A Server Role that used on a particular server, all other functions and ports are disabled, resulting in a

more secure system.

Select one:
a. Deployment
b. Improve Security
c. Enhanced Scalability

The heart of your Exchange Server 2010 environment.

Select one:
a. Access Server
b. Mailbox Server
c. Server

This license provides access to e-mail, calendaring, Outlook Web App and ActiveSync for Mobile
Devices.

Select one:
a. Standard CAL
b. Enterprise CAL
c. Limited CAL

A specific server that can be configured and optimized for one particular Role, resulting in a high
performance server.

Select one:
a. Enhanced Scalability
b. Improve Security
c. Deployment

Responsible for routing messaging not only between the Internet and the Exchange organization, but also
between Exchange servers within your organization

Select one:
a. Hub Transport Server Role
 b. Hub
c. Transport Server

An Exchange edition which can hold up to 100 databases.

Select one:
a. Enterprise Edition
b. Limited Edition
c. Standard Edition

this deployment features two or more forests that operate independently from each other in terms of
the accounts and applications.

Select one:
a. Multiple Forest
b. Multi Forest
c. Super Forest

The most visible improvement for end-users that design goals for a seamless cross-browser experience.

Select one:
a. OWA
b. High Availability
c. Partition

This is an additive license, and provides Unified Messaging and compliance functionality, as well
as Forefront Security for Exchange Server and Exchange Hosted Filtering for anti-spam and anti-virus
functionality.

Select one:
a. Limited CAL
b. Standard CAL
c. Enterprise CAL
Runs as part of the System Attendant service, is responsible for providing all other Exchange services
with a consistent, common view of the Active Directory topology.

Select one:
a. Port Access
b. Layer Access
c. AD Access

An Exchange edition which is limited to hosting 5 databases.

Select one:
a. Enterprise Edition
b. Standard Edition
c. Limited Edition

This contains a “blue print” of all objects and properties in Active Directory.

Select one:
a. Schema Partition
b. Domain Partition
c. Permission

This is the simplest design and the one that is normally most appropriate for small to medium
deployments as it removes a great deal of complexity.

Select one:
a. Resource Forest
b. Port Access
c. Single Forest

A scenario is where a new Active Directory forest is created where Exchange Server 2010 is installed.

Select one:
a. Migration
b. Transition
 c. Direction

This contains information regarding the domains installed in Active Directory.

Select one:
a. Schema Partition
b. Domain Partition
c. Permission

Which of the choices is an AD Topology in the services of exchange? Choose 15 and arrange your
answers alphabetically.
Captures details of all commands executed in a session and is useful in terms of capturing the steps
necessary to solve a problem or documenting steps to expose an issue that you want to report to
Microsoft.

Select one:
a. Record
b. Command Line
c. Transcript

Scripts must be digitally signed by a trusted partner before EMS will run them.

Select one:
a. AllSigned
b. Resigned
c. UnSigned

No scripts can be run, even if they are signed by a trusted publisher.

Select one:
a. Unrestricted
b. Prohibited
c. Restricted

Select the correct answer from the choices below

1. Command editing that deletes characters in the current command up to a specified position.

2. Command editing that moves backward through the command history.

3. Requests PowerShell to attempt to complete a command based on what you’ve typed.

4. Command editing that deletes the character under the cursor.

5. Toggles between character insert and character overwrite mode.

EMC means?

Select one:
a. Exchange Management Console
b. Exchange Management Control
c. Extra Management Console

ECP means?

Select one:
a. Extra Control Panel
b. Exchange Control Policy
c. Exchange Control Panel

Allows you to manage your Exchange Online settings from the command line.

Select one:
a. Pipelining
b. Remote Powershell
c. EMS

EMS means?
Select one:
a. Extra Management Service
b. Exchange Management Shell
c. Exchange Management Service

Used to provide input to the cmdlet and correspond to one or more properties on an object

Select one:
a. Start up
b. Identity
c. Parameters

A powerful command-line management interface, built on Windows PowerShell v2, which enables you
to administer every part of Microsoft Exchange Server 2010.

Select one:
a. Exchange Server
b. Exchange Management Shell
c. Cmdlets

Usually EMS performs whatever you ask it to do and doesn’t give any indication of the processing that it
performs in the background.

Select one:
a. Test Service
b. Verbose PowerShell
c. Mail Power

Fill in the blanks with the correct answer

1. blank is an approach to restricting access to systems and data based on the need of administrators
and users to do their jobs.
2. blank is a collection of role entries that define the set of cmdlets and parameters that a user can
run.
3. The definition of the scope or the collection of objects that a management role can work
with. blank
4. The blank tells Exchange what objects they can access and update.
 5. The role is assigned to the Discovery Management role group, but the role group has no default
members and needs to be populated before searches can be performed. blank
6. Assigned automatically to mailboxes as they are created is called the Default Role. blank
7. The blank role allows access to diagnostic cmdlets such as Test-ReplicationHealth that are
intended for use by Microsoft or other support personnel to retrieve diagnostic information from
an Exchange server or organization.
8. blank roles are used to authorize access to custom scripts and cmdlets.
9. blank are the users who have to perform operational tasks with an Exchange server gain the
rights to do their work through membership in appropriate role groups.
10. They don’t need to be granted membership in role groups to be able to interact with Exchange
because control of their data is granted through the default management role assignment policy.

The list of mail-enabled objects that will receive messages sent to the group

Membership
Answer:

Allows administrators to work with settings that are in effect across the entire organization

Select one:
a. ECS
b. Organization Configuration
c. Configuration
Allows administrators to work with configuration details specific to mailbox, client access, and hub
transport servers, including the certificates used by Exchange.

Select one:
a. Console
b. Server Configuration
c. Client Configuration

One that is generated by the application that wishes to use it

Select one:
a. Certificate
b. Group Certificates
c. Self-signed certificates

Designed for use by full-time administrators who need access to the broadest set of options to work with
all aspects of an organization.

Select one:
a. ECSI
b. Exchange Management Console
c. Extra Management Control

Select the language used for the mailbox and the date and time format.

Regional
Answer:

This section of EMC provides access to a collection of useful Microsoft provided utilities that execute
outside EMC.

Toolbox
Answer:

Select whether to ignore words in uppercase and containing numbers, whether to spell check new
messages before they are sent, and what language dictionary to use with OWA

Spelling
Answer:

Allows administrators to work with all types of mail-enabled recipients the mailboxes groups and
contacts.

Select one:
 a. Recipient Configuration
b. Senders Configuration
c. Contacts

list of one or more users who are entitled to manage the properties of the group including its membership

Ow nership
Answer:

Name used to identify the object in Active Directory

DistinguishedName
Answer:

The variable for given name in the email address policy

%g
Answer:

Match the correct answer

 The standard full-function mailboxes used by Exchange.

Answer 1
 It is certainly useful to be able to address many different recipients through one
Answer
common address
2
 Assigning office space and physical items the employee requires, including PC and
Answer
printer.
3
 Mailboxes that are linked to a user account in a separate, trusted forest. Answer
4
 These are the Equipment mailboxes which variation that can be attached to rooms to
represent the various items that support meetings in the room such as whiteboards, Answer
projectors, and tables 5
It is the unique name of an object

Alias
Answer:

The surname of the user in the mailbox attributes.

LastName
Answer:

The variable for the Middle Initial in the email addresses policy.

%i
Answer:

Match the correct answer

 An ESE function that deleted items and mailboxes are removed from the database
Answer
immediately their retention period expires.
1
 An Exchange database that tracks the progress of the Store in writing logged
Answer
transactions.
2
 It contains an entry for every attachment in the database. Answer
3
 Rearranges the data that is stored on the computer's hard disks so that the files are more
Answer
contiguous
4
 A basic layout of Exchange 2010 that contains a pointer to every mailbox in the
database.
Fill the blanks with the correct answer

1. What is the maximum database size of Exchange Server 2010? blank TB

2. What is the absolute limit for an Exchange 2010 database? blank GB
3. What is the average read I/O size of Exchange 2010? blank KB
4. What is the average write I/O size of Exchange 2010? blank KB
5. What is the size for Transaction log? blank MB

Choose the correct answer

 Which means that you can take a mailbox database from one server and mount it on
Answer
another server introduces by Exchange Server 2007.
1
 A collection of databases and copies that are shared across servers. Answer
2
 The process that Exchange uses to create an initial database copy or to re-create a
Answer
database copy if the current copy cannot be updated through log replay
3
 Takes care of client connections. This network is also used for database seeding. Answer
4
  Checks for a server hosting a copy of the affected database that has monitoring
Answer
components in a state that's the same as the current server hosting the affected copy.
5
 A new system management component that uses information to understand what
database copy is currently active on what server and what available passive copies Answer
exist. 6

 Owns the cluster quorum resource for the default cluster group that underpins the
Answer
DAG.
7
 Checks for a server hosting a copy of the affected database that has all monitoring
Answer
components in a healthy state.
8
 Determines which database copies are currently active and those that are passive Answer
9
 Used for database seeding and transaction log replication Answer
10

A backup storage that is immediately accessible, such as a disk array connected to the backup server.

Online
Answer:

A complete copy of the data being backed up. In the context of Exchange Server 2010 this also truncates
the transaction logs for databases.

Full Backup
Answer:

VSS means?
 Volume Shadow Copy Services
Answer:

A backup application such as Backup Exec or Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager.

requester
Answer:

The ability for Exchange Server 2010 to mount databases that have been copied or restored from other
Mailbox servers.

Database Portability
Answer:

A Windows component that mediates access to a VSS copy.

provider
Answer:

It means that Exchange doesn’t overwrite messages that already exist in the target mailbox the process is
additive and nondestructive.

Merging
Answer:

Refers to the restoration of service as a priority.

Dial-tone
Answer:

An application-specific component that prepares data for backup.

w riter
Answer:

Supports the recovery of Exchange 2010 databases to the same location from which they were originally
backed up or to a different location.

Window s Server Backup

Answer:

RTO means?

Recovery Time Objective

Answer:

RPO means?

Recovery Point Objective

Answer:
Used in a dial-tone database recovery operation a database that is inaccessible due to a failure.

Recovery databases
Answer:

A partial copy of the data being backed up.

Differential Backup
Answer:

Contains all of the changes to the data since the last Full backup.

Incremental Backup
Answer:

1.The official Microsoft stance is that you must use Internet Explorer 7 (or later) or Firefox 3.0 (or later)
on a supported operating system if you want to use the premium version of OWA with Exchange 2010.

blank 2.Designed to support many different browsers—from those that Microsoft doesn’t test to earlier
versions of those that they do test running on anything from Linux workstations to laptops. An
application-specific component that prepares data for backup .

blank 3.Exchange stores many configuration settings for OWA in the Active Directory directory service.

blank 4.This feature was introduced in Exchange 2007 and allows OWA users to access documents.

blank 5.Application that maintains another group of settings in an application configuration file.

blank 6.OWA displays an indicator at the top of the folder list to show how much storage quota is
available in the mailbox.

blank 7.These files are deemed to be innocuous and safe to open on the client computer.

blank 8.These files pose a significant risk to a computer when they are opened by a user because they
contain executable code.

blank 9.These are files that users cannot open directly and must save to disk before they can access the
content.

blank 10.The policy states what should be done if an unknown file type is detected.

blank 11.It means that users cannot open or download an attachment of this type to their PC, normally
because the file type is likely to contain a virus or some other dangerous content.

blank 12.It means the opposite, as there is a high degree of confidence that these attachments are safe.

blank 13.A featue of policy mailbox that enable to create or modify signatures and apply them to
outgoing messages.
blank 14.A value that called SignatureMaxLength in the system registry.

blank 15.A setting called maxrequestlength in web.config.xml.

Choose the correct answer

 These protocols continually connect and disconnect to fetch and send messages, so
Answer
they do not require affinity to function.
1
 An adaptation of a regular Exchange 2003 server that contains all of the code of a
regular server. Answer 2

 Queries free and busy information for clients to use when scheduling meetings.
Answer 3
 Web application that provides a browser interface to Exchange administration options.
Answer 4
 Access to Exchange mailbox data for any mobile device that licenses the Exchange
ActiveSync protocol. Answer 5

 Web application that provides a browser-based client for Exchange mailbox and
calendar functionality. Answer 6

 Handles client requests for directory information.

Answer 7
 A load balancer uses affinity to track client connections to each server.
Answer 8
  A load balancer randomly selects a server and sends the client connection to it.
Answer 9
 This service makes a one-time request to discover connectivity details for a mailbox
Answer
and therefore does not depend on affinity.
10

A snapshot of the Global Address List (GAL) that Outlook clients can download from Exchange to
provide a local directory source for address validation and lookup.

Offline Address Book

Answer:

The information presented here includes the names of the servers that host the source and target databases
and the versions of Exchange that run on these servers.

Details
Answer:

Perform automated processing on different aspects of the data held in mailboxes.

Mailbox assistants
Answer:

Scans attendee calendars for suitable meeting slots and suggests them to meeting organizers.

Scheduling Assistant
Answer:

Service that is responsible for processing move, import, and export requests.

Mailbox Replication Services

Answer:
Information about the move request.

General
Answer:

Checks mailboxes for incoming meeting requests and processes the requests according to mailbox
settings.

Calender Assistants
Answer:

MRS maintains a complete log of all of the processing that it performs to move a mailbox to a new
database.

Log
Answer:

The ability to move mailboxes between databases is a fundamental operational procedure for Exchange.

Moving mailboxes
Answer:

Enforces changes on personal sharing relationships to ensure that they are synchronized with
organization policies.

Sharing Policy
Answer:

1. A Hub transport servers process every message sent inside an Exchange organization before the
messages are delivered to mailboxes or routed outside the organization.

blank 2. Performs all address resolution for recipients by checking the addresses for internal recipients in
message headers against a global catalog server.

blank 3. When a hub transport server determines that a message is to be delivered to an Exchange
mailbox.

blank 4. The only Exchange servers that can be configured with anti-spam agents to filter and cleanse the
messaging stream before messages are routed to recipients.

blank 5. Has a facility called the transport dumpster that is used to recover messages that are in transit
when a server outage occurs so that they can be redelivered to the mailbox server.

blank 6. Provide a single point of contact for Exchange to be able to apply transport and journal rules to
messages as they flow through the organization.

blank 7. Contains details of servers, databases, and connectors within the organization and is used by the
transport system to determine the best routing for messages.
 blank 8. A connector that send SMTP messages between hub transport servers and outside the
organization.

blank 9. A receive connector that is linked to a send connector in such a way that any message that
comes in through the receive connector is immediately transmitted through the send connector.

blank 10. The mechanism that Exchange 2010 uses to manage peaks in incoming message traffic.

blank 11. Designed to process extremely large volumes of messages.

blank 12. Messages that the transport system is currently processing are held in in-memory queues.

blank 13. Used to resubmit exported Exchange messages and to receive messages from foreign gateway
servers.

blank 14. Generated when a user requests a delivery receipt for a message that passes out of the
Exchange organization to a remote SMTP server.

blank 15. Generated by a hub transport server when queued messages exceed the threshold set for the
generation of delay notifications.

Examines the IP addresses presented by remote SMTP servers that initiate SMTP sessions with Exchange
to decide whether to accept the message that the remote server wishes to send.

Connection Filtering
Answer:

This agent executes last in the anti-spam cycle.

 Content filtering
Answer:

A client-side spam suppression is an important part of the overall defense mechanism against spam.

Client defense
Answer:

Designed to work together to process an inbound email stream using a variety of techniques that
cumulatively have a very high chance of detecting spam and, conversely, not generating many false
positives.

anti-spam agents
Answer:

Works on the RCPT TO: field in inbound messages to extract and examine recipient addresses.

Recipient filtering
Answer:

A peculiar beast that lives in a world of half-complete Active Directory and half-complete Exchange
attached by an umbilical cord to its host Exchange organization.

Edge servers
Answer:

Refers to the process by which a stream of messages is cleansed by removing spam, viruses, and other
suspicious content.

Message Hygiene
Answer:

To verify the identity of the SMTP server that wants to communicate with Exchange.

Wrong answ ers: Backscattering and Sender Reputation

Answer:

Connection filters protect by blocking IP addresses used by well-known spammers.

Sender filtering
Answer:

The process that connects an Edge server with Active Directory so that hub transport servers in the site
connected to the Edge server can replicate Active Directory information about the organization’s
messaging configuration to it.

Edge synchronization
Answer:
Choose the correct answer

1. The idea of blank is to provide a method for users to retain messages and attachments that are
required business records.
2. blank are performed through ECP by users who hold the Discovery Management role.
3. blank is the ability to annotate search results is a new feature in Exchange 2010 SP1.
4. The ability to change many settings or create many new objects that influence the way Exchange
operates. blank
5. These are operations such as mailbox moves, mailbox imports from PST, and mailbox discovery
searches that are performed by administrators and affect mailbox contents in some way, if only to
open folders. blank
6. blank is an attempt to allow users to apply business-specific labels to messages.
7. The internal name of the message classification that identifies the object to Exchange. blank
8. blank is the name of the message classification that is visible to Outlook 2007 and Outlook 2010
and Outlook Web App clients when they select a classification to apply to a message.
9. The blank text describes the purpose of the message classification displayed by clients after a
user adds the classification to a message.
10. A blank parameter indicates that the message classification is for a particular language.
11. The blank specifies whether the message classification persists with the message if it is
forwarded or replied to.
12. A parameter that Outlook and Outlook Web App only allow users to select a single message
classification for a message but a transport rule can apply another classification. blank
13. A message classifications that are useful to a point. blank
14. blank relies on templates that describe different sensitivity levels for content and the actions that
users can take when they receive protected contents.
15. An Exchange 2010 administrator can create rules that are pushed out to Outlook 2010 clients,
which then use the rules to automatically apply AD RMS templates to protect content as users
create and send messages.
 Registering for events that fire when messages are submitted and routed allows the
journal agent to detect whether any new addressee has been added during message Answer
processing. 1

 A data captured journal report that listed as a To:, CC:, BCC:, or “Recipient” together
Answer
with the SMTP address.
2
 Available when you hold enterprise Client Access Licenses (CALs) and provides more
granular control, because it allows you to implement journal rules to establish exact Answer
conditions for journaling. 3

 Allow administrators to set conditions for the journaling agent to use when it checks
Answer
for messages flowing to and from specific users or groups of users.
4
 A journal option that configured on a per-mailbox database basis. When configured,
Answer
the journaling agent captures all messages sent to and from mailboxes in a database.
5
 To reduce the number of calls Exchange must make to Active Directory to resolve
Answer
members of distribution groups that are specified in transport rules.
6
 An identifier created by Exchange when the message is first submitted to the transport
Answer
service.
7
 Allow administrators to create conditional processing for messages as they pass
Answer
through the transport service.
8
 This kind of journaling is known as message-only journaling. Answer
9
 A priority provides the obvious framework for rule execution. Answer
10
1. Provides administrators with convenient access to a set of utilities that they can use to analyze,
manage, and understand different components of an Exchange organization.

blank 2. This is the largest organizations assign employees to cost centers or similar accounting
structures.

blank 3. It is depending on the culture of the organization, you might want to display information about a
user’s employment status (permanent, part-time, contractor, or in this case, executive) to other users.

blank 4. A control type used for on–off or yes–no fields such as flags indicating that an object has a
particular status.

blank 5. A control type that Displays only one value for an attribute.

blank 6. Displays data for a list of attributes that come from different objects.

blank 7. Displays data for an attribute that can have multiple values.

blank 8. Holds a language-dependent text string and typically appears alongside another control that
holds data.

blank 9. Specifies a group of fields that Outlook draws a line around when it displays the template.

blank 10. The ability to track messages by reference to logs that contain details of the path that messages
take through different components of Exchange.

blank 11. The IP address of the server or client that submitted the message.

blank 12. The name of the server or client that submitted the message.

blank 13. The IP address of the Exchange server that processes the message.

blank 14. The name of the Exchange server that processes the message.

blank 15. The transport component that generated the event.

blank 16. A constant identifier that remains with a message throughout its life cycle and is carried in the
header of the message.

blank 17. A list of recipients for the message separated by semicolons.

blank 18. The size of the message in bytes including all attachments.

blank 19. If configured on the server, this field captures the message subject.

blank 20. The return address for the message based on the MAIL FROM: field in the message envelope.
An organization that has all user mailboxes hosted in Exchange Online.

Cloud-only deployment
Answer:

Migrate on-premises Exchange mailboxes to Exchange Online in an Exchange hybrid deployment.

Remote move migration

Answer:

Perform a staged migration to migrate mailboxes from Exchange Server 2003 or Exchange Server 2007 with
web-based migration tools and minimal changes to on-premises infrastructure.

Staged Exchange migration

Answer:

Migrate mailbox data from IMAP-based email systems to Exchange Online.

IMAP Migration
Answer:

A migration that requires administrators to use the Online Services Directory Synchronization tool.

Staged Exchange migration

Answer:
Provides several tools to help migrate an existing email environment to Exchange Online.

Migration Tools
Answer:

It streamlines the hybrid deployment process by simplifying the on-premises and Exchange Online
configuration of features and services.

Hybrid Configuration Wizard

Answer:

An organization that has some user mailboxes hosted in an on-premises Exchange organization and some
user mailboxes hosted in Exchange Online.

Exchange hybrid deployment

Answer:

Administrators can use this to manage mailbox migration to Exchange Online in a cutover or staged
Exchange migration.

Migration dashboard
Answer:

Migrate mailboxes from Exchange Server 2003, Exchange Server 2007, Exchange Server 2010, Exchange
2013 and Hosted Exchange systems to Exchange Online.

Cutover Exchange migration

Answer: