1.

Which of the following components of the innate immune system involvesrecognition molecules such as
mannan-binding lectin (MBL) for bacteria with mannoseon the surface?

a) Natural killer (NK) cells

b) Complement system

c) Oxygen dependent and independent killing

d) Interferons

e) Acute phase proteins

2. What types of cell is class I MHC found on?

a) B cells

b) Macrophages

c) Dendritic cells

d) Essentially all cells

e) Mainly on A, B, & C

3. Which of the following binds to an Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils?

a) IgA

b) IgD

c) IgE

d) IgG

e) IgM

4. Which of the following is the correct order for a lymphocyte to be activated?

a) Recognition of antigen, activation of tyrosine kinases, clustering of receptors, phosphorylation

b) Recognition of antigen, clustering of receptors, activation of tyrosine kinases, phosphorylation

c) Recognition of antigen, activation of tyrosine kinases, phosphorylation,clustering of receptors

d) Recognition of antigen, activation of tyrosine kinases, clustering of receptors, phosphorylation

5. The spleen has a red pulp (macrophages and red blood cells) and a white pulp (denselymphoid tissue). T cells are
found chiefly in the ____ and B cells are found in the ____, both within the ____ pulp.

a) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS); Follicles; White

b) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS); Follicles; Red

c) Follicles; Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS); White

d) Follicles; Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS); Red

6. During B cell development, precursor cells are found in the ____ and immature cells are found in the ____.

a) Bone marrow; Bone marrow

b) Bone marrow; Periphery

c) Periphery; Periphery

d) Periphery; Bone marrow

e) Spleen; Bone marrow

7. Establishment of self-restriction occurs in the thymus ____ and is called ____ selection. Establishment of central
self-tolerance occurs in the thymus ____ and is called ____ selection.

a) Cortex; Positive; Medulla; Negative

b) Cortex; Negative; Medulla; Positive

c) Medulla; Positive; Cortex; Negative

d) Medulla; Negative; Cortex; Positive

8. Which complement pathway is activated by (and requires) antibodies, with IgM being particularly good at C1
binding?

a) Lectin

b) Classical

c) Alternative

9. A deficiency in complement inhibitors could lead to which of the following?

a) Meningitis

b) Leprosy

c) X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome

d) Hereditary angiodema

e) X-linked agammaglobulinemia

10. Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) is the process by which naturalkiller cells destroy infected
cells, identified by what immunoglobulin on the surface?a) IgA

b) IgD
c) IgE

d) IgG

e) IgM

11. Subunit vaccines contains components from pathogens, which are inactivated andreferred to as ____. These
vaccines are generally of low immunogenicity and may need ____ to work effectively.

a) Cytokines; IgE

b) LPS; Live vaccination

c) Capsules; Homeostasis

d) Toxoids; Adjuvants

e) Antigens; B & T cells

12. Which of the following diseases occurs with the absence of a thymus?

a) DiGeorge’s syndrome

b) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

c) Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

d) Bare lymphocyte syndrome (BLS)

e) Wiskott Aldrich syndrome (WAS

13. A patient in their early 20s presents with recurrent bacterial infections. Lab work shows B cells in the periphery
as well as low immunoglobulin levels. History showsimmunoglobulin levels have decreased with age. Which of the
following is the mostlikely?

a) Myeloperoxidase deficiency

b) DiGeorge’s syndrome

c) X-linked agammaglobulinemia

d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS)

e) Common variable immunodeficiency

14. A child presents with recurrent infections with bacteria, fungi, and viruses. Theresident asks the attending
physician about IL-2R chain mutations, as the patient is amale. The attending physician makes a diagnosis and
begins writing orders for bonemarrow transplantation and possible gene therapy. Which of the following does the
patient have?

a) Ataxia telangiectasia
b) Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS)

c) Hereditary angioedema

d) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

e) C3 deficiency

15. What is a graft between different members of the same species termed?

A)Autograft

B)Isograft

C)Xenograft

D)Allograft

E)None of the above

16. Antigens normally expressed only on embryonic cells but also sometimes found on tumors are known as:

A Oncofetal antigens

B Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)

C Maternal

D Neonatal

E Cryptic

17. Which of the following is an example of an immune escape mechanism used by some tumor cells?

A Inhibition of indoleamine-2,3-dioxygenase

B Increased expression of MHC class I

C Increased expression of PD-L1

D Decreased expression of FasL

E Shutdown of IL-10 production

18. What is the T-cell ligand binding B7 on a professional antigen-presenting cell?

A CD28

B CD2

C LFA-1

D ICAM-1
19. Hyperacute graft rejection is caused by:

A Preformed antibody

B CD4 lymphocytes

C CD8 lymphocytes

D Platelets

E Circulating immune complexes

20. Arthus reaction is an example of

A.Type I hypersensitivity

B.Type II hypersensitivity

C.Type III hypersensitivity

D.Type IV hypersensitivity

21.CD25 is a marker of?

A.CD4 Helper Cell

B.T regulatory cell

C.CD8 cytotoxic cell

D.Naive B cell

E.Pre B cell

22.Cd16 is a marker of?

A.NK cell

B.Macrophage

C.Hematopoietic Stem cell

D.Naive T cell

E.Mature B-cell

23. Macrophage activation to kill intracellular pathogens is primarily mediated by

a) IL-2

b) IFNγ

c) GM-CSF
d) IL-12

24. Cytokines primarily involved in T cell proliferation and development are

a) IL-2 and IL-7

b) IL-12

c) IL-4 and IL-5

d) TGFβ

25. A father brings his 3-year-old son to the pediatrician because he is concerned about his health. He states that
throughout his son's life he has had recurrent infections despite proper treatment and hygiene. Upon reviewing
the patient's chart, the pediatrician notices that the child has been infected multiple times with S. aureus,
Aspergillus, and E. coli. Which of the following would confirm the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Review Topic

A.Negative nitroblue-tetrazolium test

B.Normal dihydrorhodamine (DHR) flow cytometry test

C.Positive nitroblue-tetrazolium test

D.Increased IgM, Decreased IgG, IgA, and IgE

E.Increased IgE and IgA, Decreased IgM