node is called: (Select 2 answers)
traceroute6 ( Missed)
tracert6
traceroute -6 ( Missed)
tracert -6
nbtstat ( Missed)
ping
netstat
tracert
Which of the following tools allows for obtaining domain name to IP address mapping information?
netstat
nslookup ( Missed)
tracert
pathping
Which command in MS Windows displays a table consisting of IP addresses and their resolved Ethernet or Token
Ring physical addresses?
arp -a ( Missed)
1/5
netstat -n
nslookup
arp -e
Which of the network command-line utilities in MS Windows combines the features of ping and tracert?
nbtstat
pathping ( Missed)
nslookup
netstat
Which of the following tools would be used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle or tracing individual wires in a
cable?
Spectrum analyzer
Multimeter
A network service provider site set up in order to allow remote read-only access to routers operating on the
provider's network is called:
Honeypot
Captive portal
Looking glass site ( Missed)
Speed test site
Which of the server types listed below would be used for troubleshooting network-wide routing problems?
ICS server
LG server ( Missed)
UC server
DNS server
Which of the following tools would be of help in troubleshooting signal loss and low wireless network signal
coverage? (Select all that apply)
Protocol analyzer
WAP power level controls ( Missed)
Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)
Heat map ( Missed)
Which of the following can be the source of RFI and cause disruptions in wireless network connectivity? (Select all
that apply)
2/5
Cordless phones ( Missed)
Baby monitors ( Missed)
Microwave ovens ( Missed)
Bluetooth devices ( Missed)
STP cabling
Setting up a wireless network to operate on a non-overlapping channel allows multiple networks to coexist in the
same area without causing interference.
True ( Missed)
False
The 2.401 - 2.473 GHz frequency range is used for allocating 11 channels, each taking up a 22-MHz portion of the
available spectrum. Which of the channel choices listed below allow for setting up three Wireless Access Points
(WAPs) that would operate on non-overlapping channels? (Select 3 answers)
1 ( Missed)
5
6 ( Missed)
9
11 ( Missed)
A metric that compares the amount of usable data and the background noise that is being sent over a transmission
channel is known as:
BRI
SNR ( Missed)
RFI
SVC
The term "Evil twin" refers to a rogue Wireless Access Point (WAP) set up for the purpose of eavesdropping or
stealing sensitive user data. Evil twin replaces the legitimate access point and by advertising its own presence with
the same Service Set Identifier (SSID, a.k.a. network name) appears as a legitimate access point to connecting
hosts.
True ( Missed)
False
The IEEE 802.11g standard is backwards compatible with:
802.11n
802.11a
802.11b ( Missed)
802.11ac
IEEE 802.11n offers backward compatibility with which of the following standards? (Select all that apply)
3/5
802.11g ( Missed)
802.11ac
802.11b ( Missed)
802.11a ( Missed)
A type of architecture in which most of the network configuration settings of an Access Point (AP) are set and
managed with the use of a central switch or controller is called:
Thin AP ( Missed)
Infrastructure mode
Thick AP
Ad hoc mode
The term "Thick AP" refers to a stand-alone Access Point (AP) device type offering network configuration settings
that can be managed through a User Interface (UI) after logging in to the device.
True ( Missed)
False
Which Access Point (AP) architecture is the most common in home or small office deployments?
IBSS
Thin AP
Ad hoc mode
Thick AP ( Missed)
The environmental factors that may impede the propagation of wireless signal include: (Select all that apply)
Window film ( Missed)

Device saturation
Concrete walls ( Missed)
Bandwidth saturation
Metal studs ( Missed)
In structured cabling, the interference between signals sent over adjacent wires is commonly referred to as:
Db loss
Split horizon
Attenuation
Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cabling reduces what kind of interference? (Select all that apply)
ESD
Channel overlapping
4/5
EMI ( Missed)
EMI shielding protects the transferred data signals from: (Select all that apply)
Outside interference ( Missed)

Phishing
Eavesdropping ( Missed)
Decryption
Bluesnarfing
Your Final Report
Total marks 38
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the cabling types listed below is susceptible to a split pair error? (Select all that apply)
STP ( Missed)
Twisted pair ( Missed)
Single mode fiber
Coaxial
UTP ( Missed)
Multimode fiber
Which of the following statements refer(s) to reversed TX/RX? (Select all that apply)
Far end cross-talk

Wrong TIA/EIA cable standard type used ( Missed)
Distance limitations
Wrong pin/pair assignments on cable ends ( Missed)
Near end cross-talk
A type of Ethernet interface that automatically detects the required cable connection type (straight-through vs.
crossover) and configures the connection appropriately is known as:
GBIC
Basic-Rate Interface (BRI)
UC gateway
Auto MDI-X ( Missed)
GBIC and SFP are transceiver types that perform conversion between electrical and optical signals.
True ( Missed)
False
A network admin is able to ping remote host by its IP address, but not by FQDN. Which of the following is the most
probable source of the problem?
ICMP
DNS ( Missed)
NetBIOS
DHCP
Auto negotiation is an Ethernet procedure that allows two connected devices to exchange information about their
capabilities (such as supported speed and duplex modes) and automatically configure connection parameters based
on the highest performance settings supported by both devices.
1/5
True ( Missed)
False
A limit on the maximum amount of data in a single packet that can be transmitted without fragmentation over a
network segment is known as:
UTM
MDI
TTL
MTU ( Missed)
The term "MTU black hole" refers to a situation in which a network router silently discards a packet that is larger
than the maximum packet size set for the network link.
True ( Missed)
False
The process of combining multiple physical network adapters into a single logical interface is known as:
Route aggregation
Virtualization
NIC teaming ( Missed)
Device pairing
In a sample active-active NIC teaming configuration consisting of two network adapters all traffic is handled by one
of the network adapters. When a failure occurs all the traffic moves to the standby adapter.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following network adapter teaming modes allows for increasing the available bandwidth?
Point-to-point
Active-active ( Missed)
Point-to-multipoint
Active-passive
Logic bomb
Adware
Computer worm
Spyware ( Missed)
Which type of files pose the greatest risk related to the distribution of malware?
.png
.exe ( Missed)
2/5
.txt
.pdf
called:
Adware
Computer worm
Spyware
In computer security, an automatic download performed without the user's consent (and often without any notice)
aimed at installing malware or potentially unwanted programs is known as a drive-by download.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers lists an example of spyware?
Keylogger ( Missed)
Trojan horse
Computer worm
Backdoor
Spyware
Trojan
Rootkit
Backdoor ( Missed)
Web browser extensions (a.k.a. plugins, or add-ons) are downloadable components that extend the browser's
functionality by enabling interactive features of web pages. Downloading and installing browser extensions can be
risky, because some of them may contain malicious code and in disguise of a legitimate program introduce malware
to the user's system.
True ( Missed)
False
Malicious code activated by a specific event is called:
Trojan
Dropper
Retrovirus
3/5
Spyware
Worm ( Missed)
Trojan
Spam
Grayware
Adware
Spyware
Which of the following terms refers to unwanted applications or files that are not classified as malware, but can
worsen the performance of computers and pose security risk?
Grayware ( Missed)
Shareware
Ransomware
Freeware
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the ping of death attack? (Select all that apply)
ICMP abuse ( Missed)

Bluesnarfing
DoS attack ( Missed)
Man-in-the-middle (MITM)
Zero-day attack
Which of the following terms is used to describe the initial information, such as type of software run and version
number, displayed by remote server after connecting to a service on that server?
Log
Trap
Signature
Banner ( Missed)
The practice of connecting to an open port on a remote server to gather more information about the service running
on that port is known as:
Bluejacking
Banner grabbing ( Missed)
Session hijacking
eDiscovery
Your Final Report

4/5
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the answers listed below refer to the split horizon mechanism? (Select 2 answers)
Used with link-state routing protocols

Used for combining multiple physical network adapters into a single logical interface
Used with distance-vector routing protocols ( Missed)
Used for reducing the possibility of routing loops ( Missed)
Used for designating a backup router in the event of an active router failure
A device providing remote line diagnostics capability placed at the joining point between an ISP's line and
customer's premises wiring is known as:
Demarc
Smart jack ( Missed)
UTM appliance
Line tester
Which of the following answers list examples of a Network Interface Unit (NIU)? (Select 2 answers)
F-connector
Remote Terminal Unit (RTU)
Smart jack ( Missed)
Network Interface Card (NIC) ( Missed)
Leased line
A physical point where an ISP's network ends and connects with the customer's on-premises wiring (which also
defines where the ISP's responsibility for maintenance ends and the consumer's responsibility begins) is commonly
referred to as demarc.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following devices would be used for connecting a router to a T-1 line?
OTDR
CSU/DSU ( Missed)
F-connector
MDI-X
Physical layer of the OSI model is also known as:
Layer 2
Layer 7
1/5
Layer 1 ( Missed)
Layer 4
Which of the following reside(s) at the physical layer of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)
Router
Hub ( Missed)
Switch
Network cabling ( Missed)
Bridge
What is the name of a data unit used at the OSI physical layer?
Frame
Segment
Bit ( Missed)
Packet
In the OSI model, physical addressing takes place at the:

Layer 7
Physical layer
Session layer
Layer 1
Transport layer
Network layer
Physical layer
In the OSI model, Media Access Control (MAC) and Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayers are the components of:
Session layer
Transport layer
Network layer
Which of the following devices resides at the data link layer of the OSI model?
Router
Passive Hub
Ethernet switch ( Missed)
2/5
Repeater

Which of the following terms refers to the OSI network layer?
Layer 2
Layer 5
Layer 3 ( Missed)
Layer 4
At which of the OSI layers IP addressing takes place?
Layer 3 ( Missed)
Layer 1
Layer 4
Layer 6
Data link layer

Network layer ( Missed)
Session layer
Transport layer
Which of following protocols reside(s) at the OSI network layer? (Select all that apply)
IPv4 ( Missed)
UDP
IPsec ( Missed)
TCP
IPv6 ( Missed)
ICMP ( Missed)
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) resides at:

Transport layer of the OSI model
Session layer of the OSI model
3/5
Presentation layer of the OSI model
In the OSI model, User Datagram Protocol (UDP) resides at: (Select 2 answers)
Layer 3
Layer 4 ( Missed)
Network layer
Layer 6
Network layer
Data link layer
Session Layer
The transport layer resides between which two other layers in the OSI model?
Physical and Data link

Network and Session ( Missed)
Presentation and Application
Physical and Network
In the OSI model, Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) resides at: (Select all that apply)
Layer 7
Layer 3
Application layer
Layer 4 ( Missed)
Network layer
Which OSI layer assumes the responsibility for managing network connections between applications?
Network layer
Data link layer
Application layer

Application layer
Transport layer
4/5
Presentation layer
In the OSI model, session layer is also known as:
Layer 4
Layer 6
Layer 5 ( Missed)
Layer 3
Your Final Report
Total marks 34
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the protocols listed below resides at the session layer of the OSI model?
HTTP
UDP
SMTP
NetBIOS ( Missed)
IP
In the OSI model, data compression takes place at the:
Session layer
Network layer
Physical layer
The term "Presentation layer" refers to:

Data encryption and decryption typically takes place at the:

Presentation layer of the OSI model ( Missed)
Data link layer of the OSI model
OSI layer 7 is also referred to as:
Application layer ( Missed)

Session layer
Presentation layer
Transport layer
The application layer of the OSI model is also known as:
Layer 1
Layer 3
Layer 6
1/6
Layer 7 ( Missed)
Which of the following protocols reside(s) at the application layer of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)
ARP
HTTP ( Missed)
FTP ( Missed)
SMTP ( Missed)
NetBIOS
The process of adding control information to data as it passes through the layers of the OSI model at the receiving
end of the network communication link is known as encapsulation.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a mechanism that allows for simultaneous transmission of multiple
signals over a single cable or other network medium?
Baseband
Multiplexing ( Missed)
Load balancing
Route aggregation
Which of the following devices provides the functionality of a single-input, multiple-output switch?
UTP coupler
Multiplexer
UC server
Demultiplexer ( Missed)
What is the hexadecimal notation of the decimal number 224?
0xA8
0xC0
0xE0 ( Missed)
0xF8
MAC and IPv6 addresses are represented with the use of:
Binary notation
Hexadecimal notation ( Missed)
Octal notation
Decimal notation
What are the characteristic features of the baseband signaling method? (Select 3 answers)
2/6
Digital signaling ( Missed)
Bidirectional transmission ( Missed)
Analog signaling
Unidirectional transmission
Simultaneous transmission of multiple signals and traffic types
IEEE 802.3 signaling method ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to broadband signaling? (Select all that apply)
Digital signaling
Bidirectional transmission
Analog signaling ( Missed)
Unidirectional transmission ( Missed)
Simultaneous transmission of multiple signals and traffic types ( Missed)
Which of the following layers are part of the 4-layer TCP/IP model? (Select 4 answers)
Application ( Missed)
Presentation
Session
Transport ( Missed)
Network
Internet ( Missed)
Link ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard
amendment? (Select all that apply)

Which of the following answers list(s) the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard amendment? (Select all
that apply)

3/6
What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard amendment? (Select all that apply)
The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard amendment include: (Select all that apply)

Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
Which of the following answers refers(s) to the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard amendment?
Data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to UTP cabling? (Select all that apply)
Twisted-pair copper cabling ( Missed)

Used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems ( Missed)
Low cost and ease of installation ( Missed)
Takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources
Coaxial cabling
Not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against interference from outside sources (
Missed)
Fiber-optic cabling
Installed with 8P8C connector type ( Missed)
4/6
Which of the following cabling types provide(s) protection against Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)? (Select all
that apply)
UTP cabling
STP cabling ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer to Thinnet? (Select 4 answers)
10Base2 ( Missed)
BNC connector ( Missed)
Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters
RJ-45 connector
10BaseT
RG-58 coaxial cabling ( Missed)
Maximum cable segment length of 185 meters ( Missed)
What are the characteristic features of the 10BaseT Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers)
BNC connector
Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 3 or higher) ( Missed)
8P8C connector ( Missed)
Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 5 or higher)
Coaxial cabling
Which of the following answers refer to the 100BaseTX Ethernet standard? (Seect 3 answers)

BNC connector
Coaxial cabling
Your Final Report
Total marks 59
5/6
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
6/6
Which of the ports listed below are used by client applications designed to retrieve email messages from mail
servers? (Select 2 answers)
110 ( Missed)
443
3389
25
143 ( Missed)
POP3: (Select 2 answers)
Is a protocol for sending email messages between servers

Uses TCP port 110 ( Missed)
Uses TCP port 123
Is a protocol used to retrieve email messages from a mail server ( Missed)
IMAP4: (Select 2 answers)
Uses TCP port 443

Is a protocol used to retrieve email messages from a mail server ( Missed)
Is a protocol for sending email messages between servers
Uses TCP port 143 ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list the protocol and port number used by a spam filter? (Select 2 answers)
23
SMTP ( Missed)
443
Telnet
25 ( Missed)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) operates with the use of TCP port:
110
25 ( Missed)
143
23
Which of the port numbers listed below is commonly used for Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) non-encrypted traffic?
5004
5005
1/5
5060 ( Missed)
5061
Port number 5061 is typically used for Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) traffic encrypted with Transport Layer
Security (TLS).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following port numbers are assigned to the Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)? (Select 2
answers)
5004
5060
2427 ( Missed)
5005
2727 ( Missed)
5061
MGCP
RTP ( Missed)
H.323
RTCP
RTP Control Protocol (RTCP) runs by default on port:
5004
5060
5005 ( Missed)
5061
TCP port 1720 is the default port number for:
MGCP
RTP
PPTP
H.323 ( Missed)
RTCP
establish a connection (three-way handshake), supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the
amount of data that is being sent), or sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order).
True
2/5
False ( Missed)
True
False ( Missed)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) runs by default on TCP ports: (Select 2 answers)
25
22
21 ( Missed)
20 ( Missed)
23
Which of the following protocols is used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices?
RTP
SNMP ( Missed)
IMAP
RTCP
161 ( Missed)
138
162
139
Which of the following answers lists a cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote
computers?
Telnet
SSH ( Missed)
Bcrypt
TFTP
Unblocking port number 22 enables what type of traffic? (Select all that apply)
SSH ( Missed)
SFTP ( Missed)
FTP
SCP ( Missed)
FTPS
3/5
A hacker has captured network traffic with cleartext commands sent from the client to the server console. Which of
the following ports is being used by the network admin for the client-server communication?
49
23 ( Missed)
68
22
A network administrator wants to replace a service running on port 23 with a more reliable solution. Which of the
following ports would be in use after implementing this change?
20
21
22 ( Missed)
25
DNS runs on port:
139
53 ( Missed)
443
22
UDP port 67 is used by: (Select 2 answers)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) ( Missed)

Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS)
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) ( Missed)
Kerberos
Which of the file transfer protocols listed below runs on port number 69 and does not provide authentication?
FTP
TFTP ( Missed)
SCP
SFTP
RDP
SMB ( Missed)
SIP
RTP
A network technician uses an RDP client on their Windows OS in order to remotely troubleshoot a problem on
4/5
another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to
allow this type of network connection?
1701
139
3389 ( Missed)
110
Your Final Report
Total marks 34
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the 100BaseFX Ethernet standard? (Select 2 answers)
BNC connector
Maximum cable segment length of 2 kilometers (full-duplex over multimode optical fiber) ( Missed)
Twisted-pair copper cabling
Maximum cable segment cable segment length of 185 meters
Maximum cable segment length of 5 kilometers (full-duplex over multimode optical fiber)
8P8C connector
What are the characteristic features of the 1000BaseT Ethernet standard? (Select all that apply)

Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 5e or higher) ( Missed)
Use of all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission ( Missed)
Use of two pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission
Data transmission rate of 1 Gbps (Gigabit Ethernet standrd) ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the 1000BaseTX standard? (Select all that apply)

Use of all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission
Maximum cable segment length of 2 kilometers
Use of two pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission ( Missed)
Data transmission rates of 1 Gbps (Gigabit Ethernet standard) ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the 10GBaseT Ethernet standard? (Select all that apply)
Twisted-pair copper cabling ( Missed)

Maximum cable segment length of 55 meters (Category 6 cable) ( Missed)
Fiber-optic cabling
1/5
Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Category 6a cable or higher) ( Missed)
What are the characteristic features of the 10GBaseSR Ethernet standard? (Select all that apply)
Coaxial cabling
Maximum cable segment length of up to 400 meters ( Missed)
Multimode fiber-optic cabling ( Missed)
Maximum cable segment length of up to 40 kilometers
8P8C connector
Which of the following answers refer(s) to the 10GBaseER Ethernet standard? (Select all that apply)
8P8C connector
Multimode fiber-optic cabling
Maximum cable segment length of up to 40 kilometers ( Missed)
Single-mode fiber-optic cabling ( Missed)
Maximum cable segment length of up to 400 meters
Coaxial cabling
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the 10GBaseSW Ethernet standard? (Select all that apply)
Multimode fiber-optic cabling ( Missed)

SONET connection ( Missed)
Maximum cable segment length of up to 300 meters ( Missed)
Maximum cable segment length of up to 10 kilometers
IEEE 1905.1-2013 is a hybrid networking standard providing common interface to multiple bounded and unbounded
media home networking technologies, such as IEEE 802.11, IEEE 802.3, IEEE 1901, and MoCA.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to the application of the IEEE 1901 standard?
Environmental monitoring tools

Broadband over Power Lines (BPL) method ( Missed)
Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs)
CSMA/CA network access method
GBIC
2/5
SONET
DOCSIS ( Missed)
SCADA
A set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to which the network may be put is known as:
SLA
AUP ( Missed)
MOU
SOW
An agreement between a service provider and the user(s) defining the nature, availability, quality, and scope of the
service to be provided is called:
SOW
MSA
SLA ( Missed)
MOU
Which of the following terms refers to an agreement that specifies performance requirements for a vendor?
MSA
SLA ( Missed)
MOU
SOW
A document established between two or more parties to define their respective responsibilities and expectations in
accomplishing a particular goal or mission is known as:
SLA
MOU ( Missed)
SOW
MSA
A type of agreement that specifies generic terms in order to simplify the negotiation of future contracts between the
signing parties is called:
MOU
SLA
MSA ( Missed)
SOW
Which of the following acronyms refers to a document that defines the specific requirements of a project or service
contract?
AUP
3/5
MOU
SOW ( Missed)
MSA
apply)
CRTs ( Missed)
Inverters ( Missed)
CPUs
An electrostatic discharge that can damage integrated circuits used in computer and communications equipment is
known as:
EMI
Chip creep
RFI
ESD ( Missed)
Antistatic bags, antistatic wrist straps, and ground mats are all countermeasures used to protect computer and
communications equipment components against:
RFI
ESD ( Missed)
SVC
EMI
called:
AUP
MAU
MSDS ( Missed)
WMS
A type of wiring closet that interconnects WAN links coming into the building with the internal network is known as
Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF).
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to a cable rack that interconnects wiring between an MDF and workstation
devices?
ICS
4/5
MDI
IDF ( Missed)
MTU
HTTPS
IMAP
HTTP ( Missed)
Telnet
Which of the following TCP ports is used by HTTPS?
80
443 ( Missed)
53
143
Which of the port numbers listed below are used by NetBIOS? (Select all that apply)
137 ( Missed)
161
138 ( Missed)
162
139 ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 46
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
CompTIA Security+ Certification Practice Test 1 (Exam SY0-401)
examcompass.com/comptia-security-plus-practice-test-1-exam-sy0-401
Antivirus
Firewall ( Missed)
Antispyware
Malware
A device designed to forward data packets between networks is called:
Layer 2 switch
Active hub
Content filter
Router ( Missed)
Allowing a connection through a firewall is known as creating:
Tunnel
Exception ( Missed)
Access Point (AP)
Entry
is called:

HIDS
Firewall
Captive portal
The last default rule on a firewall is to deny all traffic.
True ( Missed)
False
A computer network service that allows clients to make indirect network connections to other network services is
called:
Load balancing
Proxy ( Missed)
Backdoor
1/5
Which of the terms listed below refers to a security solution implemented on an individual computer host monitoring
that specific system for malicious activities or policy violations?
NIPS
Content filter
Firewall
HIDS ( Missed)
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following ensures the privacy of a VPN connection?
Hashing
Tunneling ( Missed)
Authentication
Cleartext credentials
Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated device for managing secure connections established over an
untrusted network, such as the Internet?
Load balancer
VPN concentrator ( Missed)
Layer 3 switch
Hardware firewall
Which of the following acronyms refers to a network or host based monitoring system designed to automatically alert
administrators of known or suspected unauthorized activity?
IDS ( Missed)
AES
TPM
EFS
A software tool used for monitoring and examining contents of the network traffic is known as: (Select all that apply)
Port scanner
Packet sniffer ( Missed)
Protocol analyzer ( Missed)
Which of the following answers list the protocol and port number used by a spam filter? (Select 2 answers)
HTTPS
23
2/5
SMTP ( Missed)
443
TELNET
25 ( Missed)
MTU
STP
UTM ( Missed)
XML
URL filtering restricts access to Internet sites based on which of the following criteria?
Virus signature
Web address ( Missed)
Baseline
Data content
Which of the following network security solutions inspects network traffic in real-time and has the capability to stop
the ongoing attack?
NIPS ( Missed)
HIDS
NIDS
NIST
Which of the following acronyms refers to a firewall controlling access to a web server?
WEP
WAP
WPS
WAF ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted
CRL
NAT
BCP
ACL ( Missed)
Which of the following actions can be taken by passive IDS? (Select 2 answers)
3/5
Logging ( Missed)
Terminating process
802.1x is an IEEE standard defining:
Token ring networks

Port-based network access control ( Missed)
VLAN tagging
Wireless networking
An access control model in which access to resources is granted or denied depending on Access Control List (ACL)
entries is also known as:
Mandatory Access Control

Lattice-Based Access Control
Role-Based Access Control
Rule-Based Access Control ( Missed)
A type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) that relies on the previously established baseline of normal network
activity in order to detect intrusions is known as a signature-based IDS.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following security solutions provides a countermeasure against denial-of-service attack characterized
by increasing number of half-open connections?
Flood guard ( Missed)

Captive portal
Protocol analyzer
Firewall
Which of the protocols listed below protects against switching loops?
UTP
OCSP
STP ( Missed)
HMAC
A type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) that relies on known attack patterns to detect an intrusion is known as a
signature-based IDS.
True ( Missed)
False
4/5
Your Final Report
Total marks 28
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following policies applies to any requests that fall outside the criteria defined in an ACL?
Non-repudiation
Implicit deny policy ( Missed)
Post-admission NAC
known as:
Extranet
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) ( Missed)
Intranet
Which part of the 192.168.1.5/24 address identifies its network ID?
192
192.168
192.168.1 ( Missed)
192.168.1.5
Which of the following acronyms refers to a solution allowing companies to cut costs related to the managing of
internal calls?
PBX ( Missed)
POTS
P2P
PSTN
A solution that allows to make phone calls over a broadband Internet connection instead of typical analog telephone
lines is known as:
IMAP
VoIP ( Missed)
POTS
ITCP
Which of the following answers lists a /27 subnet mask?
255.255.255.0
1/5
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224 ( Missed)
What type of system can be compromised through phreaking?
ATX
Web server
PBX ( Missed)
BIOS
Which of the following terms refers to a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to act as if they
were attached to the same broadcast domain, regardless of their physical location?
Honeynet
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)
Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) ( Missed)
SNMP community
software?
NAC ( Missed)
DMZ
ACL
NAT
Which of the following terms refers to a technology that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on
the same hardware?
Hyperthreading
Combo drive
Multi core
A security stance whereby a host is being granted / denied permissions based on its actions after it has been
provided with the access to the network is known as:
Network separation
Pre-admission NAC
Quarantine
Post-admission NAC ( Missed)
2/5
NAC
ACL
NAT ( Missed)
DMZ
VLAN membership can be set through: (Select all that apply)
IP address
Trunk port ( Missed)
Physical address ( Missed)
Group permissions
MAC address ( Missed)
In which of the cloud computing infrastructure types clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software,
purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary
equipment?
IaaS ( Missed)
SaaS
P2P
PaaS
web app?
SaaS
API
PaaS ( Missed)
IaaS
A cloud computing infrastructure type where applications are hosted over a network (typically Internet) eliminating
the need to install and run the software on the customer's own computers is called:
Thick client
SaaS ( Missed)
Virtualization
IaaS
The biggest advantage of public cloud is that all services provided through this type of cloud computing service
model are offered free of charge.
True
False ( Missed)
A concept of effective security posture employing multiple tools and different techniques to slow down an attacker is
known as: (Select 2 answers)
3/5
Layered security ( Missed)
Authorization
Defense in depth ( Missed)
Which of the IPsec modes provides entire packet encryption?
Tunnel ( Missed)
Payload
Transport
Default
Which of the protocols listed below is used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached
devices?
RTP
SNMP ( Missed)
IMAP
RTCP
Which of the following protocols transmit(s) data in an unencrypted form? (Select all that apply)
SCP
IPsec
SNMPv1 ( Missed)
FTP ( Missed)
Telnet ( Missed)
SFTP
A group that consists of SNMP devices and one or more SNMP managers is known as:
SNMP trap
Network Management System (NMS)
SNMP community ( Missed)
Management Information Base (MIB)
Intranet
ICMP
FTP
IPv6
SSH ( Missed)
4/5
A system used to convert a computer's host name into an IP address on the Internet is known as:
DNS ( Missed)
NetBIOS
TLS
DHCP
NAT
DNS database AAAA record identifies:
Mail server
IPv4 address
Canonical name
IPv6 address ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 30
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
SCP
Telnet
SSL ( Missed)
TTL
SNMP
TLS ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a suite of protocols used for connecting hosts on the Internet?
NetBIOS
IPv4
TCP/IP ( Missed)
IPv6
LAN
FTPS is an extension to the FTP that adds support for the Transport Layer Security (TLS) and the Secure Sockets
Layer (SSL) cryptographic protocols.
True ( Missed)
False
The SCP protocol is used for:
Directory access
Secure file transfer ( Missed)
Network addressing
Sending emails
Which of the protocols listed below is used by the PING utility?
IPsec
SNMP
FCoE
ICMP ( Missed)
Which of the following answers lists the IPv6 loopback address?
::/128
FF00::/8
::1 ( Missed)
1/5
127.0.0.1
A networking standard for linking data storage devices over an IP network is known as:
FCoE
iSCSI ( Missed)
TPM
SCSI
LDAP
Which of the protocols listed below facilitate(s) communication between SAN devices? (Select all that apply)
SCSI
MTBF
iSCSI ( Missed)
MTTF
FCoE ( Missed)

Serving web pages
A network protocol for secure file transfer over Secure Shell (SSH) is called:
TFTP
SFTP ( Missed)
Telnet
FTPS
Which of the protocols listed below does not provide authentication?
FTP
TFTP ( Missed)
SCP
SFTP
FTP
IPv6
SSH ( Missed)
ICMP
2/5
FTP runs by default on ports: (Select 2 answers)
25
23
20 ( Missed)
22
21 ( Missed)
Which of the protocols listed below run(s) on port number 22? (Select all that apply)
FTPS
SSH ( Missed)
TFTP
SCP ( Missed)
SFTP ( Missed)
FTP
SMTP
SSH
Telnet ( Missed)
TFTP
Which of the following TCP ports is used by SMTP?
25 ( Missed)
53
80
23
DNS runs on port:
139
53 ( Missed)
443
52
An HTTP traffic can be enabled by opening port:
443
88
143
80 ( Missed)
3/5
Which of the following ports enable(s) retrieving email messages from a remote server? (Select all that apply)
139
53
110 ( Missed)
443
143 ( Missed)
Which of the port numbers listed below are used by NetBIOS? (Select all that apply)
136
137 ( Missed)
161
138 ( Missed)
162
139 ( Missed)
IMAP runs on TCP port:
143 ( Missed)
25
443
110
Which of the following TCP ports is used by HTTPS?
80
443 ( Missed)
53
143
88
Which of the answers listed below refers to the default port number for a Microsoft-proprietary remote connection
protocol?
389
443
3389 ( Missed)
139
Which of the following protocols operate(s) at layer 3 (the network layer) of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)
IPsec ( Missed)
IPv6 ( Missed)
HTTP
4/5
IPv4 ( Missed)
IMAP
ICMP ( Missed)
In the OSI model, TCP resides at the:
Physical layer
Network layer
Application layer
Session layer
Your Final Report
Total marks 36
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
WEP
WPA2 ( Missed)
WAP
WPA
vulnerabilities?
PEAP
CCMP
WPA2
WEP ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to an authentication framework frequently used in wireless networks and
point-to-point connections?
DLP
OCSP
EAP ( Missed)
LDAP
access to the network is known as:
Hardware lock
Post-admission NAC
Rule-Based Access Control (RBAC)
A wireless network name is also referred to as:
BSS
SSID ( Missed)
ESS
IBSS
Which of the following protocols was introduced to strengthen existing WEP implementations without requiring the
replacement of legacy hardware?
PEAP
1/5
TKIP ( Missed)
CCMP
WPA2
Is one of the measures used for securing networks

Blocks access to WAP
Which of the protocols listed below encapsulates EAP within an encrypted and authenticated TLS tunnel?
LDAP
PAP
Telnet
PEAP ( Missed)
AES-based encryption mode implemented in WPA2 is known as:
CCMP ( Missed)
TPM
TKIP
MTBF
An optimal WAP antenna placement provides a countermeasure against: (Select 2 answers)
War chalking
Tailgating
Shoulder surfing
Site survey ( Missed)
Which of the following WAP configuration settings allows for adjusting the boundary range of the wireless signal?
Fair access policy

Bandwidth cap
Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution allowing administrators to block Internet access for users until
they perform required action?
Mantrap
Honeypot
2/5
Captive portal ( Missed)
Firewall
Which of the following antenna types would provide the best coverage for workstations connecting to a WAP placed
in a central point of a typical office? (Select all that apply)
Omnidirectional ( Missed)
Unidirectional
Bidirectional
Non-directional ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to wireless site survey?
Bluejacking
Spear phishing
Shoulder surfing
Which of the following examples falls into the category of technical security controls?
Change management
Intrusion Detection System (IDS) ( Missed)
Incident response procedure
An antivirus software identifying non-malicious file as a virus due to faulty virus signature file is an example of:
Fault tolerance
False positive error ( Missed)
Incident isolation
False negative error
Which of the examples listed below falls into the category of operational security controls?
Change management ( Missed)

Encryption
Antivirus software
Mantrap
Which of the following terms refers to a situation where no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place?
False negative ( Missed)

True positive
False positive
True negative
3/5
A policy outlining ways of collecting and managing personal data is known as:

Audit policy
Privacy policy ( Missed)
Which of the following acronyms refers to a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to which the
network may be put?
OEM
AUP ( Missed)
UAT
ARO
One of the goals behind the mandatory vacations policy is to mitigate the occurrence of fraudulent activity within the
company.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the answers listed below refers to a concept of having more than one person required to complete a given
task?
Acceptable use policy

Privacy policy
Separation of duties ( Missed)
responsibilities is known as:
Order of volatility
Privacy policy
Which of the following acronyms refers to a risk assessment formula defining probable financial loss due to a risk
over a one-year period?
ARO
ALE ( Missed)
SLE
UAT
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF). The Exposure Factor (EF) used in the
formula above refers to the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost when a specific threat is
4/5
realized. Which of the following answers lists the EF value for an asset that is entirely lost?
0
100
1.0 ( Missed)
0.1
Your Final Report
Total marks 27
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following terms is used to describe the loss of value to an asset based on a single security incident?
SLE ( Missed)
ARO
ALE
ARP
An estimate based on the historical data of how often a threat would be successful in exploiting a vulnerability is
known as:
ALE
ARO ( Missed)
SLE
AUP
Which of the answers listed below refers to the correct formula for calculating probable financial loss due to a risk
over a one-year period?
SLE = AV x EF
ALE = ARO x SLE ( Missed)
SLE = ALE x AV
ALE = AV x EF
Which of the following terms is used to describe the average time required to repair a failed component or device?
MTBF
MTU
MTTR ( Missed)
MPLS
High MTBF value indicates that a component or system provides low reliability and is more likely to fail.
True
False ( Missed)
A calculation of the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is an example of:
Quantitative risk assessment ( Missed)

Risk deterrence
Qualitative risk assessment
Incident management
Assessment of risk probability and its impact based on subjective judgment falls into the category of:
1/5
Environmental controls
Quantitative risk assessment
Forensic procedures
Qualitative risk assessment ( Missed)
A path or tool allowing an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a system or network is known as:
Backdoor
Threat vector ( Missed)
Discretionary access
Rootkit
In quantitative risk assessment, this term is used for estimating the likelihood of occurrence of a future threat.
ALE
AV
ARO ( Missed)
SLE
Contracting out a specialized technical component when the company's employees lack the necessary skills is an
example of:
Risk deterrence
Risk avoidance
Risk acceptance
Risk transference ( Missed)
Disabling certain system functions or shutting down the system when risks are identified is an example of:
Risk acceptance
Risk avoidance ( Missed)
Risk transference
Risk deterrence
Which of the answers listed below exemplifies an implementation of risk transference methodology?
Insurance policy ( Missed)

Security guard
Antivirus software
User education
Which of the following terms relates closely to the concept of residual risk?
Firewall rules
Virtualization
Risk acceptance ( Missed)
2/5
Quantitative risk assessment
What type of risk management strategy is in place when accessing the network involves a login banner warning
designed to inform potential attacker of the likelihood of getting caught?
Risk avoidance
Risk acceptance
Risk deterrence ( Missed)
Risk transference
Which of the following security control types can be used in implementing a risk mitigation strategy? (Select all that
apply)
Technical ( Missed)
Management ( Missed)
Operational ( Missed)
Zero-day
Which of the terms listed below refers to one of the hardware-related disadvantages of the virtualization technology?
Single point of failure ( Missed)

Server clustering
Power and cooling costs
Which of the following acronyms refers to a maximum tolerable period of time required for restoring business
functions after a failure or disaster?
RAS
RTO ( Missed)
ROI
RPO
Recovery time objective (RTO) specifies a point in time to which systems and data must be recovered after a
disaster has occurred.
True
False ( Missed)
An agreement between a service provider and the user(s) defining the nature, availability, quality, and scope of the
service to be provided is known as:
SLE
BPA
SLA ( Missed)
DLP
Which of the following answers refers to a key document governing the relationship between two business
3/5
organisations?
ISA
ALE
SLA
BPA ( Missed)
A document established between two or more parties to define their respective responsibilities in accomplishing a
particular goal or mission is known as:
BPA
MOU ( Missed)
SLE
ISA
Which of the answers listed below refers to an agreement established between the organizations that own and
operate connected IT systems to document the technical requirements of the interconnection?
ISA ( Missed)
ALE
MOU
BPA
Motion detection
Loop protection
In forensic procedures, a sequence of steps in which different types of evidence should be collected is known as:
Order of volatility ( Missed)

Layered security
Chain of custody
Transitive access
Proxy list
Order of volatility
Access log
Your Final Report
4/5
Total marks 27
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers lists an example order of volatility for a typical computer system?
Memory dump, disk files, temporary files, archival media

Archival media, disk files, temporary files, memory dump
Memory dump, temporary files, disk files, archival media ( Missed)
Temporary files, memory dump, archival media, disk files
An exact copy of the entire state of a computer system is called:
System image ( Missed)

Restore point
Hard copy
Digital signature
In forensic analysis, taking hashes ensures that the collected evidence retains:
Confidentiality
Integrity ( Missed)
Order of volatility
Availability
Log analysis should not take into account the difference between the reading of a system clock and standard time as
this impedes the reconstruction of the sequence of events during an attack or security breach.
True
False ( Missed)
PIN
ID
PII ( Missed)
PKI
A sticky note with a password kept on sight in user's cubicle would be a violation of which of the following policies?
Data labeling policy

Clean desk policy ( Missed)
User account policy
Which of the following security controls is used to prevent tailgating?

1/5
Hardware locks
Mantraps ( Missed)
Video surveillance
EMI shielding
Zero-day attack exploits:
New accounts
Patched software
A system combining heating, ventilating, and air conditioning controls is known as:
HVAC ( Missed)
RADIUS
HMAC
VTC
EMI shielding protects the transferred data from: (Select all that apply)
Outside interference ( Missed)

Phishing
Eavesdropping ( Missed)
Decryption
Bluesnarfing
Setting up hot and cold aisles in a server room allows for more efficient management of air flow.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of physical security control types? (Select all that apply)
Fire suppression
Motion detection ( Missed)
Video surveillance ( Missed)
Which of the following examples falls into the category of deterrent security control types?
Lighting ( Missed)
Access lists
Motion detection
2/5
Alarms
apply)
Virtualization
RAID ( Missed)
Hot site ( Missed)
UPS ( Missed)
PSU
What is the goal of tabletop exercises? (Select all that apply)
Disaster recovery planning ( Missed)

Active test of security controls
Discussing a simulated emergency situation ( Missed)
Passive test of security controls
Offers redundancy
Requires at least three drives to implement
Doesn't offer fault tolerance ( Missed)
Requires at least two drives to implement ( Missed)
Offers fault tolerance
RAID 5
Disk duplexing
RAID 0 ( Missed)
Disk mirroring
RAID 1
Which of the following answers lists an example method for passive test of security controls?
Tabletop exercises
Pentest
Vulnerability scan ( Missed)
War chalking

3/5

data can be re-created from the remaining drives) ( Missed)
Is also referred to as disk duplexing
What is the function of archive bit?

Search indexing
Creating an additional copy of a file
and replicating the drive to a new computer or to another drive on the same computer in case of hard drive failure?
(Select best answer)
Disk striping
Full backup
Differential backup
In a differential backup strategy, restoring data from backup requires only a working copy of the last full backup.
True
False ( Missed)
Restoring data from an incremental backup requires: (Select 2 answers)
Copy of the last incremental backup

All copies of differential backups made since the last full backup
Copy of the last differential backup
All copies of incremental backups made since the last full backup ( Missed)
Copy of the last full backup ( Missed)
A United States federal government initiative aimed at enabling agencies to continue their essential functions across
a broad spectrum of emergencies is known as:
OVAL
4/5
TACACS
COOP ( Missed)
OCSP
Your Final Report
Total marks 37
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following backup site types allows for fastest disaster recovery?
Cold site
Hot site ( Missed)
Warm site
Cross-site
A cold site is the most expensive type of backup site for an organization to operate.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following security controls provide(s) confidentiality? (Select all that apply)
Certificates
Digital signatures
Steganography ( Missed)
Hashing
Steganography allows for:
Checking data integrity

Calculating hash values
Hiding data within another piece of data ( Missed)
Data encryption
Which of the following security controls provide(s) integrity? (Select all that apply)
Hashing ( Missed)
Steganography
Fault tolerance
Non-repudiation ( Missed)
Encryption
What is the purpose of non-repudiation?
Hiding one piece of data in another piece of data

Ensuring that received data hasn't changed in transit
Preventing someone from denying that they have taken specific action ( Missed)
1/5
Transforming plaintext into ciphertext
Which of the following answers refers to a general term used to describe software designed specifically to damage
or disrupt the operation of a computer system?
Adware
Spyware
Spam
Malware ( Missed)
What is adware?
Unsolicited or undesired electronic messages

Malicious program that sends copies of itself to other computers on the network
Software that displays advertisements ( Missed)
Malicious software that collects information about users without their knowledge
Adware
Virus ( Missed)
Spam
Flash cookie
Malicious software collecting information about users without their knowledge / consent is called:
Logic bomb
Adware
Computer worm
Spyware ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to malicious software performing unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of
a legitimate and useful program?

Spyware
Logic bomb
Adware
Software that cannot be clearly classified as malware is referred to as:
Ransomware
Adware
Grayware ( Missed)
Shareware
2/5

Protection against spyware and other potentially unwanted software ( Missed)
Reviewing computer's status and resolving issues
Backdoor
Botnet
Honeypot
Rootkit ( Missed)
Armored virus
Which of the following answers refers to an undocumented way of gaining access to a program, online service or an
entire computer system?
Tailgating
Rootkit
Trojan horse
Backdoor ( Missed)
Malicious code activated by a specific event is known as:

Spyware
Trojan horse
Armored virus
A group of computers running malicious software under control of a hacker is referred to as:
Intranet
Botnet ( Missed)
Ethernet
Honeynet
Grayware
Adware
Spyware
3/5
The process by which malicious software changes its underlying code to avoid detection is called:
Fuzzing
Polymorphism ( Missed)
Pharming
Spoofing
A type of virus that takes advantage of various mechanisms specifically designed to make tracing, disassembling
and reverse engineering its code more difficult is known as:
Armored virus ( Missed)

Rootkit
Logic bomb
Backdoor
Phishing
DDoS
Xmas attack
MITM ( Missed)
Which of the following attacks uses multiple compromised computer systems against its target? (Select best
answer)
Spear phishing
DoS
DDoS ( Missed)
A replay attack occurs when an attacker intercepts user credentials and tries to use this information later for gaining
unauthorized access to resources on a network.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following authentication protocols offer(s) countermeasures against replay attacks? (Select all that
apply)
PAP
IPsec ( Missed)
OCSP
Kerberos ( Missed)
CHAP ( Missed)
An email sent from unknown source disguised as a source known to the message receiver is an example of:
4/5
Spoofing ( Missed)
Shoulder surfing
Backdoor
Birthday attack
Your Final Report
Total marks 30
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers apply to smurf attack? (Select 3 answers)
IP spoofing ( Missed)
DDoS ( Missed)
Polymorphic malware
MITM attack
Large amount of ICMP echo replies ( Missed)
Phishing ( Missed)
Bluejacking
Vishing
Unsolicited messages received over an instant messaging system are known as spim.
True ( Missed)
False
The practice of using a telephone system to manipulate user into disclosing confidential information is called:
Whaling
Spear phishing
Vishing ( Missed)
Pharming
Phishing scams targeting selected individuals/groups of users are referred to as:
Vishing
Whaling
Phishing
Which of the answers listed below apply to xmas attack? (Select 2 answers)
Port scan ( Missed)

Denial-of-service attack ( Missed)
IP spoofing
1/5
Transitive access
Social engineering
Which of the following answers list(s) the characteristic features of pharming? (Select all that apply)
Port scanning
Dictionary attack
DNS poisoning ( Missed)
Rainbow table
Domain spoofing ( Missed)
The DNS service is used for translating:
Link layer addresses into IP addresses

IP addresses into MAC addresses
Domain names into IP addresses ( Missed)
Network layer addresses into link layer addresses
Which of the following answers refers to a DNS poisoning attack?
Vishing
Pharming ( Missed)
Spear phishing
Whaling
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) translates: (Select all that apply)
Link layer addresses into IP addresses

Domain names into IP addresses
IP addresses into MAC addresses ( Missed)
Network layer addresses into link layer addresses ( Missed)
Which of the following exploits takes advantage of the spoofed MAC address?
DNS poisoning
Bluesnarfing
MAC filtering
Bluejacking
ARP poisoning ( Missed)
Which of the following password attacks requires the most computing power?
Replay attack
Birthday attack
Brute force attack ( Missed)
2/5
Xmas attack
Dictionary attack
Which of the following password attacks takes advantage of a predefined list of words?
Birthday attack
Replay attack
Brute force attack
Rainbow tables are lookup tables used to speed up the process of password guessing.
True ( Missed)
False
Which of the following answers refers to the contents of a rainbow table entry?
Hash / Password ( Missed)

IP address / Domain name
Username / Password
Hash / Account name
The term "typo squatting" refers to the practice of registering misspelled domain name closely resembling other well
established and popular domain name in hopes of getting Internet traffic from users who would make errors while
typing in the web address in their browsers.
True ( Missed)
False
URL hijacking is also referred to as:
Banner grabbing
Session hijacking
Typo squatting ( Missed)
DNS poisoning
Cable locks
Video surveillance
Security guards
Screensavers
A policy enforcing the use of paper shredder for all discarded documents is one of the countermeasures against
dumpster diving.
True ( Missed)
3/5
False
What is tailgating?

Scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car
Phishing scams targeting people holding high positions in an organization or business are known as:
Vishing
Bluesnarfing
Whaling ( Missed)
Bluejacking
Pharming
Whaling ( Missed)
MITM attack
Bluejacking
Dumpster diving ( Missed)
Bluesnarfing
Vishing ( Missed)
Which of the terms listed below refers to a rogue access point?
Trojan horse
Backdoor
Computer worm
Evil twin ( Missed)
The term "war driving" refers to:
Penetration testing
Marking unsecured wireless networks
The practice of sending unsolicited messages over Bluetooth is known as:
Phishing
4/5
Bluejacking ( Missed)
Vishing
Bluesnarfing
Your Final Report
Total marks 35
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
The practice of gaining unauthorized access to a Bluetooth device is referred to as:
Pharming
Bluesnarfing ( Missed)
Vishing
Bluejacking
What is war chalking?

Finding unsecured wireless networks
Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person
Marking unsecured wireless networks ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to an attack aimed at exploiting the vulnerability of WEP?
MITM attack
Smurf attack
IV attack ( Missed)
Xmas attack
Which of the following solutions simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users
with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network?
WPA
WPS ( Missed)
WEP
WAP
Which of the answers listed below refers to a Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) exploit?
Smurf attack
PIN recovery ( Missed)
Birthday attack
URL hijacking
Which of the following wireless security features are not recommended and should not be used due to their known
WPS ( Missed)
WAP
1/5
WPA2
WAF
WEP ( Missed)
What type of action allows an attacker to exploit the XSS vulnerability?
Code injection ( Missed)

Banner grabbing
PIN recovery
Input validation
Which of the answers listed below refers to a common target of cross-site scripting?
Physical security
Alternate sites
Dynamic web pages ( Missed)
Removable storage
Which of the following answers refers to a countermeasure against code injection?
Fuzzing
Input validation ( Missed)
XSRF
Directory traversal
An HTTP exploit which allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside of the web
server's root directory is known as:
Dictionary attack
URL hijacking
Directory traversal attack ( Missed)
A temporary area of memory allocated with a fixed size for holding data while it's waiting to be transferred to another
location is known as:
Cache
Header
Local Shared Object (LSO)
Buffer ( Missed)
A type of attack aimed at exploiting vulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the
software developer is called:
Xmas attack
Zero-day attack ( Missed)
2/5
IV attack
Replay attack
Which of the following acronyms refers to flash cookies?
RPO
BCP
LSO ( Missed)
CRP
A type of exploit that relies on overwriting the contents of memory in order to cause unpredictable results in an
application is called:
IV attack
SQL injection
Buffer overflow ( Missed)
Fuzz test
What kind of general term is used to describe the process of securing a computer system?
Patching
Baseline configuration
Hardening ( Missed)
Fuzzing
Which of the following security control types fall(s) into the category of detection controls? (Select all that apply)
Warning signs
CCTV monitoring ( Missed)
Hardware locks
Motion sensors ( Missed)
IDS ( Missed)
Risk assessment
Identification of critical systems and components
Password protection ( Missed)
Disabling unnecessary accounts ( Missed)
Which of the security control types listed below fall(s) into the category of preventative controls? (Select all that
apply)
IDSs
Fencing ( Missed)
3/5
Hardware locks ( Missed)
Motion sensors
Warning signs
Mantraps ( Missed)
A monitored host containing no valuable data specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts is known
as:
Flood guard
Trojan horse
Captive portal
Honeypot ( Missed)
Penetration testing: (Select all that apply)
Bypasses security controls ( Missed)

Only identifies lack of security controls
Actively tests security controls ( Missed)
Exploits vulnerabilities ( Missed)
Passively tests security controls
Penetration test with the full prior knowledge on how the system that is to be tested works is called:
White hat
Fuzz test
White box ( Missed)
Black box
The practice of finding vulnerability in an application by feeding it incorrect input is known as:
Input validation
Exception handling
Application hardening
Fuzzing ( Missed)
Which of the following programming aspects are critical in secure application development process? (Select 2
answers)
Patch management
Input validation ( Missed)
Password protection
Error and exception handling ( Missed)
Application whitelisting
A computer system used to divert the attacker's attention from corporate network is known as:
4/5
Logic bomb
Trojan horse
UTM appliance
Honeypot ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a user interface element on mobile devices controlling access to a device
after the device is switched on?
Captive portal
Screen lock ( Missed)
Recovery agent
Hardware lock
Your Final Report
Total marks 35
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Which of the following answers refers to a privacy-related security risk connected with public sharing of pictures
taken with smartphones?
Data ownership
Steganography
Weak passwords
Embedded geotag ( Missed)
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring personally owned mobile
devices and to use those devices to access privileged company information and applications?
BSOD
BYOD ( Missed)
JBOD
BYOB
The term "Trusted OS" refers to an operating system:
Admitted to a network through NAC

Implementing patch management
That has been authenticated on the network
With enhanced security features ( Missed)
A file-based representation of the state of a virtual machine at a given time is called:
Restore point
Shadow copy
Snapshot ( Missed)
System image
In computer security, a mechanism for safe execution of untested code or untrusted applications is referred to as:
Guest OS
Sandbox ( Missed)
Buffer
Honeypot
Which of the following terms refers to a microchip embedded on the motherboard of a personal computer or laptop
that can store keys, passwords and digital certificates?
UTM
EFS
1/5
MBR
TPM ( Missed)
A piece of hardware and associated software / firmware that usually attaches to the inside of a PC or server and
provides at least the minimum of cryptographic functions is called:
HSM ( Missed)
EFS
STP
WAF
Which of the following acronyms refers to software or hardware based security solutions designed to detect and
prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside of the corporate network?
DEP
RADIUS
DLP ( Missed)
PGP
Which of the answers listed below refers to a control system providing the capability for real-time monitoring and
gathering information related to industrial equipment?
OVAL
SCADA ( Missed)
TACACS
SCAP
One of the advantages of the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is that it provides encryption for
the entire authentication process.
True
False ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a Cisco-proprietary alternative to RADIUS?
LDAP
Kerberos
SAML
TACACS+ ( Missed)
Assigning a unique key, called a ticket, to each user that logs on to the network is a characteristic feature of:
SAML
Secure LDAP
RADIUS
Kerberos ( Missed)
2/5
Which of the following port numbers is used by Kerberos?
23
80
22
88 ( Missed)
What type of encryption protocols are used by Secure LDAP (LDAPS)? (Select all that apply)
TLS ( Missed)
UDP
SSL ( Missed)
IP
TCP
Which of the following authentication protocols offer(s) countermeasures against replay attacks? (Select all that
apply)
IPsec ( Missed)
MPLS
PAP
Kerberos ( Missed)
CHAP ( Missed)
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) runs on port:
49
389 ( Missed)
3389
636
SSO ( Missed)
WAP
TPM
OVAL
The non-standard, enhanced version of the LDAP protocol providing the capability for encrypted transmission runs
on port:
49
3389
636 ( Missed)
3/5
389
Which of the following solutions provides a single sign-on capability for Web services?
MOU
OVAL
SCADA
SAML ( Missed)
TACACS+ runs on TCP port:
389
49 ( Missed)
636
88
Which part of the AAA framework deals with verification of the identity of a person or process?
Authorization
Non-repudiation
Accounting
Which of the following examples meets the requirement of multi-factor authentication?

Username and PIN
("somewhere you are"), or user-specific activity patterns such as for example keyboard typing style ("something you
do").
True ( Missed)
False
A United States Department of Defense (DoD) smart card providing the capability for multi-factor authentication of its
personnel is known as:
SCADA
CAC ( Missed)
One-time pad
HOTP
Multi-factor authentication systems require implementation of authentication factors from two or more different
4/5
categories.
True ( Missed)
False
Your Final Report
Total marks 28
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Password combined with PIN used as an authentication requirement is an example of:
Two-factor authentication
Something that the user knows ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to a security measure providing protection against various password-based
attacks, specifically password sniffing and replay attacks?
OTP ( Missed)
LSO
OCSP
CRL
An algorithm used for computing one-time password from a shared secret key and the current time is known as:
HOTP
PAP
TOTP ( Missed)
CHAP
Which of the following protocols transmits passwords over the network in an unecrypted form and is therefore
considered unsecure?
RADIUS
PAP ( Missed)
TACACS+
CHAP
Which part of the AAA framework deals with granting or denying access to resources?
Authentication
Identification
Accounting
An access control model in which every resource has a sensitivity label matching a clearance level assigned to a
user is known as:
RBAC
DAC
1/5
HMAC
MAC ( Missed)
An access control model in which access to resources is granted or denied depending on Access Control List (ACL)
entries is called:
Role-Based Access Control

Mandatory Access Control
Rule-Based Access Control ( Missed)
Lattice-Based Access Control
Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model?
(Select 3 answers)
Users are not allowed to change access policies at their own discretion ( Missed)
Labels and clearance levels can only be applied and changed by an administrator ( Missed)
Every object has an owner who at his/her own discretion determines what kind of permissions other users
can have to that object
Access to resources based on user identity
Every resource has a sensitivity label matching a clearance level assigned to a user ( Missed)
Which of the answers listed below refers to the most common access control model used in Trusted OS
implementations?
HMAC
MAC ( Missed)
RBAC
DAC
One of the basic requirements of the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model is that in order to be able to access a
resource user's clearance level must be equal or higher than the sensitivity level assigned to the resource.
True ( Missed)
False
An access control method based on the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong is called:
HMAC
DAC ( Missed)
MAC
RBAC
Which of the following answers refer to the Rule-Based Access Control (RBAC) model? (Select 2 answers)
Access to resources granted or denied depending on Access Control List (ACL) entries ( Missed)
Every object has an owner who at his/her own discretion determines what kind of permissions other users
can have to that object
2/5
Implemented in network devices such as firewalls in order to control inbound and outbound traffic based on
filtering rules ( Missed)
Every resource has a sensitivity label matching a clearance level assigned to a user; labels and clearance
levels can only be applied and changed by an administrator
An access control method based on user identity
Which of the access control models listed below enforces the strictest set of access rules?
MAC ( Missed)
RBAC
DAC
HMAC
In computer security, biometrics refers to physical characteristics of the human body that can be used for
True ( Missed)
False
Which part of the AAA framework incorporates the time-of-day restrictions requirement?
Authentication
Non-repudiation
Accounting
An account policy setting that forces users to come up with a new password every time they are required to change
their old password is called:
Password length
Password history ( Missed)
Password complexity
Which of the following passwords is the most complex?
T$7C52WL4SU
GdL3tU8wxYz
@TxBL$nW@Xt
G$L3tU8wY@z ( Missed)
Which of the account policies listed below provides a countermeasure against malicious users attempting to
determine an account password by trial and error?
Password history
Account lockout ( Missed)
Encryption
3/5
Acceptable use policy
The two factors that are considered important for creating strong passwords are:
Password length ( Missed)

Minimum password age
Password history
Password complexity ( Missed)
Maximum password age
The two basic techniques for encrypting information include symmetric encryption (also called public-key encryption)
and asymmetric encryption (also called secret-key encryption.)
True
False ( Missed)
In asymmetric encryption, any message encrypted with the use of the public key can only be decrypted by applying
the same algorithm and the matching private key.
True ( Missed)
False
Large amount of processing power required to both encrypt and decrypt the content of the message causes that
symmetric-key encryption algorithms are much slower when compared to algorithms used in asymmetric encryption.
True
False ( Missed)
A cryptographic key generated to be used only once within a short time frame is known as session key.
True ( Missed)
False
In asymmetric encryption, data encrypted with the use of a private key can only be decrypted with the use of a
matching public key.
True ( Missed)
False
Key exchange mechanism whereby the cryptographic key is being delivered over a different channel than the main
communication channel (for example on a USB thumb drive) is an example of an in-band key exchange.
True
False ( Missed)
Your Final Report
Total marks 29
4/5
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5
Block ciphers work by encrypting each plaintext digit one at a time.
True
False ( Missed)
Which IPsec mode provides encryption for the entire packet?
Tunnel ( Missed)
Host-to-host
Payload
Transport
An IPsec mode providing encryption only for the payload (the data part of the packet) is known as:
Protected mode
Tunnel mode
Transport mode ( Missed)
Safe mode
What is the purpose of non-repudiation?
Hiding one piece of data in another piece of data

Ensuring that received data hasn't changed in transit
Preventing someone from denying that they have taken specific action ( Missed)
Transforming plaintext into ciphertext
Taking hashes ensures that data retains its:
Confidentiality
Integrity ( Missed)
Order of volatility
Availability
What is the name of a storage solution used to retain copies of private encryption keys?
Trusted OS
Key escrow ( Missed)
Proxy server
Recovery agent
What is the purpose of steganography?
Checking data integrity

1/5
Calculating hash values
Hiding data within another piece of data ( Missed)
Data encryption
A digital signature is a hash of a message that uniquely identifies the sender of the message and provides a proof
that the message hasn't changed in transit.
True ( Missed)
False
What are the features of Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)? (Select 2 answers)
Asymmetric encryption ( Missed)

Shared key
Suitable for small wireless devices ( Missed)
High processing power requirements
Symmetric encryption
Which of the following answers refer to the applications / features of quantum cryptography? (Select 2 answers)
High availability
Protection against eavesdropping ( Missed)
Loop protection
Secure key exchange ( Missed)
Host-based intrusion detection
SHA, MD5, and RIPEMD are examples of:
Trust models
Encryption algorithms
Hash functions ( Missed)
Virus signatures
Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES): (Select all that apply)
Symmetric-key algorithm ( Missed)

128-, 192-, and 256-bit keys ( Missed)
Asymmetric-key algorithm
Block cipher algorithm ( Missed)
Stream cipher algorithm
Unlike stream ciphers which process data by encrypting individual bits, block ciphers divide data into separate
fragments and encrypt each fragment separately.
True ( Missed)
False
2/5
Which of the following are symmetric-key algorithms? (Select 3 answers)
AES ( Missed)
DES ( Missed)
RSA
Diffie-Hellman
3DES ( Missed)
Which of the following answers refers to a solution for secure exchange of cryptographic keys? (Select best answer)
Data Encryption Standard (DES)

In-band key exchange
Diffie–Hellman ( Missed)
Out-of-band key exchange
One of the answers below lists some of the past and current authentication protocols used in Microsoft networks
arranged from oldest / obsolete up to the current recommendation. Which of the answers lists the protocols in the
correct order?
LANMAN › NTLM › NTLMv2 › Kerberos ( Missed)

NTLM › NTLMv2 › Kerberos › LANMAN
NTLM › NTLMv2 › LANMAN › Kerberos
Kerberos › NTLM › NTLMv2 › LANMAN
A computer program (and related protocols) that uses cryptography to provide data security for electronic mail and
other applications on the Internet is known as:
SMTP
PGP ( Missed)
OCSP
OVAL
GNU Privacy Guard (GPG) provides similar functionality and an alternative to:
PAP
IMAP4
PGP ( Missed)
Windows Firewall
Which of the protocols listed below uses elliptic curve cryptography for secure exchange of cryptographic keys?
ECC
LANMAN
ECDHE ( Missed)
OCSP
3/5
computers?
Telnet
SSH ( Missed)
Bcrypt
TFTP
In cryptography, the term "key stretching" refers to a mechanism for extending the length of the cryptographic key in
order to make it more secure against brute force attacks.
True ( Missed)
False
Examples of key stretching algorithms include: (Select 2 answers)
PBKDF2 ( Missed)
RC4
NTLMv2
Bcrypt ( Missed)
FCoE
Which of the solutions listed below allow(s) to check whether a digital certificate has been revoked? (Select all that
apply)
CIRT
CRL ( Missed)
OCSP ( Missed)
CRC
ICMP
Which of the following provides the fastest way for validating a digital certificate?
ICMP
CRL
Key escrow
OCSP ( Missed)
Copies of lost private encryption keys can be retrieved from a key database by:
Power users
Recovery agents ( Missed)
End users
Backup operators
4/5
Your Final Report
Total marks 33
Total Questions 25
Success ratio 0%
Marks secured 0
5/5

CompTIA A+ Certification Practice

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CompTIA A+ Certification Practice Test 1 (Exam 220-901)

Repair damaged BIOS ( Missed)

Enabled in Windows Control Panel

Increasing the amount of physical RAM on the system

The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing:

Reset button on the front panel of a computer case

Using a jumper that can be found on the motherboard ( Missed)

Group Policy settings

Which of the following statements is true?

Aborted BIOS update can be resumed by the transaction recovery system

Which type of password provides the highest level of permissions in BIOS?

Access Control List (ACL)

DRM support ( Missed)

Your Final Report

Questions correctly answered 0

What is the most common motherboard type used in desktop PCs?

Which of the following statements are true? (Select 3 answers)

A parallel bus transmits data across multiple wires ( Missed)

Doubles the bandwidth of PCI ( Missed)

32-bit bus width

A single-lane (x1) PCIe v2.x link offers maximum throughput of up to:

In a northbridge/southbridge chipset computer architecture, the function of southbridge is to provide high-speed

Your Final Report

Questions correctly answered 0

I/O Controller Hub (ICH)

Non-volatile storage media type

Volatile storage media type ( Missed)

The speed of the system bus is measured in clock cycles ( Missed)

What is the number of contact pins used in SDR SDRAM modules?

184 contact pins ( Missed)

What is the peak transfer rate of a DDR-266 module?

Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle ( Missed)

What is the total bandwidth of a DDR2-533 module?

1 notch on the module contact surface ( Missed)

Your Final Report

Questions correctly answered 0

DDR2 SO-DIMM memory modules have: (Select 2 answers)

144 pins ( Missed)

ECC type RAM:

Memory modules of matching types ( Missed)

A special-purpose memory type used by graphics controllers is known as:

ESD protection ( Missed)

Less than 800 MB of data storage capacity ( Missed)

Your Final Report

Questions correctly answered 0

Platters of a magnetic hard drive spin at a rate measured in:

Revolutions per second

USB drive ( Missed)

Flash memory card formats include: (Select all that apply)

Serial ATA (SATA)

Which of the following solutions does not offer fault tolerance?

RAID Level 0: (Select 3 answers)

Is also known as disk striping ( Missed)

RAID Level 1: (Select 3 answers)

Requires at least 2 drives to implement ( Missed)

RAID Level 5: (Select 2 answers)

Requires at least 2 drives to implement

Which RAID type has the highest disk overhead?

RAID Level 10 requires a minimum of:

A single-sided, single-layer DVD disc can store up to:

4.7 GB of data ( Missed)

A single-sided, double-layer DVD disc can store up to:

8.5 GB of data ( Missed)

A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 15 GB of data