1 what is pyuria ?

a) presence of bacteria in the urine

b) presence of wbc in the urine
c) presence of blood in the urine
d) presence of nitrates in the urine

2 Does many species of gram-negative bacteria can convert nitrates to nitrites, and these are detected
in urine ?

a) True
b) False

3 If the cast contains only mucoproteins it is called ?

A) hyaline cast.
B) Red blood cell casts
C) Crystal casts
D) Pigment casts

4 The half-life of serum PSA is ?

a) 2.2 days
b) 2.5 days
c) 4 days
d) 4.5 days

5 The investigation of choice to define anatomical detail in the calyces, renal pelvis and ureter is:

a) Intravenous urography (IVU)

b) Ultrasound
c) CT urography
d) Retrograde ureteropyelography

6 what is the use of cystography ?

A) used to identify vesicocolic and vesicovaginal fistulae and bladder rupture

B) used to identify crystal casts
C) used to establish the presence of free refl ux into the ureters
D) used to diagnose the presence and site of ureteric injury

7 Ultrasound has many advantages which include all of the following EXCEPT :

a) It is safe and does not use ionizing radiation

b) It allows discrimination between pseudotumours and true lesions
c) It is not affected by renal function
 d) It requires little or no pre-procedural preparation

8 Factors protecting against UTI are the ?

a) Mechanical fl ushing effect of urine through the urinary tract

b) A mucopolysaccharide coating of the bladder helps prevent bacterial adherence.
c) Low urine pH and high osmolarity reduce bacterial growth.
d) Urinary immunoglobulin (IgA) inhibits bacterial adherence
e) All of the above

9 which is the most common route of infection of UTI ?

a) Ascending
b) Descending
c) Hematogenous
d) Via lymphatics

10 Nongonococcal urethritis is mainly caused by ?

a) Chlamydia trachomatis
b) gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhea
c) e.coli
d) s.aures

11 Urethral syndrome manifests as

a) dysuria
b) frequency
c) urgency without evidence of infection
d) all of the above

12 what are the types of UTI?

a) complicated UTI
b) Uncomplicated UTI
c) Isolated UTI
d) Recurrent UTI
e) All of the above

13 Is Leukocyte esterase is produced by esinophils and causes a color change in a chromogen salt on
the dipstick.?

a) True
b) false
14 gold standard for the diagnosis of a bacterial UTI is ?

a) Urine culture
b) Urine microscopy
c) Urine dipstick
d) Uroflowmetry

15 Treatment of Nongonococcal urethritis is ?

a) azithromycin, 1 g as a single oral dose

b) ceftriaxone 125 mg IM in a single dose
c) cefixime 400 mg orally in a single dose
d) azithromycin, 10g as a single oral dose

16 Recurrent UTI is defined as?

a) >2 infections in 6 months, or 3 within 12 months.

b) <2 infections in 6 months, or 3within 12 months.
c) > 4 infections in 6 months, or 6 within 12 months
d) < 4 infections in 6 months, or 6 within 12 months
17 why does female have high risk for UTI ?
a) risk is increased in females as the urethra is shorter
b) risk is increased in females as the urethra is larger
c) risk is increased in younger females
d) both b and c
18 why do we avoid nitrofurantoin in the elderly patients ?
a) Because of the potential for renal impairment.
b) Because of hepatotoxicity
c) Because of pulmonary toxicity
d) Because of short half life
19 In interstitial cystitis:
a) there is a high malignant potential
b) there is typically a mast cell infiltrate
c) there is a higher incidence in men
d) there is little place for intra-vesical treatment
e) there are few local symptoms
20 Which is true about traumatic rupture of the membranous (prostatic) urethra:
a) may be associated with a "floating prostate" on rectal examination
b) is best treated by immediate urethral catheterization
c) rarely leads to long-term sequelae
d) is usually diagnosed by radionuclide cystogram
e) is most often due to endoscopic surgery
21 A patient with acute urinary tract infection usually presents with
 a) Chills and fever
b) Flank pain
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Painful urination
22 Acute pyelonephritis clinical diagnosis is based on
a) Fever
b) Flank pain
c) Tenderness
d) All of the above
23 The most common upper urinary tract infection is:
a) Urethritis
b) Prostatitis
c) Cystitis
d) Pyelonephritis
24 Bacteria from the intestines (most commonly)often infect the urinary tract by ascending
from the perineal area int the lower urinary tract ?
a) Escherichia coli
b) Bacillus anthracis
c) Staphyloccus aureus
d) Streptococcus pyogenes, Group A
25 A client complaining of dysuria, frequency, urgency, nocturia, pyuria, hematuria, and suprapubic
discomfort is showing manifestations of ?
a) Cystitis , pyelonephritis
b) Urethritis, glomerulonephritis
c) Prostatis , orchitis
d) Epididymitis , pyonephrosis
26 which among the following is a type of Urinary Tract Disorder in which the bladder
mucosa become inflamed and congested with blood?
a) Pyelonephritis
b) Cystitis
c) Glomerulonephritis
d) Pyelonephritis
27 Acute pyelonephritis is treated with:
a) 3 - day or a 7-10-day course of antibiotics
b) 10-21 days of antibiotics
c) Therapy with urinary anti-infectives which may last from 2 weeks to 6 or 12
months
d) Intravenous antibiotics are required
28 is a condition in which urine moves from the bladder back toward the kidney.
a) Ureterovesical junction
b) Parenchyma
 c) Crede method
d) Vesicoureteral reflux

29 where does pus accumulate in pyonephrosis ?

a) within the renal pelvis and calyces.
b) Within the ureter
c) Within the collecting duct
d) Within the bladder
30 true statement about Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is ?
a) The kidney becomes grossly enlarged and macroscopically contains yellowish
nodules, pus, and areas of hemorrhagic necrosis.
b) Renal ultrasonography shows an enlarged kidney containing echogenic material,
c) Non-enhancing cavities are seen, containing pus and debris.
d) All of the above
31 can the scarring in chronic pyelonephritis can be due to previous infection or it can occur
from the long-term effects of reflux?
a) True
b) False
32 chronic bacterial prostatis is best diagnosed by ?
a) histological examination of prostatic tissue
b) history and physical exam
c) segmented urine culture
d) semen culture
33 which among the following help to find out the localization of bacteria to a specific part
of urinary tract ?
a) urine dipstick
b) ct scan
c) ultrasound
d) segmented urine culture
34 Positive culture of first 10 mL of urine voided ( 1st voided urine) in segmented urine
culture indicates ?
a) Bacterial prostatis
b) Prostatis or urethritis
c) Urethritis
d) Cystitis
35 DRE of chronic bacterial prostatis show tender, enlarged, and boggy prostate or it may be
entirely normal.
A) True
B) False
36 which of the following is true about granulomatous prostatis is ?
a) TURP may be necessary if there is no response to treatment and the patient has
bladder outlet obstruction.
b) Sitz baths, more frequent ejaculation, dietary modifi cations.
c) A-Blockers have become the mainstay of therapy.
d) Microwave thermotherapy
37 pink ulceration of bladder mucosa is know as hunners ulcer
 a) true
b) false
38 transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to genitourinary tract is by ?
a) hematogenous spread
b) via lymphatics
c) direct bacterial invasion
d) through direct contact
39 manifestation of tuberculosis of Genitourinary tract include :
a) fever, lethargy , weight loss, night sweats
b) UTI not responding to treatment.
c) Later manifestations as LUTS, hematuria, and flank pain.
d) All of the above
40 True about balantitis ?
a) inflammation of the glans penis
b) caused by the trematode
c) Medical treatment is with albendazole
d) True urological emergency

41 Risk factors for prostate cancer include which one of the following?

a) Castration before age 40 years

b) Black race
c) Asian race
d) Young age

42 Which of the following IS NOT a contra-indication for brachytherapy?

Α. Prostate size 90cm3

Β. Clinical stageΤ3α

C. IPSS=9

D. Gleason Score 9(4+5)

Ε. None of the above

F. Β and C

43 Urinary Incontinence is NOT a long-term complication of brachytherapy.

Α. True

Β. False

44 Which finding from prostate biopsy is the most useful to predict extraprostatic expansion
of cancer?

Α. Degree of differentiation

Β. Number of positive biopsies

C. Perineural invasion

D. All the above

45 Which of the following factors plays the least role for survival in muscle-invasive bladder
cancer?

Α. Age

Β. Lymphnode metastases

C. The pathoanatomical stage of the disease

D. The ratio infiltrated : removed lymphnodes

46 Which of the below play/s a role in bladder tumor staging?

Α. The technique of transurethral resection with muscular layer in the specimen

Β. The presence of pericystic fat in the specimen

C. Cauterization of the base of the tumor

D. All the above

47 Patients with Τ3 prostate adenocarcinoma present lymph-node metastasis in:

Α. 10%

Β. 40%

D. 60%

D. 70%

48 Following radiation therapy, prostate biopsy has to be negative:

Α. within 6 months

Β. within 12 months

C. within 18 months

D. within 30 months

Ε. None of the above

49 In radical nephrectomy for RCC, routine lymph-node dissection:

Α. is absolutely useless

Β. is performed only for staging

C. is essential only in a few patients

D. is always indicated

50. Candidates for partial cystecomy after preoperative chemotherapy ARE NOT the patients
with:

Α. CIS (carcinoma in situ)

Β. good bladder capacity

C. solitary tumor

D. full response to chemotherapy

51 The best treatment for bladder adenocarcinoma is:

A. Radiotherapy

B. Cystectomy

C. Chemotherapy

D. TUR + intravesical BCG infusions

52 Which one of the following statements is true of prostate cancer?

a) Gleason score 3 describes a poorly differentiated tumour

b) 65% of patients with Gleason score 5-7 will die from prostate cancer within 15 years
c) PSA >50ng/ml is often associated with distant bone metastases
d) T2 describes a tumour that has extended through the capsule
53 T2b stage of adenocarcinoma defines ?

a) Palpable tumor, feels confined, in <half of one lobe on DRE

b) Palpable tumor, feels confined, in >half of one lobe on DRE

c) Palpable tumor, feels confined, in both lobes on DRE T3a

d) Palpable tumor, feels confined, in completely in one lobe

54 which among the following in gleason score are considered moderately differentiated ?

a) 2-4

b) 5-7

c) 8-10

d) None

55 external beam radiation therapy is the only radiation therapy used for prostate cancer

a) True

b) False
56 How often should PSA be checked to monitor for recurrent prostate cancer?
a) Every 6-12 months for 5 years then yearly there after
b) Every month for 5 years
c) Every 6 months for the rest of the patient's life
d) PSA is not used to monitor for recurrent prostate cancer
57 Active surveillance is use for life expectancy > 10 years and observation is used for life
expectancy < 10 years
a) True
b) False
58 What is the most common type of Bladder Cancer?
a) Squamous Cell Carcinoma
b) Transistional cell carcinoma
c) Epithelial hyperplasia
59 TCC is what percentage of all bladder cancers?
a) 5%
b) 3%
c) 50%
d) 95%
e) 75%
60 Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) is
a) A poorly differentiated carcinoma often without any papillary growth

b) A benign proliferation of urothelium in response to inflammation or irritation

c) A type of malignancy that arises from the urothelial lining of the urinary tract
d) A cancerous growth on the urothelium causing disintegration of the bladder wall and
urothelium.

61 A poorly differentiated transitional cell carcinoma often without any papillary growth.
a) Epithelial Hyperplasia

b) Carcinoma in SITU
c) Transitional cell carcinoma
d) Noninvasive carcinoma

62 The stage of bladder cancer that is invasion on the lamina propria?

a) T1
b) TIS
c) T4
d) M1
63 Involves the pelvic nodes
a) T4

b) N2
 c) N1-3
d) N1-4

64 Most frequent presenting symptom is?

a) Painless hematuria
b) Flank pain due to ureteral obstruction or pelvic mass
c) Frequency
d) Constipation
65 Is Chemotherapy and immunotherapy with BCG medical treatments for Bladder cancer?
a) yes
b) No
c) Only BCG
d) Only Chemotherapy
66 What is a random bladder biopsy done for?
a) Stage and grade verification
b) Invasive
c) Noninvasive
d) Smaller tumors
e) Stages T1-T4
67 What would a cystectomy with ileal conduit urinary diversion be done for ?
a) Stage and grade verification
b) Invasive tumors
c) Noninvasive tumors
d) Smaller tumors
e) All of the above
68 complications of ileal conduit ?
a) Prolonged ileus
b) Urinary leak
c) Enteral leak
d) Pyelonephritis
e) Ureteroileal stricture
f) all of the above
69 renal masses can be ?
a) oncocytoma
b) angiomyolipoma
c) both a and b
d) none of the above

70 Renal cell carcinoma has been associated with what disorder?

 a) Down syndrome
b) von Hippel-Lindau disease
c) Williams syndrome
d) Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2)

71 investigations of rcc include ?

a) Radiological evaluation of hematuria, fl ank pain, and renal masses is

b) Urine cytology,urine culture
c) Full cbc
d) Serum creatinine, electrolytes, calcium, liver function tests
e) All of the above

72 Tumor extends to renal vein

a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3A
d) Stage 3B
e) Stage 3C
73 Surgical treatment for RCC is?
a) Radical nephrectomy
b) Partial nephrectomy
c) Both a and b
d) Only a
74 What is the gold standard for benign and malignant renal tumors?
a) Radical Nephrectomy
b) Partial nephrectomy
c) Bilateral nephrectomy
75 nephroblastoma (wilm’s tumor )
a) as a peak incidence at 5 or 6 years of age
b) is stage one when it has extended beyond the kidney but has been completely excised
c) is best treated by nepherectomy followed by chemotherapy
d) has an over all five year survival rate of 20%
76 what is the causative agent of condyloma acuminatum ?
a) chlamydia trachomatis
b) hpv 6 or 11
c) hsv
d) e.coli
77 Does CT, IVP, or retrograde ureterography in RPF will reveal tapering medial
displacement of the ureters with proximal dilatation and will exclude calculus disease:
a) True
b) False
78 which of the following is premalignant condition of penis usually presents with hematuria
?
a) bowenoid papulosis
b) peyronies disease
c) erythroplasie de queyrat
d) chancroid
e) balanitis obliterans
79 Derived from the germinal epithelium of the mature testes.
a) Non-germinal neoplasm
b) Germ cell tumors
c) Leydig cell tumors
d) Sertoli cell tumors
80 Derived from cells that support the generation and maturation of sperm.
a) Teratoma
b) Embryonal cell cancer
c) Seminoma
d) Non-germinal neoplasm
1. Which of these medicines can cause ED?
a) Leukotriene inhibitors
b) Fluroqunolones
c) Beta Blockers
d) All of the above
2. Low levels of which hormones can cause ED
a) Insulin
b) Adrenaline
c) Thyrotropin
d) Testosterone
3. Which is the most common treatment for ED
a) Medicines
b) Surgery
c) Implantation
d) Injections
4. In primary erectile disorder
a) the erection problem occurs in combination with a second sexual
disorder
b) the male at one time had satisfactory erections
 c) the male's penis becomes erect only during sleep
d) the male has never had satisfactory erections

5. What has the term "impotence" been replaced with?

a) premature ejaculation
b) erectile disorder
c) inhibited ejaculation
d) ejaculatory disorder

6. Recent evidence indicates that chronic use of __________ is

associated with loss of sexual desire, orgasmic disorder, and erectile disorder.

a) marijuana
b) amphetamines
c) heroin
d) cocaine
e) caffeine

7. Regular marijuana smoking has decreased the level of testosterone in

the blood stream.

True
False

8. Both psychological and physical factors can cause sexual dysfunction.

True
False

9. Diabetes and prostate cancer and affect sexual functioning.

True
False
10. Audio-visual or tactile stimuli activate which autonomic nuclei of
the spinal erection
a) T11-L2 and S2-S4
b) T1-L2 and S3-S1
c) T2-L3 and S1-S4
 d) T4-L1 and S2-S3

81. What is infertility?

a) Failure of conception after 12 months of unprotected sex

b) Absence of sperms in the ejaculate

c) Non motile sperms

d) All of the above

82. What is Oligoasthenospermia

a) Low sperm count

b) improper motility of sperm

c) non of the above

d) All of the above

83. Which of these doesn’t cause cause infertility ?

a) Cryptorchidism

b) Kallmann’s syndrome

c) Environmental factor

d) Schnitzler Syndrome

84. A patient comes to the doctor with pain, heavy feeling in the scrotal area has
dificulty in performing valsalva maneuver and during scrotal examination feels
like bag worms on examination. Which of the following can be the diagnosis ?
a) Varicocele

b) Testicular torsion

c) Testicular cancer

d) Epididymal torsion

85. What is azoospermia?

a) Absence of sperm in the ejaculate

b) Total absence of sperm

c) Improper morphology of sperm

d) Low sperm count

86. What is the normal ph of semen?

a) 7.2-7.8

b) >8

c) <7

d) Non of the above

87. What is aspermia ?

a) Total absence of sprem

b) Improper motility of sprem

c) Low sprem count

d) Improper morphology of sperm

88. Which surgical method for varicocele repair is the most appropriate?
Α. Palomo
Β. Ivanissevich
C. Laparoscopic
D. Robotic
Ε. Subinguinal microsurgical varicose repair

89. What is teratospermia ?

a) Improper motility of sperm

b) low sperm count

c) Improper morphology of sperm

d) non of the above

90. What is cryptorchidism ?

a) Undecended testis

b) Injury to testis

c) All of the above

d) non of the above

91 Urine leakage occurs when bladder is normally distended with

large post void residual volume which can lead to hydronephrosis
-
a. Overflow incontinence
b. Dribbling incontinence
 Renal failure
c. Post micturition dribble
92Urinary incontinence can occur due to urethral hypermobility and
sphincter deficiency –
True
False
93 We can diagnose urethral hypermobility when –
a VLPP < 100cm H2O
b VLPP 60-100cm H2O
c VLPP > 100cm H2O
d None of the above
94 Urinary incontinence with the bladder descending more than 2cm
which can be due to stress is –
a. Stress urinary incontinence type 1
b. Mixed urinary incontinence
c. Urge urinary incontinence
d. Stress urinary incontinence type 2
95 Sphincter electromyography (EMG) is used for –
a. Urge urinary incontinence
b. Overflow incontinence
c. Measure the electric activity & synchronization between
detrusor and external sphincter
d. All of the above
96 Vesio-vaginal fistula is a fistula between –
a. Urethra and bladder
b. Vagina and bladder
c. Bladder and vagina
 d. Ureter and bladder
97 Bulky material such as collagen, Teflon, silicon can be given as
injection therapy in sphincter weakness incontinence patients?
a. True
b. False
98 High protein intake, low water consumption, low calcium diet and
sedentary lifestyle can cause –
a. Hydronephrosis
b. Pyelonephrosis
c. Kidney stones
d. Cystitis
99 Which among these is NOT a high density stone –
a. Uric acid stones
b. Calcium phosphate stones
c. Calcium oxalate stones
d. All of the above
100 Hypercalciuria, Hypercalcemia and hypocitraturia can cause
–
a. Uric acid stones
b. Radio lucent stones
c. Calcium oxalate stones
d. Cystine stones
101 Which is the soluble form of uric acid present in our body –
a. Sodium urate
b. Urease
c. Urea
d. Uric phosphate
102 About extracorporeal lithotripsy, which of the following is
true –
 a. High energy shockwaves are given from outside the patient’s
body to break stones
b. Is an invasive process
c. Is very harmful
d. Can be done in pregnant patients
103 For stones larger than 3cm, which is the best treatment –
a. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
b. Flexible urethroscopy
c. High fluid intake
d. Open stone surgery
104 Acute pain management in uretric stones –
a. NSAIDs
b. Opioid
c. Calcium channel blockers + α-blockers
d. All of the above
105 ESWL can’t be used for –
a. Distal stones (stones in ureter)
b. Bladder stones
c. Mid-ureter region stones
d. All of the above
106 PCNL & ESWL can be done together –
a. True
b. False
107 Dissolution therapy for uric acid stones involve –
a. Alkalize the urine with NaOH or potassium citrate
b. Reduce the production of uric acid with allopurinol 300-
600mg/day
c. High fluid intake
d. All of the above
108 What type of stones are seen in diabetic nephropathy and
intestinal renal disease –
a. Calcium phosphate
b. Struvite stones
c. Cystine stones
d. None of the above
109 Struvite stones are caused due to –
a. Infection with urease production bacteria (E.coli)
b. Prostitis
c. Incontinence
d. All of the above
110 Most of the genitourinary tract is derived from –
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. All of the above
111 Urine production in foetus starts by –
a. 12th week
b. After birth
c. 10th week
d. 6th week
112 Testis will descend into the scrotum in foetus by –
a. 1st trimester
b. After birth
c. In the 3rd trimester
d. None of the above