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UJIAN BERTULIS
OKTOBER 2 Jam

ARAHAN:
1. Buka kertas peperiksaan ini apabila diberitahu.
2. Tulis nama dan angka giliran anda pada ruang yang
disediakan.
3. Jawapan anda hendaklah ditulis pada ruang jawapan yang
disediakan di dalam kertas peperiksaan ini.
4. Kertas peperiksaan ini hendaklah diserahkan kepada pengawas
peperiksaan pada akhir peperiksaan.

Untuk Kegunaan Pemeriksa

Nama Pemeriksa:
Markah Markah
Soalan
Penuh Diperoleh
1 10
2 10
3 20
4 15
5 5
6 30
7 10
Jumlah 100

NAMA : .....................................................................................

ANGKA GILIRAN :

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SECTION A
[10 marks]
[Time suggested : 15 minutes]

Answer all questions in this paper.

The text below is about the benefits of playing musical instruments.

Question 1

Read the text below. There are grammatical errors in the text. The errors have been underlined
for you.
Write one word to correct the error in the space provided. An example has been given.
The correct word must not change the meaning of the sentence.

Do you know how to play an guitar, a drum or perhaps a recorder? Playing e.g. a
a musical instrument has many benefits that many might not knowing. One of (a) ________

the benefits were to reduce stress and anxiety. The soothing sounds of music (b) ________

can calm a troubled minds. Moreover, learning an instrument teaches you to (c) ________

create, store and retrieve memories more effective. It is like a total exercise (d) ________

for my brain. As you are playing and reading the musical note at the same (e) ________

time, you can actually improves your hand-eye coordination. Furthermore, (f) ________

if you are playing with a group of people or on a band, this can teach you (g) ________

about discipline and teamwork. You have to abide by an time sets for practice (h) ________

and play your part well. It does taking a lot of time, patience and practice to (i) ________
learn playing an instrument. The best part of it is when you mastering the (j) ________

techniques, you will feel a sense of achievement!

[10 marks]

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SECTION B
[30 marks]
[Time suggested : 40 minutes]

Question 2

Read the following text. Then, answer questions (a) – (j).

The best moment in my life was when I saw Muffet for the first time. It was a

few months ago when Ahmad handed me the hamster. I was so excited to hold Muffet

in my hands. Ahmad could no longer take care of it because he had to go overseas with

his family.

Hamsters are mostly brown but Muffet has grey fur all over its body. For a

1-year-old, Muffet is quite chubby. It has grown from three inches long, when I first

took it, to eight inches long in just six months! It is normally energetic at night and it

spends most of its day sleeping.

Muffet lacks interest in playing with toys or climbing ropes. Whenever I put some

toys in the cage, it will chew them up and make a mess out of it. So, I bought Muffet a

wheel. Riding the wheel is something it enjoys besides running through colourful tubes

in its cage.

Hamsters are naturally very clean and tidy animals. I often see Muffet grooming

itself by licking its fur. Sometimes I would help Muffet by trimming its nail using small

nail clippers. When it is time to eat, I usually serve seeds, nuts, vegetables and fruits in

its bowl. Above all, it prefers fruits the most. Muffet is definitely the best pet for me and

I love it so much!

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Questions (a) – (j)

Using the information from the text, complete the following notes.

MUFFET
Previous Owner (a) ____________________________________________

(b) ____________________________________________

Physical Characteristics (c) ____________________________________________

(d) ____________________________________________

Current Age (e) ____________________________________________

Active Period (f) ____________________________________________

(g) ____________________________________________
Favourite Activities
(h) ____________________________________________

Way of Cleaning Itself (i) ____________________________________________

Favourite Food (j) ____________________________________________

[10 marks]

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Question 3
Read the flyer below. Then, answer questions (a) – (i).

In conjunction with World Book Day, we bring to you

TIARA BOOK FAIR

Share the Joy of Reading!

MEMBERS!
Enjoy a Enjoy an additional
70% discount on 10% discount.
all books!

SUNDAY
25 November 2018
8.00 a.m. to 10.00 p.m.
PUTRI EXHIBITION HALL

Look out for these interesting activities!

Reading sessions by Sara Suriani, a young and beautiful celebrity author at
10.00 a.m. and 6.00 p.m. She will read out the first chapter of her latest storybook that is
suitable for young adults, entitled ‘Adibah and The Queen’.

Book signing session by one of the most well-known teen authors,

Mike Andrews. He will meet his fans from 1.00 p.m. to 2.00 p.m. after the launch of his
latest horror fiction book, ‘The Camp’. This book contains many stories that will keep
you awake all night long!

Meet and greet session with the actors and actresses from the
science-fiction movie, ‘The Galaxy Wars’. This award-winning movie is adapted from
a novel written by Jamie Holland. Don’t forget to bring your camera!

Board game competition is open to all. Test your skills in games such
as chess, scrabble and boggle. Please register first at the information counter. Amazing
prizes await you!
For more information, contact the organiser:
TIARA BOOKSTORE
www.tiarabookstore.com / 03-19998877

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Questions (a) – (d): Based on the flyer, state whether the following statements are
TRUE or FALSE.

(a) Non-members can enjoy a 70% discount on all books. ___________ [1 mark]
(b) The book fair is going to be held at Tiara Bookstore. ___________ [1 mark]
(c) The movie, ‘The Galaxy Wars’ is based on a novel. ___________ [1 mark]
(d) The reading sessions will take place all day long. ___________ [1 mark]

Questions (e) – (h): Read the flyer carefully and answer the questions below.

(e) What do you have to do to join the Board Game Competition?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(f) Fill in the table with an appropriate word from the flyer.

Meaning Word

(i) extra [1 mark]

(ii) great happiness [1 mark]

(g) Why do you think ‘The Camp’ will keep the readers awake all night long?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(h) Give two reasons why reading is important.

(i)
_____________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(ii)
_____________________________________________________ [1 mark]

[10 marks]

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(i) You wish to go to Tiara Book Fair with your friend.

In about 50 words, write a message to him/her.

In your message:
• invite your friend to join you.
• suggest one activity that your friend might enjoy.
• give one reason to support your suggestion.

Dear ______________________________,

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________

From,

________________________

[10 marks]

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SECTION C
[20 marks]
[Time suggested : 20 minutes]

Question 4
Read the text below.

A VISIT TO A TURTLE SANCTUARY

As part of the Environment Week programme, four teachers and 20 students

from my class went for a visit to a turtle sanctuary. This visit was organised
to create awareness on turtle conservation. We reached our destination at six
o’clock in the evening. Upon arrival, we headed straight for the beach to witness
the beautiful sunset. Mr Siva, the officer-in-charge, greeted us and brought us
to the hall for a briefing. We were supposed to spend our nights in the tents but
because of the strong wind, we decided to stay in the dormitory.
The next morning, we went to the turtle hatchery. Mr Siva explained how
turtle eggs are collected from their nests and then incubated there. Once the
eggs hatch, the hatchlings are released into the sea. It is usually done after dusk
to increase their chances of survival. According to Mr Siva, the biggest threat to
turtles is the illegal hunters. They steal turtle eggs and later sell them for instant
cash. This endangers the turtle population.
That evening, we were given the opportunity to release the baby turtles on
the beach. As the baby turtles wriggled in our hands, we placed them down gently.
As soon as their legs touched the sands, they instinctively crawled towards the
water. It was a wonderful experience and we took some photographs of that
moment for our school magazine.
Later that night, we eagerly waited in the dark for turtles to land at the
beach. We were told that in average, four turtles would come to the beach every
night during the nesting season. After hours of waiting, one turtle showed up
eventually.
This visit was indeed an eye-opening experience. We cannot wait to join
more activities like this in the near future.

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Read the text carefully and answer questions (a) – (j).

(a) What was the purpose of the visit?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(b) Where did they go as soon as they arrived at the sanctuary?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(c) Where did they sleep when they were at the sanctuary?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(d) In the second paragraph, where does there refer to?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(e) Fill in the table with an appropriate word from the text.

Meaning Word
(i) welcomed
(ii) not allowed by law
(iii) without force or strength
(iv) in the end
[4 marks]

(f) What do the illegal hunters do with the stolen eggs?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(g) What did the baby turtles do when they were released on the beach?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(h) How many turtles came to the beach on the second night?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(i) How would you feel if you were given a chance to release the baby turtles?
Give a reason.

__________________________________________________
Feeling: [1 mark]

Reason:
__________________________________________________ [1 mark]

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(j) Suggest two other ways that you can do to help in wildlife conservation.

_____________________________________________________
(i) [1 mark]

(ii)
_____________________________________________________ [1 mark]

[15 marks]

Question 5
Read the poem below carefully. Then, answer questions (a) – (d).

What Is Red?

Red is a sunset
Blazing and bright.
Red is feeling brave
With all your might.
Red is a sunburn
Spot on your nose.
Sometimes red
Is a red red rose.
Red squiggles out
When you cut your hand.
Red is a brick
And the sound of a band.
Red is hotness
You get inside
When you’re embarrassed
And want to hide.
Fire-cracker, fire-engine
Fire-flicker red –
And when you’re angry
Red runs through your head.
Red is an Indian,
A Valentine heart.
The trimmings on
A circus cart.
Red is a lipstick
Red is a shout
Red is a signal
That says: ‘Watch out!’

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Red is a great big

Rubber ball.
Red is the giantest
Colour of all.
Red is a show-off,
No doubt about it –
But can you imagine
Living without it?

Mary O’Neill

(a) Red squiggles out

When you cut your hand.
In the lines above, what does ‘Red’ refer to?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(b) Which word in the poem has the same meaning as ‘ashamed’?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(c) Why is red described as the giantest colour of all?

__________________________________________________________ [1 mark]

(d) Red and all other colours are important in our lives.
Give two reasons why they are important.

_____________________________________________________
(i) [1 mark]

(ii)
_____________________________________________________ [1 mark]

[5 marks]

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SECTION D
[40 marks]
[Time suggested : 45 minutes]

Question 6
You should spend 30 minutes on this question.

The pictures below show how you spent the last school holiday with family and friends.
Write a letter to your cousin telling him/her about it.

village – 3 days – grandparents –

visited farm

friends – hanging out – cinema –

watched movie

family picnic – waterfall –

delicious food – swimming

When writing out your letter:

• you may use the notes given.
• state how you felt during the holiday.
• add any other relevant information.
• write in not less than 150 words.

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_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________
[30 marks]

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Question 7

You should spend 15 minutes on this question.

The following are the novels studied in the Literature Component in English Language.

1. The Elephant Man – Tim Vicary

2. Moby Dick – Herman Melville
3. We Didn’t Mean to Go to Sea – Arthur Ransome

Based on one of the novels above, write about a character who never gives up.
Provide evidence from the text to support your response.

Write:
• in not less than 50 words
• in continuous writing (not in note form)

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________

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_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________
[10 marks]

KERTAS PEPERIKSAAN TAMAT

_\ /_

PENGESAHAN PENGETUA

......................................................................

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UJIAN BERTULIS
OKTOBER

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Mark Scheme for Section A

Question 1
[10 marks]

Assessment Objectives
This part assesses student’s ability to:
• show understanding of the use of correct grammar in context.
• correct grammatical errors in the text.

Answers for Question 1

Correction
Question Answer Mark
(a) know 1 mark
(b) is 1 mark
(c) mind 1 mark
(d) effectively 1 mark
(e) your/our 1 mark
(f) improve 1 mark
(g) in 1 mark
(h) the 1 mark
(i) take 1 mark
(j) master 1 mark

Note:
• There should be only one answer for each line. If a student writes more than one
answer, take only the first answer into consideration.
• Accept answers written both in upper or lower case, even if it is the first word of
a sentence.

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SECTION B
[30 marks]
Question 2
[10 marks]

Assessment Objectives
This part assesses student’s ability to:
• read and understand the text.
• identify and transfer the correct information from a linear text into a non-linear text.

Note:
1. Do award marks for answers with minor grammatical errors.
2. Do not award marks for over lifting that includes irrelevant sections of the text.
3. There should be only one answer for each question. If a student writes more than one
answer, take only the first answer into consideration.

Answers for Question 2

Question Key / Answer Mark

(a) Ahmad 1 mark
(b) • grey fur 1 mark
(c) • chubby 1 mark
(d) • eight inches (long) 1 mark
(interchangeable)
(e) 1-year-old / 1 year old 1 mark
(f) night 1 mark
(g) • riding the wheel 1 mark
(h) • running through colourful tubes 1 mark
(interchangeable)
(i) licking its fur 1 mark
(j) fruits 1 mark

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Question 3
[20 marks]

Assessment Objectives
This part assesses student’s ability to:
• read and understand a non-linear text.
• respond to a non-linear text using established reading skills.
• write a message:
i. inviting your friend to join you.
ii. suggesting one activity that your friend might enjoy.
iii. giving one reason to support your suggestion.
Note:
1. Do award marks for answers with minor grammatical and spelling errors that do not
disrupt meaning.
2. Do remember to use your discretion and good judgement for correct answers that
appear different from the suggested answers especially for questions that require a
personal response.
3. Do award full marks for intelligent lifting.
4. Do not award marks for over lifting that includes irrelevant sections of the text.
5. Do not award marks for answers where meaning is totally unintelligible.

Answers for Questions (a) – (h)

(a) True (1 mark)
(b) False (1 mark)
(c) True (1 mark)
(d) False (1 mark)
(e) register (at the information counter) (1 mark)
(f)
Word
(i) additional (1 mark)
(ii) joy (1 mark)

(g) it’s a horror story / the stories are ghost stories / (1 mark)
readers can’t stop reading it because it is an interesting story
(Accept any other appropriate response)
(h) can expand vocabulary / to enhance knowledge (2 marks)
(Accept any other appropriate response)
(Award one mark for each appropriate response)

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General Guidelines for Marking Question (i)

1. Mark based on a 5-band impression scale with marks ranging from 1 – 10.
2. Read and understand the instructions in Section D about the following:
A. How writing is assessed and
B. What is expected of a student
3. Read the response provided for relevance to task and assessment objectives specified
for the question.
4. Check whether response fulfils the criteria specified in a given band.
5. Indicate merit and demerit expressions.
6. Responses which are generally free from serious errors should be placed in the
upper bands. However, responses with frequent minor and serious errors should
be placed in the lower bands.
7. Place a response with total or almost wholesale lifting in the lower bands.
For responses with intelligent lifting, award marks accordingly based on the
given criteria.
8. Students are allowed to use the points in the flyer when writing out their responses.
9. Read the response again to confirm or change bands.
10. If there is a change in the band, read the response again to check the general criteria
specified in the new band selected.
11. Award marks accordingly.

Note:

• The general criteria in the bands are common to ALL tasks with specific examples
given to aid the examiners. All responses must be marked using the criteria given in
the bands. Please read the criteria carefully for all five bands BEFORE marking.

• The length of the response should not be a criterion in awarding marks.

Award marks based on the quality and relevance of the response.

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Marking Criteria for Question (i)

Band
(Marks) A B C D E
Criteria (9 – 10) (7 – 8) (5 – 6) (3 – 4) (1 – 2)

Task Successfully Largely Sufficiently Partially Hardly

fulfilment fulfilled fulfilled fulfilled fulfilled fulfilled
Language Largely Sufficiently Partially Hardly
Accurate
accuracy accurate accurate accurate accurate
Well- Sufficiently
Organisation Organised Lacking Hardly any
organised & organised
and & organisation organisation
well- with some
development developed & details and details
developed details
Distorted
Sentence Varied & Largely Lacking
Some variety sentence
structure effective varied variety
structures
Almost
Lifting from Hardly any A little
Some lifting wholesale Total lifting
text lifting lifting
lifting

Note:
Award ‘0’ mark when there is:
- no response or response written in language other than English; or
- mindless lifting of irrelevant chunks from other sources including rubric

When awarding marks, apply the ‘best fit’ principle. No script will fit neatly into any one
of the bands. To determine the appropriate mark, identify the band the response belongs to
and refer to the criteria in the band. Examiners should assess the script holistically and
always refer to the coordinated scripts for consistency.

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Mark Scheme for Section C

[20 marks]

Assessment Objectives
This part assesses student’s ability to:
• read and understand a linear text.
• respond appropriately to the comprehension task.
• demonstrate understanding of a poem.
• use language competently to convey meaning in the task.

Note:
1. Do award marks for answers with minor grammatical and spelling errors that do not
disrupt meaning.
2. Do remember to use your discretion and good judgement for correct answers that
appear different from the suggested answers especially for questions that require a
personal response.
3. Do award full marks for intelligent lifting.
4. Do not award marks for over lifting that includes irrelevant sections of the text.
5. Do not award marks for answers where meaning is totally unintelligible.

Question 4
[15 marks]
Answers for Questions (a) – (j)
(a) (to) create awareness on turtle conservation (1 mark)
(b) the beach (1 mark)
(c) (in the) dormitory (1 mark)
(d) turtle hatchery (1 mark)
(e)
Word
(i) greeted (1 mark)
(ii) illegal (1 mark)
(iii) gently (1 mark)
(iv) eventually (1 mark)
(f) sell them (for instant cash) (1 mark)
(g) crawled towards the water (1 mark)
(h) one (1 mark)

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(i) Feeling: excited / nervous / happy / scared (1 mark)

Reason: it will be my first experience / I might hurt the turtle / (1 mark)
I get to do good deed / I do not know how to handle baby turtle
(Accept any other appropriate response)
(Reason must match the feeling)

(j) don’t buy or eat turtle eggs/ launch an awareness campaign/ do not pollute (2 marks)
the environment / donate money to wildlife conservation organisation
(Accept any other appropriate response)
(Award one mark for each appropriate response)

Question 5
(5 marks)
Answers for Questions (a) – (d)

(a) blood (1 mark)

(b) embarrassed (1 mark)
(c) Red is easy to notice / red can grab your attention / red is very prominent (1 mark)
[The idea that suggests the colour means danger or it grabs one’s attention]
(Accept any other appropriate response)
(d) life will be boring without colours / colours help me channel my creativity / (2 marks)
colours have different functions in everyday life
(Accept any other appropriate response)
(Award one mark for each appropriate response)

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Mark Scheme for Section D

[40 marks]

Assessment Objectives
This part assesses student’s ability to:
• write a letter based on the given notes using correct and appropriate language.
• add more information, opinions and elaborate ideas.
• write using coherent and cohesive structures to convey meaning effectively.
• write an appropriate response based on a novel that they have read.

A. How writing is assessed

In the assessment of writing skills at the lower secondary school level, students are
assessed on their ability to demonstrate the following skills in their written responses:
• reading skills in understanding the rubric and fulfilling the requirements of the
writing task.
• thinking skills to reflect depth and maturity of thinking by giving ideas, reasons
and supporting them with appropriate elaborations.
• language skills in terms of using language appropriately to provide the correct
tone, form and content as required by the task.

The emphasis is on how well the response fulfils the set task and the level of
language used. Accuracy of language in terms of grammar, sentence structures and
mechanics of writing is essential for effective communication. The examiner must be
able to understand and follow the presentation of ideas or events conveyed in the
students’ responses. Creativity is important but should not be the sole criterion in the
assessment of writing.

B. What is expected of a student

A student must at least be able to:
• identify the requirements of the task.
• provide the appropriate content according to the task specified.
• use an appropriate format.
• give evidence / reasons to support given response (novel).
• use correct grammar, sentence structures and mechanics of writing.
• use paragraphs to organise ideas.
• elaborate and develop ideas e.g. by adding details, giving reasons or examples
to make responses more interesting.

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C General instructions to examiners for marking Section D

1. Mark based on a 5-band impression scale with marks ranging from 1 – 30 (Question 6)
and 1 – 10 (Question 7).
2. Read the response provided for relevance to task and assessment objectives specified
for the question.
3. Indicate merit and demerit expressions.
4. Check whether response fulfils the criteria specified in a given band.
5. Look for details which make the writing more interesting. Responses which are
generally free from serious errors should be placed in the upper bands. However,
responses with frequent serious and minor errors should be placed in the lower bands.
6. Read the response again to confirm or change bands.
7. If there is a change in band, read the response again to check the general criteria
specified in the new band selected.
8. Award marks accordingly.

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Marking Criteria for Question 6

E
A B C D
BAND VERY
EXCELLENT GOOD SATISFACTORY WEAK
WEAK
MARKS 25 – 30 19 – 24 13 – 18 7 – 12 1–6
Task is Task is Task is Task is Task is
successfully largely sufficiently partially hardly
fulfilled. fulfilled. fulfilled. fulfilled. fulfilled.
Ideas are
Ideas are well- Ideas are
developed Ideas are
developed and sufficiently Ideas are not
and organised partially
well-organised developed with developed
with main developed
with some organisation and not or-
ideas and and lack
D supporting and supporting ganised.
supporting organisation.
E details. details.
details.
S Language is
Language is
C Language is Language is partially
largely
R accurate with sufficiently accurate. Language is
accurate with
few first draft accurate. Errors are Errors are inaccurate.
I some minor
slips. mostly SWEs. mostly
P errors.
MWEs.
T Sentence
Sentence Sentence
O Sentence structures structures Sentence
structures are structures
R are sufficiently lack variety structures are
varied and used are mostly
varied. and are distorted.
S effectively. varied.
repetitive.
Vocabulary is
Vocabulary is Vocabulary is
wide enough Vocabulary is Vocabulary is
wide and sufficient but lacks
and mostly limited. inappropriate.
precise. precision.
precise.
Interest is Interest Interest is Interest is Interest
aroused and is largely sufficiently partially is hardly
sustained. aroused. aroused. aroused. aroused.

Note:
• Award ‘0’ mark when there is:
- no response or response written in language other than English; or
- mindless lifting of irrelevant chunks from other sources including rubric.
• When awarding marks, apply the ‘best fit’ principle. No script will fit neatly into
any one of the bands. To determine the appropriate mark, identify the band the
response belongs to and refer to the criteria in the band. Examiners should assess
the script holistically and always refer to the coordinated scripts for consistency.
• The length of the response should not be a criterion in awarding marks.
Award marks based on the quality and relevance of the response.

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Marking Criteria for Question 7

E
A B C D
BAND VERY
EXCELLENT GOOD SATISFACTORY WEAK
WEAK
MARKS 9 – 10 7–8 5–6 3–4 1–2
Task is Task is Task is
Task is largely Task is sufficiently
successfully partially hardly
fulfilled. fulfilled.
fulfilled. fulfilled. fulfilled.
Ideas are Ideas are
Ideas are
Ideas are well- largely partially
sufficiently
developed and developed and developed
developed but lack
well-organised. organised. and lack Hardly any
organisation.
Well supported Largely organisation. ideas.
Supported with
D with evidence supported with Minimal
some evidence from
E from the text. evidence from evidence
the text.
the text. from the text.
S
Language is
C Language is
Language is Language is partially
R largely
accurate with sufficiently accurate. Language is
accurate with
I few first draft accurate. Errors are Errors are inaccurate.
some minor
P slips. mostly SWEs. mostly
errors.
MWEs.
T
Sentence Sentence
O
structures are Sentence Sentence structures structures Sentence
R varied and structures are are sufficiently lack variety structures are
S used mostly varied. varied. and are distorted.
effectively. repetitive.
Vocabulary is
Vocabulary Vocabulary is
wide enough Vocabulary Vocabulary is
is wide and sufficient but lacks
and mostly is limited. inappropriate.
precise. precision.
precise.
Interest is Interest Interest is Interest
Interest is
aroused and is largely partially is hardly
sufficiently aroused.
sustained. aroused. aroused. aroused.

Note:
• Award ‘0’ mark when there is:
- no response or response written in language other than English; or
- mindless lifting of irrelevant chunks from other sources including rubric.
• When awarding marks, apply the ‘best fit’ principle. No script will fit neatly into
any one of the bands. To determine the appropriate mark, identify the band the
response belongs to and refer to the criteria in the band. Examiners should assess
the script holistically and always refer to the coordinated scripts for consistency.
• The length of the response should not be a criterion in awarding marks.
Award marks based on the quality and relevance of the response.

P12D1 12 TERHAD
TERHAD

MARKING PROCEDURES
Examiners are recommended to use the symbols given to ensure consistency in marking
and for ease of moderation.

Marking Symbols Meaning of Symbols

M
E merit - used to indicate apt
R
I
√ vocabulary, good expression and
structure where it occurs.
T

gross errors

~~~~~ minor errors

D
// irrelevance, incomprehensible
E
M
E
L lifting

R
I ^ omission

T
R repetition

S stringing

Inverse word order (transpose)

PANDUAN PENSKORAN TAMAT

P12D1 13 TERHAD