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JEE Main Online test_09-01-19_Morning
Physics
Single Choice Questions :
1. A convex lens is put 10 cm from a light source and it makes a sharp image on a screen, kept 10 cm from the
lens. Now a glass block (refractive index 1.5) of 1.5 cm thickness is placed in contact with the light source.
To get the sharp image again, the screen is shifted by a distance d. Then d is
(1) 0 (2) 0.55 cm away from the lens
(3) 1.1 cm away from the lens (4) 0.55 cm towards the lens
Ans. (2)
æ 1ö 1 æ 1ö 1
Sol. Dt = ç 1 - ÷ .t - - =
è mø 10 çè 10 ÷ø f
æ 2ö
= ç 1 - ÷ ´ 1.5 f = 5 cm
è 3ø
1
= ´ 1.5 = 0.5
3
1 æ 1 ö 1
- - =
v çè 9.5 ÷ø 5
1 1 1 æ 47 .5 ö 5
= - ; shift = ç ÷ – 10 = cm = 0.55 away from the lens
v 5 9.5 è 4.5 ø 9
2. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on a rought inclined plane as shown in the figure. A force of 3N is applied on
the block. The coefficient of static fraction between the plane and the block is 0.6. What should be the
minimum value of force P, such that the block doesnot move downward? (take g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 18 N (2) 25 N (3) 32 N (4) 23 N

Ans. (3)
Sol.
1 1
P + 0.6 ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ = 3 + 10 ´ 10 ´
2 2
P = 32 N
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3. Three blocks A, B and C are lying on a smooth horizontal surface, as shown in the figure. A and B have equal
masses, m while C has mass M. Block A is given an inital speed v towards B due to which it collides with B
5
perfectly inelastically. The combined mass collides with C, also perfectly inelastically th of the initial
6
kinetic-energy is lost in whole process. What is value of M/m?
(1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Ans. (4)
Sol. By momentum conservation,
mv = (2m + M)u
mv
u=
2m + M
1
(kE)f = (kE)i
6
2
1 æ mv ö 1 1 2
(2m + M) ç ÷ = 6 ´ 2 mv
2 è 2m + M ø
m2 1
= m
2m + M 6
6m = 2m + M
4m = M
M
=4
m
4. When the switch S, in the circuit shown, is closed, then the value of current i will be
(1) 5A (2) 3A (3) 4A (4) 2A

Ans. (1)
Sol. i1 + i2 = i
20 - V 10 - V V - 0
+ =
2 4 2
40 – 2V + 10 – V = 2V
5V = 50
V = 10
10
i= = 5A
2
5. Mobility of electrons in a semiconductor is defined as the ratio of their drift velocity to the applied electric
field. If, for an n-type semiconductor, the density of electrons is 1019 m –3 and their mobility is 1.6 m2 / (V.s)
then the resistivity of the semiconductor (since it is an n-type semiconductor contribution of holes is ignored)
is close to
(1) 0.2 Wm (2) 0.4 Wm (3) 4 Wm (4) 2 Wm
Ans. (2)
Sol. s = nem
1 1 1
r= = 19 -19
= ; 0.4 Wm
nem 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 ´ 1.6 2.56
6. Surface of certain metal is first illuminated with light of wavelength l1 = 350 nm and then, by light of wavelength
l2 = 540 nm. It is found that the maximum speed of the photo electrons in the two cases differ by a factor of
1240
2. The work function of the metal (in eV) is close to (Energy of photon = l(in nm ) eV )
(1) 1.8 (2) 2.5 (3) 1.4 (4) 5.6

Ans. (1)
1
Sol. mv 2 = E
2
2E1 2E 2
V1 = V2 =
m m
V1 E1 E
2= = Þ 1 =4
V2 E2 E2
1240e 1240e
E1 = -f E2 = -f
(350nm) (540nm)
æ 1240 e ö æ 1240e ö
ç - f÷ = 4ç ÷ - 4f
è 350nm ø è 540nm ø
1240 e é 4 1 ù
3f = -
nm ë 540 350 úû
ê
f = 1.8 eV
7. Consider a tank made of glass (refractive index 1.5) with a thick bottom. It is filled with a liquid of refractive
index m. A student finds that, irrespective of what the incidene angle i (see figure) is for a beam of light
entering the liquid, the light reflected from the liquid glass interface is never completely polarized. For this to
happen, the minimum value of m is
4 3
(1) (2)
3 5
5 5
(3) (4)
3 3
Ans. (2)
1
Sol. 1 × sin90º = msinq Þ sinq =
m
msinq = 1.5 sinr
1.5
mtanq = 1.5 Þ tanq = (Q r = q)
m
3 1
sinq = =
9 + 4m 2
m
3
9m2 = 9 + 4m2 Þ m =
5
8. An infinitely long current carrying wire and a small current carrying loop are in the plane of the paper as
shown. The radius of the loop is a and distance of its centre from the wire is d (d >> a). If the loop applies a
force F on the wire then
2 æ a2 ö
æaö
(1) F µ ç ÷ (2) F µ çç 3 ÷÷
è dø èd ø
æaö
(3) F µ ç ÷ (4) F = 0
è dø
Ans. (1)
Sol. Ring behave like a dipole
m0 I
F = M.
2p d2 + x 2
Total force = 2Fsinq
m0 I m x
= 2. 2 2
.
2p d + x d + x2
2
m0 Im x
=
p(d2 + x 2 )
m × 2x = M = Ipa2
æ Ip ö 2
x=ç ÷a
è 2M ø
m0 Im æ Ip ö 2
Total force = a
p(d2 + x 2 ) çè 2M ÷ø
d>>a Þ d>>x
2
æaö
Total force F µ ç ÷
è dø
9. Three charges +Q, q, +Q are placed respectively, at distance, 0, d/2 and d from the origin, on the x-axis. If
the net force experienced by +Q, placed at x = 0, is zero, then value of q is
Q Q Q Q
(1) – (2) + (3) – (4) +
2 2 4 4
Ans. (3)
Sol.
kQ2 kQq
+ =0
d2 (d / 2)2
q = – Q/4
10. A resistance is shown in the figure. Its value and tolerance are given respectively by
(1) 27 kW, 20% (2) 27 kW, 10% (3) 27 W, 5% (4) 270 W, 10%
Ans. (2)
Sol. Value of red = 2
value of violet = 7
multiplier of orange = 1K
Tolerance of silver = 10%
27kW, 10%
11. A rod, of length L at room temperature and uniform area of cross-section A, is made of a metal having
coefficient of linear expansion a/ºC. It is observed that an external compressive force F, is applied on each of
its ends, prevents any change in the length of the rod, when its temperature rises by DTK. Young's modulus,
Y, for this metal is
2F F F F
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A a DT 2AaDT Aa(DT – 273) Aa DT
Ans. (4)
Fl
Sol. Y=
ADl
Dl
= µ DT
l
F
Y=
A µ DT
12. Drift speed of electrons, when 1.5 A of current flows in a copper wire of cross-section 5 mm2, is v. If the
electron density in copper is 9 × 1028 / m 3 the value of u in mm/s is close to
(Take charge of electron to be = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
(1) 3 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.02 (4) 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. i = neAVd
i 1.5
Vd = =
neA 9 ´ 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 5 ´ 10 -6
28
Vd = 0.02 × 10–3
= 0.02 mm/sec
13. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass = 4u), and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic mass = 40u) is kept
é Vrms (helium ) ù
at 300 K in a container. The ratio of their rms speeds ê V (arg on) ú , is close to
ë rms û
(1) 2.24 (2) 0.32 (3) 0.45 (4) 3.16

Ans. (4)
3RT
Sol. Vrms =
M
Vrms He
MAr 40
= = = 10 = 3.16
Vrms Ar
MHe 4
14. A bar magnet is demagnetized by inserting it inside a solenoid of length 0.2 m, 100 turns, and carrying a
current of 5.2 A. The coercivity of the bar magnet is
(1) 520 A/m (2) 285 A/m (3) 2600 A/m (4) 1200 A/m
Ans. (3)
Sol. B = m0H
m0ni = m0 × H
100
´ 5.2 = H
0.2
H = 2600 A/m
15. Two masses m and m/2 are connected at the two ends of a massless rigid rod of length l. The rod is
suspended by a thin wire of torsional constant k at the centre of mass of the rod-mass system (see figure).
Because of torsional constant k, the restoring torque is t = kq for angular displacement q. If the rod is rotated
by q0 and released, the tension in it when it passes through its mean position will be
kq20 kq20
(1) (2)
2l l
2kq20 3kq 02
(3) (4)
l l
Ans. (2)
l
Sol. T = m w2
3
2 2
k æ l ö m æ 2l ö ml 2
W= I = mç ÷ + ç ÷ =
I è3ø 2è 3 ø 3
w = q0W
2
æ ö
ç k ÷ l
T = m ç q0 ÷ ×
ç m l2 ÷ 3
ç ÷
è 3 ø
kq20
T=
l
16. An L-shaped object, made of thisn rods of uniform mass density, is suspended with a string as shown in
figure. If AB = BC, and the angle made by AB with downward vertical is q, then
1
(1) tan q =
3
1
(2) tan q =
2
2
(3) tan q =
3
1
(4) tan q =
2 3
Ans. (1)
Sol. For equilibrium the torque about point O should be zero.
Torque about point, O.
a æa ö
mg sin q = mg ç cos q - asin q ÷
2 è2 ø
1
tan q =
3
17. A block of mass m, lying on a smooth horizontal surface, is attached to a spring (of negligible mass) of spring
constant k. The other end of the spring is fixed, as shown in the figure. The block is initally at rest in its
equilibrium position. If now the block is pulled with a constant force F, the maximum speed of the block is
pF F
(1) (2)
mk p mk
2F F
(3) (4)
mk mk
Ans. (4)
Sol. Maximum speed at equilibrium,
F = kx
x = F/k
by energy conservation,
W all = DkE
1 2 1
F.x – kx = mv2
2 2
2
F 1 éF ù 1
F. - k ê ú = mv 2
k 2 ëk û 2
F2 1
= mv 2
2k 2
F
V=
mk
18. A sample of radioactive material A, that has an activity of 10 mCi (1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 decays/2), has twice the
number of nuclei as another sample of a different radioactive material B which has an activity of 20 mCi. The
correct choices for half-lives of A and B would then be respectively
(1) 20 days and 10 days (2) 20 days and 5 days
(3) 5 days and 10 days (4) 10 days and 40 days
Ans. (2)
Sol. A = lN
lANA = 10
lBNB = 20
l A NA 1
=
lBNB 2
lA 1
×2 =
lB 2
lA 1
=
lB 4
(t1/2 )B 1 ( t1/ 2 ) A
= = 4 is only in (2) option
(t1/ 2 )A 4 ( t 1 / 2 )B
19. A gas can be taken from A to B via two different processes ACB and ADB. When path ACB is used 60 J of
heat flows into the system and 30 J of work is done by the system. If path ADB is used work done by the
system is 10 J. The heat Flow into the system in path ADB is
(1) 40 J (2) 20 J (3) 100 J (4) 80 J

Ans. (1)
Sol. for ACB, DQ = DU + DW
60 = DU + 30
DU = 30T
for ADB, DQ = DU + DW
DQ = 30 + 10 = 40J
20. For a uniformly charged ring of radius R, the electric field on its axis has the largest magnitude at a distance
h from its centre. The value of h is
R R
(1) (2) R (3) R 2 (4)
2 5
Ans. (1)
kQx
Sol. E=
(R + x 2 )3/ 2
2
dE
for maximum E, =0
dx
3
(R 2 + x 2 )3/ 2 kQ - kQx (R 2 + x 2 )1/2 .2x
2 =0
(R 2 + x 2 )3
(R2 + x2) – 3x2 = 0
R
x=
2
21. A particle is moving with a velocity u = K( y î + x ĵ ) , where K is a constant. The general equation for its path
is
(1) y = x2 + constant (2) xy = constant
(3) y2 = x2 + constant (4) y2 = x + constant
Ans. (3)
r
Sol. v = K(yiˆ + xj)
ˆ
dx
vx = Ky Þ = Ky .....(i)
dt
dy
vy = Kx Þ = Kx .....(ii)
dt
equation (i) / (ii)
dx y
=
dy x
ò ydy = ò xdx
y2 = x2 + constant
22. If the angular momentum of a planet of mass m, moving around the Sun in a circular orbit is L, about the
center of the Sun, its areal velocity is
4L 2L L L
(1) (2) (3) (4)
m m m 2m
Ans. (4)
1
Sol. Areal velocity = wR 2
2
L = mvR = mR2w (Q v = Rw)
wR 2 L
Areal velocity = =
2 2m
23. A current loop, having two circular arcs joined by two radial lines is shown in the figure. It carries a current of
10 A. The magnetic field at point O will be close to
(1) 1.5 × 10–5 T (2) 1.0 × 10–7 T (3) 1.5 × 10–7 T (4) 1.0 × 10–5 T
Ans. (4)
Sol. B at O due to PQ and RS is equal to zero.
BNet 0
= (B)QR + (B)SP
m0 (10) p/ 4 m 0 (10) p/4

= × - ×
2 ´ (3 ´ 10-2 ) 2p 2 ´ (5 ´ 10 -2 ) 2p
m0 ´ 10 é 1 1 ù
= -
2 ´ 10 -2 ´ 8 êë 3 5 úû
= 1.0 × 10–5 T
24. A conducting circular loop made of a thin wire, has area 3.5 × 10–3 m2 and resistance 10W. It is placed
perpendicualr to a time dependent magnetic field B(t) = (0.4 T) sin (50pt). The field is uniform in space. Then
the net charge flowing through the loop during t = 0 s and t = 10 ms is close to
(1) 140 mC (2) 6 mC (3) 7 mC (4) 210 mC
Ans. (1)
Sol. B(t) = (0.4T) sin(50pt)
A = 3.5 × 10–3 m2
R = 10W
dq
i=
dt
f = (3.5 × 10–3) (0.4T)×sin(50pt)
df
e= = 14 × 10–4 × 50p cos(50pt)
dt
e 14 ´ 10 -4
i= = ´ 50p cos(50 pt)
R 10
10 ms
14 ´ 10 -4
dq = ´ 50p ò cos(50pt)dt
10 0
10ms
é sin(50pt) ù
= 14 ´ 10 -5 ´ 50p ´ ê ú = 14 ´ 10-5 éë sin ëé50p ´ 10 -2 ûù - 0 ùû
ë 50p û0
q = 14 × 10–5 C = 140 mC
25. A plane electromagnetic wave of freqncy 50 mHz travels in free space along the positive x-direction. At a
particular point in space and time, E = 6.3 ĵ V / m . The correspoinding magnetic field B , at that point will be
(1) 18.9 × 10–8 k̂T (2) 2.1 × 10–8 k̂T (3) 6.3 × 10–8 k̂ T (4) 18.9 × 108 k̂T
Ans. (2)
Sol. f = 50MHz
E
=C
B
E 6.3
B= = = 2.1´ 10-8 T
C 3 ´ 10 8
26. Two coherent sources produce waves of different intensities which interfere. After interference, the ratio of the
maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is 16. The intensity of the waves are in the ratio
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 16 : 9 (4) 25 : 9
Ans. (4)
2
æ I1 + I2 ö 16
Sol. ç ÷ =
ç I - I ÷ 1
è 1 2 ø
I1 + I2
=4
I1 - I2
3 I1 = 5 I 2
I1 25
=
I2 9
27. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.5% longer. The percentage change in its electrical resistance if its
volume remains unchanged is
(1) 2.5% (2) 2.0% (3) 0.5% (4) 1.0%
Ans. (4)
Dl
Sol. = 0.5
l
V = lA
DV Dl DA
= + =0
V l A
DA
= -0.5
A
l
R=r
A
DR Dl DA
= -
R l A
DR
= 0.5 - ( -0.5) = 1
R
DR
% = 1%
R
28. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two square plates of side 'a', separated by a distance d(d << a). The
lower triangular portion is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K, as shown in the figure. Capacitance
of this capacitor is
Ke 0a 2 Ke 0 a 2
(1) ln K (2)
d 2d(K + 1)
1 Ke 0a 2 Ke 0 a 2
(3) (4) ln K
2 d d(K – 1)
Ans. (4)
Î0 adx k Î0 adx
×
(d - y) y k Î0 adx
dCeq = =
Sol. Î0 adx k Î0 adx kd + (1 - k)y
+
(d - y) y
a
k Î0 adx
Ceq = ò dCeq = ò kd + (1 - k)y)
0
k Î0 adx k Î0 a2 lnk
=ò =
d d(k - 1)
kd + (1 - k) x
a
29. A heavy ball of mass M is suspended from the ceiling of a car by a light string of mass m (m << M). When
the car is at rest, the speed of transverse waves in the string is 60 ms–1. When the car has acceleration a,
the wave-speed increases to 60.5 ms–1. The value of a, in terms of gravitational acceleration g, is closest to
g g g g
(1) (2) (3) (4)
20 5 30 10
Ans. (2)
T Mg
Sol. v= =
m m
when car has acceleration a,
T = M g2 + a 2
M( g2 + a2 )
V' =
m
2 2
æ V'ö g2 + a2 æ 60.5 ö
çV÷ = g
=ç ÷
è ø è 60 ø
1 a2 1
1+ 2
= 1+ by using binomial approximation
2g 60
g g
Þ a= . Closest answer so option (2) is correct.
5 5
30. Temperature difference of 120ºC is maintained betwee two ends of a uniform rod AB of length 2L. Another
3L
bent rod PQ, of same cross-section as AB and length , is connected across AB (see figure). In steady
2
state, temperature difference between P and Q will be close to
(1) 60 ºC (2) 45 ºC (3) 35 ºC (4) 75 ºC

Ans. (2)
T1 - T2
Sol. I=
8R / 5
3R
3
TA - TB = 5 ´ T1 - T2 = ´ 120 = 45º C
8R 8
5
Chemistry
1. A solution of sodium sulfate contains 92 g of Na+ ions per kilogram of water. The molality of Na+ ions in that
solution in mol kg–1 is
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 16 (4) 12
Ans. (2)
92
Sol. nNa + = =4
23
So, molality = 4
2. The isotopes of hydrogen are

(1) Protium, deuterium and tritium (2) Tritium and protium only
(3) Protium and deuterium only (4) Deuterium and tritium only
Ans. (1)
Sol. Isotopes of Hydrogen is : Protium, Deuterium, Tritium.
æ 1 ö
3. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from ni = 8 to nf = n, the plot of wave number (n ) against ç 2 ÷ will be
èn ø
(The Rydberg constant, RH is in wave number unit)

(1) Linear with intercept – RH (2) Linear with slope RH
(3) Linear with slope – RH (4) Non linear
Ans. (2)
1 æ 1 1ö
Sol. = n = R Hz 2 ç 2 – 2 ÷
l ç ÷
è n1 n2 ø
æ 1 1 ö
n = RH ´ ç 2 – 2 ÷
çn ÷
è 1 8 ø
1 RH
n = RH ´ 2
–
n 64
m = RH
Linear with slope RH.
4. The correct decreasing order for acid strength is

(1) NO2CH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
(2) CNCH2COOH > O2NCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
(3) NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
(4) FCH2COOH > NCCH2COOH > NO2CH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
Ans. (1)
Sol. More the –I effect more will be the stability of conjugate base, thus more will be the basicity.
5. Two complexes [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3(A) and [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3(B) are violet and yellow coloured, respectively. The incorrect
statement regarding them is
(1) D0 value for (A) is less than that of (B).
(2) D0 values of (A) and (B) are calculated from the energies of violet and yellow light, respectively.
(3) Both are paramagnetic with three unpaired electrons.
(4) Both absorb energies correspoinding to their complementary colors.
Ans. (2)
Sol. D0 values of (A) and (B) are calculated from the energies absorbed by the complexes.
NH3 ligand gives larger splitting than H2O.
So in B complex, absorbed energy is more as D0 is more as NH3 is a stronger ligand than H2O.
– [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 complex absorb yellow colour and reflect complementary violet colour.
– [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 complex absorb violet colour and reflect complementary yellow colour.
So option (2)
6. The increasing order of pKa of the following amino acids in aqueous solution is : Gly Asp Lys Arg
(1) Arg < Lys < Gly < Asp (2) Gly < Asp < Arg < Lys
(3) Asp < Gly < Lys < Arg (4) Asp < Gly < Arg < Lys
Ans. (3)
Sol.
7. The ore that contains both iron and copper is

(1) Malachite (2) Azurite (3) Dolomite (4) Copper pyrites
Ans. (4)
Sol. Copper pyrites ® CuFeS2
Malachite : Cu(OH)2 . CuCO3
Dolomite : CaCO3 . MgCO3
Azurite : Cu(OH)2 . 2CuCO3
8. Aluminium is usually found in +3 oxidation state. In contrast, thallium exists in +1 and +3 oxidation states.
This is due to
(1) Diagonal relationship (2) Inert pair effect
(3) Lanthanoid contraction (4) Lattice effect
Ans. (2)
Sol. Down the group in Boron family members due to inert pair effect relative stability of +1 oxidation state
increases w.r.t. +3 oxidation state.
9. Consider the reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas in a closed system at two different temperatures
T1 and T2 (T1 < T2). The correct graphical depiction of the dependence of work done (w) on the final volume (V)
is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
v2
Sol. w = –nRT ln v
1
v2
|w| = nRT ln v
1
|w| = nRT ln v2 – nRT lnv1

y = mx – C
Slope of curve 2 is more than curve 1 and inter cept of curve 2 is more negative then curve 1.
10. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
11. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. In the given plot, x is the mass of the gas
adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent at pressure p. x/m is proportional to
(1) p2 (2) p1/2 (3) p1/4 (4) p

Ans. (2)
x
Sol. = K ´ P1 / n
m
x 1
log = log K + log P
m n
1 2 1
m= = = Þn=2
n 4 2
x
So, = K ´ P1 / 2
m
12. The alkaline earth metal nitrate that does not crystallise with water molecules, is
(1) Ba(NO3)2 (2) Ca(NO3)2 (3) Mg(NO3)2 (4) Sr(NO3)2
Ans. (1)
Sol. Down the group with increase size of metal ion value of f decreases thus tendency to attract water molecules
decreases.
13. Which amongst the following is the strongest acid?

(1) CHBr3 (2) CHCl3 (3) CHI3 (4) CH(CN)3
Ans. (4)
Sol. More the –I effect more stable will be the conjugate base so more strong will be acid.
(1) AIH(i -Bu )2

14. The major product of following reaction is : R – C º N ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾ ®?
( 2 ) H2 O
(1) RCHO (2) RCOOH (3) RCONH2 (4) RCH2NH2

Ans. (1)
Sol. R–CHO : AIH(i-Bu)2 will reduce the nitrile to aldehyde.
15. Correct statements among a to d regarding silicones are :

(a) They are polymers with hydrophobic character.
(b) They are biocompatible
(c) In general, they have high thermal stability and low dielectric strength
(d) Usually, they are resistant to oxidation and used as greases
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
Ans. (4)
Sol. Based on physical and chemical properties of silicones.
16. The following results were obtained during kinetic studies of the reaction :
2A + B ® Products
[A] [B] Initial Rate of reaction

Experiment
(in mol L–1 ) (in mol L–1 ) (in mol L–1 min –1 )
I 0.10 0.20 6.93 ´ 10 – 3
II 0.10 0.25 6.93 ´ 10 – 3
III 0.20 0.30 1.386 ´ 10 – 2
The time (in minutes) required to consume half of A is

(1) 10 (2) 1 (3) 100 (4) 5
Ans. (1)
Sol. 6.93 × 10–3 = K × (0.1)x (0.2)y
6.93 × 10–3 = K × (0.1)x (0.25)y
So, y=0
and 1.386 × 10–2 = K × (0.2)x (0.3)y
x
1 æ 1ö
= ç ÷ Þ x =1
2 è2ø
So, r = K × (0.1) × (0.2)0 = 6.93 × 10–3

K = 6.93 × 10–2
0.693 0.693
t 1/ 2 = = = 10
K 0.693 ´ 10 –1
17. The highest value of the calculated spin only magnetic moment (in BM) among all the transition metal
complexes is
(1) 4.90 (2) 6.93 (3) 5.92 (4) 3.87
Ans. (3)
Sol. m = n(n + 2) B.M.
n = Number of unpaired e–.

n = 5 ® (Max. no. of unpaired e– in transition metal)
18. The major product of the following reaction is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
19. A water sample has ppm level concentration of the following metals : Fe = 0.2, Mn = 5.0, Cu = 3.0, Zn = 5.0.
The metal that makes the water sample unsuitable for drinking is
(1) Mn (2) Fe (3) Zn (4) Cu
Ans. (1)
Sol. Mn ® 0.05 ppm is safe for drinking water.
20. The compounds A and B in the following reaction are, respectively :
(1) A = Benzyl alcohol, B = Benzyl cyanide (2) A = Benzyl alcohol, B = Benzyl isocyanide
(3) A = Benzyl chloride, B = Benzyl cyanide (4) A = Benzyl chloride, B = Benzyl isocyanide
Ans. (4)
Sol.
21. 20 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M NH4OH solution. The pH of the resultant mixture
is : [pKb of NH4OH = 4.7]
(1) 9.0 (2) 5.2 (3) 5.0 (4) 9.4
Ans. (1)
Sol. 20 ml 0.1 M H2SO4 Þ nH+ = 4 m mol
30 ml 0.2 M NH4OH Þ nNH4OH = 6 m mol
NH4OH + H+ NH4+ + H2O

6 4 0 0
2 0 4 4
[NH+4 ]
p OH = pK b + log
[NH4OH]
= 4.7 + log2
=5
pH = 14 – 5 = 9
22. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following is true with respect to Li2+ and Li2–?
(1) Li2+ is stable and Li2– is unstable (2) Li2+ is unstable and Li2– is stable
(3) Both are unstable (4) Both are stable
Ans. (4)
Sol. In MOT
Stability of molecules :
The molecule is stable if Nb (bonding electrons) is greater than Na(antibonding electrons).
Li2+ ® s1s2 . s*1s2 . s2s1.
Li2– ® s1s2 . s*1s2 . s2s2 . s*2s1.
So in both Li2+ and Li2–, bonding electrons are greater than antibonding electrons. So both are stable (4)
23. Arrange the following amines in the decreasing order of basicity
(1) III > II > I (2) III > I > II (3) I > II > III (4) I > III > II
Ans. (2)
Sol.
24. The one that is extensively used as a piezoelectric material is

(1) quartz (2) amorphous silica (3) mica (4) tridymite
Ans. (1)
25. In general, the properties that decrease and increase down a group in the periodic table, respectively, are
(1) electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity (2) electronegativity and atomic radius
(3) electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy (4) atomic radius and electronegativity
Ans. (2)
Sol. In general electronegativity decreases down the group and atomic radius increases down the group.
26. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is

Item-I (drug) Item-II (test)
A. Chloroxylenol P. Carbylamine test
B. Norethindrone Q. Sodium hydrogencarbonate test
C. Sulphapyridine R. Ferric chloride test
D. Penicillin S. Bayer's test
(1) A ® Q, B ® S, C ® P, D ® R (2) A ® Q, B ® P, C ® S, D ® R
(3) A ® R, B ® S, C ® P, D ® Q (4) A ® R, B ® P, C ® S, D ® Q
Ans. (3)
Sol. A. Chloroxylenol :
B. Norethindrone :
C. Sulphapyridine :
D. Penicillin :
27. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry's law is not correct?
(1) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in the
solution.
(2) The value of KH increases with increase of temperature and KH is function of the nature of the gas.
(3) Different gases have different KH (Henry's law constant)values at the same temperature.
(4) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids.
Ans. (4)
Sol. Pgas = KH × Xgas
More is KH less is solubility.
28. Major product of the following reaction is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
29. 0.5 moles of gas A and x moles of gas B exert a pressure of 200 Pa in a container of volume 10 m3 at 1000
K. Given R is the gas constant in JK–1 mol–1, x is
2R 4+R 2R 4 –R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 +R 2R 4–R 2R
Ans. (4)
Sol. nT = (0.5 + x)
PV = n × R × T
200 × 10 = (0.5 + x) × R × 1000
2 = (0.5 + x)R
2 1
= +x
R 2
4–R
=x
2R
30. The anodic half-cell of lead-acid battery is recharged using electricity of 0.05 Faraday. The amount of PbSO4
electrolyzed in g during the process is : (Molar mass of PbSO4 = 303 g mol–1)
(1) 22.8 (2) 11.4 (3) 7.6 (4) 15.2
Ans. (3)
Q
Sol. n eq =
F
0.05F
mole × 2 =
F
mole = 0.025
mass = 0.25 × 303 = 7.6 g
Maths
æ p pö
1. For any q Î ç , ÷ , the expression 3(sinq – cosq)4 + 6(sinq + cosq)2 + 4sin6q equals
è 4 2ø
(1) 13 – 4 cos6q (2) 13 – 4 cos2q + 6sin2qcos2q

(3) 13 – 4 cos2q + 6cos4q (4) 13 – 4 cos2q + 2sin2qcos2q
Ans. (1)
Sol. 3(sinq – cosq)4 + 6(sinq + cosq)2 + 4sin6q
3(1 – sin2q)2 + 6(1 + sin2q) + 4(1 – cos2q)3
3(1 – 2sin2q + sin2 2q) + 6(1 + sin2q) + 4(1 – 3cos2q + 3cos4q – 3cos6q) = (13 – 4cos6q)
2. If a, b and c be three distinct real numbers in G.P. and a + b + c = xb, then x cannot be
(1) –3 (2) –2 (3) 2 (4) 4
Ans. (3)
Sol. a + ar + ar2 = x(ar)
(a ¹ 0)
r2 + r + 1
x=
r
1
x=1+r+
r
1
r+ e(–¥, –2] È [2, ¥) Þ xe(–¥, 1] È [3, ¥)
r
3. 5 students of a class have an average height 150 cm and variance 18 cm 2. A new student, whose height is
156 cm, joined them. The variance (in cm2) of the height of these six students is
(1) 16 (2) 22 (3) 18 (4) 20
Ans. (4)
Sol. Let '5' students are x1, x2, x3, x4, x5
Given
åx i
= 150
5
Þ åx
i =1
i
= 750 .........(i)
2
åx i
- (x)2 = 18
5
2
åx i
- (150)2 = 18
5
2
åx i
= (22500 + 18) ´ 5
åx 2
i
= 112590
Height of new student = 156(Let x6)
Now x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 + x6 = 750 + 156
x1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 + x 5 + x 6 906
xnew = = = 151
6 6
New variance =
åx i
- (x)2 =
x12 + x 22 + x 23 + x 24 + x 25 + x 26
- (151)2 =
112590 + (156)2
- (151)2 = 20
6 6 6
2 403 k
4. If the fractional part of the number is , then k is equal to
15 15
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 14

Ans. (1)
ì 2403 ü 400 50
Sol. í ý = 8.2 = 8.16 = 8(1 + 15)
î 15 þ
Hence remainder is '8'
5. Let a and b be two roots of the equation x2 + 2x + 2 = 0, then a15 + b15 is equal to
(1) 256 (2) 512 (3) –256 (4) –512
Ans. (3)
Sol. Root are –1 + i and –1 – i
(a)15 + (b)15 = (–1 + i)15 + (–1 – i)15 = –256
30 15
6. Let a1, a2, ........., a30 be an A.P., S = å a i and T = åa
i=1
( 2i – 1) . If a5 = 27 and S – 2T = 75, then a10 is equal
i =1
to
(1) 47 (2) 52 (3) 57 (4) 42
Ans. (2)
Sol. S = a1 + a2 + a3 +.......+ a30
30
= [2a + 29d] = 15[2a + 29d]
2
T = a1 + a3 + a5 +......+ a29
15
= (2a + 28d) = 15(a + 14d)
2
a5 = 27
a + 4d = 27
S – 2T = 75
15(2a + 29d) – 2[15(a + 14d)] = 75
Þ d = 5 and a = 7
a10 = a + 9d
= 7 + 45 = 52
2 sin( x 2 – 1) – sin 2( x 2 – 1)
7. For x2 ¹ np + 1, n Î N (the set of natural numbrs), the integral ò x dx is equal to
2 sin(x 2 – 1) + sin 2( x 2 – 1)
(where c is a constant of integration)
1 1 æ x 2 – 1ö
(1) log e | sec( x 2 – 1) | + c (2) log e sec 2 ç ÷+c
2 2 ç 2 ÷
è ø
æ x 2 – 1ö 1
(3) log e sec ç
ç 2 ÷
÷ +c (4) log e sec 2 ( x 2 – 1) + c
è ø 2
Ans. (3)
1 - cos(x 2 - 1)
Sol. òx 1 + cos(x 2 - 1)
æ x2 - 1ö
sin ç ÷
x è 2 ø dx
ò æ x2 - 1ö
cos ç ÷
è 2 ø
æ x2 - 1ö x2 - 1
x.tan dx , put =t
ò ç
è 2 ø
÷ 2
2xdx = 2dt
ò tan t dt = lnsect + c
æ x2 - 1ö
= lnsec ç ÷+c
è 2 ø
p x2 y2
8. Let 0 < q < . If the eccentricity of the hyperbola – = 1 is greater than 2, then the length of its
2 cos 2 q sin2 q
latus rectum lies in the interval

(1) (3/2, 2] (2) (3, ¥) (3) (2, 3] (4) (1, 3/2]
Ans. (2)
x2 y2
Sol. - =1
cos2 q sin2 q
e > 2 (Given)
e2 > 4
1 + sin2 q
> 4 Þ tan2q > 3
cot 2 q
æp pö
qe ç , ÷
è3 2ø
sin2 q
Latus rectum = 2 × = 2 tan q × sin q
cos q
æp pö
For qe ç , ÷
è3 2ø
Latus rectum e(3, ¥)
dy æ 1ö
9. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation, x + 2 y = x 2 satisfying y(1) = 1, then yç ÷ is equal
dx è2ø
to
49 13 7 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16 16 64 4
Ans. (1)
æ dy ö
Sol. x ç ÷ + 2y = x 2
è dx ø
æ dy ö 2
ç dx ÷ + x (y) = x
è ø
I.F. = eò x
dx
= e2 l n x = x 2
Solution of the differential equation is
2
y×x2 = ò x × x dx + C
x4
yx 2 = +C
4
x2 C
y= +
4 x2
Given that y(1) = 1
1
1= +C
4
3
C=
4
x2 3
y(x) = +
4 4x 2
æ 1ö 1 3
yç ÷ = +
2
è ø 16 æ 1ö
4ç ÷
è 4ø
æ 1 ö 49
yç ÷ =
è 2 ø 16
1+ 1+ y4 – 2
10. lim
y®0 y4
1
(1) Does not exist (2) Exists and equals
2 2 ( 2 + 1)
1 1
(3) Exists and equals (4) Exists and equals
4 2 2 2
Ans. (3)
æ 1 + 1 + y 4 - 2 ö æ 1 + 1 + y4 + 2 ö
ç ÷ ç ÷
lim è ø´è ø
Sol. y ®0
y4 æ 1 + 1 + y4 + 2 ö
ç ÷
è ø
1 + y4 - 1 1 1 + y4 + 1
lim 4
´ ´
y®0
y æ 1 + 1 + y4 + 2 ö 1+ y4 + 1
ç ÷
è ø
1 1
lim
y ®0
´
æ 1+ 1+ y + 2 ö 4
1+ y4 + 1
ç ÷
è ø
1
4 2
11. Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Let X denote the
random variable of number of aces obtained in the two drawn cards. Then P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) equals
49 25 24 52
(1) (2) (3) (4)
169 169 169 169
Ans. (2)
4 48 24
Sol. P(X = 1) = ´ ´2 =
52 52 169
4 4 1
P(X = 2) = ´ =
52 52 169
25
P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) =
169
12. Consider a class of 5 girls and 7 boys. The number of different teams consisting of 2 girls and 3 boys that can
be formed from this class, if there are two specific boys A and B, who refuse to be the members of the same
team, is
(1) 350 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 500
Ans. (3)
Sol. Without restriction 7C3 × 5C2 = 350
If specific boys B1 and B2 are in same
team then
5C 5C
1× 2 = 50
Total ways = (350 – 50) = 300 ways.
p
3
13. ò
The value of | cos x | dx is
0
4 2 4
(1) – (2) 0 (3) (4)
3 3 3
Ans. (4)
p p
p 2 2
3 4
Sol. ò | cos x | dx = 2ò | cos x |3 dx = 2 ò (cos3 x)dx = (By Wallis formula)
0 0 0 3
14. The area (in sq. units) bounded by the parabola y = x2 – 1, the tangent at the point (2, 3) to it and the y-axis
is
56 32 8 14
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
Ans. (3)
y+3
Sol. Tangent at (2, 3) is = 2x – 1
2
y = 4x – 5
3 3
Area = ò x dy - ò x dy
-5 -`
3 3
æy+5ö 8
ò-5 çè 4 ÷ø - -ò1 y + 1 dy =
3
15. Let f : R ® R be a function defined as
ì 5, if x £1
ï
ï a + bx, if 1< x < 3
f(x) = í
ïb + 5 x, if 3 £ x < 5
ïî 30, if x³5
Then, ƒ is
(1) continuous if a = – 5 and b = 10 (2) continuous if a = 5 and b = 5
(3) not continuous for any values of a and b (4) continuous if a = 0 and b = 5
Ans. (3)
Sol. For continuity at x = 1
f(1) = lim f(1 + h) = lim f(1 - h)
h ®0 h®0
f(1) = 5
lim f(1 + h) = a + b
h® 0
lim f(1 - h) = 5
h® 0
a+b=5 ........(1)
For continuity at x = 3
f(3) = lim f(3 + h) = lim = f(3 - h)
h ®0 h®0
f(3) = b + 15
lim f(3 + h) = b + 15
h® 0
lim f(3 - h) = a + 3b
h® 0
b + 15 = a + 3b Þ a + 2b = 15 ......(2)
for continuous at x = 5
f(5) = lim f(5 + h) = lim f(5 - h)
h ®0 h®0
lim f(5 - h) = b + 25
h® 0
b + 25 = 30 Þ b = 5
from (1), (2) and (3)
a = 5, a = 0
Þ Hence f(x) is discontinous " a, b e R
16. The equation of the line passing through (–4, –3, –1), parallel to the plane x + 2y – z – 5 = 0 and intesecting
x +1 y – 3 z – 2
the line = = is
-3 2 –1
x + 4 y – 3 z –1 x + 4 y – 3 z –1
(1) = = (2) = =
–1 1 1 1 1 3
x – 4 y + 3 z +1 x + 4 y – 3 z –1
(3) = = (4) = =
2 1 4 3 -1 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. Let P.O.I. of line is (–3l – 1, 2l + 3, – l + 2)
Direction cosines of line is (–3l + 3, 2l , –l + 1). Since this line is parallel to x + 2y – z = 5
hence dot product is zero.
(–3l + 3)1 + 4l –1(– l + 1) = 0
l = –1
Hence direction cosines 6, –2, 2 are
x + 4 y - 3 z -1
= =
3 -1 1
æ 2 ö æ 3 ö pæ 3ö
17. If cos –1ç ÷ + cos –1ç ÷ = ç x > ÷ then x is equal to
3
è øx è 4 x ø 2 è 4ø
145 145 145 145

(1) (2) (3) (4)
10 2 11 12
Ans. (2)
æ 2 ö æ 3 ö p
Sol. cos-1 ç ÷ + cos-1 ç ÷ =
è 3x ø è 4x ø 2
é2 3 æ 4 ö 9 ù p
cos-1 ê ´ - ç1 - 2 ÷ 1 - ú=
êë 3x 4x è 9x ø 16x 2 úû 2
1 9x 2 - 4 16x 2 - 9
=
2x 2 12x 2
on squaring both sides

36 = 144x4 – 81x2 – 64x2 + 36
145x 2
x4 =
144
145
x=± ,0
12
3
x>
4
æ 145 ö
Hence çç x = ÷
è 2 ÷ø
18. Consider the set of all lines px + qy + r = 0 such that 3p + 2q + 4r = 0. Which one of the following statements
is true? The lines are concurrent at the point
æ 3 1ö
(1) ç , ÷ (2) The lines are all parallel
è 4 2ø
(3) The lines are not concurrent (4) Each line passes through the origin
Ans. (1)
Sol. 3p + 2q + 4r = 0 px + qy + r = 0 .....(i)
3 q
p+ +r = 0 .....(ii)
4 2
3 1
comparing (i) and (ii) x = ,y =
4 2
uur uur 2
19. Let a = î – ˆj, b = î + ˆj + kˆ and c be a vector such that a ´ c + b = 0 and a · c = 4 , then c is equal
to :
17 19
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) (4)
2 2
Ans. (4)
r r r r r
Sol. a ´ (a ´ c) + a ´ b = 0
r r r r r r r r
(a × c)a - (a × a)c + (a ´ b) = 0
r r r r
4a - 2c + a ´ b = 0
î ˆj kˆ
r r
a ´ b = 1 -1 0 = -î - ˆj + 2kˆ
1 1 1
r
2c = 4(i - ˆj) + ( -î - j + 2k)
ˆ
r
2c = 3iˆ - 5ˆj + 2kˆ
r
2 | c |= 38
r r 2 19
4 | c |= 38 | c | =
2
20. The maximum volume (in cu.m) of the right circular cone having slant height 3m is
4
(1) 6p (2) 2 3 p (3) 3 3 p (4) p
3
Ans. (2)
1 2 2
Sol. u= pr h, r + h2 = 9
3
1
u= ph[9 - h2 ]
3
du
= 0, 9 - 3h2 = 0 h2 = 3
dh
h= 3
1
u= p(6)( 3) = 2 3p
3
ì æ p ö 3 + 2isin q ü
21. Let A = íq Î ç – , p ÷ : is purely imaginary ý . Then the sum of the elements in A is
î è 2 ø 1– 2isin q þ
2p 5p 3p
(1) (2) (3) p (4)
3 6 4
Ans. (1)
3 + 2isin q æ -p ö
Sol. Let z = , qe ç , p ÷
1 - 2isin q è 2 ø
For z to be purely imaginary z + z = 0
3 + 2i sin q 3 - 2i sin q
+ =0
1 - 2i sin q 1 + 2isin q
3
3 - 4 sin2 q = 0 Þ sin2 q =
4
p
q = np ±
3
p
given qe æç - , p ö÷
è 2 ø
p p 2p
Hence q = - , ,
3 3 3
2p
sum of all possible values of 'q' =
3
22. Equation of a common tangent to the circle, x2 + y2 – 6x = 0 and the parabola, y2 = 4x, is
(1) 2 3 y = 12 x + 1 (2) 2 3 y = – x – 12 (3) 3 y = 3x + 1 (4) 3y = x + 3

Ans. (4)
1
Sol. Tangent to y2 = 4x is y = mx +
m
its distance from (3, 0) is equal to '3'
1
3m +
m =3
1 + m2
1
m=±
3
x æ x ö
Hence common tangent y = + 3 or y = - ç + 3÷
3 è 3 ø
23. The system of linear equations
x+y+z=2
2x + 3y + 2z = 5
2x + 3y + (a2 – 1)z = a + 1
(1) is inconsistent when a = 4 (2) has infinitely many solutions for a = 4
(3) has a unique solution for | a | = 3 (4) is inconsistent when | a | = 3
Ans. (4)
1 1 1
Sol. D= 2 3 2
2
2 3 a -1
C2 ® C2 – C1 and C3 ® C3 – C1
1 1 0
D= 2 1 0 = (a2 - 3)
2 1 a2 - 3
since if a2 ¹ 3 then only it will have unique solution. So at a = 4 unique solution exist.
24. If q denotes the acute angle between the curves, y = 10 – x2 and y = 2 + x2 at a point of their intersection,
then |tan q| is equal to
7 8 4 8
(1) (2) (3) (4)
17 15 9 17
Ans. (2)
Sol. y = x2 + 2, y = 10 – x2
P.O.I. = (±2, 6)
æ dy ö æ dy ö
ç dx ÷ = 2x and ç dx ÷ = -2x
è ø1 è ø2
m2 - m1
tan q =
1 + m1m2
4 - ( -4) 8
tan q = =
1 + 4( -4) 15
25. Three circles of radii a, b, c (a < b < c) touch each other externally. If they have x-axis as a common tangent,
then
1 1 1
(1) a, b, c are in A.P. (2) = +
b a c
1 1 1
(3) = + (4) a , b , c are in A.P..
a b c
Ans. (3)
Sol. (a + b)2 + (a - b)2 + (a + c)2 - (a - c)2 = (b + c)2 - (b - c)2
ab + ac = bc
1 1 1
+ =
c b a
26. If the Booolean expression (p Å q) Ù (~p e q) is equivalent to p Ù q, where Å, e Î {Ù, Ú}, then the ordered
pair (Å , e) is
(1) (Ù, Ù) (2) (Ú, Ù) (3) (Ù, Ú) (4) (Ú, Ú)
Ans. (3)
Sol. check for option
(i) (A Ù B) Ù (~A Ù B) º A Ù B (Ù (~A Ù B))
º A Ù (B) º A Ù B
(ii) (A Ù B) Ù (~A Ù B) º (A Ù ~H) Ù B
ºfÙBºf
(iii) (A Ù B) Ù (~A Ú B) º B
(iv) (A Ú B) Ù (~A Ú B) º B Ú (A Ù ~A) = B Ù f º f
only (4) is correct.
1 1
27. For x Î R – {0, 1}, let f1(x) = , f2(x) = 1 – x and f3(x) = be three given functions. If a function, J(x)
x 1– x
satisfies (f2°J°f1) (x) = f3(x) then J(x) is equal to
1
(1) f2(x) (2) f1(x) (3) f (x) (4) f3(x)
x 3
Ans. (4)
Sol. f2 J0 f1(x) = f3 (x)
1 - J(f1 (x)) = f3 (x)
æ 1ö 1
1- J ç ÷ =
è x ø 1- x
æ 1ö 1 x
Jç ÷ = 1- =
èxø 1- x 1- x
1
-
1
J(x) = x =
1 1 - x Þ J(x) = f3(x)
1-
x
écos q – sin qù –50
p
28. If A = ê
sin q cos q ú , then the matrix A when q = 12 , is equal to
ë û
é 3 1 ù é 3 1ù é 1 3ù é 1 3ù
ê ú ê – ú ê ú ê – ú
2 2 ú 2 2ú 2 2 ú 2 2 ú
(1) ê (2) ê (3) ê (4) ê
ê 1 3ú ê 1 3ú ê 3 1 ú ê 3 1 ú
êë– 2 2 úû êë êë –
2 2 úû 2 2 úû êë 2 2 úû
Ans. (1)
écos q - sin q ù é cos q sin q ù

Sol. A=ê ú , adj A = ê ú
ë sin q cos q û ë - sin q cos q û
é cos q sin q ù é cos 2q sin 2q ù

A -1 = ê ú , (A -1 )2 = ê ú
ë - sin q cos q û ë - sin2q cos 2qû
écos( -50q ) - sin( -50q) ù

A -50 = ê ú
ë sin( -50q) cos(-50q) û
p
A–50 at q = is
12
é p pù é 3 1 ù
ê cos 6 sin 6 ú ê 2 ú
2 ú
ê ú=ê
ê - sin p cos p ú ê 1 3ú
-
êë 6 6 úû êë 2 ú
2 û
29. Axis of a parabola lies along x-axis. If its vertex and focus are at distances 2 and 4 respectively from the
origin, on the positive x-axis then which of the following points does not lie on it?
(1) (4, –4) (2) (6, 4 2 ) (3) (5, 2 6 ) (4) (8, 6)
Ans. (4)
Sol. (y – 0)2 = 4.2(x – 2)
y2 = 8(x – 2)
Now check all options (8, 6) does not satisfy.
30. The plane through the intersection of the planes x + y + z = 1 and 2x + 3y – z + 4 = 0 and parallel to y-axis
also passes through the point
(1) (–3, 1, 1) (2) (3, 3, –1) (3) (–3, 0, –1) (4) (3, 2, 1)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Equation is (x + y + z – 1) + l(2x + 3y – z + 4) = 0
(1 + 2l)x + (1 + 3l)y + (1 – l)z + 4l – 1 = 0
As it is parallel to y-axis.
JEE MAIN ONLINE TEST_09-01-19_EVENING
PHYSICS
1. The position co-ordinates of a particle moving in a 3-D coordinate system is given by

x = acoswt, y = asinwt and z = awt. The speed of the particle is :
(1) aw (2) 3 aw (3) 2 aw (4) 2aw
Ans. (3)
r
Sol. r = A cos wtiˆ + A sin wtjˆ + Awtkˆ
r
v = -Aw sin wtiˆ + Aw cos tjˆ + Awkˆ
r
| v |= wA ( - sin wt)2 + (cos wt)2 + (1)2 = 2wa
2. In the given circuit the internal resistance of the 18 V cell is negligible. If R1 = 400 W, R3 = 100 W and R4 = 500
W and the reading of an ideal voltmeter across R4 is 5 V, then the value of R2 will be :
(1) 300 W (2) 550 W (3) 450 W (4) 230 W

Ans. (1)
5 1
Sol. I1 = =
500 100
Þ V100 = 1V V = 1 + 5 = 6V
Þ V400 = 18 – 6 = 12V
12 3 3 1 2
I= = , I2 = - =
400 100 100 100 100
6 ´ 100
VR2 = 6V = I2R2 , R 2 = = 300W
2
3. In a communication system operating at wavelength 800 nm, only one percent of source frequency is available
as signal bandwidth. The number of channels accomodated for transmitting TV signals of bandwidth 6 MHz
are (Take velocity of light c = 3 × 108 m/s, h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s)
(1) 6.25 × 105 (2) 4.87 × 105 (3) 3.86 × 106 (4) 3.75 × 106
Ans. (1)
c 3 ´ 10 8
Sol. f= =
l 800 ´ 10 -9
1 3
signal bondwidth = ´ f = ´ 1013
100 8
3
´ 1013
No. of signal = 8 = 6.25 ´ 105
6 ´ 106
A -2r /a
4. Charge is distributed within a sphere of radius R with a volume charge density r(r) = e , where A and
r2
a are constants. If Q is the total charge of this charge distribution, the radius R is :
æ ö æ ö
ç 1 ÷ a ç 1 ÷ a æ Q ö æ Q ö
(1) alog ç ÷ (2) log ç ÷ (3) log ç 1 - ÷ (4) alog ç 1 - ÷
çç 1 - Q ÷÷ 2 çç 1 - Q ÷÷ 2 è 2paA ø è 2paA ø
è 2paA ø è 2paA ø
Ans. (2)
Q R
2
Sol. ò dq = 4pò r dr r(r)
0 0
R
A -a2r
Q = ò 4 pr 2 e dr
0 r2
R
æ a ö é -2r ù
Q = -4pA ç ÷ êe a ú
è 2 øë û0
é -2R ù
Q = -2paA ê e a - 1ú
ë û
-2R
Q
= 1- e a
2paA
-2R
Q
e a
= 1-
2paA
é ù
-2R ê 1 ú
= ln ê ú
a ê1 - Q ú
êë 2paA úû
é ù
a ê 1 ú
R = ln ê ú
2 ê Q ú
1-
êë 2paA úû
5. Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode connection
are reversed, the value of V0 changes by : (assume that the Ge diode has large breakdown voltage)
(1) 0.8 V (2) 0.4 V (3) 0.2 V (4) 0.6 V

Ans. (2)
Sol. For case V0 = 12 – 0.3 = 11.7
In second case
V0 = 12 – 0.7 = 11.3
so difference = 0.4V
6. One of the two identical conducting wires of length L is bent in the form of a circular loop and the other one
into a circular coil of N identical turns. If the same current is passed in both, the ratio of the magnetic field at
BL
the central of the loop (BL) to that at the centre of the coil (BC), i.e. will be :
BC
1 1
(1) N2 (2) (3) (4) N
N N2
Ans. (3)
Sol. For circular loop L = 2pR1,
R1 = L/2p
m 0 I m0 I
BL = 2R = 2L ´ 2p
1
For a circular coil of N identical turns

L = N(2pR2)
R2 = L/2pN
Nm 0 I æm Iö
BC = = N ç 0 ÷ ´ 2pN
2R2 è 2L ø
BL m0 I(2p) 2L 1
= ´ =
BC 2L Nm 0 I ´ 2pN N2
7. In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are placed 0.320 mm apart. Light of wavelength l = 500 nm is
incident on the slits. The total number of bright fringes that are observed in the angular range –30° £ q £ 30°
is :
(1) 640 (2) 321 (3) 641 (4) 320
Ans. (3)
Sol. dsinq = nl
1
0.32 ´ 10 -3 ´
n= 2 = 2500
500 ´ 10 -9 8
nmax = 320
Total no. of maxima b/w two lines = 2 × 320 + 1 = 641
8. The energy associated with electric field is (UE) and with magnetic field is (UB) for an electromagnetic wave in
free space. Then :
UB
(1) UE = (2) UE > UB (3) UE < UB (4) UE = UB
2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Energy is equally distributed in electric field & magnetic field.
9. A particle having the same charge as of electron moves in a circular path of radius 0.5 cm under the influence
of a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If an electric field of 100 V/m makes it to move in a straight path, then the mass
of the particle is (Given charge of electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
(1) 2.0 × 10–24 kg (2) 1.6 × 10–19 kg (3) 9.1 × 10–31 kg (4) 1.6 × 10–27 kg
Ans. (1)
Sol. qE = qvB
mv
r=
qB
qB2 r
m=
E
1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 0.25 ´ 0.5 ´ 10 -2
m=
102
» 2 × 10–24 kg
10. A mass of 10 kg is suspended vertically by a rope from the roof. When a horizontal force is applied on the
rope at some point, the rope deviated at an angle of 45° at the roof point. If the suspended mass is at
equilibrium, the magnitude of the force applied is (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 70 N (2) 200 N (3) 140 N (4) 100 N
Ans. (4)
T
Sol. = 100N
2
T
=F
2
F = 100N
11. A force acts on a 2 kg object so that its position is given as a function of time as x = 3t2 + 5. What is the work
done by this force in first 5 seconds ?
(1) 900 J (2) 850 J (3) 950 J (4) 875 J
Ans. (1)
Sol. w.d = Dk.e
v = 6t
v2 = 30, v1 = 0
1
´ 2 ´ [30 ´ 30] = 900J
2
12. The pitch and the number of divisions, on the circular scale, for a given screw gauge are 0.5 mm and 100
respectively. When the screw gauge is fully tightened without any object, the zero of its circular scale lies 3
divisions below the mean line. The readings of the main scale and the circular scale, for a thin sheet, are 5.5
mm and 48 respectively, the thickness of this sheet is :
(1) 5.755 mm (2) 5.725 mm (3) 5.740 mm (4) 5.950 mm
Ans. (1)
Sol. Pitch = 0.5 mm
0.5
L.C. = mm
100
Actual value = 5.5. mm + (48 + 3) × 5 × 10–3
= 5.755 mm
13. In a car race on straight road, car A takes a time t less than car B at the finish and passes finishing point with
a speed 'v' more than that of car B. Both the cars start from rest and travel with constant acceleration a1 and
a2 respectively. Then 'v' is equal to :
a1 + a 2 2a1a2
(1) t (2) a + a t (3) a1a2 t (4) 2a1a2 t
2 1 2
Ans. (3)
1 2 1
S= a1 t 0 = a2 (t0 + t)2
2 2
Sol.
a1 - a 2 ´ 2s = v
é 1 1 ù
ê - ú ´ 2S = t
êë a 2 a1 úû
a1 a2 t
2S =
a1 - a2
v a1 a 2 t
=
a1 a 2 a1 - a 2
Þ a1a 2 t = v
14. A musician using an open flute of length 50 cm produces second harmonic sound waves. A person runs
towards the musician from another end of a hall at a speed of 10 km/h. If the wave speed is 330 m/s, the
frequency heard by the running person shall be close to :
(1) 500 Hz (2) 753 Hz (3) 333 Hz (4) 666 Hz
Ans. (4)
v 330
f= = = 660
Sol. L 1
2
v0 = 10 km/hr
25
=
9
é v + v0 ù
f' = fê ú
ë v û
é 330 + 25 ù
= 660 ê ú = 666H3
ë 330 û
RB
15. At a given instant, say t = 0, two radioactive substances A and B have equal activities. The ratio R of their
A
activities after time t itself decays with time t as e–3t. If the half-life of A is ln2, the half-life of B is :
ln2 ln2
(1) (2) 4ln2 (3) 2ln2 (4)
4 2
Ans. (1)
Sol. A = lN
Initially N = N0
AA = AB
lA N0A = lB N0B
ln2
T1/ 2 A =
lA
ln2
ln2 = l
A
lA = 1 at time t
AB l N e -lBt
= e -3 t = B 0B -l At
AA l A N0 A e
e-3t = e( l A -lA )t
–3 = lA – lB
lB = 1 + 3 = 4
ln2 ln2
T1/2 B = =
lB 4
16. A rod of length 50 cm is pivoted at one end. It is raised such that if makes an angle of 30° from the horizontal
as shown and released from rest. Its angular speed when it passes through the horizontal (in rad s–1) will be
(g = 10 ms–2)
20 30 30
(1) (2) (3) (4) 30
3 2 2
Ans. (4)
1 2 L
Sol. Iw = Mg
2 4
1 æ ML2 ö 2 æLö
ç ÷ w = Mg ç ÷
2è 3 ø è4ø
w = 30
17. A 15 g mass of nitrogen gas is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature 27°C. Amount of heat transferred to the
gas, so that rms velocity of molecules is doubled, is about : [Take R = 8.3 J/K mole]
(1) 0.9 kJ (2) 14 kJ (3) 6 kJ (4) 10 kJ
Ans. (4)
3RT
Sol. Vrms = Vrms µ T
M
To double Vrms temp must be 4 times of initial temp.

T2 = 4 × 300 = 1200 K
15 5
heat added = nCvdT = ´ ´ 8.314 ´ (1200 - 300) = 10021.31 J
28 2
18. A rod of mass 'M' and length '2L' is suspended at its middle by a wire. It exhibits torsional oscillations. If two
masses each of 'm' are attached at distance 'L/2' from its centre on both sides, it reduces the oscillation
frequency by 20%. The value of ratio m/M is close to :
(1) 0.37 (2) 0.57 (3) 0.17 (4) 0.77
Ans. (1)
1 c
Sol. f0 =
2p I0
1 3c
f0 = .....(1)
2p ML2
ML2 2mL2
I' = +
3 4
1 c
f' = = 0.8 f0
2p æM mö .....(2)
L2 ç + ÷
è3 2ø
from Eq. (1) & (2)
m 9 3
= = = 0.375
M 24 8
19. A series AC circuit containing an inductor (20 mH), a capacitor (120 mF) and a resistor (60 W) is driven by an
AC source of 24 V/50 Hz. The energy dissipated in the circuit in 60 s is :
(1) 2.26 × 103 J (2) 3.39 × 103 J (3) 5.17 × 102 J (4) 5.65 × 102 J
Ans. (3)
Sol. w = 2pf = 100p
XL = wL = 6.28W
1 250
XC = = t = 60 sec = 3000 T
wC 3p
1
X = XC – XL = 20.25 T= = 0.02 sec
f
z = R 2 + X2
Irms = Vrms / z
Energy diss = Hrms2 × R × t = 5.17 × 102 J
20. The top of a water tank is open to air and its water level is maintained. It is giving out 0.74 m3 water per minute
through a circular opening of 2 cm radius in its wall. The depth of the centre of the opening from the level of
water in the tank is close to :
(1) 9.6 m (2) 4.8 m (3) 6.0 m (4) 2.9 m
Ans. (2)
Sol. Q = 0.74 m3/min
0.74 3
= m /sec = Av
v
60
Av = p × (0.02)2 × v
v = 9.81 m/sec
v2
h= = 4.8m
2g
21. A parallel plate capacitor with square plates is filled with four dielectrics of dielectric constants K1, K2, K3, K4
arranged as shown in the figure. The effective dielectric constant K will be :
(K 1 + K 4 )(K 2 + K 3 ) æ k 1k 2 k 3k 4 ö
(1) K = (2) K eq = çç k + k + k + k ÷÷
2(K1 + K 2 + K 3 + K 4 ) è 1 2 3 4 ø
(K1 + K 2 )(K 3 + K 4 ) (K 1 + K 3 )(K 2 + K 4 )

(3) K = (4) K =
K1 + K 2 + K 3 + K 4 K1 + K 2 + K 3 + K 4
Ans. (2)
L2
e0 e0L2 æ k1k 2 ö
CA = 2 Þ CA = ç ÷
Sol. d d d è k1 + k 2 ø
+
2k1 2k 2
L2
e0
2 e 0L2 æ k 3k 4 ö
CB = = ç ÷
d d d çk +k ÷
+ è 3 4 ø
2k 3 2k 4
Ceq = CA + CB
e 0L2 e 0L2 æ k 1k 2 k 3k 4 ö
K eq = ç ÷
d d çk +k + k +k ÷
è 1 2 3 4 ø
æ kk k k ö
K eq = çç 1 2 + 3 4 ÷
÷
è k1 + k 2 k 3 + k 4 ø
22. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion (SHM) of amplitude A, along the x-axis, about x = 0. When
its potential energy (PE) equals kinetic energy (KE), the position of the particle will be :
A A A
(1) (2) (3) (4) A
2 2 2 2
Ans. (1)
Sol. K.E. = P.E
1 1
K(A 2 - X2 ) = Kx 2
2 2
A
A2 – x2 = x2 x=±
2
23. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step down transformer with its primary windings
having 4000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the transformer. If the current in the primary of
the transformer is 5 A and its efficiency is 90%, the output current would be :
(1) 45 A (2) 25 A (3) 50 A (4) 35 A
Ans. (1)
e sis
Sol. h= ´ 100
ep ip
230 ´ is
90 = ´ 100
2300 ´ 5
is = 45 Amp.
24. Two point charges q1 10 mC and q2 (–25 mC) are placed on the x-axis at x = 1 m and x = 4 m respectively..
é ù
The electric field (in V/m) at a point y = 3 m on y-axis is, ê take 1 = 9 ´ 10 9 Nm2 C-2 ú
ë 4pe 0 û
(1) (63iˆ - 27ˆj) ´ 102 (2) (81iˆ - 81j)

ˆ ´ 102 (3) (-81iˆ + 81j)
ˆ ´ 10 2 (4) ( -63 î + 27 ˆj) ´ 102
Ans. (1)
Sol.
E.F. due to charge 10mC
r 9 ´ 109 ´ 10 ´ 10 -6 1 9 ´ 109 ´ 10 ´ 10 -6 3 ˆ
E1 = ´ ( - î ) + ´ j
10 10 10 10
r
E1 = 9 ´ 102 ( -î) + 27 ´ 102 ( ˆj)
r 9 ´ 109 ´ 25 ´ 10-6 4 ˆ 9 ´ 109 ´ 25 ´ 10 -6 3 ˆ é 36 27 ˆ ù

ˆ ˆ
E2 = Ecos q i - Esin q j = ´ i- ´ j = ê î - j ´ 10 3 N / C
25 5 25 5 ë5 5 úû
r
E2 = (72iˆ - 54ˆj) ´ 102 N / C
r
Enet = (63iˆ - 27ˆj) ´ 102 N / C
25. Expression for time in terms of G (universal gravitational constant), h (Planck constant) and c (speed of light)
is proportional to :
Gh c3 Gh hc 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
c3 Gh c5 G
Ans. (3)
Sol. [T] = [G]a [h]b [c]d
[T] = [M–1L3T–2]a [M'L2T–1] [L' T–1]d
[T] = [M–a + b L3a + 2b + d T–2a – b – d]
–a+b=0 ......(i)
3a + 2b + d = 0 .....(ii)
+ 2a + b + d = –1 .....(iii)
5a + d = 0, d = 5a, 3a + d = –1
1
3a – 5a = –1 Þ –2a = –1 Þ a =
2
1 5
b= ,d=-
2 2
[T] = éëG1/ 2h1/ 2 c -5 / 2 ùû
26. The energy required to take a satellite to a height 'h' above earth surface (radius of earth = 6.4 × 103 km) is
E1 and kinetic energy required for the satellite to be in a circular orbit at this height is E2. The value of h for
which E1 and E2 are equal, is :
(1) 1.6 × 103 km (2) 6.4 × 103 km (3) 1.28 × 104 km (4) 3.2 × 103 km
Ans. (4)
GMe
Sol. V0 =
Re + h
1 GMem
K.E = E 2 = mv 2 =
2 2[Re + h]
GmME GMem
E1 - =-
Re Re + h
since E1 = E2
GMem GMe m -GMem

- =
2(R e + h) Re (Re + h)
3GMem GMem
=
2(Re + h) Re
3Re = zRe + 2h
h = Re/2
27. The magnetic field associated with a light wave is given, at the origin, by
B = B0[sin(3.14 × 107)ct + sin(6.28 × 107)ct].
If this light falls on a silver plate having a work function of 4.7 eV, what will be the maximum kinetic energy of
the photo electrons ? (c = 3 × 108 ms–1, h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s)
(1) 6.82 eV (2) 8.52 eV (3) 12.5 eV (4) 7.72 eV
Ans. (4)
Sol. B = B0[sin(3.14 × 107 ct] + sin(6.28 × 107 ct]
w = 2p × 107 × 3 × 108 = 2pf
f = 3 × 1015 Hz
c
l= = 1000Å
f
12400
E= eV = 12.4eV
1000
Kmax = E – f = 12.4 – 4.7 = 7.7 eV
28. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The first one, A, receives heat at T1(= 600 K) and rejects
to a reservoir at temperature T2. The second engine B receives heat rejected by the first engine and, in turn,
rejects to a heat reservoir at T3(= 400 K). Calculate the temperature T2 if the work outputs of the two engines
are equal :
(1) 600 K (2) 400 K (3) 500 K (4) 300 K
Ans. (3)
Sol. W = Q1 – Q2
W = Q2 – Q3
Q1 – Q2 = Q2 – Q3
Q1 + Q3 = 2Q2
Q1 Q3
+ =2
Q 2 Q2
Q and W are respective heat and work done during the processes
T1 T3 T + T3
+ = 2 Þ T2 = 1 = 500K
T2 T2 2
29. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that a ray of light incident on the first mirror (M1) and parallel
to the second mirror (M2) is finally reflected from the second mirror (M2) parallel to the first mirror (M1). The
angle between the two mirrors will be :
(1) 90° (2) 75° (3) 45° (4) 60°
Ans. (4)
Sol. d1 + d2 = 360 – 2q = 180 + q
3q = 180 q = 60º
30. A carbon resistance has a following colour code. What is the value of the resistance ?
(1) 64 kW ± 10% (2) 6.4 MW ± 5% (3) 530 kW ± 5% (4) 5.3 MW ± 5%

Ans. (3)
Sol. 1st digit corresponds to green will be 5 2nd digit corresponds orange will be 3
3rd digit corresponds yellow will be 4 Tolerance of Gold will be ±5%
Resistance = 53 × 104 ± 5%
CHEMISTRY
1. The products formed in the reaction of cumene with O2 followed by treatment with dil. HCl are :
(1) (2) and CH3 – OH
(3) and (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
* it is industrial method for preparation of phenol
2. The temporary hardness of water is due to :

(1) Ca(HCO3)2 (2) Na2SO4 (3) NaCl (4) CaCl2
Ans. (1)
Sol. Ca(HCO3)2 is responsible for temporary hardness of water.
3. The complex that has highest crystal field splitting energy (D), is :
(1) K3[Co(CN)6] (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (3) K2[CoCl4] (4) [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]Cl3
Ans. (1)
Sol. As the complex k3[Co(CN)6] have CN– ligand which is strong field ligand amongst the given ligands in other
complexes.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
5. The entropy change associated with the conversion of 1 kg of ice at 273 K to water vapours at 383 K is :
(Specific heat of water liquid and water vapour are 4.2 kJ K–1 kg–1 and 2.0 kJ K–1 kg–1; heat of liquid fusion and
vapourisation of water are 334 kJ kg–1 and 2491 kJ kg–1, respectively). (log 273 = 2.436, log 373 = 2.572,
log 383 = 2.583)
(1) 2.64 kJ kg–1 K–1 (2) 9.26 kJ kg–1 K–1 (3) 8.49 kJ kg–1 K–1 (4) 7.90 kJ kg–1 K–1
Ans. (2)
Sol. H2 O( s) ¾¾¾® H2O(l ) ¾¾

DS
¾® H 2 O( l ) ¾¾
DS
¾® H2O(g) ¾¾
DS
¾® H2 O( g)
DS
1 2 3 4
273K 273K 373K 373K 383
DHf 334
DS1 = = = 1.22
273 273
æ 363 ö
DS 2 = 4.2 lnç ÷ = 1.31
è 273 ø
DHval 2491
DS 3 = = = 6.67
373 373
æ 383 ö
DS 4 = 2.0 lnç ÷ = 0.05
è 373 ø
DSTotal = 9.26 kJ kg–1 K–1.
6. The tests performed on compound X and their inferences are :

Test Inference
(a) 2,4-DNP test Coloured precipitate
(b) Iodoform test Yellow precipitate
(c) Azo-dye test No dye formation
Compound 'X' is :
3 3 3 3
3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. 2, 4-DNP Test given by aldehyde, Iodoform test given by aldehyde or ketone having group.
7. The correct sequence of amino acids present in the tripeptide given below is :
(1) Leu-Ser-Thr (2) Thr-Ser-Val (3) Thr-Ser-Leu (4) Val-Ser-Thr

Ans. (4)
8. For coagulation of arsenious sulphide sol, which one of the following salt solution will be most effective ?
(1) NaCl (2) BaCl2 (3) Na3PO4 (4) AlCl3
Ans. (4)
9. At 100°C, copper (Cu) has FCC unit cell structure with cell length of x Å. What is the approximate density of
Cu (in g cm–3) at this temperature ? (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.55 u)
211 422 205 105

(1) (2) (3) (4)
x3 x3 x3 x3
Ans. (2)
Z ´M 4 ´ 63.5 gm
Sol. d= 3
= 23 –8 3
NA a (6 ´ 10 ) ( x ´ 10 ) cm3
4 ´ 63.5 ´ 10 421.716
d= 3
= gm/cm3.
6x x3
10. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy of atomisation, is :

(1) Fe (2) Zn (3) V (4) Cu
Ans. (4)
Sol. Since Zn is not transition element. So, transition element having lowest atomisation energy out of Cu, V, Fe
is Cu.
11. For the reaction, 2A + B ® products, when the concentrations of A and B both were doubled, the rate of the
reaction increased from 0.3 mol L–1 s–1 to 2.4 mol L–1 s–1. When the concentration of A alone is doubled, the
rate increased from 0.3 mol L–1 s–1 to 0.6 mol L–1 s–1.
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Order of the reaction with respect to B is 1 (2) Order of the reaction with respect to B is 2
(3) Total order of the reaction is 4 (4) Order of the reaction with respect to A is 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. A B Rate
a b 0.3
2a 2b 2.4
2a b 0.6
Left assume R = K[A]x [B]y
0.3 = K[a]x [b]y ....(i)
2.4 = K[2a]x [2b]y ....(ii)
0.6 = K[2a]x [b]y ....(iii)
x
1 æ 1ö
(i) / (iii) =ç ÷ x=1
2 è 2ø
(ii) / (iii) (4) = (2)y
y=2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
13. The metal that forms nitride by reacting directly with N2 of air, is :
(1) Cs (2) Li (3) K (4) Rb
Ans. (2)
Sol. Only Li react directly with N2 out of all alkali metals 6Li + N2 ¾® 2Li3N
14. Which of thie following conditions in drinking water causes methemoglobinemia ?

(1) > 100 ppm of sulphate (2) > 50 ppm of nitrate
(3) > 50 ppm of chloride (4) > 50 ppm of lead
Ans. (2)
Sol. Concentration of Nitrate > 50 ppm in drinking water cause methemoglobinemia.
15. The correct statement regarding the given Ellingham diagram is :
(1) At 1400°C, Al can be used for the extraction of Zn from ZnO

(2) At 500°C, coke can be used for the extraction of Zn from ZnO
(3) Coke cannot be used for the extraction of Cu from Cu2O
(4) At 800°C, Cu can be used for the extraction of Zn from ZnO
Ans. (1)
Sol. According to given ellingham diagram Al can reduce ZnO. 3ZnO + 2Al ® 3Zn + Al2O3.
16. Consider the following reversible chemical reactions :
K
ˆˆˆ†
1
A 2 (g) + B2 (g) ‡ˆˆˆ 2AB(g) ... (i)
K
ˆˆˆˆ
2†
ˆ 3A 2 (g) + 3B2 (g) ... (ii)
6AB(g) ‡ˆˆˆ
The relation between K1 and K2 is :
1
(1) K 1K 2 = (2) K2 = K1–3 (3) K2 = K13 (4) K1K2 = 3
3
Ans. (2)
1
Sol. (2AB A2 + B2 ; k ) × 3
1
3
æ 1ö
6AB 3A2 + 2B2 ; çç ÷÷
è k1 ø
3
æ1ö
K 2 = çç ÷÷ or k2 = k 1 – 3
è k1 ø
17. When the first electron gain enthalpy (DegH) of oxygen is –141 kJ/mol, its second electron gain enthalpy is :
(1) negative, but less negative than the first
(2) a more negative value than the first
(3) almost the same as that of the first
(4) a positive value
Ans. (4)
Sol. Second electron gain enthalpy is always positive.
18. Good reducing nature of H3PO2 is attributed to the presence of :

(1) Two P–H bonds (2) Two P–OH bonds (3) One P–OH bond (4) One P–OH bond
Ans. (1)
Sol.
oxy acids of phosphorous having P–H bonds in them are reducing in nature due to its non-polar nature.
19. If the standard electrode potential for a cell is 2 V at 300 K, the equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction
ˆˆˆ
†
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) ‡ˆˆ
ˆ Zn2+(aq) + Cu (s)
at 300 K is approximately (R = 8 JK–1 mol–1, F = 96000 C mol–1)
(1) e320 (2) e–160 (3) e–80 (4) e160
Ans. (4)
Sol. DGº = –RT + nk
–nFEº = –RT + nk
2 × 96000 × 2 = 8 × 300 + nk
K = e160
20. The major product obtained in the following reaction is :
(1) (2)
3
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol. is more nucleophilic than (more EN)
21. A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol in 250 g water is cooled to –10°C. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg
mol–1, the amount of water (in g) separated as ice is :
(1) 48 (2) 32 (3) 16 (4) 64
Ans. (4)
Sol. DTf = Kf × m
62 1000
10 = 1.86 × ´
62 w
w = 186 gm
Weight of H2O freeze = 250 – 186 = 64 gm
22. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol. (1) AA(4p electrons) (2) A(6p electrons)
(3) A(6p electrons) (4) A(6p electrons)
23. The pH of rain water, is approximately :
(1) 6.5 (2) 7.5 (3) 7.0 (4) 5.6
Ans. (4)
Sol. pH of rain water is approximately 5.6.
24. Homoleptic octahedral complexes of a metal ion 'M3+' with three monodentate ligands L1, L2 and L3 absorb
wavelengths in the region of green, blue and red respectively. The increasing order of the ligand strength is :
(1) L2 < L1 < L3 (2) L3 < L1 < L2 (3) L1 < L2 < L3 (4) L3 < L2 < L1
Ans. (2)
Sol. Order of absorbed l ® L3 > L1 > L2.
So D0 order will be L2 > L1 > L3.
1
D0 µ
l absorbed
25. The major product formed in the following reaction is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Aldehyde is more reactive than ketone.

So far major cross aldol product we have to use CH3–CHO as carbanion acceptor.
26. Which of the following combination of statements is true regarding the interpretation of the atomic orbitals ?
(a) An electron in an orbital of high angular momentum stays away from the nucleus than an electron in the
orbital of lower angular momentum.
(b) For a given value of the principal quantum number, the size of the orbit is inversely proportional to the
azimuthal quantum number.
h
(c) According to wave mechanics, the ground state angular momentum is equal to .
2p
(d) The plot of Y vs r for various azimuthal quantum numbers, shows peak shifting towards higher r value.
(1) (a), (c) (2) (a), (b) (3) (a), (d) (4) (b), (c)
Ans. (1)
27. The increasing basicity order of the following compounds is :
2 3
(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) 3 2 (C) (D)

(1) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D) (2) (D) < (C) < (B) < (A) (3) (A) < (B) < (D) < (C) (4) (D) < (C) < (A) < (B)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Basic strength
28. In which of the following processes, the bond order has increased and paramagnetic character has changed
to diamagnetic ?
(1) N2 ® N2+ (2) O2 ® O2+ (3) O2 ® O22– (4) NO ® NO+
Ans. (4)
Sol. Process Change in magnetic Behaviour Bond Order
N2 ® N2+ Diamagnetic ® Paramagnetic 3 ® 2.5
O2 ® O2+ Paramagnetic ® Paramagnetic 2 ® 2.5
O2 ® O22– Paramagnetic ® Diamagnetic 2®1
NO ® NO+ Paramagnetic ® Diamagnetic 2.5 ® 3
29. For the following reaction, the mass of water produced from 445 g of C57H110O6 is :
2C57H110O6(s) + 163 O2(g) ¾® 114CO2(g) + 110 H2O(l)
(1) 890 g (2) 490 g (3) 495 g (4) 445 g
Ans. (3)
Sol. Q 2 moles of C57H110O6 gives = 110 mol H2O
445 110 445

\ moles of C57H110O6 will give = ´ moles H2O
890 2 890
110 1
Mass of water = ´ ´ 18 = 495 gm H2O
2 2
30. The correct match between item I and item II is :

Item I Item II
(A) Benzaldehyde (P) Mobile phase
(B) Alumina (Q) Adsorbent
(C) Acetonitrile (R) Adsorbate
(1) (A)® (Q); (B) ® (P); (C) ®(R) (2) (A)® (P); (B) ® (R); (C) ®(Q)
(3) (A)® (R); (B) ® (Q); (C) ®(P) (4) (A)® (Q); (B) ® (R); (C) ®(P)
Ans. (3)
Sol. A®R
B®Q
C® P
Benzaldehyde is absorbate while alumina is absorbent.
MATHEMATICS
ée t e - t cos t ù e - t sin t
ê ú
1. If A = êe t -e cos t - e sin t -e sin t + e - t cos t ú , then A is :
-t -t -t
êe t 2e - t sin t -2e- t cos t ú

ë û
p
(1) invertible only if t = p (2) invertible only if t =
2
(3) invertible for all t Î R (4) not invertible for any t Î R
Ans. (3)
1 cos t sin t
Sol. |A| = e–t
R 2 ®R2 -R1
1 - cos t - sin t - sin t + cos t ¾¾¾¾®
R3 ®R3 -R1 (2cos t + sin t)2 + (2sin t - cos t)2 = 5
1 2 sin t -2cos t
so, |A| ¹ 0 " t Î R
2. A data consists of n observations :
n n
2
x1, x2, ......, xn. If å
2
xi + 1 = 9n and å
i =1
xi - 1 = 5n , then the standard deviation of this data is :
i=1
(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 5

Ans. (4)
n
Sol. 4å xi = 4n Þ x = 1; so variance = 5 Þ st. dev. = 5
i =1
3. The area of the region

A = {(x, y) : 0 £ y £ x|x| +1 and –1 £ x £ 1} in sq. units, is :
4 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2
3 3 3
Ans. (4)
1 0
2
Sol. ò (x + 1)dx + ò (1 - x 2 )dx
0 -1
1 0
æ x3 ö æ x3 ö
Þ ç + x÷ + çx - ÷
è3 ø0 è 3 ø -1
4 2
Þ + =2
3 3
4. The number of all possible positive integral values of a for which the roots of the quadratic equation,
6x2 –11x + a = 0 are rational numbers is :
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
Ans. (2)
Sol. D = 121 – 24a, be positive and perfect square. Three values of a : {3, 4, 5}
5. If the system of linear equations
x – 4y + 7z = g
3y – 5z = h
–2x + 5y – 9z = k
is consistent, then :
(1) 2g + h + k = 0 (2) g + h + 2k = 0 (3) g + h + k = 0 (4) g + 2h + k = 0
Ans. (1)
Sol. LHS : 2(i) + (iii) + (ii) = 0 {linear combinationof respective equations}
so should happen for RHS for consistency Þ 2g + k + h = 0
6. The number of natural numbers less than 7,000 which can be formed by using the digits 0, 1, 3, 7, 9
(repitition of digits allowed) is equal to :
(1) 374 (2) 375 (3) 250 (4) 372
Ans. (1)
Sol. , but zero Þ 374
p /3
tan q 1
7. If ò dq = 1 - , (k > 0), then the value of k is :
0 2k sec q 2
1
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4)
2
Ans. (3)
p
1 1
3
1 sin q 1 dt 1 1
Sol. ò dq Þ cos q = t, - sin q dq = dt : ò = (2 t ) = 1 -
2k 0 cos q 2k 1 t 2k 1 2
2 2
Þ k=2
8. Let S be the set of all triangles in the xy-plane, each having one vertex at the origin and the other two vertices
lie on coordinate axes with integral coordinates. If each triangle in S has area 50 sq. units, then the number
of elements in the set S is :
(1) 32 (2) 9 (3) 18 (4) 36
Ans. (4)
Sol. Basically, |xy| = 100 : no. of integral solutions of the equation is answer
Natural numbers as divisors of 100 : 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20, 25, 50, 100 : Total divisors = 9
so, (9 × 4) = 36
9. Let a, b and c be the 7th, 11th and 13th terms respectively of a non-constant A.P. If these are also the three
a
consecutive terms of a G.P., then is equal to :
c
1 7
(1) 4 (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 13
Ans. (1)
a + 6d a + 10d 4d a
Sol. = = = 2 Þ = 22 = 4
a + 10d a + 12d 2d c
3
æ 1- t6 ö
10. The coefficient of t4 in the expansion of ç ÷ is :
è 1- t ø
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 12 (4) 10
Ans. (2)
Sol. (1 – t6)3 (1 – t)–3 : 6C4 = 15 (coeff. of t4 in (1 – t)–3)
d2 y p
11. If x = 3 tant and y = 3sect, then the value of 2 at
t = is :
dx 4
1 1 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 6 2 2 2 6
Ans. (2)
dy sec t tan t d2 y cos3 t 1

Sol. = 2
= sin t Þ 2
= = (for t = p/4)
dx sec t dx 3 6 2
r r r
12. Let a = î + ˆj + 2 kˆ , b = b1î + b2 ˆj + 2 kˆ and c = 5iˆ + ˆj + 2 kˆ be three vectors such that the projection vector
r r r r r r r
of b on a is a . If a + b is perpendicular to c , then | b | is equal to :
(1) 32 (2) 6 (3) 22 (4) 4

Ans. (2)
rr
a.b r b + b2 + 2
Sol. r â = a Þ 1 = 1 Þ b1 + b2 = 2
|a| 4
r r r
Also, (a + b) × c = 0 Þ 5(1 + b1 ) + (1 + b2 ) + 4 = 0 Þ 5b1 + b2 = -10
r
Þ b1 = –3, b2 = 5 Þ | b | = 6
2x
13. Let A = {x Î R : x is not a positive integer}. Define a function f : A ® R as f(x) = , then f is :
x -1
(1) surjective but not injective (2) injective but not surjective
(3) neither injective nor surjective (4) not injective
Ans. (2)
Sol. Ratio of two linear polynomials 2x & (x – 1) isn't surjective even for domain being all real numbers (except 1).
f(x) is injective though.
[considering all real numbers (except 1) as domain]
14. Let the equations of two sides of a triangle be 3x – 2y + 6 = 0 and 4x + 5y – 20 = 0. If the orthocentre of this
triangle is at (1, 1), then the equation of its third side is :
(1) 122y – 26x – 1675 = 0 (2) 26x – 122y – 1675 = 0
(3) 122y + 26x + 1675 = 0 (4) 26x + 61y + 1675 = 0
Ans. (2)
Sol. Equations of AB and AC are :
3x – 2y + 6 = 0 and 4x + 5y – 20 = 0, respectively.
Orthocenter (O) is (1, 1). Since BE ^ AC passing through O, BE : 5x – 4y – 1 = 0.
Similarly, CF : 2x + 3y – 5 = 0
Use family of lines concept
Þ BC : 26x – 122y = 1675
15. If the lines x = ay + b, z = cy + d and x = a'z + b', y = c'z + d' are perpendicular, then :
(1) cc' + a + a' = 0 (2) aa' + c + c' = 0 (3) bb' + cc' + 1 = 0 (4) ab' + bc' + 1 = 0
Ans. (2)
x -b y z-d
Sol. L1 : = =
a 1 c
x - b ' y - d' z
L2 : = =
a' c' 1
r r
Þ m1 (a,1,c) and m2 (a ',c ',1) are perpendicular
Þ aa' + c + c' = 0
16. The sum of the following series
9 12 + 22 + 32 12 12 + 22 + 32 + 42 15 12 + 22 + .... + 52
1+ 6 + + + + .... up to 15 terms, is :
7 9 11
(1) 7820 (2) 7520 (3) 7830 (4) 7510
Ans. (1)
(3i) i(i + 1)(2i + 1) 1 3 2

Sol. Ti = ´ = (i + i )
(2i + 1) 6 2
15 15
1 æç ö 1
Þ 2ç å i3 + åi 2÷
= (14400 + 1240 ) = 7820
÷ 2
è i=1 i=1 ø
17. A hyperbola has its centre at the origin, passes through the point (4, 2) and has transverse axis of length 4
along the x-axis. Then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is :
2 3
(1) (2) 3 (3) 2 (4)
3 2
Ans. (1)
x 2 y2
Sol. 2a = 4 Þ a = 2 Þ – = 1 is satisfied by (4, 2)
4 b2
2 4 2 b2 4 2
Þ b = Þ a2 + b2 = a2e2, so, e = 1 + 2 = Þ e =
3 a 3 3
18. Let A (4, –4) and B(9, 6) be points on the parabola, y2 = 4x. Let C be chosen on the arc AOB of the parabola,
where O is the origin, such that the area of DACB is maximum. Then, the area (in sq. units) of DACB, is :
3 1 1
(1) 31 (2) 31 (3) 30 (4) 32
4 4 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. Let third point be (t2, 2t), t Î (–4, 6)
t2 2t 1
1 1 1
4 –4 1 = 5 | t 2 – t – 6 |
Area = 2 ; Maximum for t = Þ 31
9 6 1 2 4
5x 8 + 7x 6
19. If f(x) = ò 2
dx , (x ³ 0), and f(0) = 0, then the value of f(1) is :
x 2 + 1 + 2x 7
1 1 1 1
(1) - (2) (3) (4) -
4 2 4 2
Ans. (3)
5 7
+ 8
x 6
x 1
Sol. f (x) = ò æ 1 1 ö
2
dx =
2 +
1
+
1
+c
ç2 + 5 + 7 ÷ x5 x7
è x x ø
x7
Þ f (x) = (Q f(0) = 0)
2x 7 + x 2 + 1
1
Þ f (1) =
4
20. An urn contains 5 red and 2 green balls. A ball is drawn at random from the urn. If the drawn ball is green, then
a red ball is added to the urn and if the drawn ball is red, then a green ball is added to the urn; the original ball
is not returned to the urn. Now, a second ball is drawn at random from it. The probability that the second ball
is red, is :
21 26 27 32
(1) (2) (3) (4)
49 49 49 49
Ans. (4)
æ 5 4 ö æ 2 6 ö 32
ç ´ ÷+ç ´ ÷ =
Sol. è 7 7 ø è 7 7 ø 49
R R G R
21. If the circles x2 + y2 – 16x – 20y + 164 = r2 (x – 4)2 + (y–7)2 = 36 intersect at two distinct points, then :
(1) r > 11 (2) 0 < r < 1 (3) 1 < r < 11 (4) r = 11
Ans. (3)
Sol. (x – 8)2 + (y – 10)2 = r2 ; (x – 4)2 + (y – 7)2 = 36
C1(8, 10); C2(4, 7) : |r – 6| < C1C2 < |r| + 6
Þ |r – 6| < 5 < |r| + 6 Þ r Î (1, 11)
22. If x = sin–1(sin10) and y = cos–1(cos10), then y – x is equal to :
(1) 10 (2) 0 (3) p (4) 7p
Ans. (3)
Sol. x = 3p – 10 ; y = 4p – 10 Þ y – x = p
23. Let z0 be a root of the quadratic equation, x2 + x + 1 = 0. If z = 3 + 6i z081 – 3i z093, then arg z is equal to :
p p p
(1) (2) (3) (4) 0
4 6 3
Ans. (1)
p
Sol. z03 = 1 Þ z = 3 + 6i – 3i = 3 + 3i Þ arg(z) =
4
24. If both the roots of the quadratic equation x2 – mx + 4 = 0 are real and distinct and they lie in the interval [1,5],
then m lies in the interval :
(1) (3, 4) (2) (4, 5] (3) (5, 6) (4) (–5, –4)
Ans. (2)
Sol. D > 0 Þ m2 – 16 > 0 Þ m Î (–¥, –4) È (4, ¥)
If f(x) = x2 – mx + 4 : f(1) ³ 0 and f(5) ³ 0
29
Þ 5 – m ³ 0 Þ m £ 5 and 29 – 5m ³ 0 Þ m £
5
m
Also, Î (1, 5) Þ m Î (2, 10)
2
Þ m Î (4, 5]
25. For each x Î R, let [x] be the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then
x [x]+ | x | sin[x]
lim- is equal to :
x ®0 |x|
(1) sin 1 (2) 1 (3) –sin 1 (4) 0

Ans. (3)
x(–1 – x ) sin(–1)
Sol. lim = lim– – sin(1)( x + 1) = – sin1
x ®0 – –x x ®0
p
26. If 0 £ x < , then the number of values of x for which sinx – sin2x + sin3x = 0, is :
2
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4
Ans. (1)
Sol. sinx + sin3x = sin2x Þ 2sin2x cosx = sin2x
1
Þ sin2x = 0 or cosx =
2
ìp ü
Þ 2x Î {0} xÎí ý
î3 þ
3/2
27. Let f be a differentiable function from R to R such that f(x) - f(y) £ 2 x - y , for all, x, y Î R. If f(0) = 1, then
1
2
òf
0
(x)dx is equal to :
1
(1) 1 (2) (3) 2 (4) 0
2
Ans. (1)
Sol. |f(x) – f(y)| £ 2|x – y|3/2
f ( x + h) – f ( x)
Since f(x) is differentiable, lim = f ' (x)
h ®0 h
2h3 / 2
Þ | f ' ( x ) | £ lim = 0 Þ f'(x) = 0 " x Î R
h®0 h
1 1
2
Þ f(x) = f(0) = 1 " x Î R Þ òf
0
ò
( x ) dx = 1dx = 1
0
28. The logical statement [~(~ p Ú q) Ú (p Ù r)] Ù (~ q Ù r) is equivalent to :

(1) (p Ù r) Ù ~ q (2) (p Ù ~ q) Ú r (3) ~ p Ú r (4) (~ p Ù ~ q) Ù r
Ans. (1)
Sol. (~ (~p Ú q) Ú (p Ù r)) Ù (~ q Ù r)
= ((p Ù ~q) Ú (p Ù r)) Ú (~q Ù r) = (p Ù (~q Ú r)) Ù (~q Ù r)
= p Ù (~q Ù r) = p Ù (~q) Ù r
29. Let f : [0, 1] ® R be such that f(x y) = f(x).f(y), for all x, y Î [0, 1], and f(0) ¹ 0. If y = y(x) satisfies the
dy æ 1ö æ3ö
differential equation, = f(x) with y(0) = 1, then y ç ÷ + y ç ÷ is equal to :
dx 4
è ø è4ø
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 4
Ans. (1)
Sol. f(xy) = f(x) f(y). Put y = 0 Þ f(0) = f(x) · f(0)
Since, f(0) ¹ 0 Þ f(x) = 1 " x Î [0, 1]
dy
Þ =1 Þ y = x + C Þ y = x + 1 (Q y(0) = 1)
dx
æ 1ö æ3ö
Þ yç ÷ + y ç ÷ = 3
è4ø è4ø
x y z
30. The equation of the plane containing the straight line = = and perpendicular to the plane containing
2 3 4
x y z x y z
the straight lines = = and = = is :
3 4 2 4 2 3
(1) 3x + 2y – 3z = 0 (2) 5x + 2y – 4z = 0 (3) x + 2y – 2z = 0 (4) x – 2y + z = 0
Ans. (4)
Sol. A point on plane (0, 0, 0)
m1( 2, 3, 4 ) ; m 2 (3, 4, 2) ; m 3 ( 4, 2, 3)
n : m1 ´ (m 2 ´ m 3 ) = (m1 · m 3 ) m 2 – (m1 · m 2 ) m 3 = 26(3, 4, 2) – 26(4, 2, 3) = 26(–1, 2, –1)
n Þ î – 2 ĵ + k̂ . So, plane Þ x – 2y + z = 0
PHYSICS
1. In the given circuit the cells have zero internal resistance. The currents (in Amperes) passing through resistance
R1 and R2 respectively, are :
(1) 2, 2 (2) 0, 1 (3) 1, 2 (4) 0.5, 0

Ans. (4)
VB  VA 10
Sol.  i1    0.5 Amp.
R1 20
VC  VA
 i2   0 Amp.
R2
2. A plano convex lens of refractive index 1 and focal length f1 is kept in contact with another plano concave
lens of refractive index 2 and focal length f2. If the radius of curvature of their spherical faces is R each and
f 1 = 2f2, then 1 and 2 are related as :
(1) 32 – 21 = 1 (2) 22 – 1 = 1 (3) 21 – 2 = 1 (4) 1 + 2 = 3
Ans. (3)
1 1 1 
Sol.  (1  1)   ......(1) Plano convex
f1   R 
1 1 1 
 (2  1)   ......(2) Plano concave
f2   R 
R
 f1    1 Given |f1| = 2|f2|
1
R R 2R
f2  
2  1 1  1 2  1
2 – 1 21 – 2
21 – 2 = + 1
1
3. In a Young's double slit experiment with slit separation 0.1 mm, one observes a bright fringe at angle rad
40
by using light of wavelength 1. When the light of wavelength 2 is used a bright fringe is seen at the same
angle in the same set up. Given that 1 and 2 are in visible range (380 nm to 740 nm), their values are :
(1) 380 nm, 525 nm (2) 625 nm, 500 nm (3) 380 nm, 500 nm (4) 400 nm, 500 nm
Ans. (2)
Sol. d = 0.1 mm
is very small
y x
 tan   sin  
D d
for bright fring at y for both waves
1
x = n1 = m2 = dsin= 0.1 × 10–3 ×
40
= 0.25 × 10–5
= 2.5 × 10–6
n and m are integer.
n × 1 = 2.5 × 10–6 m
2500
1 = nm
n
2500
2 = nm
n
for n = 4 1 = 625 nm
for m = 5 2 = 500 nm
4. In the cube of side 'a' shown in the figure, the vector from the central point of the face ABOD to the central
point of the face BEFO will be :
1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
(1) a i k (2) a jk (3) a ki (4) a ji
2 2 2 2
Ans. (4)
a a
Sol. Coordinate of G =  ,0, 
2 2
 a a
Coordinate of H = 0, , 
 2 2

 rGH = rH  rG
 a a a
rGH   î  ˆj = [ ˆj  î]
2 2 2
5. Two guns A and B can fire bullets at speeds 1 km/s and 2 km/s respectively. From a point on a horizontal
bround, they are fired in all possible directions. The ratio of maximum areas covered by the bullets fired by
the two guns, on the ground is :
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 8
Ans. (1)
u2
Sol. Maximum radius of circle = 2g  R max .
Area × R2max × u4
A1 : A2  1 : 16
6. If the magnetic field of a plane electromagentic wave is given by (The speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s)
  x 
B = 100 × 10–6 sin 2  2  1015  t   , then the maximum electric field associated with it is :
  c 
(1) 4 × 104 N/C (2) 3 × 104 N/C (3) 6 × 104 N/C (4) 4.5 × 104 N/C
Ans. (2)
Sol. E = CB
E = 3 × 108 × 100 × 10–6 = 3 × 104 N/C
7. To get output '1' at R, for the given logic gate circuit the input values must be :
(1) X = 1, Y = 0 (2) X = 0, Y = 0 (3) X = 1, Y = 1 (4) X = 0, Y = 1

Ans. (1)
Sol. By using concept of logic gates we will get X = 1, Y = 0
8. A train moves towards a stationary observer with speed 34 m/s. The train sounds a whistle and its frequency
registered by the observer is f1. If the speed of the train is reduced to 17 m/s, the frequency registered is f2.
If speed of sound is 340 m/s, then the ratio f1 / f2 is :
(1) 20/19 (2) 18/17 (3) 21/20 (4) 19/18
Ans. (4)
Sol.
 340  0 
f1    f0
 340  34 
 340  0 
f2    f0
 340  17 
f1 323 19
 
f2 306 18
9. A parallel plate capacitor is of area 6 cm2 and a serpation 3 mm. The gap is filled with three dielectric
materials of equal thickness (see figure) with dielectric constants K1 = 10, K2 = 12 and K3 = 14. The
dielectric constant of a material which when fully inserted in above capacitor, gives same capacitance would
be :
1 2 3
(1) 4 (2) 14 (3) 36 (4) 12

Ans. (4)
K 1C
Sol. C1 =
3
K 2C
C2 =
3
K 3C
C3 =
3
0 A
when = C 
d
 K1  K 2  K 3  36
Ceq = C1 + C2 + C3 = Keq. C  
3   C  K eq.C  Keq = = 12
  3
 
10. Two electric dipoles, A, B with respective dipole moments dA  4qaiˆ and dB  2qa î are placed on the
x-axis with a separation R, as shown in the figure. The distance from A at which both of them produce the
same potential is :
R R
(1) (2)
2 1 2 1
2R 2R
(3) (4)
2 1 2 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. Potential at P because of PA
K(4qa)cos(180)

x2
Potential at P because of PB
K(2qa)cos(180)

(x  R)2
equating both we get
2 1

x2 (x  R)2
2 (x  R)  x
2 x  2R  x
2  1 x  2R
 2R 
x
 2  1 
 
11. A magnet of total magnetic moment 102 î A  m2 is placed in a time varying magnetic field, B î(cos t) ,
where B = 1 Tesla and  = 0.125 rad/s. The work done for reversing the direction of the magnetic moment at
t = 1 second, is :
(1) 0.007 J (2) 0.014 J (3) 0.028 J (4) 0.02 J
Ans. (4)
Sol. W.D. = (U) = 2[MB]
 2 10 2  1 cos 0.125 
= 1.98 × 10–2
= 0.0198 J  0.02J
12. Using a nuclear counter the count rate of emitted particles from a radioactive source is measured. At t = 0 it
was 1600 counts per second and t = 8 seconds it was 100 counts per second. The count rate observed, as
counts per second, at t = 6 seconds is close to :
(1) 150 (2) 360 (3) 200 (4) 400
Ans. (3)
1 1 1
Sol. In 8 sec. count rate becomes times. Means n 
16 2 16
n = 4. Half lives are completed.
So t1/2 = 2 sec
1600
till t = 6 sec. 3 half lives must have been completed. So count rate =  200
23
13. A TV transmission tower has a height of 140 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 40 m. What is the
maximum distance upto which signals can be broadcasted from this tower in LOS (Line of Sight) mode ?
(Given : radius of earth = 6.4 × 106 m).
(1) 80 km (2) 65 km (3) 48 km (4) 40 km
Ans. (2)
Sol. LOS distance = 2Rht  2Rhr
by putting value of
R = 6.4 × 106 m
ht = 140 m
hr = 40 m
Ans. 65 km
14. The density of a material in SI units is 128 kg m–3. In certain units in which the unit of length is 25 cm and the
unit of mass is 50 g, the numerical value of density of the material is :
(1) 40 (2) 16 (3) 410 (4) 640
Ans. (1)
(Density)SI ML3 [1000 gm][100cm]3 1 20
Sol.  
(Density)New ML3 [50 gm][25cm]3  20  43  64
20
SI unit = . New unit
64
20
so 128   40 new unit
64
15. A charge Q is distributed over three concentric spherical shells of radii a, b, c (a < b < c) such that their
surface charge densities are equal to one another. The total potential at a point at distance r from their
common centre, where r < a, would be :
Q Q2 (a 2  b 2  c 2 ) Q ab  bc  ca Q(a  b  c)
(1) 4 (a  b  c) (2) (3) 12 (4) 4 (a2  b2  c 2 )
0 4 0 (a 3  b3  c 3 ) 0 abc 0
Ans. (4)
Sol. Q1 + Q2 + Q3 = Q
4(a2 + b2 + c2) = Q
Q

4(a  b 2  c 2 )
2
For all the shells. Point is a inside point.

So potential at point
kQ1 kQ2 kQ3
  
a b c
 a2 b 2 c 2 
 k(4 )    
a b c 
 k(4).()(a  b  c)
put value of 
kQ(a  b  c)

(a2  b2  c 2 )
16. A block of mass m is kept on a platform which starts from rest with constant acceleration g/2 upward, as
shown in figure. Work done by normal reaction on block in time t is :
3mg2 t 2 mg2 t 2 mg2 t 2

(1) (2) (3) 0 (4) 
8 8 8
Ans. (1)
1 9  2 9 2
Sol. Distance travelled by block in t sec    t  t
2 2 4
9 2 3mg 9 2 3mg2 t 2
w.d. by normal  (FN )  t   t  1
4 2 4 8
17. To mop-clean a floor, a cleaning machine presses a circular mop of radius R vertically down with a total force
F and rotates it with a constant angular speed about its axis. If the force F is distributed uniformly over the
mop and if coefficient of friction between the mop and the floor is , the torque, applied by the machine on the
mop is :
2
(1) FR/2 (2) FR/6 (3) FR/3 (4) FR
3
Ans. (4)
Sol. Torque required to Rotate = Torque because of fricton.
 F 
torque of friction on the small element    2  2rdr   r
 R 
2F R 2 2
Total torque  r dr  FR
R 2 O 3
18. A uniform metallic wire has a resistance of 18  and is bent into an equilateral triangle. Then, the resistance
between any two vertices of the triangle is :
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 12
Ans. (1)
R
Sol. Resistance of each wire will become = 6 N
3
6  12
RAB  12 || 6 
12  6

19. A homogeneous solid cylindrical roller of radius R and mass M is pulled on a cricket pitch by a horizontal
force. Assuming rolling without slipping, angular acceleration of the cylinder is :
F 2F F 3F
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2mR 3mR 3mR 2mR
Ans. (2)
Sol. In case of pure Rolling acm = R
Writing equation about point 'p'
 mR 2 
we get  FR    mR 2  .
 2 
2 F

3 mR
20. A solid metal cube of edge length 2 cm is moving in a positive y-direction at a constant speed of 6 m/s. There
is a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T in the positive z-direction. The potential difference between the two faces
of the cube perpendicular to the x-axis, is :
(1) 12 mV (2) 2 mV (3) 1 mV (4) 6 mV
Ans. (1)
Sol. Emf developed = vB 6 × 0.1 × 2 × 10–2
1.2 × 10–2 = 12 mV
21. A potentiometer wire AB having length L and resistance 12r is joined to a cell D of emf  and internal
resistance r. A cell of C having emf /2 and internal resistance 3r is connected. The length AJ at which the
galvanometer as shown in figure shows no deflection is :
5 11 13 11
(1) L (2) L (3) L (4) L
12 24 24 12
Ans. (3)
Sol. RAB = 12r
 12r 
 E
Potential gradient = VAB   12r  r 
L L
12E
=
13L
12E E
 AJ    VAJ
13L 2
13L
 AJ 
24
22. Three Carnot engines operate in series between a heat source at a 1
temperature T1 and a heat sink at temperature T4 (see figure). There are 1
two other reservoirs at temperature T 2 and T 3 , as shown, with

T1 > T2 > T3 > T4. The three engines are equally efficient if : 2
(1) T2 = (T1T4)1/2 ; T3 = (T12 T4)1/3 2
(2) T2 = (T1T42)1/2 ; T3 = (T12 T4)1/3

(3) T2 = (T13T4)1/4 ; T3 = (T1T43)1/4 3
(4) T2 = (T12 T4)1/3 ; T3 = (T1T42)1/3 3
Ans. (4)
4
T  T2 T  T3 T  T4
Sol. 1  1 2  2 3  3
T1 T2 T3
Given 1 = 2 = 3
T2 T
1  1 3
T1 T2
T22 T1T3 .....(1)
T3 T4
 2 = 3  T  T
2 3
T32  T2 T4 ........(2)
on solving (1) and (2) we get
1/ 3 1/ 3
T2  T12 T4 and T3  T1 T42
23. A 2 W carbon resistor is color coded with green, block, red and brown respectively. The maximum current
which can be passed through this resistor is :
(1) 20 mA (2) 100 mA (3) 0.4 mA (4) 63 mA
Ans. (1)
Sol. Accordinig to color code
R = 50 × 102 ohm
i2R = 2 watt
i = 20 mA
24. A heat source at T = 103 K is connected to another heat reservoir at T = 102 K by a copper slab which is 1 m
thick. Given that the thermal conductivity of copper is 0.1 WK–1 m–1, the energy flux through it in the steady
state is :
(1) 120 Wm–2 (2) 65 Wm–2 (3) 200 Wm–2 (4) 90 Wm–2
Ans. (4)
d kA
Sol.  . TH  TL
dt L
d 0.1 (1000  100)
energy flux =  = 90 w/m2
dt 1
25. A satellite is moving with a constant speed v in circular orbit around the earth. An object of mass 'm' is
ejected from the satellite such that it just escapes from the gravitational pull of the earth. At the time of
ejection, the kinetic energy of the object is :
1 3
(1) mv2 (2) mv 2 (3) 2mv2 (4) mv 2
2 2
Ans. (1)
Sol. For object to escape its KE should be equal to |PE| of the orbit of object
GMEm
KE   m2
r
26. A piece of wood of mass 0.03 kg is dropped from the top of a 100 m height building. At the same time, a bullet
of mass 0.02 kg is fired vertically upward, with a velocity 100 ms–1, from the ground. The bullet gets embedded
in the wood. Then the maximum height to which the combined system reaches above the top of the building
before falling below is : (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 10 m (2) 40 m (3) 30 m (4) 20 m
Ans. (2)
m1v1  m2 v 2 0.03  0  0.02  100

Sol. v cm  = = 40 m/s
m1  m2 0.05
Hmax for COM

(40)2
 2g  80m
initially at t = 0 COM was at a height of 60 m from ground.

Height reached by COM (which is same as the position of blocks after collision).
Will be = 60 + 80 = 140 cm from ground.
Ans. = 40 m
27. Water flows into a large tank with flat bottom at the rate of 10–4 m3 s–1. Water is also leaking out of a hole of
area 1 cm2 at its bottom. If the height of the water in the tank remains steady, then this height is :
(1) 5.1 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 2.9 cm (4) 1.7 cm
Ans. (1)
Sol. Height will become steady when water inflow rate = water outflow rate 2gh  1 10 4  10 4
20 h = 1
1
h  0.05 m  5cm
20
x
28. An insulating thin rod of length  has a linear charge density (x)  0 on it. The rod is rotated about an

axis passing through the origin (x = 0) and perpendicular to the rod. If the rod makes n rotations per second,
then the time averaged magnetic moment of the rod is :
 
(1) n3 (2) n3 (3) n3 (4) n3
4 3
Ans. (2)
 Ch arge 
Sol. Magnetic Moment of small element     Area enclosed
 Time Period 
0 x
dx
 2
= 2  x
 
 
 2n 
n0  3 n 0 3
x dx o
 0
 
4
29. A string of length 1 m and mass 5 g is fixed at both ends. The tension in the string is 8.0 N. The string is set
into vibration using an external vibrator of frequency 100 Hz. The separation between successive nodes on
the string is close to :
(1) 20.0 cm (2) 33.3 cm (3) 10.0 cm (4) 16.6 cm
Ans. (1)
Sol. f = 100 Hz
n
f=
2
n 8
100  
2 5  103
n
100   40
2
n=5
n = 5 = 5 loops. So gap b/w
100 cm
Nodes =  20 cm
5
30. In an electron microscope, the resolution that can be achieved is of the order of the wavelength of electrons
used. To resolve a width of 7.5 × 10–12 m, the minimum electron energy required is close to :
(1) 25 keV (2) 500 keV (3) 100 keV (4) 1 keV
Ans. (1)
150
Sol. Å  d
v
150
 10 20  7.5  10 12
v
150
v=  10 8
7.5
v = 20 × 10–8
JEE Main Online Test_10-01-19_Morning
CHEMISTRY
1. The major product 'X' formed in the following reaction is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol. NaBH4 does not reduces ester functional group.
2. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range. At 350 K, the vapor pressure of pure
A and pure B are 7 × 103 Pa and 12 × 103 Pa, respectively. The composition of the vapor in equilibrium with
a solution containing 40 mole percent of A at this temperature is :
(1) xA = 0.76 ; xB = 0.24 (2) xA = 0.37 ; xB = 0.63 (3) xA = 0.28 ; xB = 0.72 (4) xA = 0.4 ; xB = 0.6
Ans. (3)
X A PA0 0.4  7  10 3
Sol. YA   ; YA = composition of vapour phase.
X A PA0  XBPB0 0.4  7  10 3  0.6  12  10 3
3. The total number of isotopes of hydrogen and number of radioactive isotopes among them, respectively, are
(1) 3 and 2 (2) 2 and 1 (3) 2 and 0 (4) 3 and 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. Hydrogen has 3 isotopes : protium, 11H deuterium, 12 H and tritium 31 H of these isotopes, only tritium is
radioactive.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
5. Water filled in two glasses A and B have BOD values of 10 and 20, respectively. The correct statement
regarding them, is ;
(1) Both A and B are suitable for drinking. (2) A is suitable for drinking, whereas B is not.
(3) B is more polluted than A. (4) A is more polluted than B.
Ans. (3)
Sol. Clean water would have BOD value of less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value
of 17 ppm or more. So B is more polluted than A.
6. The correct structure of product 'P' in the following reaction is :

3 NEt
Asn – Ser + (CH3CO)2O  P
(excess)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
2 3
Sol. 3 2
7. Consider the following reduction processes :
Zn2+ + 2e–  Zn(s) ; E° = –0.76 V
Ca2+ + 2e–  Ca(s) ; E° = –2.87 V
Mg2+ + 2e–  Mg(s) ; E° = –2.36 V
Ni2+ + 2e–  Ni(s) ; E° = –0.25 V
The reducing power of the metals increases in the order :
(1) Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca (2) Zn < Mg < Ni < Ca (3) Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni (4) Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni
Ans. (1)
Sol. Higher reduction potential – lesser reducing power
Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca
8. Two pi and half sigma bonds are present in :

(1) O2 (2) N2 (3) O2+ (4) N2+
Ans. (4)
Sol. O2 B.O.  2  1& 1 
N2 B.O.  3  1& 2 
1
O2+ B.O.  2.5  1& 1 (1.5 )
2
1
N2+ B.O.  2.5  & 2
2
9. If dichloromethane (DCM) and water (H2O) are used for differential extraction, which one of the following
statements is correct ?
(1) DCM and H2O would stay as upper and lower layer respectively in the separating funnel (S.F.)
(2) DCM and H2O would stay as lower and upper layer respectively in the S.F.
(3) DCM and H2O will make turbid / colloidal mixture
(4) DCM and H2O will be miscible clearly
Ans. (2)
10. Consider the given plots for a reaction obeying Arrhenius equation (0°C < T < 300°C) : (k and Ea are rate
constant and activation energy, respectively) :
Choose the correct option :

(1) I is wrong but II is right (2) I is right but II is wrong
(3) Both I and II are correct (4) Both I and II are wrong
Ans. (3)
Sol. (I) Ea is temp. dependent
(II) K = Ae–Ea/RT
11. Which premitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths (a  b  c) and all axial angles different from 90° ?
(1) Triclinic (2) Monoclinic (3) Hexagonal (4) Tetragonal
Ans. (1)
Sol. Triclinic abc, 90º
12. Hall-Heroult's process is given by :
(1) Cu2+ (aq) + H2(g)  Cu(s) + 2H+(aq) (2) 2Al2O3 + 3C  4Al + 3CO2
Coke,1673K
(3) ZnO + C   Zn + CO (4) Cr2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Cr
Ans. (2)
Sol. Hall - Heroult's process is given by :
2Al2O3 + 3C 4A + 3CO2 
At cathode : A3+(melt) + 3e– A()
At anode: C(s) + O2– (melt)  CO(g) + 2e–
C(s) + 2O2– (melt)  CO2(g) + 4e–
13. Which of the following is not an example of heterogeneous catalytic reaction ?

(1) Ostwald's process (2) Haber's process
(3) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils (4) Combustion of coal
Ans. (4)
14. The chemical nature of hydrogen peroxide is :

(1) Reducing agent in basic medium, but not in acidic medium.
(2) Oxidising and reducing agent in acidic medium, but not in basic medium.
(3) Oxidising agent in acidic medium, but not in basic medium.
(4) Oxidising and reducing agent in both acidic and basic medium.
Ans. (4)
Sol. H2O2 can act as oxidising and reducing agent in both acidic & basic medium.
H2O2 act as oxidant :
H2O2 + 2e– + 2H+ 2H2O (in acidic medium)
H2O2 + 2e– 2OH– (in basic medium)
H2O2 act as reductant :

H2O2 O2 + 2e– + 2H+ (in acidic medium)
H2O2 + 2OH– 2H2O + O2 + 2e– (in basic medium)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
16. The increasing order of the pKa values of the following compounds is :
(1) C < B < A < D (2) D < A < C < B (3) B < C < A < D (4) B < C < D < A
Ans. (3)
1
Sol. Acidic strengtyos  Ka  pK
a
17. The values of Kp / KC for the following reactions at 300 K are respectively :
(At 300 K, RT = 24.62 dm3 atm mol–1)


N2(g) + O2(g) 
 2NO(g)


N2O4 (g) 
 2NO2(g)

N2(g) + 3H2(g)  
 2NH3(g)
(1) 1,24.62 dm mol–1, 1.65 × 10–3 dm–6 atm–2 mol2
3
(2) 1,24.62 dm3 atm mol–1, 606.0 dm6 atm2 mol–2

(3) 1,4.1 × 10–2 dm–3 atm–1 mol, 606 dm6 atm2 mol–2
(4) 24.62 dm3 atm mol–1, 606.0 dm6 atm2 mol–2, 1.65 × 10–3 dm–6 atm–2 mol2
Ans. (1)
KP
Sol.  (RT)ng
KC
(i) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) KP / KC = (RT)º = 1
(ii) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) KP / KC = RT = 24.62 dm3/atm mol
KP 1
(iii) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)  (RT ) – 2   1.65  10 – 3
KC (24.02)2
18. Which hydrogen in compound (E) is easily replaceable during bromination reaction in presence of light ?
(1) -hydrogen (2) -hydrogen (3) -hydrogen (4) -hydrogen

Ans. (2)
Sol.
(Resonance stabilised Anion)
19. The decreasing order of ease of alkaline hydrolysis for the following esters is :
(1) III > II > I > IV (2) IV > II > III > I (3) III > II > IV > I (4) II > III > I > IV
Ans. (1)
Sol. Reactivity of Carbonyl group  Electrophilic nature.
20. Which of the graphs shown below does not represent the relationship between incident light and the electron
ejected from metal surface ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. (i) No. of e– doesn't depend on 
(ii) KE of e– doesn't depend on light intensity
(iii) h = W + KE
(iv) E = W + KE
21. A process has H = 200 J mol–1 and S = 40 JK–1. Out of the values given below, choose the minimum
temperature above which the process will be spontaneous :
(1) 12 K (2) 20 K (3) 5 K (4) 4 K
Ans. (3)
Sol. H = TS
200 = T × 40
T = 5K
22. The total number of isomers for a square planar complex [M(F)(Cl)(SCN)(NO2)] is :
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16
Ans. (3)
Sol. For a square planar complex [Mabcd] :
3 isomers
SCN– & NO2– are ambidentate ligands.
SCN– can connect through S & N.
NO2– can connect through N & O
so total 4 combinations S N
SO
NN
NO
so 4 × 3 12 isomers
23. The type of hybridisation and number of lone pair(s) of electrons of Xe in XeOF4, respectively, are :
(1) sp3d and 2 (2) sp3d2 and 2 (3) sp3d2 and 1 (4) sp3d and 1
Ans. (3)
Sol. XeOF4 sp3d2 hybridisation
no. of .p 1.
24. The major product formed in the reaction given below will be :
2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
25. A mixture of 100 ml mol of Ca(OH)2 and 2 g of sodium sulphate was dissolved in water and the volume was
made up to 100 mL. The mass of calcium sulphate formed and the concentration of OH– in resulting solution,
respectively are : (Molar mass of Ca(OH)2, Na2SO4 and CaSO4 are 74, 143 and 136 g mol–1, respectively ; Ksp
of Ca(OH)2 is 5.5 × 10–6)
(1) 13.6 g, 0.14 mol L–1 (2) 1.9 g, 0.28 mol L–1 (3) 13.6 g, 0.28 mol L–1 (4) 1.9 g, 0.14 mol L–1
Ans. (2)
Sol. Ca(OH)2 + Na2SO4  CaSO4 + 2NaOH
mmol 100 14
14 m/mol 28 m/mol
14  136
Mass of CaSO4 = = 1.9 gm
1000
28
Molarity of OH– = = 0.28 mol / L
100
26. Wilkinson catalyst is :

(1) [(Et3P)3IrCl] (2) [(Ph3P)3IrCl] (3) [(Et3P)3RhCl] (4) [(Ph3P)3RhCl]
(Et = C2H5)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Wilkinson catalyst [Rh(PPh3)3C] is used for the hydrogenation of alkenes.
27. Which dicarboxylic acid in presence of a dehydrating agent is least reactive to give an anhydride ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Adipic acid –CO2

–H2O
* 7-membered cyclic anhydride is unstable.
28. The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of elements by and large means :
(1) increase in both atomic and ionic radii
(2) decrease in both atomic and ionic radii
(3) decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii
(4) increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii
Ans. (2)
Sol. The effect of lanthanoid contrarction is overall decrease in atomic & ionic radii from lanthanum to lutetium.
29. The electronegativity of aluminium is similar to :

(1) Boron (2) Lithium (3) Beryllium (4) Carbon
Ans. (3)
Sol. E.N. of A = 1.5
E.N. of Be = 1.5
30. The metal used for making X-ray tube window is :

(1) Mg (2) Na (3) Ca (4) Be
Ans. (4)
Sol. Metallic beryllium is used for making windows of x-ray tubes.
MATHEMATICS
 2 4d (sin )  2 
1. 
Let d  R, and A  1 (sin )  2 d  ,  [0, 2]. If the minimum value of det(A) is 8, then
 
 5 (2 sin )  d ( sin )  2  2d
a value of d is :
(1) 2 22 (2) –7 (3) 2 2 1 (4) –5
Ans. (4)
 2 4d sin   2 
 
A   1 sin   2 d 
Sol. R1  R1 + R3 and multiply, divide R2 by '2'
 5 2 sin   d  sin   2  2d
3 4  2 sin  2d 
1 
A 2 2 sin   4 2d
2  R1  R1 – R2 , R2  R2  R3
5 2sin   d  sin   2  2d
1 0 0 
1 
A  3 4  d sin   2
2  A = (d + 2)2 – sin2
 5 2sin   d 2d  2  sin 
For minimum value of 'A'  sin2 = 1
(d + 2)2 – 1 = 8
(d + 2)2 = 3
d  5
2. A point P moves on the line 2x – 3y + 4 = 0. If Q(1, 4) and R(3, –2) are fixed points, then the locus of the
centroid of PQR is a line :
3 2
(1) with slope (2) parallel to x-axis (3) parallel to y-axis (4) with slope
2 3
Ans. (4)
t4
Sol. h
3
t = 3h – 4 ...(i)
2t  4
2
k 3
3
2t  10
k
9
9k – 10 = 2t ...(ii)
Now put 't' from (i)
9k – 10 = 2 (3h – 4)
9k – 10 = 6h – 8
6h – 9k – 8 + 10 = 0
6h – 9k + 2 = 0
2
slope is
3
3. If a circle C passing through the point (4, 0) touches the circle x2 + y2 + 4x – 6y = 12 externally at the point
(1, –1), then the radius of C is :
(1) 4 (2) 57 (3) 2 5 (4) 5
Ans. (4)
 x  1  y  1
Sol. x(1)  y(1)  4    6   12  0
 2   2 
x – y + 2 (x + 1) – 3(y – 1) – 12 = 0
3x  4y  7  0
our required circle if

(x – 1)2 + (y + 1)2 + (3x – 4y – 7) = 0
But this circle passes through
(4, 0) so evaluate '' from there
=–2
x2 + y2 – 8x + 10y + 16 = 0 (radius)
(r)  16  25  16  5
max{| x |, x 2 , | x | 2
4. Let f(x)  
 8  2 | x |, 2  | x |  4
Let S be the set of points in the interval (–4, 4) at which f is not differentiable. Then S :
(1) is an emtpy set (2) equals {–2, 2} (3) equals {–2, –1, 1, 2} (4) equals {–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
Ans. (4)
maximum{| x |,x 2 },| x | 2 
Sol. f(x)   
 8  2 | x |, 2 | x | 4 
5. If 5, 5r, 5r2 are the lengths of the sides of a triangle, then r cannot be equal to :
3 7 3 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 2 4
Ans. (2)
Sol. If 5, 5r, 5r2 lengths of side (sides are in G.P.)
Case-I: when, r=1 ...(A)
5, 5, 5  triangle is equilateral
Case-II: If r > 1, then 5r2 is largest side of the triangle then using triangle inequality
5 + 5r > 5r2
r2 – r – 1 < 0
 1 5 1  5 
r  , 
 2 2  but r > 1
 1 5 
 r  1,  ...(B)
 2 

Case-III: when r  (0, 1)
5r + 5r2 > 5
r2 + r – 1 > 0
 1  5   1  5 
r  ,  ,   (But r  (0, 1))
 2   2 
 1  5 
r  ,1 ...(c)
 2 
 
A  B  C  on combining all
 5  1 5  1
r  , 
 2 2 

6. Let f : R  R be a function such that f(x) = x3 + x2 f '(1) + xf ''(2) + f '''(3), x  R. Then f(2) equals :
(1) –2 (2) 30 (3) –4 (4) 8
Ans. (1)
Sol. Let
f(x) = x3 + x2f'(1) + xf"(2) + f"'(3)
f'(1) = a, f"(2) = b, f"'(3) = c
f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c
f'(x) = 3x2 + 2ax + b
f"(x) = 6x + 2a
f"'(x) = 6  f"'(3) = 6 = C
C=6
on solving them
a = –5, b = 2
f(x)= x3 – 5x2 + 2x + 6
f(2) = (2)3 – 5(2)2 + 2(2) + 6
f(2) = 8 + 4 + 6 – 20
f(2) = 18 – 20
f(2) = –2
7. The sum of all two digit positive numbers which when divided by 7 yield 2 or 5 as remainder is :
(1) 1356 (2) 1256 (3) 1465 (4) 1365
Ans. (1)
Sol. Numbers when divided by '7' leaves remainder '2'
16, 23, 30, ................93,  12 numbers
these are (7k + 2) type numbers.
12, 19, 26, ................96,  13 numbers
these are (7t + 5) type numbers.
12
sum of (7k + 2) type  (16  93)  654
2
13
sum of '7t + 5–1' type  (12  96)  702  702 + 654  1356
2
8. An unbiased coin is tossed. If the outcome is a head then a pair of unbiased dice is rolled and the sum of the
number obtained on them is noted. If the toss of the coin results in tail then a card from a well-shuffled pack
of nine cards numbered 1, 2, 3, ..., 9 is randomly picked and the number on the card is noted. The probability
that the noted number is either 7 or 8 is :
19 19 13 15
(1) (2) (3) (4)
72 36 36 72
Ans. (1)
Sol. P(getting head) × P(7 or 8) + P(getting tail) × P(7 or 8)
for '7' for '8'
1  6  5  1  2  19
   
2  36  2  9  72
b
9. Let I   (x 4  2x 2 ) dx . If I is minimum then the ordered pair (a, b) is :
a
(1) 0, 2 (2)  2,0 (3)  2, 2 (4) 2,  2
Ans. (3)
b
Sol. I   (x 4  2x 2 )dx
a
x 2 (x 2  2)  x2 x  2 x  2
For area (algebraic)  I to be minimum,

we can move from  2, 2
a   2,b  2
10. The mean of five observations is 5 and their variance is 9.20. If three of the given five observations are 1, 3 and
8, then a ratio of other two observations is :
(1) 10 : 3 (2) 4 : 9 (3) 6 : 7 (4) 5 : 8
Ans. (2)
Sol. Given observations 1, 3, 8
let a and b are two observations
a  b  1 3  8
5
5
a + b = 13 ...(i)
(1)2  (3)2  (8)2  (a)2  (b)2

 (5)2  9.2
5
a2 + b2 = 97 ...(ii)
(a, b)  (4, 9)
a 4 9
 or
b 9 4
    
11. Let a  2iˆ  1ˆj  3kˆ , b  4iˆ  (3   2 )jˆ  6kˆ and c  3iˆ  6ˆj  ( 3  1)kˆ be three vectors such that b  2a
 
and a is perpendicular to c . Then a possible value of (1, 2, 3) is :
1   1 
(1)  ,4,  2  (2) (1, 3, 1) (3)   ,4,0  (4) (1, 5, 1)
2   2 
Ans. (3)

Sol. a  2iˆ  1ˆj  (3k)
ˆ

b  4iˆ  (3   2 )ˆj  6kˆ

c  3iˆ  6ˆj  (3  1)kˆ
 
ac  0
6 + 61 + 33 – 3 = 0
21   3  1  0 ...(i)
 
b  2a
4iˆ  (3  2 )jˆ  6kˆ  4iˆ  21ˆj  6kˆ

on comparing
21   2  3 ...(ii)
on solving (i) and (ii)

2 – 3 = 4
 1 
  2 ,4,0 
 

12. Let A be a point on the line r  (1  3 )iˆ  (  1)jˆ  (2  5)kˆ and B (3, 2, 6) be a point in the space. Then the

value of  for which the vector AB is parallel to the plane x–4y + 3z = 1 is :
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 
8 4 2 4
Ans. (2)

Sol. r  î  ˆj  2kˆ  µ 3iˆ  ˆj  5kˆ
any point on line is

A  (1 – 3µ, –1 + µ, 2 + 5µ)
B  (3, 2, 6)

AB is parallel to plane x – 4y + 3z = 1
direction of AB
–3µ–2, µ–3, 5µ – 4
so dot product is zero
1(–3µ – 2) –4(µ – 3) + 3(5µ – 4) = 0
µ = 2
1
µ
4
3z1 2z2
13. Let z1 and z2 be any two non-zero complex numbers such that 3|z1| = 4|z2|. If z   then :
2z 2 3z1
5 1 17
(1) Im(z) = 0 (2) z  (3) z  (4) Re(z) = 0
2 2 2
Ans. (1)
Sol. 3|z1| = 4 |z2|
3 | z1 |
1
4 | z2 |
3z1
let  cos   isin 
4z2
3z1 4z1
1  cos   isin 
4z2 4z2
3z1 4z2
  2cot 
4z2 3z1
Corrected : 2|z1| = 3|z2|
2 | z1 |
1
3 | z2 |
2z1
1
3z2
2z1
then 3z2 can be assumed as cos + isin
2z1
 cos   isin 
3z2
3z2
 cos   isin 
2z1
2z1 3z2
  2cos 
3z2 2z1
img. part if zero
1/n
sinn   sin  cos 
14. Let n  2 be a natural number and 0 <  < /2. Then d is equal to :
 sin n1

(where C is a constant of integration)
n 1 n 1
n  1  n n  1  n
(1) 2 1 C (2) 2 1 C
n  1  sinn1  
 n  1 sinn1  

n 1 n1
n  1  n n  1  n
(3) 2  1  n 1  C (4) 2 1 C
n  1 sin   n  1 sinn1  

Ans. (2)
1
(t n  t) n dt
Sol. I
t n 1
1
(t n  t) n dt
I
t n .t
1
 1 n
1  n 1  dt
t 
I 
tn
1
Let 1 n 1
 z , we get
t
1
 1  n
I   z dz
 n  1
 1 
 1   zn  1 
I  
 n  1  1  1 
 
 n 
n1
n  1  n
I 2 1 n 1 
c
n  1  (sin ) 
  3
15. The sum of all values of    0,  satisfying sin2 2 + cos42 = is :
 2 4
5  3
(1) (2) (3) (4) 
4 2 8
Ans. (2)
 
Sol. The sum of all values of   0, 
 2
3  
sin2 2  cos4 2  ,   0, 
4  2
3
1  cos2 (2)  (cos2 2)2 
4
put cos2 2 = t
2 (0, )
cos 2 (–1, 1)
t  [0, 1)
3
1  t  t2  0
4
1 1
t ,
2 2
1 1
cos 2  ,cos2 
2 2
 3
2  ,
4 4
 3
 ,
8 8
 
4 
 
8 2
16. Consider a triangular plot ABC with sides AB = 7 m, BC = 5 m and CA = 6 m. A vertical lamp-post at the mid
point D of AC subtends an angle 30° at B. The height (in m) of the lamp-post is :
2 3
(1) 21 (2) 21 (3) 2 21 (4) 7 3
3 2
Ans. (1)
1
Sol. BD  2(7)2  2(5)2  (6)2
2
BD  28
h = BD × tan30º
1
h  28 
3
2 7 3 2
h   21
3 3 3
5
17. If the third term in the binomial expansion of 1  x log2 x equals 2560, then a possible value of x is :
1 1
(1) 4 2 (2) (3) 2 2 (4)
4 8
Ans. (2)
Sol. Tr+1 = nCr(x)n–r (y)r
T3  5 C2 xlog2 x  2560
2
x log2 x  (24 )2
xlog2 x  (2)4
Now taking log of base (2) on both sides
log2x = 2, –2
1
x  4,
4
18. If the system of equations

x+y+z=5
x + 2y + 3z = 9
x + 3y + z = 
has infinitely many solutions, then  –  equals :
(1) 5 (2) 21 (3) 8 (4) 18
Ans. (3)
Sol. For infinite solutions (As planes are intesecting)
so all planes will passing through common line
1 1 1 1 5 1
1 2 3 05 1 9 3  0    13
 ( – ) and  (13 – 5) = 8
1 3  1  5
19. Consider the quadratic equation (c – 5)x2 – 2cx + (c – 4) = 0, c  5. Let S be the set of all integral values of
c for which one root of the equation lies in the interval (0, 2) and its other root lies in the interval (2, 3). Then
the number of elements in S is :
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 18
Ans. (1)
Sol. f(x) = (c – 5)x2 – 2cx + c – 4
f(0) = 'c–4'
f(2) = c – 24
f(3) = 4c – 49
Acc. to diagram
f(0) f(2) < 0 and f(2) . f(3) < 0
 49 
c  (4, 24) and c  ,24 
 4 
 49 
c  ,24  no. of integral values is
 4 
13, 14, 15 ............... 23
11 numbers
20 3
20
 Ct 1  k
20. If   20 20   , then k equals :
i1  Ci  Ci 1  21
(1) 400 (2) 50 (3) 200 (4) 100

Ans. (4)
3
20  20 Ci 1  20
(i)3 1 20
3
Sol.   21   
i1  C (21) 3

(21)3  (i)
i  i 1 i 1
1 100 K
 (10)2  (21)2  
(21)3 21 21
K  100
21. For each t  R, let [t] be the greatest integer less than or equal to t.
 
(1 | x |  sin | 1  x |)sin  [1  x] 
Then, lim  2  :
x 1 | 1  x | [1  x]
(1) equals –1 (2) equals 0 (3) does not exist (4) equals 1
Ans. (2)
 
(1  x  sin(x  1)) sin   
Sol. lim  2
x 1 (x  1)(1)
  1  x  sin(x  1) 
lim     (x  1)  = – 1 + 1 = 0
x 1  x  1 
 
22. Consider the statement : "P(n) : n2 – n + 41 is prime". Then which one of the following is true ?
(1) P(5) is false but P(3) is true. (2) Both P(3) and P(5) are false.
(3) P(3) is false but P(5) is true. (4) Both P(3) and P(5) are true.
Ans. (4)
Sol. P(n) :- n2 – n + 41
P(3) = 47  prime
P(5) = 61  prime
dy 3 1    
23. If  y ,x   ,  , and y     4 , then y     equals :
2
dx cos x 2
cos x  3 3  4
 4 3  
4 1 1 1
(1)  (2)  e3 (3) (4)  e6
3 3 3 3
Ans. (4)
dy
Sol. It is linear differential equation of the form  Py  '  '
dx
dy
 (3 sec 2 x)y  sec 2 x
dx
3 sec2 xdx
I.F. (integrating factor)  e
= e3tanx
3 tan x
solution is (y.e )   e3 tan x .sec 2 xdx
e3 tan x
e3 tan x .y  c
3
1
y  c.e3 tan x
3
 4
Given y  
 4 3

4 1 3 tan  
 4
  c.e on solving c = e3
3 3
  1 1
y      e3 .e ( 3 )   e6
 4 3 3
24. In a class of 140 students numbered 1 to 140, all even numbered students opted Mathematics course, those
whose number is divisible by 3 opted Physics course and those whose number is divisible by 5 opted
Chemistry course. Then the number of students who did not opt for any of the three courses is :
(1) 1 (2) 38 (3) 102 (4) 42
Ans. (2)
140 
Sol. Let n(m) represents no of students who take mathematics     70
 2 
140 
n(p)  for physics     46
 3 
140 
n(c)  for chemistry     28
 5 
 140 
n(M  C) = maths and chemistry     14
 10 
140 
n(M  P)     23
 6 
140 
n(P  C)    9
 15 
140 
n(M  P  C)   4
 30 
n(M  P C) = n(M) + n(P) + n(C) –n(M C) – n(M P) –n(P C) + n (M P C)

at least one of M, P and C
n(M P C) = 70 + 46 + 28 – 14 – 23 – 9 + 4
= 102
required = 140 – 102 = 38
25. If the area enclosed between the curves y = kx2 and x = ky2, (k > 0) is 1 square unit. Then k is :
3 2 1
(1) (2) 3 (3) (4)
2 3 3
Ans. (4)
Sol. shaded area = 1 sq. units
for P.O.I.
y = K(Ky2)2
y = K3Y4
1
y  0, y 
K
1
x  0, x 
K
P.O.I. lies on y = x line
1 1
 K

 x 2
required area       Kx 2  dx

0 K  Lower curve 
 upper curve 
1
3 K
3
2x 2
Kx
required area 1

3
3(K) 2
0
2 2 1
(K )  1
3 3K 2
1
K [But K > 0]
3
1
K
3
3 
26. The shortest distance between the point  ,0  and the curve y  x , (x > 0), is :
2 
3 5 5 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 4 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. Given curve y2 = x
4a = 1
1
a
4
1
2a 
2
3 1
 (so need to check)
2 2
 t2 t 
Any point on parabola can be taken at  4 , 2 
 
equation of normal is
t t3
y   tx  
2 4
3 
It is passing through  ,0 
2 
3
3 t t
0  t    
2 2 4
t = 0, t = 2
(1,1)
2
3  2
 5
minimum distance is  2  1  (1  0)   2 
   
x  2 y  2 z 1
27. The plane passing through the point (4, –1, 2) and parallel to the lines   and
3 1 2
x2 y3 z4
  also passes through the point :
1 2 3
(1) (–1, –1, –1) (2) (–1, –1, 1) (3) (1, 1, –1) (4) (1, 1, 1)
Ans. (1)
î ˆj kˆ
3 1 2  7iˆ  7ˆj  7kˆ  7  î  ˆj  kˆ
Sol. is normal vecto to plane
1 2 3
equation of plane is
–7(x – 4) – 7(y + 1) + 7 (z – 2) = 0
x y z 1
28. If the line 3x + 4y –24 = 0 intersect the x-axis at the point A and the y-axis at the point B, then the incentre
of the triangle OAB, where O is the origin, is :
(1) (4, 4) (2) (3, 4) (3) (2, 2) (4) (4, 3)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Now use
 ax  bx 2  cx 3 ay1  by 2  cy 3 
I 1 , 
 abc abc 
I  (2, 2)
29. If the parabolas y2 = 4b(x – c) and y2 = 8ax have a common normal, then which one of the following is a valid
choice for the ordered triad (a, b, c) ?
1  1 
(1) (1, 1, 0) (2) (1, 1, 3) (3)  ,2,3  (4)  ,2,0 
 2   2 
Ans. (2)
Sol. y2 = 4b(x – c) and y2 = 8 ax
equation of normal for Ist parabola is
y = m(x – c) – 2bm – bm3 ...(1)
equation of normal for 2nd parabola is
y = mx – 4am – 2am3 ...(2)
Now compare (1) and (2), we get
–cm – 2bm – bm3 = – 4am – 2am3
(2a – b)m3 + (4a – 2b – c)m = 0
2 c  (4a  2b) c
m = 0, m   20
2a  b 2a  b
c
2
2a  b
30. The equation of a tangent to the hyperbola 4x2 – 5y2 = 20 parallel to the line x – y = 2 is :
(1) x – y + 1 = 0 (2) x – y – 3 = 0 (3) x – y + 9 = 0 (4) x – y + 7 = 0
Ans. (1)
Sol. 4x2 – 5y2 = 20
x2 y2
 1
5 4
given line is x – y = 2
y  mx  5m2  4
m=1
y=x±1
y = x + 1, y = x – 1
x  y 1 0
JEE Main Online Test_10-01-19_Evening
Physics
1. A particle which is experiencing a force, given by F = 3 i – 12 j , undergoes a displacement of d = 4 i . If the
particle had a kinetic energy of 3J at the beginning of the displacement, what is its kinetic energy at the end
of the displacement?
(1) 10 J (2) 9 J (3) 15 J (4) 12 J
Ans. (3)
Sol. F = 3 î – 12 ĵ d = 4 î w = F · d = 12 J \ DKE = wall forces ; KEf = KEi + w = 3 + 12 = 15 J
2. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 4 cm from the
mean position, the magnitude of its velocity in SI units is equal to that of its acceleration. Then, its periodic
time in seconds is
8p 3 4p 7
(1) (2) p (3) (4) p
3 8 3 3
Ans. (1)
Sol. A = 5 cm
r r
At x = 4 cm | v | = | a | Þ A 2 – x 2 = w2 x
25 – 16 = w2 × 16
9 3
w2 = Þw=
16 4
2p 2p ´ 4 8 p
T= = =
w 3 3
3. The Wheatstone bridge shown in figure here, gets balanced when the carbon resistor used as R1 has the
colour code (Orange, Red, Brown). The resistors R2 and R4 are 80 W and 40 W, respectively.
Assuming that the colour code for the carbon resistors gives their accurate values, the colour code for the
carbon resistor, used as R3, would be
1 2
3 4
(1) Grey, Black, Brown (2) Red, Green, Brown (3) Brown, Blue, Black (4) Brown, Blue, Brown
Ans. (4)
Sol. R1 Þ Orange, Red, Brown = 32 × 10 = 320W.
R2 = 80W R4 = 40W
R1 R 2
=
R3 R 4
320 ´ 40
R3 = = 160 W
80
R3 = Brown blue Brown
4. A current of 2 mA was passed through an unknown resistor which dissipated a power of 4.4 W. Dissipated
power when an ideal power supply of 11 V is connected across it is
(1) 11 × 10–4 W (2) 11 × 10–3 W (3) 11 × 105 W (4) 11 × 10–5 W
Ans. (4)
Sol. 4.4 = (2 × 10–3)2 × R P = i2R
4.4
R= ´ 10 6 = 1.1´ 10 6 W
4
V 2 (121)
\ When 11 volts is connected, P = = ´ 10 –6 = 11 × 10–5 W
R 1.1
5. An unknown metal of mass 192 g heated to a temperature of 100ºC was immersed into a brass calorimeter
of mass 128 g containing 240 g of water at a temperature of 8.4 ºC. Calculate the specific heat of the
unknown metal if water temperature stabilizes at 21.5 ºC. (Specific heat of brass is 394 J kg–1 K–1)
(1) 916 J kg–1 K–1 (2) 654 J kg–1 K–1 (3) 458 J kg–1 K–1 (4) 1232 J kg–1 K–1
Ans. (1)
128
´ 394
Sol. Water equivalent = 1000 = 12 .00 gms
4200
Mw × Sw = Mmet × Smet
Mmet ´ S met
Mw =
S wat
\ Total water = 240 + 12 = 252 gm

Hence,
Heat lost by metal = 192 × Sm × (100 – 21.5) = 15072
Heat gained by warter = 252 × 4200 × (21.5 – 8.4) = 13865040
\ Sm @ 916 J/kg-K
6. The diameter and height of a cylinder are measured by a meter scale to be 12.6 ± 0.1 cm and 34.2 ± 0.1 cm,
respectively. What will be the value of its volume in appropriate significant figures?
(1) 4264.4 ± 81.0 cm3 (2) 4264 ± 81 cm3 (3) 4300 ± 80 cm3 (4) 4260 ± 80 cm3
Ans. (4)
pd2
Sol. v= h = 4260 cm3
4
Dv 2Dd Dh
= +
v d h
0.1 v 0.1v 0.2 0.1´ 4260

Dv = 2 ´ + = ´ 4260 + = 80
12 .6 34.2 126 34.2
\ Volume = 4260 ± 80 cm 3.
7. A closed organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 1.5 kHz. The number of overtones that can be distinctly
heard by a person with this organ pipe will be : (Assume that the highest frequency a person can hear is
20,000 Hz)
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7
Ans. (3)
20 kHz
Sol. = 13.33
1.5 kHz
\ Possible harmonics 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13

No. of overtones = 6
8. Consider the nuclear fission Ne20 ® 2He4 + C12.

Given that the binding energy/nucleon of Ne20, He4 and C12 are, respectively 8.03 MeV, 7.07 MeV and 7.86
MeV, identify the correct statement
(1) Energy of 11.9 MeV has to be supplied (2) Energy of 3.6 MeV will be released
(3) Energy of 12.4 MeV will be supplied (4) 8.3 MeV energy will released
Ans. (1)
Sol. Ne20 ¾® 2He4 + C12
Energy supplied = 8.03 × 20 = 160.6
Energy released = 8 × 7.07 × 12 × 7.86 = 56.56 × 94.32 = 150.88
\ Energy supplied = 160.6 – 150.88 = 9.72 MeV. Closest to 11.9 MeV
9. A metal plate of area 1 × 10–4 m2 is illuminated by a radiation of intensity 16 mW/m2. The work function of the
metal is 5 eV. The energy of the incident photons is 10 eV and only 10% of it produces photo electrons. The
number of emitted photo electrons per second and their maximum energy, respectively, will be
[1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J]
(1) 1014 and 10 eV (2) 1010 and 5 eV (3) 1012 and 5 eV (4) 1011 and 5 eV
Ans. (4)
Sol. KEmax = 10 eV – 5 eV = 5 eV
n IA
No. of photons incident per unit time = =
t E
n 16 ´ 10 –3 ´ 10 –4
= = 1012
t 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 –19
10
No. of photo electrons ejected = × 1012 = 10111
100
10. Two vectors A and B have equal magnitudes. The magnitude of A + B is 'n' times the magnitude of
A – B . The angle between A and B is
é 2
–1 n – 1
ù é 2
–1 n – 1
ù –1 é n – 1ù –1 é n – 1ù
(1) cos ê 2 ú (2) sin ê 2 ú (3) sin ê ú (4) cos ê ú
êë n + 1úû êë n + 1úû ë n + 1û ë n + 1û
Ans. (1)
Sol. A2 + A2 + 2A2cosq = n2(A2 + A2 – 2A2cosq)
2 + 2cosq = n2(2 – 2 cosq)
–2 + 2n2 = 2n2cosq + 2cosq
n2 – 1 æ n2 – 1 ö
cosq = q = cos –1çç 2 ÷
÷
n2 + 1 è n + 1ø
11. The self induced emf of a coil is 25 volts. When the current in it is changed at uniform rate from 10 A to 25 A
in 1 s, the change in the energy of the inductance is
(1) 540 J (2) 637.5 J (3) 437.5 J (4) 740 J
Ans. (3)
Ldi (25 – 10 ) 5
Sol. |e|= Þ 25 = L ´ L= H
dt 1 3
1 2
Energy = Li
2
1 5
DE = ´ × [625 – 100] = 437.5 J
2 3
12. At some location on earth the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is 18 × 10–6 T. At this location,
magnetic needle of length 0.12 m and pole strength 1.8 Am is suspended from its mid-point using a thread,
it makes 45º angle with horizontal in equilibrium. To keep this needle horizontal, the vertical force that should
be applied at one of its ends is
(1) 1.8 × 10–5 N (2) 6.5 × 10–5 N (3) 3.6 × 10–5 N (4) 1.3 × 10–5 N
Ans. (2)
Sol. At 45º, BH = BV
Fl
= MB v = m ´ l ´ B v
2
2m lBv
F= = 3.6 × 18 × 10–6 N = 6.5 × 10–5 N
l
13. A cylindrical plastic bottle of negligible mass is filled with 310 ml of water and left floating in a pond with still
water. If pressed downward slightly and released, it starts performing simple harmonic motion at angular
frequency w. If the radius of the bottle is 2.5 cm then w is close to : (density of water = 103 kg/m3)
(1) 7.85 rad s–1 (2) 5.00 rad s–1 (3) 3.75 rad s–1 (4) 2.50 rad s–1
Ans. (1)
Sol. (pr2rg)x = F Þ k = pr2rg1 ml = 1 cc ; 1 ml = 10–6 m3
k pr 2 rg
w= =
m rv
p´g
w=r = 2.5 10 = 2.5p = 2.5 × 3.14 = 7.85 rad/sec
310 ´ 10 –6
14. Half mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure of 1 atm from 20ºC to 90ºC. Work done
by gas is close to : (Gas constant R = 8.31 J/mol.K)
(1) 146 J (2) 73 J (3) 291 J (4) 581 J
Ans. (3)
Sol. Ti = 20 + 273 = 293
Tf = 90 + 273 = 363
1 25
w = pDv = nRDT = ´ ´ 70 = 291 J
2 3
15. Consider a Young's double slit experiment as shown in figure. What should be the slit separation d in terms
of wavelength l such that the first minima occurs directly in front of the slit (S1) ?
l l
(1) (2)
2(5 – 2 ) 2( 5 – 2)
l l
(3) (4)
( 5 – 2) (5 – 2 )
Ans. (2)
Sol. x1 = 2d x 2 = 5d Dx = x2 – x1
5d – 2d = l 12
l
d=
2( 5 – 2)
16. Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the xy plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, –2) and (0, –2). The work
required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin of the coordinate system will be
Q2 Q2 Q2 æ 1 ö Q2 æ 1 ö
(1) (2) (3) 4p Î ç1 + ÷ (4) 4p Î ç1 + ÷
4p Î0 ç ÷ ç ÷
2 2 p Î0 0 è 5ø 0 è 3ø
Ans. (3)
é kQ 2 kQ2 kQ 2 kQ2 ù Q2 é 1 ù
Sol. w = Uf – Ui = ê + + + ú = 4 pe ê1 + ú
ë 2 2 2 5 2 5û 0 ë 5û
17. The eye can be regarded as a single refracting surface. The radius of curvature of this surface is equal to that
of cornea (7.8 mm). This surface separates two media of refractive indices 1 and 1.34. Calculate the distance
from the refracting surface at which a parallel beam of light will come to focus
(1) 4.0 cm (2) 3.1 cm (3) 2 cm (4) 1 cm
Ans. (2)
1.34 1 1.34 – 1
Sol. – =
v –¥ 7.8
1.34 34
=
v 780
1.34 ´ 780
v= = 30.7 mm = 3.1 cm
34
18. The electric field of a plane polarized electromagnetic wave in free space at time t = 0 is given by an
expression E( x, y ) = 10 ĵ cos[( 6 x + 8 z )] . The magnetic field B( x, z, t ) is given by : (c is the velocity of light)
1 1
(1) (6k̂ + 8 î ) cos[( 6 x – 8z + 10ct )] (2) (6k̂ + 8 î ) cos[( 6 x + 8z – 10ct )]
c c
1 1
(3) (6k̂ – 8 î ) cos[( 6 x + 8 z – 10ct )] (4) (6k̂ – 8 î ) cos[( 6x + 8z + 10ct )]
c c
Ans. (3)
ur r r
Sol. E = 10jcos[6x + 8z] = Er cos[wt – h · r ]
E = 10 cos( 6 x + 8 z – 10ct )
E0 10
B0 = =
c c
\ Ê ´ B̂ = Ĉ K = 6 î + 8k̂
î ĵ k̂
6 î + 8k̂
0 1 0 =
10 | k̂ | = 10
Bx By Bz
2p 2p p
l= = =
k 10 5
2pc 2p ´ c
w = 2pf = = = 10c
l p/5
î [B z – 0] + ĵ[0] + k̂[–B x ] = 0.6 î + 0.8k̂

Comparing, Bz = 0.6 Bx = –0.8
uur ˆ ˆ
| B0 | =
10 ˆ = æç –8i + 6k ö÷
(–0.8iˆ + 0.6k)
c ç c ÷
è ø
ur 1
B = (–8iˆ + 6k)cos(6x
ˆ + 8z – 10 ct)
c
19. Two stars of masses 3 × 1031 kg each, and at distance 2 × 1011 m rotate in a plane about their common
centre of mass O. A meteorite passes through O moving perpendicular to the star's rotation plane. In order to
escape from the gravitational field of this double star, the minimum speed that meteorite should have at O is
(Take Gravitational constant G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2)
(1) 2.4 × 104 m/s (2) 1.4 × 105 m/s (3) 3.8 × 104 m/s (4) 2.8 × 105 m/s
Ans. (4)
2 ´ GM ´ 3 ´ 10 31
Sol. At 0, potential energy of the meteorite =
1011
1
Þ mv 2 = 6 ´ 1031–11 ´ Gm ´ 2
2
v2 = 2 × 6 × 1021 × 6.67 × 10–11
v = 2.82 × 105 m/s
20. A rigid massless rod of length 3l has two masses attached at each end as shown in the figure. The rod is
pivoted at point P on the horizontal axis (see figure). When released from initial horizontal position, its
instantaneous angular acceleration will be
g g
(1) (2)
13l 3l
7g g
(3) (4)
3l 2l
Ans. (1)
Sol. 5 m 0 gl – 4 m0 gl = [2m0(2l)2 + 5m0 (l2)]a
m0 gl = (13m0 l2)a
g
a=
13 l
21. The actual value of resistance R, shown in the figure is 30 W. This is measured in an experiment as shown
V
using the standard formula R = , where V and I are the readings of the voltmeter and ammeter, respectively..
I
If the measured value of R is 5% less, then the internal resistance of the voltmeter is
(1) 570 W (2) 600 W (3) 35 W (4) 350 W

Ans. (1)
R v ´ 30
Sol. R eq =
R v + 30
5 95
Req = R - R= R
100 100
95 R v ´ 30
\ 100 ´ 30 = R + 30
v
95Rv + 95 × 30 = 100 Rv.
95 ´ 30
Rv = = 570 W
5
22. A parallel plate capacitor having capacitance 12 pF is charged by a battery to a potential difference of 10 V
between its plates. The charging battery is now disconnected and a porcelain slab of dielectric constant 6.5
is slipped between the plates. The work done by the capacitor on the slab is
(1) 692 pJ (2) 560 pJ (3) 508 pJ (4) 600 pJ
Ans. (3)
Sol. Before inserting slab, energy stored
1 2 1
= Cv = ´ 12 ´ 10 –12 ´ 100
2 2
= 6 × 10–10 J = 600 pJ
After inserting slab,
1 1 100
Energy = ´ C' v 2 = ´ × 12 × 10–12 = 92 pJ
2 2 6.5
\ Work done by capacitor = Ui – Uf = 508 pJ
23. Two identical shperical balls of mass M and radius R each are stuck on two ends of a rod of length 2R and
mass M (see figure). The moment of inertia of the system about the axis passing perpendicularly through the
centre of the rod is
209 152
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
15 15
17 137
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
15 15
Ans. (4)
é2 ù M 13 t
Sol. I = ê MR 2 + M(2R )2 ú ´ 2 + (2R )2 ; I= MR 2
ë 5 û 12 15
24. Two kg of a monoatomic gas is at a pressure of 4 × 104 N/m 2. The density of the gas is 8 kg/m3. What is the
order of energy of the gas due to its thermal motion?
(1) 103 J (2) 104 J (3) 106 J (4) 105 J
Ans. (2)
Sol. P = 4 × 104 N/m2 r = 8 kg/m3.
f f M 3 2
U= PV = P = ´ 4 ´ 10 4 ´ = 1.5 × 104.
2 2 r 2 8
25. Charges –q and +q located at A and B, respectively, constitute an electric dipole. Distance AB = 2a, O is the
mid point of the dipole and OP is perpendicular to AB. A charge Q is placed at P where OP = y and y >> 2a.
The charge Q experiences an electrostatic force F. If Q is now moved along the equatorial line to P' such that
æyö æy ö
OP' = ç ÷ , the force on Q will be close to : ç >> 2a ÷
3
è ø è 3 ø
F
(1) 9F (2) 3F (3) (4) 27F
3
Ans. (4)
Sol. FA =
F A = EA × Q
kP
FA = Q=F
y3
F B = EB × Q
KP
= (3)3 · Q = 27 × FA = 27F
y3
26. The modulation frequency of an AM radio station is 250 kHz, which is 10% of the carrier wave. If another AM
station approaches you for license what broadcast frequency will you allot?
(1) 2900 kHz (2) 2250 kHz (3) 2750 kHz (4) 2000 kHz
Ans. (4)
10
Sol. ´ CWF = 250 kHz
100
CWF = 2500 kHz

Diff. between 2 carrier frequencies should be 2 × 250 = 500 kHz
\ Next broadcast freq = 2000 kHz
27. A particle starts from the origin at time t = 0 and moves along the positive x-axis. The graph of velocity with
respect to time is shown in figure. What is the position of the particle at time t = 5s?
(1) 9 m (2) 6 m (3) 3 m (4) 10 m

Ans. (1)
1
Sol. Distance covered in 5 seconds = Area under v.t. graph = ×2×2+2×2+1×3=9m
2
28. For the circuit shown below, the current through the Zener diode is
(1) 9 mA (2) Zero (3) 14 mA (4) 5 mA

Ans. (1)
Sol. I = 9 mA
29. Two forces P and Q, of magnitude 2F and 3F, respectively, are at an angle q with each other. If the force Q is
doubled, then their resultant also gets doubled. Then, the angle q is
(1) 90º (2) 120º (3) 30º (4) 60º
Ans. (2)
Sol. R2 = 4F2 + 9F2 + 2 × 2F × 3F cosq.
4R2 = 4F2 + 36F2 + 2 × 2F × 6Fcosq.
4 + 36 + 24 cos q
4=
4 + 9 + 12 cos q
4 + 9 + 12 cosq = 1 + 9 + 6 cosq.
6cosq = –3
1
cosq = – q = 120º
2
30. A hoop and a solid cylinder of same mass and radius are made of a permanent magnetic material with their
magnetic moment parallel to their respective axes. But the magnetic moment of hoop is twice of solid
cylinder. They are placed in a uniform magnetic filed in such a manner that their magnetic moments make a
small angle with the field. If the oscillation periods of hoop and cylinder are Th and Tc respectively, then
(1) Th = Tc (2) Th = 1.5 Tc (3) Th = 2Tc (4) Th = 0.5Tc
Ans. (1)
I
Sol. T = 2p
MB
TH I MC MR 2 M/ 2
= H = =1
TC I C MH MR 2 M
2
\ T H = T C.
Chemistry
1. A compound of formula A2B3 has the hcp lattice. Which atom forms the hcp lattice and what fraction of
tetrahedral voids is occupied by the other atoms
1
(1) hcp lattice - A, Tetrahedral voids - B
3
2
(2) hcp lattice - A, Tetrahedral voids - B
3
2
(3) hcp lattice - B, Tetrahedral voids - A
3
1
(4) hcp lattice - B, Tetrahedral voids - A
3
Ans. (4)
Sol. Let B form hcp lattice
no. of B = 6
1
tetrahedral void occupied by A = ´ 12 = 4
3
A4B6 or A2B3
2. Among the following reactions of hydrogen with halogens, the one that requires a catalyst is
(1) H2 + F2 ® 2HF (2) H2 + Br2 ® 2HBr (3) H2 + Cl2 ® 2HCl (4) H2 + I2 ® 2HI
Ans. (4)
3. Elevation in the boiling point for 1 molal solution of glucose is 2K. The depression in the freezing point for
2 molal solution of glucose in the same solvent is 2K. The relation between Kb and Kf is
(1) Kb = 0.5 Kf (2) Kb = 2 Kf (3) Kb = Kf (4) Kb = 1.5 Kf
Ans. (2)
DTb 2
Sol. = Kb =
im 1´ 1
DTf 2
= Kf =
im 1´ 2
Kb
=2
Kf
4. The process with negative entropy change is

(1) Dissociation of CaSO4(s) to CaO(s) and SO3(g)
(2) Dissolution of iodine in water
(3) Synthesis of ammonia from N2 and H2
(4) Sublimation of dry ice
Ans. (3)
Sol. where Dng > O
5. The pair that contains two P – H bonds in each of the oxoacids is
(1) H3PO2 and H4P2O5 (2) H3PO3 and H3PO2
(3) H4P2O5 and H3PO3 (4) H4P2O5 and H4P2O6
Ans. (1)
Sol. 2 P-H Bonds
(1) P—H bond
3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
8. The electrolytes usually used in th electroplating of gold and silver, respectively, are
(1) [Au(CN)2]– and [AgCl2]– (2) [Au(CN)2]– and [Ag(CN)2]–
(3) [Au(NH3)2]+ and [Ag(CN)2]– (4) [Au(OH)4]– and [Ag(OH)2]–
Ans. (2)
Sol. The electrolytes usually used in the electroplating of gold & silver, respectively are :
[Au(CN)2]1 and [Ag(CN)2]1
9. A reaction of cobalt(III) chloride and ethylenediamine in a 1 : 2 mole ratio generates two isomeric products A
(violet coloured) and B (green coloured). A can show optical activity, but, B is optically inactive. What type of
isomers does A and B represent?
(1) Coordination isomers (2) Linkage isomers
(3) Geometrical isomers (4) Ionisation isomers
Ans. (3)
Sol.
¾® trans form optically inactive.
A & B shows geometrical isomers.

10. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of He+ ion in eV
is
(1) –54.4 (2) –27.2 (3) –3.4 (4) –6.04
Ans. (4)
Sol. 2nd excited state is 3rd orbit
z2 22
E = -13.6 = -13.6 ´ = -6.04 eV
n2 32
11. In the cell

Pt(s) | H2(g, 1bar) | HCl(aq) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) | Pt(s) the cell potential is 0.92 V when a 10–6 molal HCl solution
is used. The standard electrode potential of (AgCl / Ag,Cl–) electrode is :
ì 2.303 RT ü
íGiven, = 0.06 V at 298 K ý
î F þ
(1) 0.40 V (2) 0.76 V (3) 0.20 V (4) 0.94

Ans. (3)
Sol. at anode H2 ¾® 2H+ + 2e–
at cathode 2AgCl(g) + 2e– ¾® 2Ag(g) + 2Cl–
Overall Redox H2(g) + 2AgCl(g) ¾® 2H+(aq) + 2Ag(s) + 2Cl(aq)
o 2.303RT
Ecell = Ecell - log[H+ ]2 [Cl- ]2
nf
0.06
0.92 = EoAgCl/ Ag/ Cl - 0 - log[10 -6 ](10 -6 )
1
0.92 = EoAgCl / Ag / Cl - 0.06( -12)
EoAgCl / Ag/ Cl = 0.20V
12. The 71st electron of an element X with an atomic number of 71 enters into the orbital
(1) 6s (2) 6p (3) 5d (4) 4f
Ans. (3)
Sol. 14 1 2
71Lu ® [Xe] 4f 5d 6s
71th electron enters into 5d orbital
so 5d is the orbital.
13. Which of the following tests cannot be used for identifying amino acids?
(1) Barfoed test (2) Xanthoproteic test
(3) Biuret test (4) Ninhydrin test
Ans. (1)
Sol. Barfoed test is a chemical test used for detecting the presence of monosaccharides.
14. In the reaction of oxalate with permaganate in acidic medium, the number of electrons involved in producing
one molecule of CO2 is
(1) 10 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. CqO -42 + MnO4- ¾¾
® Mn+2 + CO2 (acidic medium)
nf = 2 nf = 5
10 mol e– involve in the reaction
5C2 O -42 + 2MnO 4- ¾¾
® 2Mn+2 + 10CO2
\ 10 mol e– involve in 10 mol CO2
therefore 1 mol e– involve in 1 mol CO2.
15. 5.1 g NH4SH is introduced in 3.0 L evacuated flask at 327ºC, 30% of the solid NH4SH decomposed to NH3
and H2S as gases. The Kp of the reaction at 327ºC is (R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1, Molar mass of S = 32 g
mol–1, molar mass of N = 14 g mol–1)
(1) 0.242 atm2 (2) 4.9 × 10–3 atm2 (3) 1 × 10–4 atm2 (4) 0.242 × 10–4 atm2
Ans. (1)
Sol. NH4HS(s) ¾® NH3(g) + H2S(g), Vol = 3l
Given 0.1 mol
at reaxtion 0.1-0.03 0.03 0.03
1ng
æP ö
Kp = K p = nNH3 × n1HS ´ ç t ÷ = 0.242atm2
è nt ø
16. The amount of sugar (C12H22O11) required to prepare 2L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is
(1) 68.4 g (2) 34.2 g (3) 136.8 g (4) 17.1 g
Ans. (1)
Sol. In 2l solution, 0.2 mol of sugar required, wt. of sugar = 0.2 × 342 = 68.4 g
17. The major product obtained in the following reaction is
(1) (2) (3) (4)

2 2
Ans. (3)
Sol.
18. The difference in the number of unpaired electrons of a metal ion in its high-spin and low-spin octahedral
complexes is two. The metal ion is
(1) Ni2+ (2) Fe2+ (3) Mn2+ (4) Co2+
Ans. (4)
Sol. For octahedral complex :
Co2+ ® high spin ® 3 upe.
Co2+ ® low spin ® 1 upe.
Difference in the number of upe of Co2+ in high spin & low spin is (2).
Ni2+ ® high spin ® 2 upe
Ni2+ ® low spin ® 2 upe
Fe2+ ® high spin ® 4 upe
Fe2+ ® low spin ® 0 upe
Mn2+ ® high spin ® 5 upe
Mn2+ ® low spin ® 1 upe
19. Haemoglobin and gold sol are examples of

(1) Positively charged sols
(2) Negatively charged sols
(3) Negatively and positively charged sols, respectively
(4) Positively and negatively charged sols, respectively
Ans. (4)
20. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following transformation?
(1) CrO2Cl2 / CS2 (2) Alkaline KMnO4 (3) I2 / NaOH (4) Tollen's reagent
Ans. (3)
Sol.
21. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression from 5 m3 to 1 m3 against a constant external pressure of
4 Nm–2. Heat released in this process is used to increase the temperature of 1 mole of Al. If molar heat
capacity of Al is 24 J mol–1 K–1, the temperature of Al increases by
3 2
(1) 1K (2) K (3) 2K (4) K
2 3
Ans. (4)
4N
Sol. w = -p ext Dv = - ´ ( -4)m3 = 16Nm = 16J = Heat
m2
24J
q = nCm DT Þ 16J = 1 × × DT
mole
16 2
DT = = K
24 3
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
23. The number of 2-centre-2-electron and 3-centre-2-electron bonds in B2H6, respectively, are
(1) 4 and 2 (2) 2 and 2 (3) 2 and 4 (4) 2 and 1
Ans. (1)
Sol. B2H6
24. An aromatic compound 'A' having molecular formula C7H6O2 on treating with aqueous ammonia and heating
forms compound 'B'. The compound 'B' on reaction with molecular bromine and potassium hydroxide provides
compound 'C' having molecular formula C6H7N. The structure of 'A' is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
25. Sodium metal on dissolution in liquid ammonia gives a deep blue solution due to the formation of
(1) Sodium-ammonia complex (2) Sodium ion-ammonia complex
(3) Ammoniated electrons (4) Sodamide
Ans. (3)
Sol. Sodium metal dissolve in liquid ammonia giving deep blue solutions which are conducting in nature.
Na + (x + y) NH3 ¾® [Na(NH3)x]+ + [e(NH3)y]–
Blue colour of the solution is due to ammoniated electron.
26. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?
(1) 3-Bromo-1, 2-dimethylbut-1-ene (2) 3-Bromo-3-methyl-1, 2-dimethylprop-1-ene

(3) 2-Bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene (4) 4-Bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
Ans. (4)
Sol.
d[A]
27. For an elementary chemical reaction, the expression for is
dt
(1) 2k1[A2] – 2k–1[A]2 (2) k1[A2] + k–1[A]2 (3) 2k 1[A2] – k–1[A]2 (4) k1[A2] – k–1[A]2
Ans. (1)
Sol. ˆˆˆ
k1
A 2 ‡ˆˆˆ
k
† 2A
-1
1 d[A]
´ = k1 [A 2 ] - k -1 [A]2
2 dt
d[A]
= 2k1 [A 2 ] - 2k -1 [A]2
dt
28. What will be the major product in the following mononitration reaction?
(1) (2)
2
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
29. The correct match between item 'I' and item 'II' is
Item 'I' (Compound) Item 'II' (Regent)
(A) Lysine (P) 1-naphthol
(B) Furfural (Q) Ninhydrin
(C) Benzyl alcohol (R) KMnO4
(D) Styrene (S) Ceric ammonium nitrate
(1) A ® Q, B ® R, C ® S, D ® P (2) A ® Q, B ® P, C ® S, D ® R
(3) A ® Q, B ® P, C ® R, D ® S (4) A ® R, B ® P, C ® Q, D ® S
Ans. (2)
Sol. (A) Lysine is an amino acid (proteins) it will gives ninhydrine test
(B)
(C)
(D)
30. The reaction that is NOT involved in the ozone layer depletion mechanism in the stratosphere is
· · · ·
(1) Cl O(g) + O(g) ® C l(g) + O ( g) hv
(2) HOCl(g) ¾¾
2 ® O H(g) + C l(g)
· ·
uv
(3) CF Cl (g) ¾¾ (4) CH4 + 2O3 ® 3CH2 = O + 3H2O
2 2 ® C l(g) + C F2Cl( g)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Chlorine radicals formed initiate the chain reaction for ozone depletion. Chlorine radical react with stratospheric
ozone to form chlorine monoxide radicals & molecular oxygen.
Maths
25
50 50 – r 50
1. If år =0
Cr · C 25 – r = K C 25 , then K is equal to
(1) 224 (2) 225 – 1 (3) (25)2 (4) 225

Ans. (4)
25
50 50 - r
Sol. å
r =0
Cr C25 -r
25 25
50! (50 - r)!
å r!(50 - r)! (25 - r)!25! = 50 C25 å 25 Cr = 225 .50 C 25
r =0 r =0
\ K = 225
2. The number of values of q Î (0, p) for which the system of linear equations
x + 3y + 7z = 0
–x + 4y + 7z = 0
(sin 3q)x + (cos2q)y + 2z = 0
has a non-trivial solution, is
(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Three
Ans. (1)
1 3 7
-1 4 7 =0
Sol.
sin3q cos 2q 2
Þ (8–7cos2q) – 3(–2 – 7sin3q) + 7(–cos2q – 4sin3q) = 0

Þ 7sinq[–3 + 4sin2q + 4sinq] = 0
Þ sinq = 0, –3/2, 1/2 q Î (0, p)
× × P
sinq = 1/2
Hence two solutions in q Î (0, p)
3 f (x ) æ 1ö
3. Let f be a differentiable function such that f ' ( x ) = 7 – , ( x > 0) and f(1) ¹ 4. Then lim+ xf ç ÷
4 x x ®0 èxø
4
(1) Exists and equals 0 (2) Exists and equals
7
(3) Exists and equals 4 (4) Does not exist
Ans. (3)
3 f(x)
Sol. f '(x) = 7 - , (x >0)
4 x
dy
Let f(x) = y, so f '(x) =
dx
dy 3 y
+ =7
dx 4 x
3 xdx
I.F. = e ò 4 = x 3/4
x 7/ 4
y.x 3/ 4 = 7. +C
7/4
f(x) = 4x + C.x–3/4
æ 1ö 4
f ç ÷ = + C.x 3/ 4
èxø x
æ 1ö
lim xf ç ÷ = lim 4 + Cx 7 /4 = 4
x ®0 +
è x ø x ®0+
\ Option (3) is correct.
1
4. If the probability of hitting a target by a shooter, in any shot, is , then the minimum number of independent
3
5
shots at the target required by him so that the probability of hitting the target at least once is greater than ,
6
is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 5
Ans. (4)
0 n
æ 1ö æ2ö 5
Sol. 1 - n C0 ç ÷ ç ÷ >
è3ø è3ø 6
n n
1 æ2ö æ2ö
Þ > Þ 0.1666 > ç ÷
6 çè 3 ÷ø è3ø
nmin = 5
5. Two vertices of a triangle are (0, 2) and (4, 3). If its orthocentre is at the origin, then its third vertex lies in
which quadrant?
(1) Fourth (2) Third (3) First (4) Second
Ans. (4)
Sol. MBC.MAD = –1 Þ b + 4a = 0 ... (i)
MAB.MCF = –1 Þ 4a + 3b = 6 ... (ii)
From eq. (i) & (ii)
a = –3/4, b = 3
\ IInd quadrant
5 5
æ 3 iö æ 3 iö
6. Let z = çç + ÷ +ç – ÷ . If R(z) and I(z) respectively denote the real and imaginary parts of z, then
è 2 2 ÷ø çè 2 2 ÷ø
(1) R(z) < 0 and I(z) > 0 (2) R(z) = –3

(3) R(z) > 0 and I(z) > 0 (4) I(z) = 0
Ans. (4)
5 5
æ 3 iö æ 3 iö
Sol. z=ç + ÷ +ç - ÷
ç 2 2 ÷ø çè 2 2 ÷ø
è
5 5
æ ip ö æ -ip ö 5p 5p
z = çç e 6 ÷÷ + çç e 6 ÷÷ i - 5p 5p 5p 5p
=e 6 +e 6 = cos + isin + cos - isin
è ø è ø 6 6 6 6
5p
z = 2cos
6
Im(z) = 0 & Re(z) < 0
p p p p
7. The value of cos 2
· cos 3
· ........ · cos 10
· sin is
2 2 2 210
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 256 1024 512
Ans. (4)
p p p
29 sin 10
cos 10 .........cos 2 1 p 1
Sol. 2 2 2 = 9 sin =
29 2 2 512
x 1
1
8. If ò f (t ) dt = x 2 + t 2 f ( t ) dt , then f ' æç ö÷ is
ò
0 0 è 2 ø
18 4 24 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 5 25 25
Ans. (3)
Sol. Differentiate
2x
f(x) = 2x – x2f(x) Þ f(x) =
1+ x2
Again diff.
f '(x) = 2 – 2xf(x) – x2f '(x)
(1 + x2)f '(x) = 2(1–xf(x))
æ 1 ö 24
f 'ç ÷ =
è 2 ø 25
2
9. The tangent to the curve, y = xe x passing through the point (1, e) also passes through the point
æ4 ö æ5 ö
(1) ç , 2e ÷ (2) (2, 3e) (3) ç , 2e ÷ (4) (3, 6e)
è 3 ø è 3 ø
Ans. (1)
2
Sol. y = x.e x
æ dy ö
ç dx ÷ = 3e
è ø(1,e)
Equation of tangent
y – e = 3e(x – 1)
y = 3ex – 2e
æ4 ö
ç 3 ,2e ÷ lies on this line.
è ø
10. Let a = (l – 2) a + b and b = ( 4l – 2) a + 3b be two given vectors where vectors a and b are
non-collinear. The value of l for which vectors a and b are collinear, is
(1) –4 (2) 3 (3) –3 (4) 4

Ans. (1)
r r r r r r
Sol. a = (l - 2)a + b b = (4l - 2)a + 3b
r r
So a = Hb
r r r r
(l - 2)a + b = H éë(4l - 2)a + 3b ùû
l – 2 = H(4l – 2) ... (i)

1 = 3H ... (ii)
l-2 1
(i) / (ii) =
4l - 2 3
Þ l=–4
ìï 2 y2 x2 üï
11. Let S = í( x, y ) Î R : – = 1ý , where r ¹ ± 1. Then S represents
ïî 1+ r 1– r ïþ
2
(1) A hyperbola whose eccentricity is , when 0 < r < 1.
r +1
1
(2) An ellipse whose eccentricity is , when r > 1.
r +1
2
(3) A hyperbola whose eccentricity is , when 0 < r < 1.
1– r
2
(4) An ellipse whose eccentricity is , when r > 1.
r +1
Ans. (4)
y2 x2
Sol. - =1
1+ r 1- r
y2 x2
for r > 1 + =1
1+ r r - 1
æ r - 1ö 2
Þ e = 1- ç ÷ =
è r + 1ø r +1
æ1 ö
12. A helicopter is flying along the curve given by y – x3/2 = 7, (x ³ 0). A soldier positioned at the point ç , 7 ÷
è2 ø
wants to shoot down the helicopter when it is nearest to him. Then this nearest distance is
1 7 1 7 1 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 3 3 3 2 6
Ans. (1)
Sol. y – x3/2 = 7 (x ³ 0)
dy 3 1/2
= x
dx 2
æ ö
æ3 öç 7 - y ÷
ç x ÷ç ÷ = -1
Þ è2 øç 1 - x ÷
ç ÷
è2 ø
æ ö
ö ç -x ÷
3/2
æ3
Þ ç 2 x ÷ç 1 ÷ = -1
è øç - x ÷
ç ÷
è2 ø
Þ (x + 1) (3x –1) = 0
\ x = –1 (rejected)
3/ 2
æ 1ö
x = 1/3 Þ y = 7+ç ÷
è3ø
1 7
l AB =
6 3
13. If mean and standard deviation of 5 observations x1, x2, x3, x4, x5 are 10 and 3, respectively, then the variance
of 6 observations x1, x2, ......., x5 and –50 is equal to
(1) 582.5 (2) 509.5 (3) 507.5 (4) 586.5
Ans. (3)
5
Sol. x = 10 Þ åx
i =1
i = 50 ... (i)
5
2
åx i
æ ö
2 5
2
Þ S.D. = i =1
- çåx÷ = 3 Þ å (x ) i = 545 ... (ii)
5 è ø i =1
5
2
å (x ) i + ( -50)2 x1 + x 2 + ..... + x 5 - 50
Variance = i =1 , xnew = =0
6 6
x12 + x 2 2 + x 32 + x 4 2 + x 52 + 2500
Variance = – 0 = 507.5
6
é2 b 1ù
ê 2 ú det ( A )
14. Let A = êb b + 1 bú where b > 0. Then the minimum value of is
b
êë1 b ú
2û
(1) – 3 (2) 3 (3) – 2 3 (4) 2 3

Ans. (4)
2 b 1
2
A = b b +1 b
Sol.
1 b 2
|A| = b2 + 3
A 3 A
=b+ ,b>0 Hence minimum value of is 2 3
b b b
15. Consider the following three statements :

P : 5 is a prime number.
Q : 7 is a factor of 192
R : L.C.M. of 5 and 7 is 35
Then the truth value of which one of the following statements is true?
(1) (~P) Ú (Q Ù R) (2) P Ú (~Q Ù R) (3) (~P) Ù (~Q Ù R) (4) (P Ù Q) Ú (~R)
Ans. (2)
Sol. P is true
Q is false
R is true
(i) F Ú (F ÙT) = F Ú F = F
(ii) T Ú(T Ù T) = T
(iii) F Ù (T Ù T) = F
(v) (T Ù F) Ú (F) = F
So option (2) is correct.
16. The length of the chord of the parabola x2 = 4y having equation x – 2 y + 4 2 = 0 is
(1) 3 2 (2) 6 3 (3) 8 2 (4) 2 11
Ans. (2)
Sol. Let x - 2y + 4 2 = 0 intersects x2 = 4y at (x1, y1)
Solving together
x1 + x 2 = 2 2 , x1x2 = –16
2
similarly, 2y - 4 2 = 4y
y1 + y2 = 10
y1y2 = 16
l AB = (x1 - x 2 )2 + (y1 - y 2 )2 = 6 3
17. Two sides of a parallelogram are along the lines, x + y = 3 and x – y + 3 = 0. If its diagonals intersect at
(2, 4), then one of its vertex is
(1) (3, 6) (2) (3, 5) (3) (2, 1) (4) (2, 6)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
3-h-5
Slope of BC = 1 Þ =1
h-4
Þ h=1
B(1, 2) & D(3, 6)
5 – 4 x3 1 – 4 x3
18. If òx e dx =
48
e f ( x ) + C , where C is a constant of integration, then f(x) is equal to
(1) –4x3 – 1 (2) –2x3 + 1 (3) –2x3 – 1 (4) 4x3 + 1

Ans. (1)
3
Sol. ò x5 e-4x dx = I
Let –4x3 = t Þ –12x2dx = dt
-t t æ dt ö 1
ò e ç- ÷ = t.et dt
4 è 12 ø 48 ò
Þ
1
Þ te t - ò e t dt + C
48
3
(-4x 3 - 1)e –4 x
Þ +C
48
Hence f(x) = –(4x3 + 1)
p/2
dx
19. The value of ò
–p / 2
[ x ] + [sin x] + 4 , where [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t, is
1 3 3 1
(1) ( 7p – 5 ) (2) ( 4p – 3) (3) (4p – 3) (4) (7 p + 5 )
12 20 10 12
Ans. (2)
p/2 0 p/ 2
dx dx dx
Sol. ò = ò + ò
-p / 2
[x] + [sin x] + 4 -p./ 2
[x] + 3 0 [x] + 4
-1 0 1 p/ 2
dx dx dx dx 3
= ò +ò +ò + ò = (4 p - 3)
-p /2 1 -1 2 0 4 1 5 20
20. Let a1, a2, a3, ......., a10 be in G.P. with ai > 0 for i = 1, 2, ......., 10 and S be the set of pairs (r, k), r, k Î N (the
set of natural numbers) for which
log e a1r ak2 log e a r2 a k3 loge a r3 a k4

loge ar4 a k5 log e ar5 a k6 log e a r6 ak7 = 0
log e a r7 a k8 log e a r8 a k9 log e a r9 a10
k
Then the number of elements is S, is

(1) 2 (2) 10 (3) Infinitely many (4) 4
Ans. (3)
Sol. C 3 ® C3 – C 2 , C 2 ® C2 – C 1
(Let a is common ratio of G.P.)
lna1r a2k ln(a r + k ) ln( ar + k )

lna 4r a5k ln(a r +k ) ln( ar + k ) = 0
lna7 a8 r k
ln(a r +k ) ln( ar + k )
which is always true.
21. The plane which bisects the line segement joining the points (–3, –3, 4) and (3, 7, 6) at right angles, passes
through which one of the following points?
(1) (–2, 3, 5) (2) (2, 1, 3) (3) (4, 1, –2) (4) (4, –1, 7)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Normal to plane has direction ratio 6, 10, 2 and it passes through (0, 2, 5)
Equation of plane is 3(x –0) + 5(y – 2) + (z – 5) = 0 Þ 3x + 5y + z = 15
ì 2ü
22. Let f : (–1, 1) ® R be a function defined by f ( x) = max í– | x |, – 1 – x ý . If K be the set of all points at which
î þ
f is not differentiable, then K has exactly

(1) Two elements (2) Five elements (3) Three elements (4) One element
Ans. (3)
Sol. Graph :
1
F(x) is Non-deriable at x = 0, ± in (–1, 1)
2
\ at 3 points in (–1, 1)
23. If the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in the circle, x2 + y2 + 10x + 12y + c = 0 is 27 3 sq. units then
c is equal to
(1) 13 (2) 20 (3) –25 (4) 25
Ans. (4)
3 2
Sol. a = 27 3
4
a=6 3
3 2
r = a´ ´
2 3
r=6
r = g2 + f 2 - c
6 = 25 + 36 - c
c = 25
æ 19 æ n öö
ç cot –1ç1 + 2p ÷ ÷÷ is
24. The value of cotç å
ç n=1 ç å÷÷
è è p =1 ø ø
23 19 22 21
(1) (2) (3) (4)
22 21 23 19
Ans. (4)
19
æ n + 1- n ö 1 21
Sol. cot å tan-1 ç ÷ = cot(tan–120 – tan–11) = =
m =1 è 1 + n(n + 1) ø 20 - 1 19
1 + (20).1
25. The curve amongst the family of curves represented by the differential equation, (x2 – y2)dx + 2xy dy = 0
which passes through (1, 1), is
(1) A circle with centre on the x-axis (2) A circle with centre on the y-axis
(3) A hyperbola with transverse axis along the x-axis (4) An ellipse with major axis along the y-axis
Ans. (2)
Sol. x2dx – y2dx + 2xydy = 0
y2
Þ -x = +c
x
Þ x2 + y2 + cx = 0
It pases through (1, 1)
hence, c = –2
x2 + y2 – 2x = 0
x–4 y–5 z–3

26. On which of the following lines lies the point of intersection of the line, = = and the plane,
2 2 1
x+y+z=2?
x–2 y–3 z+3 x +3 4 – y z+1

(1) = = (2) = =
2 2 3 3 3 –2
x–4 y–5 z–5 x –1 y – 3 z + 4

(3) = = (4) = =
1 1 –1 1 2 –5
Ans. (4)
Sol. Let x = 2l + 4 y = 2l + 5, z = l + 3
Substituting in eq. of plane, we get
5l + 12 = 2
Þ l = –2
So point of intersection (0, 1, 1)
Noe check option :
Now in line in (4)
x = a + 1, y = 2a + 3, z = –5a –4
if x = 0, then y = 1, z = 1
27. With the usual notation in DABC, if ÐA + ÐB = 120º, a = 3 + 1 and b = 3 – 1 , then the ratio ÐA : ÐB, is
(1) 7 : 1 (2) 9 : 7 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 5 : 3

Ans. (1)
Sol. sine rule
3 +1 3 -1
=
sin(120 - x) sin x
3 +1 sin(120 - x)
=
3 -1 sin x
Þ tanx = 2 - 3
x = 15°
ÐA 7
\ = (7 : 1)
ÐB 1
10
2æ l ö
28. The positive value of l for which the co-efficient of x2 in the expression x ç x + 2 ÷ is 720, is
è x ø
(1) 2 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 3
Ans. (2)
10
2æ l ö
Sol. Coeff. in x ç x + 2 ÷
è x ø
10
æ l ö
= Coeff. of x° in ç x + 2 ÷
è x ø
= 10C2 l2 = 45l2
Now 45l2 = 720
l=±4
29. The value of l such that sum of the squares of the roots of the quadratic equation, x2 + (3 – l)x + 2 = l has
the least value is
4 15
(1) 2 (2) (3) 1 (4)
9 8
Ans. (1)
Sol. a+b=l–3
ab = 2 – l
a2 + b 2 = (a + b)2 – 2ab
= (l – 2)2 + 1
\l=2
30. Let N be the set of natural numbers and two function f and g be defined as f, g : N ® N such that
ìn + 1
ï if n is odd
f (n) = í 2 and g(n) = n – (–1)n. Then fog is
n
ï if n is even
î 2
(1) both one-one and onto (2) neither one-one nor onto
(3) onto but not one-one (4) one-one but not onto
Ans. (3)
ìn + 1 if n isodd
Sol. g(n) = í
în - 1 if n is even
f(g(1)) = f(2) = 1
f(g(2)) = f(1) = 1
\ f(g(x)) is many one
f(g(2k)) = f(2k–1) = k
f(g(2k+1)) = f(2k + 2) = k + 1
\ f(g(x)) is onto
JEE Main Online test_11-01-19_Morning (Physics)
1. The given graph shows variation (with distance r from centre) of :
(1) Electric field of a uniformly charged spherical shell

(2) Potential of a uniformly charged spherical shell
(3) Potential of a uniformly charged sphere
(4) Electric field of a uniformly charged sphere
Ans. (2)
Sol. Theoritical
KQ
V= ; r<R
R
KQ
V= ; r>R
r
2. An electromagnetic wave of intensity 50 Wm–2 enters in a medium of refractive index 'n' without any loss. The
ratio of the magnitudes of electric fields, and the ratio of the magnitudes of magnetic fields of the wave before
and after entering into the medium are respectively, given by :
æ 1 ö æ 1 1 ö æ 1 ö
(1) ç , n÷ (2) ç , ÷ (3) ç n, ÷ (4) n, n
è n ø è n nø è nø
Ans. (3)
E0
Sol. In air B = C
0
C = speed of light
For medium of refractive index = n
E C
=
B n
It is possible if
E0
E= and B = B 0 n
n
B0 1
=
B n
E0
= n
E
3. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height h from the earth surface, such that h<<R where R is the
radius of the earth. Assuming that the effect of earth's atmosphere can be neglected the minimum increase
in the speed required so that the satellite could escape from the gravitational field of earth is :
gR
(1) gR (2) 2gR (3) (4) gR ( 2 - 1)
2
Ans. (4)
GM
Sol. Orbital velocity, V0 =
(R + h)
2GM
to escape Ve =
(R + h)
2GM GM
Increase in speed, DV = –
(R + h) (R + h)
h << R,
2GM GM
DV = –
R R
DV = 2gR – gR = gR ( 2 – 1)
4. An equilateral triangle ABC is cut from a thin solid sheet of wood. (See figure) D, E and F are the mid-points
of its sides as shown and G is the centre of the triangle. The moment of inertia of the triangle about an axis
passing through G and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle is I0. If the smaller triangle DEF is removed
from ABC, the moment of inertia of the remaining figure about the same axis is I. Then :
I0 9 3 15
(1) I = (2) I = I0 (3) I = I0 (4) I = I0
4 16 4 16
Ans. (4)
Sol. From dimension analysis I0 = KMa2 (a = side of triangle)
2
Mæaö KMa 2 I 0
For small triangle I' = K ç ÷ = =
4 è2ø 16 16
So moment of inertia of remaining part.
15 I 0
I – I' =
16
5. Two equal resistances when connected in series to a battery, consume electric power of 60 W. If these
resistances are now connected in parallel combination to the same battery, the electric power consumed will
be :
(1) 60 W (2) 120 W (3) 240 W (4) 30 W
Ans. (3)
Sol.
2V 2
Pgenerated = 60 W Pgenerated = = 2(120) = 240 Watt
R
V2
P = 60 =
2R
V2
= 120 Watt
R
6. The resistance of the meter bridge AB in given figure is 4W. With a cell of emf e = 0.5 V and rheostat
resistance Rh = 2W the null point is obtained at some point J. When the cell is replaced by another one of emf
e = e2 the same null point J is found for Rh = 6W. The emf e2 is, :
(1) 0.3 V (2) 0.6 V (3) 0.4 V (4) 0.5 V

Ans. (1)
Sol. Rh = 2W
6 1´ 4
i1 = = 1A , e= ´ AJ
4+2 AB
AB
AJ = é ......(1)
4
When Rh = 6W
6
i2 = = 0.6 A
4+6
0 .6 ´ 4
e2 = ´ AJ
AB
e 2 ´ AB
AJ = .....(2)
0.6 ´ 4
From (1) to (2)
e 2 ´ AB e ´ AB
=
0.6 ´ 4 4
e2 = 0.6 × e = 0.6 × 0.5 = 0.3 V
7. In a Young's double slit experiment, the path difference, at a certain point on the screen, between two
1
interfering waves is th of wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this point to that at the centre of a bright
8
fringe is close to :
(1) 0.85 (2) 0.74 (3) 0.94 (4) 0.80
Ans. (1)
l
Sol. DX =
8
2p 2p l p
Path difference Df = ´ DX = ´ =
l l 8 4
æ Df ö æpö
I = I 0 cos 2 ç ÷ = I 0 cos 2 ç ÷
è 2 ø è8ø
I æpö
= cos 2 ç ÷ = 0.85
I0 è8ø
8. Ice at –20ºC is added to 50 g of water at 40ºC. When the temperature of the mixture reaches 0ºC, it is found
that 20 g of ice is still unmelted. The amount of ice added to the water was close to (Specific heat of water =
4.2 J/g/ºC
Specific heat of Ice = 2.1 J/g/ºC
Heat of fusion of water at 0ºC = 334 J/g)
(1) 60 g (2) 100 g (3) 40 g (4) 50 g
Ans. (3)
Sol. Let mass of ice = m
1
50 × 1 × 40 = m × × 20 + (m – 20) × 80
2
90m = 2000 + 1600 = 3600
3600
m= = 40 gm
90
9. A body of mass 1 kg falls freely from a height of 100 m, on a platform of mass 3 kg which is mounted on a
spring having spring constant k = 1.25 × 106 N/m. The body sticks to the platform and the spring's maximum
compression is found to be x. Given that g = 10 ms–2, the value of x will be close to :
(1) 2 cm (2) 40 cm (3) 80 cm (4) 8 cm
Ans. (1)
Sol. Speed of block just after collision.
1´ 2 ´ 10 ´ 100 = 4 ´ V
V = 5 5 m/s
K 1.25 ´ 10 6 X eq =
4g
=
40
w= =
m 4 K 1.25 ´ 10 6
V = w A 2 – X 2eq
2
1.25 ´ 10 6 é 2 æ 40 ´ 100 ö ù
5 5 = w A 2 – X 2eq = · êA – ç ÷ ú
4 ´ 100 êë è 125 ´ 10 6 ø úû
A2 = 4 × 10–4 + Dx ® (very small)

A = 2 × 10–2 = 2 cm
10. In the figure shown below, the charge on the left plate of the 10 mF capacitor is –30mC. The charge on the right
plate of the 6mF capacitor is :
(1) +18 mC (2) –12 mC (3) +12 mC (4) –18 mC

Ans. (1)
Sol. Applying the concept of charge conservation on isolated plates of 10 mF, 6 mF & 4 mF and distributing the
charge we get
6
= × 30 mC = +18 mC
(6 + 4)
11. In the circuit shown, the switch S1 is closed at time t = 0 and the switch S2 is kept open. At some later
time(t0), the switch S1 is opened and S2 is closed. The behaviour of the current I as a function of time 't' is
given by :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol. i = i0 (1 – e–t/t) (During Growth of current)
i = i0 e–t/t (During Decay)
12. A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen and 5 moles of argon at temperature T. Considering only
translational and rotational modes, the total internal energy of the system is :
(1) 15 RT (2) 20 RT (3) 12 RT (4) 4 RT
Ans. (1)
n1f1 + n 2 f2 3 ´ 5 + 5 ´ 3 15
Sol. fmix = = =
n1 + n 2 8 4
f 15
U= nRT = ´ 8 ´ RT = 15 RT
2 4´2
13. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right-angle isosceles triangle as shown below. The
net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if the value of Q is :
-q
(1) +q (2)
1+ 2
2q
(3) (4) –2q
2 –1
Ans. (3)
1 æ q2 Qq Qq ö
ç – + ÷=0
Sol. ç a
4pe0 è a 2a ÷ø
Qq
\ q2 – Qq + =0
2
Q
q–Q+ =0
2
æ 1 ö
Q ç 1– ÷=q
è 2ø
2q
Q=
2 –1
14. In the given circuit the current through Zener Diode is close to :
(1) 6.7 mA (2) 4.0 mA (3) 0.0 mA (4) 6.0 mA

Ans. (3)
Sol. After breakdown, potential across R0 will be 10V and R1 will be 2V.
10 2
So current in R3 will be i3 = = A
1500 300
2
Current in R1 will be I1 = A
500
Þ i1 < i3, (not possible)

Þ Potential diff. across zener diode does not reach to breakdown voltage. So, no current flows through
reverse biased zener diode.
15. An object is at a distance of 20 m from a convex lens of focal length 0.3 m. The lens forms an image of the
object. If the object moves away from the lens at a speed of 5 m/s, the speed and direction of the image will
be :
(1) 3.22 × 10–3 m/s towards the lens (2) 2.26 × 10–3 m/s away from the lens
(3) 1.16 × 10–3 m/s towards the lens (4) 0.92 × 10–3 m/s away from the lens
Ans. (3)
2 2
dv æ f ö du dv æ 0.3 ö
Sol. =ç ÷ Þ =ç ÷ ´ 5 = 1.16 × 10–3 m/s towards lens.
dt è f + u ø dt dt è 0.3 – 20 ø
16. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density 5 g/m is y = 0.03 sin(450 t – 9x) where
distance and time are measured in SI units. The tension in the string is :
(1) 5 N (2) 12.5 N (3) 10 N (4) 7.5 N
Ans. (2)
w
Sol. k=9 w = 450 v = = 50 m / s
k
T T
v= 50 = Þ 2500 × 5 × 10–3 = T
m 5 ´ 10 – 3
T = 12.5 N
17. In an experiment, electrons are accelerated, from rest, by applying a voltage of 500 V. Calculate the radius
of the path if a magnetic field 100 mT is then applied. [Charge of the electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C Mass of the
electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg]
(1) 7.5 × 10–2 m (2) 7.5 × 10–3 m (3) 7.5 × 10–4 m (4) 7.5 m
Ans. (3)
1
Sol. mv 2 = eV
2
2eV
v=
m
mv 2MeV
r= = = 7.54 × 10–4 m
qb e 2B 2
18. There are two long co-axial solenoids of same length l. The inner and outer coils have radii r1 and r2 and
number of turns per unit length n1 and n2, respectively. The ratio of mutual inductance to the self-inductance
of the inner-coil is :
n2 r22 n1 n2 r1 n2
(1) × (2) n (3) × (4) n
n1 r12 2 n1 r2 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. Mutual inductance = m0 n1n2R22l.
Self inductance = m0 n12R22l.
n2
Ratio = n
1
19. A rigid diatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process at room temperature. The relation between
temperature and volume for this process is TVx = constant, then x is :
2 3 2 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 5 5 3
Ans. (3)
2 7
Sol. Diatomic gas (r ) = 1 + =
5 5
\ PVr = const. [Adiabatic process]
æ nRT ö r
ç ÷V = C
è V ø
TVr – 1 = cons.
\ TVr – 1 = TVx
7 2
x=r–1= –1=
5 5
20. A liquid of density r is coming out of a hose pipe of radius a with horizontal speed u and hits a mesh. 50%
of the liquid passes through the mesh unaffected. 25% looses all of its momentum and 25% comes back
with the same speed. The resultant pressure on the mesh will be :
1 2 3 2 1 2
(1) ru (2) ru (3) ru (4) ru2
4 4 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. Mass per unit time = 3 Av
1
Force due to momentum loss = rAv × v2.
4
1
Force due to bouncing back = rAv × 2v2.
4
rAv 2 rAv 2
+
4 2 = 3 rv 2
Pressure =
A 4
21. A particle is moving along a circular path with a constant speed of 10 ms–1. What is the magnitude of the
change in velocity of the particle, when it moves through an angle of 60º around the centre of the circle?
(1) zero (2) 10 m/s (3) 10 3 m / s (4) 10 2 m / s

Ans. (2)
q 1
Sol. | D v |= 2v sin = 2v sin 30 º = 2 ´ 10 ´ = 10 m / s
2 2
22. An amplitude modulated signal is given by V(t) = 10[1 + 0.3 cos(2.2 × 104t)] sin(5.5 × 105t). Here t is in
seconds. The sideband frequencies (in kHz) are, [Given p = 22/7]
(1) 1785 and 1715 (2) 89.25 and 85.75 (3) 892.5 and 857.5 (4) 178.5 and 171.5
Ans. (2)
Sol. v(t) = 10[1 + 0.3 cos (2.2 × 104 t) sin (5.5 × 105t)]
vt = 10 + 1.5 [sin(572 × 103 t) + sin(528 × 103t)]
we get wL + wC = 572 × 103 = 2pf1
f1 = 572 × 103/2p = 91 kHz
528 ´ 10 3
wL – wC = = 2p f2
2p
572 ´ 10 3
f2 = = 84 kHz
2p
23. In a Wheatstone bridge(see fig.), Resistances P and Q are approximately equal. When R = 400 W, the bridge
is balanced. On interchanging P and Q, the value of R, for balance, is 405 W. The value of X is close to :
(1) 403.5 ohm (2) 401.5 ohm (3) 404.5 ohm (4) 402.5 ohm
Ans. (4)
Sol. Initially
P R1
= .....(i)
Q X
After interchanging P and Q
Q R2
= .....(ii)
P X
R1R 2
1=
X2
X = R1R 2 = 400 ´ 405 = 402.5 W.
24. A hydrogen atom, initially in the ground state is excited by absorbing a photon of wavelength 980 Å. The
radius of the atom in the excited state, in terms of Bohr radius a0, will be :
(hc = 12500 eV-Å)
(1) 4a0 (2) 9a0 (3) 16a0 (4) 25a0
Ans. (3)
12500
Sol. Energy of radiation = = 12.75 eV
980
–13.6
Energy of electron in nth orbit =
n2
é 1 1ù
En – E1 = –13.6 ê 2 – 2 ú
ën I û
é1 1ù
12.75 = 13.6 ê 2 – 2 ú
ëI n û
n»4
New radius will be 16a0.
pt
25. A particle undergoing simple harmonic motion has time dependent displacement given by x(t) = Asin .
90
The ratio of kinetic to potential energy of this particle at t = 210 s will be :
1 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) (4) 2
9 3
Ans. (3)
éæ p ö ù
Sol. Xt = 210 = A sinêç 90 ÷ ´ 210 ú
ëè ø û
æ pö 3A
A sinç 2p + ÷ =
è 3ø 2
1 2 1 é 3A 2 ù
P.E.(U) = 2 Kx = 2 K ê 4 ú
êë ûú
2
1 1 æ 3A 2 ö 1 KA 2
2 2 2
K.E.(T) = 2 mv = 2 mw çç A – 4 ÷÷ = 2 4
è ø
T 1
Required ratio Þ =
U 3
26. The variation of refractive index of a crown glass thin prism with wavelength of the incident light is shown.
Which of the following graphs is the correct one, if Dm is the angle of minimum deviation ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol. d = A(m – 1) for thin prism, then more is the refractive index, more will be the deviation.
r r r
27. A slab is subjected to two forces F1 and F2 of same magnitude F as shown in the figure. Force F2 is in XY--
r r r
plane while force F1 acts along z-axis at the point 2 i + 3 j . The moment of these forces about point O will
be :
(1) 3iˆ + 2ˆj - 3kˆ F (2) 3iˆ - 2ˆj + 3kˆ F (3) 3iˆ + 2ˆj + 3kˆ F (4) 3iˆ - 2ˆj - 3kˆ F
Ans. (2)
Sol. T0 = r1 ´ F1 + r2 ´ F2
éF F 3 ù
= (2 î + 3 ĵ) ´ F(k̂ ) + 6 ĵ ´ ê 2 (– î ) + 2 (– ĵ)ú
êë úû
= 2F(– ĵ ) + 3F( î ) + 3F(k̂ ) + 0 = (3 î – 2 ĵ + 3k̂ )F
28. If the deBroglie wavelength of an electron is equal to 10–3 times the wavelength of a photon of frequency 6 ×
1014 Hz, then the speed of electron is equal to :
(Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s Planck's constant = 6.63 × 10–34 J.s Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)
(1) 1.7 × 106 m/s (2) 1.1 × 106 m/s (3) 1.8 × 106 m/s (4) 1.45 × 106 m/s
Ans. (4)
C
Sol. For photon v =
l
C 3 ´ 10 8 1
lP = = = ´ 10 – 6 m
v 6 ´ 1014 2
For electron
10 –9
ll = 10–3 × lP = m
2
h
l= , P = mv
P
h 6.63 ´ 10 –34
v= = = 1.45 × 106 m/s
l 1 –9 –31
´ 10 ´ 9.1´ 10
2
29. A body is projected at t = 0 with a velocity 10 ms–1 at an angle of 60º with the horizontal. The radius of
curvature of its trajectory at t = 1s is R. Neglecting air resistance and taking acceleration due to gravity g =
10 ms–2, the value of R is :
(1) 5.1 m (2) 2.5 m (3) 2.8 m (4) 10.3 m
Ans. (3)
Sol. At t = 1 sec Vy = 5 3 – 10 ´ 1 Vx = 5
V= Vx 2 + Vy 2
V = 25 + (5 3 – 10 ) 2
V = 200 – 100 3 = 5.11
V2 V2 V3 (5.11)3
rC = = = =
g cos f u gu x 10 ´ 5
g x
L
rC = 2.77 m
æ x2 ö
30. The force of interaction between two atoms is given by F = ab exp ç - ÷ ; where x is the distance, k is the
è a kt ø
Boltzmann constant and T is temperature and a and b are two constants. The dimension of b is :
(1) M2LT–4 (2) M2L2T–2 (3) M0L2T–4 (4) MLT–2
Ans. (1)
Sol. Exponential terms are dimensionless
é X2 ù 0 0 0
ê– ú = [M L T ]
ëê aKT ûú
[L2 ]
= [M0L0 T 0 ]
[a][ML2 T – 2 ]
[a] = [M–1 T2]

Now [F] = [a b]
[MLT–2] = [M–1T2] [b]
[b] = M2LT–4.
JEE Main Online test_11-01-19_Morning (Chemistry)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
2. Two blocks of the same metal having same mass and at temperature T1 and T2, respectively, are brought in
contact with each other and allowed to attain thermal equilibrium at constant pressure. The change in
entropy, DS, for this process is :
(T + T2 )2 æ T + T2 ö é T1 + T2 ù é (T1 + T2 )2 ù
(1) 2CP ln 1 (2) 2CP ln ç 1 ÷ (3) 2CP ln ê 2T T ú C ln
(4) P ê 4T T ú
T1T2 è 4T1T2 ø ë 1 2 û ë 1 2 û
Ans. (4)
Sol. qgiven = qloss
CP(T2 – T) = CP(T – T1)
T1 + T2
T=
2
DSTotal = DS1 + DS2
æ T + T1 ö æ T2 + T1 ö
= CP ç 2 ÷ + CP l n ç ÷
è 2T2 ø è 2T1 ø
é (T + T2 )2 ù
= CP ln ê 1 ú
ë 4T1T2 û
3. The correct match between items I and II is :
Item-I Item-II
(Mixture) (Separation method)
(A) H2O : Sugar (P) Sublimation
(B) H2O : Aniline (Q) Recrystallization
(C) H2O : Toluene (R) Steam distillation
(S) Differential extraction
(1) (A) ® (R) ; (B) ® (P) ; (C) ® (S) (2) (A) ® (Q) ; (B) ® (R) ; (C) ® (P)
(3) (A) ® (S) ; (B) ® (R) ; (C) ® (P) (4) (A) ® (Q) ; (B) ® (R) ; (C) ® (S)
Ans. (4)
Sol. H2O : Suger ® Recrystallization
H2O : Aniline ® Steam distillation
H2O : Toluene ® Differential extraction
4. Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation of wavelength of about 900 nm. Which spectral line of H-
atom is suitable for this purpose?
[RH = 1 × 105 cm–1, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, c = 3 × 108 ms–1]
(1) Balmer, x®2 (2) Paschen, x®3 (3) Lyman, ¥ ®1 (4) Paschen, 5®3
Ans. (2)
Sol. Paschen ¥ ® 3
1 æ 1 1ö
= Rz 2 ç 2 - 2 ÷
l è n1 n2 ø
1 æ 1 1 ö
= 105 ´ 12 ç 2 - 2 ÷
l è3 ¥ ø
1 1
= 105 ´
l 9
l = 9 × 10–5 cm
= 900 × 10–7 cm
= 900 nm
5. Among the following compounds, which one is found in RNA?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Structure of uracil which is present in RNA.
6. Which compound(s) out of the following is/are not aromatic?
(1) (B), (C) and (D) (2) (B) (3) (A) and (C) (4) (C) and (D)
Ans. (1)
Sol. (B) is anti-aromatic with 4 pe–.
(C) is anti-aromatic with 8 pe–.
(D) is non aromatic, because of sp3 carbon in the ring.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
8. Math the metals (column-I) with the coordination compound(s)/enzyme(s)

(column-II) :
(column-I) (column-II)
Metals Coordination compound(s)/enzyme(s)
(A) CO (i) Wilkinson catalyst
(B) Zn (ii) Chlorophyll
(C) Rh (iii) Vitamin B12
(D) Mg (iv) Carbonic anhydrase
(1) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii) (2) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii) (4) (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
Ans. (1)
Sol. (I) Wilkinson catalyst RhCl(PPh3)3
(II) Chlorophyll C55H72O5N4 mg
(III) Vit- B12 Cyano cobal Amine contain cobalt
(IV) Carbonic Anhydlase – Zn
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
10. An example of solid sol is :

(1) Gem stones (2) Butter (3) Hair cream (4) Paint
Ans. (1)
11. The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be –0.2ºC, while it should have been –0.5ºC for pure
milk. How much water has been added to pure milk to make the diluted sample?
(1) 1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk (2) 3 cups of water to 2 cups of pure milk
(3) 1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk (4) 2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk
Ans. (2)
Sol. Freezing point of milk = –0.5ºC
Q DTf = 0.5ºC
Freezing point of diluted milk = –0.2ºC
\ DTf = 0.2ºC
DTf i
0.5 k f m
= =
( DTf )ii 0.2 k f m
Both has same amount of solute.

Let y mole of solute
0.5 y ´ w 2 w 5
= Þ 2 =
0.2 w 1 ´ y w1 2
5
w2 = w
2 1
12. For the cell Zn(s)|Zn2+ (aq)||Mx + (aq)|M(s), different half cells and their standard electrode potentials are given
below :
If Eº Eº Zn2+ / Zn = -0.76V, which cathode will give a maximum value of Eº cell per electron transferred?
(1) Fe3+/Fe2+ (2) Ag+/Ag (3) Au3+ / Au (4) Fe2+/Fe

Ans. (2)
Sol. Eocell = SRP of cathode – SRP of anode for max Eocell
E°cell per electron is maximum for Ag+/Ag cathode
13. If a reaction follows the Arrhenius equation, the plot lnk vs 1/(RT) gives straight line with a gradient (–y) unit.
The energy required to activate the reactant is :
(1) –y unit (2) yR unit (3) y/R unit (4) y unit
Ans. (4)
Sol. lnK = lnA – Ea / RT
1
Slope of ln K v/s = -y = –Ea
RT
\ Ea = y
14. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), an eye irritant is produced by :

(1) photochemical smog (2) organic waste (3) classical smog (4) acid rain
Ans. (1)
Sol. Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is the component of photochemical smog.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
16. A solid having density of 9 × 103 kg m–3 forms face centred cubic crystals of edge length 200 2 pm. What
is the molar mass of the solid?
[Avogadro constant @ 6 × 1023 mol–1, p @ 3]
(1) 0.0216 kg mol–1 (2) 0.0432 kg mol–1 (3) 0.0305 kg mol–1 (4) 0.4320 kg mol–1
Ans. (3)
Z´M
Sol. d=
NA ´ a3
M
4´
9 × 103 = 6 ´ 10 23
(200 ´ 2 ´ 10 -12 )3
M = 0.03 kg
17. A 10 mg effervescent tablet containing sodium bicarbonatge and oxalic acid releases 0.25 ml of CO2 at T =
298.15 K and p = 1 bar. If molar volume of CO2 is 25.0 L under such condition, what is the percentage of
sodium bicarbonate in each tablet? [Molar mass of NaHCO3 = 84 g mol–1]
(1) 8.4 (2) 16.8 (3) 0.84 (4) 33.6
Ans. (1)
Sol. 2NaHCO3 + H2C2O4 ® Na2C2O4 + 2CO2 + 2H2O
Let mass of NaHCO3 be × mg
0.25
nCO2 = = 10 -5
25000
w NaHCO3 = 84 ´ 10 -5 g
84 ´ 10 -5
%= ´ 100 = 8.4%
10-2
18. ˆˆˆ
†
Consider the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ‡ˆˆ
ˆ 2NH3(g)
The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is Kp. If pure ammonia is left to dissociate, the partial pressure
of ammonia at equilibrium is given by (Assume that pNH3 << ptotal at equilibrium)
33 / 2 K p1/ 2P2 K p1/ 2 P 2 K p1/ 2 P2 33/ 2 K p1/2P2

(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 16 4 16
Ans. (4)
1
Sol. ˆˆˆ
†
2NH3 ‡ˆˆ
ˆ N2 + 3H2 Kp = K p
pTotal = p = pN2 + pH2 + pNH3 » pN2 + pH2
3
p æ 3p ö
p 3 1 4 çè 4 ÷ø 33/ 2 p2 (K p )1/ 2
pN2 = ; pH2 = p ; = 2 ; pNH3 =
4 3 Kp pNH3 16
19. ˆˆˆ
†
For the chemical reaction X ‡ˆˆ
ˆ Y , the standard reaction Gibbs energy depends on temperature T (in K)
3
as DrGº (in kJ mol\–1) = 120 – 8 T. The major component of the reaction mixture at T is :
(1) X if T = 315 K (2) Y if T = 300 K (3) Y if T = 280 K (4) X if T = 350 K

Ans. (1)
3
Sol. (1) DGo = 120 - ´ 315
8
= 1.875
X is maximum
3
(2) DGo = 120 - ´ 300 = 7.5
8
Y not max.
3
(3) DGo = 120 - ´ 280 = 15
8
Y not max
3
(4) DGo = 120 - ´ 350 = – 11.25
8
X is min.
Hence ans is (1)
20. The element that usually does NOT show variable oxidation states is :
(1) V (2) Sc (3) Ti (4) Cu
Ans. (2)
Sol. V ® +2, +3, +4, +5
Sc ® +3
Ti ® +2, +3, +4
Cu ® +1, +2
21. The correct match between item (I) and item (II) is :
Item-I Item-II
(A) Norethindrone (P) Anti-biotic
(B) Ofloxacin (Q) Anti-fertility
(C) Equanil (R) Hypertension
(S) Analgesics
(1) (A) ® (R); (B) ® (P); (C) ® (R) (2) (A) ® (R); (B) ® (P); (C) ® (S)
(3) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (P); (C) ® (R) (4) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (R); (C) ® (S)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Informative
22. The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, Al, and S is :
(1) S < C < Cs < Al (2) C < S < Al < Cs (3) S < C < Al < Cs (4) C < S < Cs < Al
Ans. (2)
Sol. As we move from L ® R, Atomic size decrease and while as we move from top to bottom, atomic size
increase.
23. The concentration of dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold water can go upto :
(1) 8 ppm (2) 10 ppm (3) 16 ppm (4) 14 ppm
Ans. (2)
Sol. In cold water, dissolved oxygen (DO) can reach a concentration upto 10 ppm.
24. The correct statements among (a) to (d) regarding H2 as a fuel are :
(a) It produces less pollutants than petrol
(b) A cylinder of compressed dihydrogen weighs ~30 times more than a petrol tank producing the same
amount of energy.
(c) Dihydrogen is stored in tanks of metal alloys like NaNi5
(d) On combustion, values of energy released per gram of liquid dihydrogen and LPG are 50 and 142 kJ,
respectively.
(1) (b) and (d) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
Ans. (4)
25. Match the ores (column A) with the metals (column B) :

(Column-A) (Column-B)
Ores Metals
(I) Siderite (a) Zinc
(II) Kaolinite (b) Copper
(III) Malachite (c) Iron
(IV) Calamine (d) Aluminium
(1) (I) - (a); (II) - (b) ; (III) - (c); (IV) - (d) (2) (I) - (c); (II) - (d) ; (III) - (a); (IV) - (b)
(3) (I) - (c); (II) - (d) ; (III) - (b); (IV) - (a) (4) (I) - (b); (II) - (c) ; (III) - (d); (IV) - (a)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Siderite ® FeCO3.
Kaolinite (a form of clay) ® [Al2(OH)4Si2O5]
Malachite ® CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2
Calamine ® ZnCO3.
26. The polymer obtained from the following reactions is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
27. An organic compound is estimated through Dumus method and was found to evolve 6 moles of CO2, 4 moles
of H2O and 1 mole of nitrogen gas. The formula of the compound is :
(1) C12H8N2 (2) C6H8N2 (3) C6H8N (4) C12H8N
Ans. (2)
Duma
Sol. CxHyZn ¾¾ ¾
¾® 6CO2 + NH2O + N2
Method
Hence C6H8N2.
28. NaH is an example of :

(1) electron-rich hydride (2) metallic hydride (3) molecular hydride (4) saline hydride
Ans. (4)
Sol. Ionic or saline hydrides are stoichiometric compound of dihydrogen formed with most of the s-block elements
which are highly electropositive in character eg ® NaH.
29. The amphoteric hydroxide is :

(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) Sr(OH)2 (3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Be(OH)2 is amphoteric in nature.
Mg(OH)2, Ca(OH)2, Sr(OH)2 is basic in nature.
30. The chloride lthat CANNOT get hydrolysed is :

(1) SiCl4 (2) PbCl4 (3) SnCl4 (4) CCl4
Ans. (4)
Sol. CCl4 cannot hydrolyse due to the absence of vacant orbital at carbon atom.
JEE Main Online test_11-01-19_Morning (Maths)
x
1. Let f : R ® R be defined by f(x) = , x Î R. Then the range of f is :
1 + x2
é 1 1ù é 1 1ù
(1) R - ê - , ú (2) ê - , ú (3) (–1, 1) – {0} (4) R – [–1, 1]
ë 2 2û ë 2 2û
Ans. (2)
1 æ 1ù
Sol. f(x) = Î ç 0, ú if x > 0
1 è 2û
x+
x
at x = 0 f(x) = 0
1 é 1 ö é -1 1 ù
f(x) = Î ê - ,0 ÷ if x < 0, so ê , ú
1 ë 2 ø ë 2 2û
x+
x
x - 3 y + 2 z -1
2. The plane containing the line = = and also containing its projection of the plane
2 -1 3
2x + 3y – z = 5, contains which one of the following points?

(1) (–2, 2, 2) (2) (2, 0, –2) (3) (0, –2, 2) (4) (2, 2, 0)
Ans. (2)
r r
Sol. The normal vector to the required plane x1 ´ x 2
î ˆj kˆ
= 2 -1 3 = î(1 - 9) - ˆj( -8) + k8
ˆ
= -8iˆ + 8ˆj + 8kˆ
2 3 -1
Equation of plane :
–(x – 3) + (y + 2) + (z – 1) = 0
–x+3+y+2+z–1=0
–x+y+z+4=0
x–y–z–4=0
(2) satisfies this
1
3. Let fk (x) = (sink )x + cosk x) for k = 1, 2, 3,...... Then for all x Î R, the value of f4(x) = f6(x) is equal to :
k
-1 1 1 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 4 12 12
Ans. (3)
1 1 1 1 1
Sol. f4 (x) - f6 (x) = (sin4 x + cos 4 x) - (sin6 x + cos 6 x) = 1 æç 1 - 1 sin2 2x ö÷ - 1 æç 1 - 3 sin2 2x ö÷ = - -
4 6 4è 2 ø 6è 4 ø 4 6 12
ì -1, - 2 £ x < 0
4. Let f(x) = í 2 and g(x) = |f(x)| + f(|x|). Then, in the interval (–2, 2), g is :
î x - 1, 0 £ x £ 2
(1) not differentiable at two points (2) not differentiable at one point
(3) not continuous (4) differentiable at all points
Ans. (2)
Sol. f|x| = x2 – 1 – 2 £ x £ 2
ì 1 -2 £ x < 0
ï 2
f(x) = í1 - x 0£ x <1
ïx2 - 1 1 £ x £ 2
î
ì x2 x Î [ -2,0)
ï
g(x) = í 0 x Î [0,1)
ï2(x 2 - 1) x Î [1,2]
î
not differentiable at x = 1
5. Equation of a common tangent to the parabola y2 = 4x and the hyperbola xy = 2 is :

(1) x – 2y + 4 = 0 (2) x + y + 1 = 0 (3) x + 2y + 4 = 0 (4) 4x + 2y + 1 = 0
Ans. (3)
1
Sol. Let the equation of the tangent to the parabola is y = mx + it is also tangetn to the hyperbola, so we get
m
æ 1ö
x ç mx + ÷ = 2
è mø
x[m 2x + 1] = 2m
m2x2 – 2m + x = 0
D=0
1 – 4(–2m)m2 = 0
1 + 8m3 = 0
1
m=-
2
hence equation of tangent
1
y = - x-2
2
2y = – x – y
x + 2y + 4 = 0
3
æ 1 ö x + iy
6. Let ç -2 - i ÷ = (i - -1) , where x and y are real numbers, then y – x equals :
è 3 ø 27
(1) –85 (2) 85 (3) –91 (4) 91

Ans. (4)
3 3
æ 1 ö æ6+iö -[216 + i3 + 3.6.i(6 + i)] [216 - i + 108i + 18i2 ] -[198 + 107i]
Sol. ç -2 - i ÷ = - ç ÷ = =- =
è 3 ø è 3 ø 27 27 27
-198 - 107i x + iy
= =
27 27
y – x = 198 – 107 = 91
8
æ x3 3 ö
7. The sum of the real values of x for which the middle term in the binomial expansion of ç + ÷ equals 5670
è 3 xø
is :
(1) 4 (2) 0 (3) 6 (4) 8
Ans. (2)
8 x 2 81
Sol. Middle term, T8 +1 = T5 = C4 × = 5670
2 81 x 4
70x8 = 5670
x=± 3
8. If q is false and p Ù q « r is true, then which one of the following statements is a tautology?
(1) p Ú r (2) (p Ú r) ® (p Ù r) (3) (p Ù r) ® (p Ú r) (4) p Ù r
Ans. (3)
Sol. q is F then p Ù q is F
p Ù q « r is T then r is F
so p Ù r is F, p Ú r is F
(p Ù r) ® (p Ú r) is T
1- x2 m
9. If ò dx = A(x) 1- x2 + C, for a suitable chosen integer m and a function A(x), where C is a constant
x4
of integration, then (A(x))m equals :
-1 1 1 -1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
27x 9 9x 4 27x 6 3x 3
Ans. (1)
1
x2 -1
Sol. x2 dx
ò x 4
1 -2
Let -1= t Þ dx = dt
x2 x3
1 -1
dx = dt
72 2
(i) x ³ 0
3/2
1 1 t3 / 2 -1 æ 1 ö (1 - x 2 )3 / 2
- ò tdt = - +C= - 1÷ +C = - +C 1 3
2 2 3 3 çè x 2 ø 3x3 =- 3 (1 - x 2 ) +C
3x
2
1
so A(x) = - and m = 3
3x 3
(ii) x < 0 we get same

3
so A(x)
m æ -1 ö -1
=ç 3÷ =
è 3x ø 27x 9
10. Two integers are selected at random from the set {1, 2,....., 11}. Given that the sum of selected numbers is
even, the conditional probability that both the numbers are even is :
2 3 1 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 2 10
Ans. (1)
Sol. Two integers will either be both odd or both even S = 6C2 + 5C2
If both even = 5C2
5
C2
hence P = 5
C 2 + 6 C2
æ 0 2q r ö
ç ÷
A = ç p q -r ÷
11. Let . If AAT = I3, then p is :
ç p -q r ÷
è ø
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 5 6
Ans. (2)
Sol. Since AAT = I so A is orthogonal matrix sum of the squares of the non diagonal elements of one column is ^.
1
So 0 + p2 + p2 = 1 Þ | p |=
2
12. The value of r for which 20Cr 20C0 + 20Cr–1 20C1 + 20Cr–2 20C2 +.........+ 20C0 20Cr is maximum is:
(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 15
Ans. (1)
Sol. Given sum = Co. of xr in the expansion of (1 + x)20 (1 + x)20
i.e. (1 + x)40
which can be given as 40Cr.
n 40
It is maximum at r = = = 20
2 2
2
sin2 x
ò éxù dx
13. The value of the integral -2 1 (where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x) is :
êpú + 2
ë û
(1) 0 (2) 4 (3) 4–sin4 (4) sin4

Ans. (1)
sin2 x
Sol. f(x) =
éxù 1
êpú + 2
ë û
sin2 x
f( -x) = é x ù é -x ù é xù æxö
é -x ù 1 ; if x ¹ xp then ê ú + ê ú = -1; so ê - ú = -1 - ç ÷
ê p ú+2 ëpû ë p û ë pû è pø
ë û
sin2 x sin2 x
we get f( - x) = = = - f(x) ; odd function hence 0.
æxö 1 æéxù 1ö
-1 - ç ÷ + -ç ê ú + ÷
èpø 2 è ëpû 2 ø
14. The straight line x + 2y = 1 meets the coordinate axes at A and B. A circle is drawn through A, B and the
origin. Then the sum of perpendicular distances from A and B on the tangent to the circle at the origin is :
5 5
(1) 4 5 (2) 2 5 (3) (4)
4 2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Equation of circle :
æ 1ö
(x - 1)x + ç y - ÷ y = 0
è 2 ø
x2 – x + y2 – y = 0
y
x2 + y2 - x - =0
2
Equation of tangent at (0, 0)
1 1
0 + 0 - (x - 0) - (y + 0) = 0
2 4
y
x+ = 0 Þ 2x + y = 0
2
1
1
p1 : 2 =
5 2 5
2 2
p2 : =
5 5
4 +1 5
p1 + p 2 = =
2 5 2
15. Two circles with equal radii are intersecting at the points (0, 1) and (0, –1). The tangent at the point (0, 1) to
one of the circles passes through the centre of the other circle. Then the distance between the centers of
these circles is :
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 1
Ans. (2)
2r
Sol. CBC2D is an aquare so C1C2 = 2 R and DC1 =
2
r2
hence 1 + = r2
2
r= 2
hence C1C2 = 2
dy
16. If xloge(logex) – x2 + y2 = 4 (y > 0), then at x = e is equal to :
dx
(1 + 2e) (2e - 1) e (1 + 2e)

(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4)
2 4+e 2 4+e 4+e 4 + e2
Ans. (2)
Sol. Diff. w.r.t. x
1 1
x× × + loge (loge x) - 2x + 2y ' = 0
log x x
y at x = e, y2 = 4 + e2 is y = 4 + e2
y' at x = e, 1 + 0 – 2e + 2 4 + e2 y '
2e - 1
y' =
2 4 + e2
17. If tangents are drawn to the ellipse x2 + 2y2 = 2 at all points on the ellipses other than its four vertices then
the mid points of the tangents intercepted between the coordinate axes lie on the curve :
1 1 x2 y2 1 1 x2 y2
(1) 2x 2 + 4y 2 = 1 (2) + =1 (3) 4x 2 + 2y 2 = 1 (4) + =1
2 4 4 2
Ans. (1)
x2 y2
Sol. + = 1 any point on the ellipse ( 2 cos q, isin q)
2 1
equation of tangent to the ellipse
x y
+ =1
2 sec q cosecq
Let the mid point be (h, k)
2 sec q 1
so h = 2
Þ cos q =
2h
cos q 1
k= Þ sin q =
2 2k
1 1
sin2 q + cos2 q = 1 Þ + =1
2h2 4k 2
18. A square is inscribed in the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 8y – 103 = 0 with its sides parallel to the coordinate axes.
Then the distance of the vertex of this square which is nearest to the origin is :
(1) 6 (2) 137 (3) 13 (4) 41
Ans. (4)
Sol. Centre (3, –4) radius : 8 2
R = 9 + 16 + 103
=8 2
OA = 13
OB = 265
OC = 137
OD = 41
a3 a9
19. Let a1, a2,.....a10 be a G.P. If a = 25 , then a equals :
1 5
(1) 53 (2) 2(52) (3) 54 (4) 4(52)

Ans. (3)
a3 a r2
Sol. = 25, 1 = 25 Þ r 2 = 25
a1 a1
a9 ar 8
= = r 4 = 625 = 54
a5 ar 4
20. If one real root of the quadratic equation 81x2 + kx + 256 = 0 is cube of the other root, then a value of k is :
(1) –81 (2) 100 (3) –300 (4) 144
Ans. (3)
Sol. 81x2 + kx + 256 = 0
4 256 4
Product of roots : a = Þ± =a
81 3
3 -k 100
Sum of roots a + a = = ±
81 27
k = ± 300
so k = –300
21. The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and the straight line x= 4y – 2 is :
5 9 3 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 4 8
Ans. (2)
Sol. P.O.I. of both curves we get x = 2, –1
2
æ x + 2 x2 ö 9
so ò-1çè 4 - 4 ÷ødx = 8
p
22. The direction ratios of normal to the plane through the points (0, –1, 0) and (0, 0, 1) and making an angle
4
with the plane y – z + 5 = 0 are :
(1) 2 3,1, -1 (2) 2,1, -1 (3) 2, –1, 1 (4) 1, 2, - 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. Let the d.r. of the normal to the plane be a, b, c then equation of plane, ax + b(y + 1) + cz = 0
it passes through (0, 0, 1)
we get b + c = 0 .........(i)
p a × 0 + b × 1 + c( -1)
also cos 4 =
2 a2 + b2 + c 2
a2 = 2c2 Þ a = ± 2c
so d.r.s. ( 2, -1,1) or ( 2,1, -1)
23. In a triangle, the sum of lengths of two sides is x and the product of the lengths of the same two sides is y.
If x2 – c2 = y, where c is the length of the third side of the triangle, then the circumradius of the triangle is :
c c y 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) y
3 3 3 2
Ans. (1)
Sol. Let the two sides be a and b. So a + b = x and ab = y and x2 – c2 = y Þ (a + b)2 – c2 = ab
a 2 + b2 - c 2 1 -1
= - Þ cosc =
2ab 2 2
2p
Ðc =
3
c c c
R= = =
2 sinc 3 3
2
2
27
24. The sum of an infinite geometric series with positive terms is 3 and the sum of the cubes of its terms is .
19
Then the common ratio of this series is :
2 1 4 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 3 9 3
Ans. (4)
a
Sol. =3
1- r
a = 3(1 – r)
a3 27
=
1 - r 3 19
27(1 - r)3 27 2
3
= Þ 6r2 – 13r + 6 = 0 Þ r = as |r| < 1
1- r 19 3
dy æ 2x + 1 ö
25. If y(x) is the solution of the differential equation + y = e -2 x ,x > 0, where y(1) = 1 e-2 , then :
dx çè x ÷ø 2
loge 2
(1) y(loge 2) = (2) y(x) is decreasing in (0, 1)
4
æ1 ö
(3) y(x) is decreasing in ç ,1÷ (4) y(loge2) = loge4
è2 ø
Ans. (3)
Sol. L.D.E.
2x +1 1
2x
I.F. = e ò x
dx
= eò
2 + dx
x
= e2 x +log x = xe
y × xe2 x = ò e -2 x e 2 x × x dx + c ,
x2
y × x × e2 x = + c,
2
2yxe2x = x2 + 2c1
æ e- 2 ö xe-2 x
If posses through ç1, ÷ , we get c = 0, so y =
è 2 ø 2
1
y' = [ -2xe-2 x + e2x ]
2
æ1 ö
decreasing ç ,1÷
è2 ø
log2
y log2 =
8
r r
26. ˆ b = î + lˆj + 4kˆ and cr = 2iˆ + 4ˆj + (l2 - 1)kˆ be coplanar vectors. Then the non-zero vector
Let a = î + 2ˆj + 4k,
r r
a ´ c is :
(1) -14iˆ - 5ˆj (2) -14iˆ + 5ˆj (3) -10iˆ - 5ˆj (4) -10iˆ + 5ˆj
Ans. (4)
1 2 4
r rr
[abc] = 0 Þ 1 l 4 =0
Sol.
2
2 4 l -1
Þ (l3 – l – 16) – 2(l2 – 1 – 8) + 4(4 – 2l) = 0

Þ l3 – 2l2 – 9l + 18 = 0
Þ l2(l – 2) – 9(l – 2) = 0
Þ x = 3, –3, 2
r
for l = ±3 a is parallel to c
so l = 2
î ˆj kˆ
r r
a ´ c = 1 2 4 = -10iˆ + ˆj5
2 4 3
27. If the system of linear equations

2x + 2y + 3z = a
3x – y + 5z = b
x – 3y + 2z = c
where a, b, c are non-zero real numbers, has more than one solution, then :
(1) a + b + c = 0 (2) b – c – a = 0 (3) b + c – a = 0 (4) b – c + a = 0
Ans. (2)
Sol. L.H.S. of E1, E2, E3 satisfies
E + E3 = E2
so we get a + c = b
28. Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then :
tan( p sin2 x) + (| x | - sin(x[x]))2

lim :
x ®0
x2
(1) does not exist (2) equals 0 (3) equals p (4) equals p + 1
Ans. (1)
tan( p sin2 x) + (x)2

Sol. 0+ : lim
x®0
x2
tan p sin2 x p sin2 x

: lim +1 = p + 1
x ®0
p sin2 x x2
tan(p sin2 x) + ( - x + sin x)2

0– : lim
x®0
x2
p + (–1 + 1) = p
L.H.L. ¹ R.H.L.
2
29. The maximum value of thet function f(x) = 3x3 – 18x2 + 27x – 40 on the set S = x Î R : x + 30 £ 11x is :
(1) 122 (2) –122 (3) 222 (4) –222

Ans. (1)
Sol. S = {x Î R : x2 – 11x + 30 £ 0} = {x Î R : x Î [5, 6]}
f'(x) = 9(x – 1)(x – 3) > 0 " x Î [5, 6]
so f(x) is increasing in [5, 6]
Hence max value f(6) = 122
1
30. The outcome of each of 30 items was observed ; 10 items gave outcome each and the remaining 10 items
2
1 4
gave outcome + d each. If the variance of this outcome data is then |d| equals :
2 3
2 5
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 2
3 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. Variance is independent of shift of origin i.e. var. (x + b) = var.x
1
so we shift the given data by .
2
10d2 + 10.0 2 + 10d2 4

We get, - 02 =
30 3
20d2 = 40 Þ d2 = 2 Þ | d |= 2
Physics
1. A thermometer granduated according to a linear scale reads a value x0 when in contact with boiling water,
and x0/3 when in contact with ice. What is the temperature of an object in ºC, if this thermometer in the
contact with the object reads x0/2?
(1) 60 (2) 40 (3) 35 (*4) 25
Ans. (4)
x0 æ x0 ö
Sol. Tº C = & ç x 0 - ÷ = (100 - 0º C) ;
6 è 3ø
300
x0 = = 150
2
150
Tº C = = 25º C
6
2. In the experimental set up of metre bridge shown in the figure, the null point is obtained at a distance of 40
cm from A. If a 10 W resistor is connected in series with R1, the null point shifts by 10 cm. The resistance
that should be connected in parallel with (R1 + 10) W such that the null point shifts back to its initial position
is :
(1) 40 W (2) 30 W (3) 20 W (4*) 60 W

Ans. (4)
R1 2
Sol. =
R2 3
R1 + 10
= 1 Þ R = R + 10
R2 2 1
2R 2
\ + 10 = R 2
3
R2
= 10 = R 2 = 30W & R1 = 20W
3
30 ´ R 2
=
30 + R 3
30
R = 60W
3. A monochromatic light is incident at a certain angle on an equilateral triangular prism and suffers minimum
deviation. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is 3 , then the angle of incidence is :
(1) 90º (2) 30º (*3) 60º (4) 45º
Ans. (3)
A
Sol. i = e and r1 = r2 = = 30º
2
1´ sini = 3 ´ sin30º
3
sini = = sin60º
2
i = 60º
4. An amplitude modulated signal is plotted below :
Which one of the following best describes the above signal ?

(1) (9 + sin(2.5p × 105t))sin(2p × 104t) V (2) (9 + sin(4p × 104t))sin(5p × 105t) V
(3) (1 + 9sin(2p × 104t))sin(2.5p × 105t) V (*4) (9 + sin(2p × 104t))sin(2.5p × 105t) V
Ans. (4)
2p
Sol. wm = = 2p ´ 10 4 sec -1
100 ´ 10 -6
2p
wc = = 0.25p ´ 106 sec -1
8 ´ 10-6
vmax = 10 = vc + vm
vmin. = 8 = vc – vm
\ vc = 9 mv & vm = 1 mv
Equation of AM wave -
vAM = [vc + vm sinwmt] sinwct
= [9 + sin(2p × 104)t]sin(2.5p × 105)t
5. A metal ball of mass 0.1 kg is heated upto 500ºC and dropped into a vessel of heat capacity 800 JK–1 and
containing 0.5 kg water. The initial temperature of water and vessel is 30ºC. What is the approximate
percentage increment in the temperature of the water? [Specific Heat Capacities of water and metal are,
respectively, 4200 Jkg–1 K–1 and 400 Jkg–1 K–1]
(1) 30% (2) 15% (*3) 20% (4) 25%
Ans. (3)
Sol. 0.1 × 400 × (500 – T) = 0.5 × 4200 × (T – 30) + 800(T – 30)
T = 30.4ºC
DT 6.4
´ 100 = ´ 100 = 20.1%
T 30
6. In a hydrogen like atom, when an electron jumps from the M-shell to the L-shell, the wavelength of emitted
radiation is l. If an electron jumps from N-shell to the L-shell, the wavelength of emitted radiation will be :
27 25 16 20
(1) l (2) l (3) l (*4) l
20 16 25 27
Ans. (4)
Sol. For M-shell – L shell
1 æ 1 1 ö 5K
= kç 2 – 2 ÷ =
l è 2 3 ø 36
for N-shell – L-Shell
1 æ 1 1 ö 3K
= kç 2 – 2 ÷ = 16
l' è2 4 ø
20l
l' =
27
7. In a double-slit experiment, green light (5303 Å) falls on a double slit having a separation of 19.44 mm and a
width of 4.05 mm. The number of bright fringes between the first and the second diffraction minima is :
(*1) 05 (2) 10 (3) 09 (4) 04
Ans. (1)
Dl
Sol. For defraction 1st minima y1 = = 0.2469Dl
a
2nd minima
2Dl
y2 = = 0.4938Dl
a
for interference, path diff.
dy
= 4.8l
D
Path diff. at Q
dy
= 9.6l
D
so, order of maxima in b/w P & Q is 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
so, 5 bright fringes all present b/w P & Q
8. The region between y = 0 and y = d contains a magnetic field B = B = Bẑ . A particle of mass m and charge
mn
q enters the region with a velocity n = n î . If d = , the acceleration of the charged particle at the point
2qB
of its emergence at the other side is :
qnB æ 3 ˆ 1 ˆö qnB æç î + ĵ ö÷ qnB æç 1 3 ö÷ qnB æç – ĵ + î ö÷

(1) m çç – 2 i + 2 j ÷÷ (2) m ç ÷ (3) m ç 2 î – 2 ĵ ÷ (4) m ç ÷
è ø è 2 ø è ø è 2 ø
Ans. (1)
Sol.
d 1 p
sin q = Þ sin q = Þ q =
2d 2 6
| q | vb
a= (cos q (– î ) + sin q ĵ)
m
| q | vb æç 3 1 ö
a= – î + ĵ ÷
m çè 2 2 ÷ø
9. A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube with sides 1 cm has a magnetic dipole moment of 20 × 10–6
J/T when a magnetic intensity of 60 × 103 A/m is applied. Its magnetic susceptibility is :
(1) 4.3 × 10–2 (2) 3.3 × 10–2 (*3) 3.3 × 10–4 (4) 2.3 × 10–2
Ans. (3)
I M 20 ´ 10 -6 20 1
Sol. x= &I= = = 20 A / m ; x= = ´ 10-3 = 3.3 × 10–4
H v 10 -6 60 ´ 10 3
3
10. A copper wire is wound on a wooden frame, whose shape is that of an equilateral triangle. If the linear
dimension of each side of the frame is increased by a factor of 3, keeping the number of turns of the coil per
unit length of the frame the same, then the self inductance of the coil.
(1) decreases by a factor of 9 3 (2) increases by a factor of 27

(*3) increases by a factor of 3 (3) decreases by a factor of 9
Ans. (3)
Sol. Total length L will remains same
L = (3a)N (N = total turns)
Length of windinig = (d)N
(d = diameter of wire)
2
æ 3 2ö
self inductance = m0n2 Al = m0n çç 4 a ÷÷ dN
è ø
self inductance a a2N a a
so self inductance will become 3 times.
11. An electric field of 1000 V/m is applied to an electric dipole at angle of 45º. The value of electric dipole
moment is 10–29 C.m. What is the potential energy of the electric dipole?
(1) – 20 × 10–18 J (2) – 9 × 10–20 J (3) –10 × 10–29 J (*4) –7 × 10–27 J
Ans. (4)
1
Sol. U = –PEcosq = –10–29 × 1000 × cos45º = - ´ 10 -26 = -5 2 ´ 10 -27 J ; - 7 ´ 10 -27 J
2
12. In the circuit shown, the potential difference between A and B is :
(1*) 2 V (2) 6 V (3) 1 V (4) 3 V

Ans. (1)
Sol. P.D. across AB will be equal to battery equivalent across CD
E1 E2 E3 1 2 3
+ + + +
r r2 r3 6
v AB = v CD = 1 = 1 1 1 = = 2v
1 1 1 1 1 1 3
+ + + +
r1 r2 r3 1 1 1
13. A string is wound around a hollows cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 0.5 m. If the string is now pulled with a
horizontal force of 40 N, and the cylinder is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface (see figure), then
the angular acceleration of the cylinder will be (Neglect the mass and thickness of the string) :
(1) 12 rad/s2 (*2) 16 rad/s2 (3) 10 rad/s2 (4) 20 rad/s2

Ans. (2)
Sol. 40 + f = m(Ra) ....(1)
40R – fR = mR2a
40 – f = mRa .....(2)
from (1) & (2) f = 0
40
40 = mR a Þ a =
mR
400 400
a= =
5´5 25
a = 16 rad/sec2
14. A circular disc D1 of mass M and radius R has two identical discs D2 and D3 of the same mas M and radius
R attached rigidly at its opposite ends (see figure). The moment of inertia of the system about the axis OO¢,
passing through the centre of D1, as shown in the figure, will be :
4 2
(1) MR2 (*2) 3 MR2 (3) MR2 (4) MR2
5 3
Ans. (2)
MR2 é MR2 ù
Sol. I= + 2ê + MR 2 ú
2 ë 4 û
MR 2 10MR2
= +
2 4
6MR 2
= = 3MR 2
2
15. A particle moves from the point (2.0 î + 4.0 ĵ ) m, at t = 0, with an initial velocity (5.0 î + 4.0 ĵ ) ms–1. It is acted
upon by a constant force which produces a constant acceleration (4.0 î + 4.0 ĵ ) ms–2. What is the distance
of the particle from the origin at time 2s ?
(1) 5 m (2) 10 2 m (3) 15 m (*4) 20 2 m

Ans. (4)
1
Sol. s = (5iˆ + 4ˆj)(2) + (4iˆ + 4ˆj)(2)2
2
s = 10iˆ + 8ˆj + 8iˆ + 8ˆj

r r
rf - ri = 18iˆ + 16jˆ
r
rf = 20iˆ + 20ˆj
r
| rf |= 20 2
16. A 27 mW laser beam has a cross-sectional area of 10 mm 2. The magnitude of the maximum electric field in
this electromagnetic wave is given by :
[Given permittivity of space Î0 = 9 × 10–12 SI units, Speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s]
(1) 1 kV/m (2) 0.7 kV/m (*3) 1.4 kV/m (4) 2 kV /m
Ans. (3)
P 1
Sol. I= = Î0 CE02
A 2
2P 2 ´ 27 ´ 10 -3
E0 = =
e0 CA 9 ´ 10-12 ´ 3 ´ 108 ´ 10 ´ 10 -6
E0 = 0.2 ´ 107 = 2 ´ 10 6 = 2 ´ 103 v / m = 1.4 kv/m
17. In a process, temperature and volume of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas are varied according to the
relation VT = K, where K is a constant. In this process the temperature of the gas is increased by DT. The
amount of heat absorbed by gas is (R is gas constant).
1 3 2K 1
(*1) RDT (2) RDT (3) DT (4) KRDT
2 2 3 2
Ans. (1)
Sol. VT = K
é PV ù
Vê ú =K
ë nR û
PV2 = nRK
PV2 = K [K = nRK]
R
Q C= + CV (for polytropric process)
1- x
R 3R R
C= + =
1- 2 2 2
R
\ DQ = nC DT = DT
2
18. In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of the light incident on a metal is changed from 300 nm to 400
æ hc ö
nm. The decrease in the stopping potential is close to : ç = 1240 nm - V ÷
è e ø
(1) 1.5 V (*2) 1.0 V (3) 2.0 V (4) 0.5 V

Ans. (2)
hc
Sol. = f + eV1 .........(1)
l1
hc
= f + eV2 .........(2)
l2
é1 1ù
hc ê - ú = e(V1 - V2 )
ë l1 l 2 û
hc é l 2 - l1ù 100 nm
\ V1 – V2 = e ê l l ú = (1240nmv) ´ 300 ´ 400 nm2 ; 1V
ë 1 2 û
19. A galvanometer having a resistance of 20 W and 30 divisions on both sides has figure of merit 0.005 ampere/
division. The resistance that should be connected in series such that it can be used as a voltmeter upto 15
volt, is :
(1) 100 W (*2) 80 W (3) 125 W (4) 120 W
Ans. (2)
Sol. Rg = 20W
N = 30 (on both sides)
I
figure of merit = = 0.005 A / div.
f
æ 1 ö f
Current sensitivity = ç ÷=
è 0.005 ø I
Hg(max.) = 0.005 × 30
= 15 × 10–2 = 0.15
15 = 0.15[20 + R]
R = 80W
20. When 100 g of a liquid A at 100ºC is added to 50 g of a liquid B at temperature 75ºC, the temperature of the
mixture becomes 90ºC. The temperature of the mixture, if 100 g of liquid A at 100ºC is added to 50 g of liquid
B at 50ºC, will be :
(*1) 80ºC (2) 85ºC (3) 70ºC (4) 60ºC
Ans. (1)
Sol. 100 × SA × [100 – 90] = 50 × SB [90 – 75]
2SA = 1.5 SB
3
SA = SB
4
Now,
100 × SA × [100 – T] = 50 × SB (T – 50)
æ3ö
2 ç ÷ [100 - T] = T - 50
è4ø
300 – 3T = 2T – 100
5T = 400 Þ T = 80ºC
21. If speed (V), acceleration (A) and force (F) are considered as fundamental units, the dimension of Young's
modulus will be :
(1) V–2 A2F2 (2) V–4 A–2F (3) V–2A2F–2 (*4) V–4A2F
Ans. (4)
F Dl F
Sol. = y× Þ [Y] =
A l A
ML
F=
T2
F 2
L= T
M
F2 4 æ Vö
L2 = T çQ T = A ÷
M2 è ø
4
F2 æ V ö
L2 = ç ÷
M2 è A ø
F2 V4
L2 = 2 2
× 2 [F = MA]
MA A
V4 [F]
L2 = [Y] = = F' V -4 A 2
A2 [A]
22. The mass and the diameter of a planet are three times the respective values for the Earth. The period of
oscillation of a simple pendulum on the Earth is 2 s. The period of oscillation of the same pendulum on the
planet would be :
2 3 3
(1) s (2) s (*3) 2 3 s (4) s
3 2 2
Ans. (3)
Gm
Sol. g=
R2
2
gp 3Me é Re ù
= ê ú
ge Me ëê Rp ûú
2
é 1ù 1
= 3ê ú =
ë3û 3
Also, Ta 1
g
Tp ge
= = 3
Te gp
Tp = 2 3 sec
23. Two rods A and B of identical dimensions are at temperature 30ºC. If A is heated upto 180ºC and B upto TºC,
then the new lengths are the same. If the ratio of the coefficients of linear expansion of A and B is 4 : 3, then
the value of T is :
(1) 250ºC (*2) 230ºC (3) 200ºC (4) 270ºC
Ans. (2)
Sol. Dl = Dl2
la1DT1 = la2DT2
a1 DT2
=
a 2 DT1
4 T - 30
=
3 180 - 30
T = 230ºC
24. A particle of mass m is moving in a straight line with momentum p. Starting at time t = 0, a force F = kt acts
in the same direction on the moving particle during time interval T so that its momentum changes from p to
3p. Here k is a constant. The value of T is :
k p 2p 2k
(1) 2 (*2) 2 (3) (4)
p k k p
Ans. (2)
dp
Sol. = f = kt
dt
3p T
ò dp = ò kt dt
p 0
kT 2
2p =
2
p
T=2
k
25. A simple pendulum of length 1 m is oscillating with an angular frequency 10 rad/s. The support of the
pendulum starts oscillating up and down with a small angular frequency of 1 rad/s and an amplitude of 10–2
m. The relative change in the angular frequency of the pendulum is best given by :
(1) 1 rad/s (2) 10–5 rad/s (*3) 10–3 rad/s (4) 10–1 rad/s
Ans. (3)
geff
Sol. Angular freq. of pendulum w =
l
Dw 1 Dgeff
=
w 2 geff.
1 Dg
Dw = ´w
2 g
1 (2Aw2s )
Dw = ´ 100 = 10–3 rad/sec
2 100
ws = Angular freq. of support.
26. A particle of mass m and charge q is in an electric and magnetic field given by
r r
E = 2iˆ + 3ˆj ; B = 4ˆj + 6kˆ
The charged particle is shifted from the origin to the point P(x = 1 ; y = 1) along a straight path. The
magnitude of the total work done is :
(1) (0.35)q (2) (2.5)q (*3) 5q (4) (0.15)q
Ans. (3)
r r r r r r
Sol. Fnet = qE + q(V ´ B) = (2qiˆ + 3qj)
ˆ + q[V ´ B]
r r
w = Fnet .S = 2q + 3q
w = 5q
27. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting on it is 1 N,
and the distance of the particle from the origin is 5 m, the angle between the force and the position vector is
(in radians) :
p p p p
(1) (2) (3) (*4)
4 8 3 6
Ans. (4)
Sol. t = force × ^ distance
2.5 = 1 × 5 × sinq
1 p
sin q = = sin
2 6
p
q=
6
28. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2mF, are to be connected in a configuration to obtain an effective
æ 6 ö
capacitance of ç ÷ mF. Which of the combinations, shown in figures below, will achieve the desired value?
è 13 ø
(1) (2)
(3) (*4)
Ans. (4)
1
Sol. C12 = 6mF, C23 = mF
2
1
6´
C13 = 2 = 3 ´ 2 = 6 mF
1 13 13
6+
2
29. A pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion and its maximum kinetic energy is K1. If the length of the
pendulum is doubled and it performs simple harmonic motion with the same amplitude as in the first case, its
maximum kinetic energy is K2. Then :
K1 K1
(1) K2 = K1 (2) K 2 = (*3) K2 = 2K1 (4) K 2 =
2 4
Ans. (3)
Sol. Maximum K.E. at lowest pt. B is -
k = mgl(1 – cosq)
q ® Angular amplitude
k1 = mgl(1 – cosq)
k2 = mg(2l)(1 – cosq)
k1 1
= Þ k 2 = 2k1
k2 2
30. The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each with a forward resistance of 50W. If the battery
voltage is 6 V, the current through the 100W resistance (in Amperes) is :
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.027 (3) 0.030 (*4) 0.020

Ans. (4)
Sol. No current flows through diode D2 as it is reverse biased. So, total resistance = 50 + 150 + 100 = 300W.
V 6
Current through 100W resistance I = = = 0.02 amp
R 300
Chemistry
1. The reaction, MgO(s) + C(s) ® Mg(s) + CO(g), for which DrHº = + 491.1 kJ mol–1 and DrSº = 198.0 JK–1
mol–1, is not feasible at 298 K. Temperature above which reaction will be feasible is :
(1) 2040.5 K (*2) 2480.3 K (3) 2380.5 K (4) 1890.0 K
Ans. (2)
Sol. DH – TDS < 0
DH 491.1´ 1000
T> =
DS 198
T > 2480.3 K
2. The hydride that is NOT electron deficient is :

(*1) SiH4 (2) AlH3 (3) GaH3 (4) B2H6
Ans. (1)
Sol. SiH4 ® Electron – Precise molecular hydride.
AlH3, GaH3, B2H6 ® Electron – deficient molecular hydride.
3. ˆˆˆ
†
For the equilibrium, 2H2 O ‡ˆˆ + -
ˆ H3 O + OH , the value of DGº at 298 K is approximately :
(1) –100 kJ mol–1 (2) –80 kJ mol–1 (3) 100 kJ mol–1 (*4) 80 kJ mol–1
Ans. (4)
Sol. DG = –RT ln K
DGº = –2.303 RT log K
DGº = –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 log (10–14)
DGº = 80000 J/mol = 80 kJ / mol
4. The relative stability of +1 oxidation state of group 13 elements follows the order :
(1) Ga < Al < In < Tl (2) Tl < Ln < Ga < Al (3) Al < Ga < Tl < ln (*4) Al < Ga < ln < Tl
Ans. (4)
Sol. As we move down the group (13th, 14th, 15th); (Max. oxidation state-2) becomes more stable due to inert pair
effect.
5. Among the colloids cheese (C), milk (M) and smoke (S), the correct combination of the dispersed phase and
dispersion medium, respectively is :
(*1) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in solid; S : solid in gas
(2) C : solid in liquid; M : liquid in liquid; S : gas in solid
(3) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in liquid; S : solid in gas
(4) C : solid in liquid; M : solid in liquid; S : solid in gas
Ans. (1)
Sol. Cheese ® Liquid is solid
Milk ® Liquid is liquid
Smoke ® Solid is gas
6. Taj Mahal is being slowly disfigured and discoloured. This is primarily due to :
(1) global warming (*2) acid rain (3) water pollution (4) soil pollution
Ans. (2)
Sol. Acid rain reacts with marble, CaCO3 of Taj Mahal causing damage to monument and Monument is being
slowly disfigured and the marble is getting discoloured and lustreless.
CaCO3 + H2SO4 ® CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
(1) (*2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
8. The correct match between item-I and Item-II is :

Item-I Item-II
(A) Ester test (P) Tyr
(B) Carbylamine test (Q) Asp
(C) Phthalein dye test (R) Ser
(S) Lys
(*1) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (S); (C)®(P) (2) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (S); (C)®(R)
(3) (A) ® (R); (B) ® (Q); (C)®(P) (4) (A) ® (R); (B) ® (S); (C)®(Q)
Ans. (1)
Sol. (1) Aspartic Acid =
(2) Tyrosine =
(3) Lysine =
(4) Serine =
(A) Ester Test ® (Q) Aspartic Acid (Asp) (Acidic AA)

(B) Carbyl amine test ® (S) Lysine (NH2 gr present)
(C) Pthalein dye ® (P) Tysosine b/c phenolic gr is present.
2-
9. The coordination number of Th in K4[Th(C2O4)4(OH2)2] is : C2 O 4 = Oxalato
(*1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 14

Ans. (1)
Sol. C2O42– is a bidentate ligand.
So the co-ordination number of Th in K4[Th(C2O4)4 (OH2)2] is 10.
10. Which of the following compounds reacts with ethylmagnesium bromide and also decolourizes bromine
water solution:
(1) (2) (*3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
11. The radius of the largest sphere which fits properly at the centre of the edge ofa body centrerd cubic unit cell
is : (Edge length is represented by 'a')
(1) 0.047 a (*2) 0.067 a (3) 0.027 a (4) 0.134 a
Ans. (2)
a
Sol. = R+r
2
3a = 4R
0.5a = 0.433a + r
r = 0.067a
12. The reaction that does NOT define calcination is :

(*1) 2Cu2 S + 3O2 ¾¾
D
® 2Cu2 O + 2SO2 (2) ZnCO3 ¾¾
D
® ZnO + CO2
(3) Fe2 O3 × XH2 O ¾¾

D
® Fe2 O 3 + XH2 O (4) CaCO 3 × MgCO3 ¾¾
D
® CaO + MgO + 2CO 2
Ans. (1)
D
Sol. 2Cu2S + 3O2 ¾¾® 2Cu2O + 2SO2 is roasting process as Cu2S is sulphide ore.
13. K2HgI4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The value of its van't Hoff factor (i) is :
(1) 1.6 (2) 2.0 (*3) 1.8 (4) 2.2
Ans. (3)
Sol. k2HgI4 ¾® 2k+ + HgI42–
i = 1 + (n – 1)a
a = 0.4
n=3
i = 1 + 2 × 0.4 = 1.8
14. The reaction 2X ® B is a zeroth order reaction. If the initial concentration of X is 0.2 M, the half-life is 6 h.
When the initial concentration of X is 0.5 M, the time required to reach its final concentration of 0.2 M will be:
(1) 7.2 h (2) 12.0 h (3) 9.0 h (*4) 18.0 h
Ans. (4)
t1/2 C0 0.2 1
Sol. = =6= ; k=
2 2k 2k 60
Ct = C0 – kt
1
0.2 = 0.5 – ×t
60
t = 18 hrs.
15. The homopolymer formed from 4-hydroxy-butanoic acid is :
(1) (*2) (3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
16. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is :

Item-I Item-II
(A) Allosteric effect (P) Molecule binding to the active site of enzyme
(B) Competitive inhibitor (Q) Molecule crucial for communication in the body
(C) Receptor (R) Molecule binding to a site other than the active site of enzyme
(D) Poison (S) Molecule binding to the enzyme covalently
(1) (A) ® (R); (B) ® (P); (C)®(S); (D)®(Q) (2) (A) ® (P); (B) ® (R); (C)®(Q); (D)®(S)
(*3) (A) ® (R); (B) ® (P); (C)®(Q); (D)®(S) (4) (A) ® (P); (B) ® (R); (C)®(S); (D)®(Q)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Informative
17. The major product obtained in the following conversion is :
(*1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
18. The major product obtained in the following reaction is :
(1) (*2) (3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
19. The de Broglie wavelengtgh (l) associated with a photoelectron varies with the frequency (n) of the incident
radiation as, [n0 is threshold frequency] :
1 1 1 1
lµ lµ lµ
(*1) 1
(2) 3
(3) l µ ( n - n ) (4) 1
(n - n 0 ) 2
(n - n 0 ) 2
0 (n - n 0 )4
Ans. (1)
1
Sol. h n = hn 0 + mv 2
2
1
h(n – n 0 ) = mv 2
2
1/ 2
æ 2h(v – v 0 ) ö
v=ç ÷
è m ø
1/ 2
h hé m ù
l= = ê ú
mv m ë 2h(v – v 0 ) û
1
lµ
(v – v 0 )1/ 2
20. Which of the following compounds will produce a precipitate with AgNO3?
(1) (2) (*3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
21. The correct option with respect to the Pauling electronegativity values of the elements is :
(*1) Ga < Ge (2) Te > Se (3) Si < Al (4) P > S
Ans. (1)
Sol. As we move left to Right, Electronegativity increases.
Si > Al ; S > P ; Ge > Ga.
As we move top to bottom; electronegativity decreases.
Se > Te.
4KOH,O
2
22. A ¾¾¾¾¾® 2B + 2H2 O
(Green)
4HCl ® 2C
3B ¾¾¾¾ + MnO2 + 2H2 O
(Purple)
H2O,KI ® 2A + 2KOH + D
2C ¾¾¾¾
In the above sequence of reactions, A and D, respectively, are :
(1) KI and KMnO4 (2) KIO3 and MnO2 (*3) MnO2 and KIO3 (4) KI and K2MnO4
Ans. (3)
B
2MnO2 2K 2MnO 4
Sol. + 4KOH + O2 ®
A 2H2 O
3MnO2– 2MnO4–
4
+ 4H+ ® + MnO2 + 2H2 O
B C
2MnO 2 IO –
2MnO 4– + H2O + I – ¾® + 2OH– + 3
A D
23. Given the equilibrium constant :
KC of the reaction :
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) ® Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s) is 10 × 1015, calculate the E0cell of this reaction at 298 K
é RT ù
ê 2.303 F at 298K = 0.059 V ú
ë û
(1) 0.04728 V (*2) 0.4728 V (3) 0.4728 mV (4) 0.04728 mV
Ans. (2)
0.0591 0.0591
Sol. E0cell = logK C = log(1016) = 0.4728 V
n 2
24. Math the following items in column-I with the corresponding, items in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(i) Na2CO3×10H2O (A) Portland cement ingredient
(ii) Mg(HCO3)2 (B) Castner-Kellner process
(iii) NaOH (C) Solvay process
(IV) Ca3Al2O6 (D) Temporary hardness
(*1) (i) ® (C); (ii) ® (D); (iii)®(B); (iv)®(A) (2) (i) ® (D); (ii) ® (A); (iii)®(B); (iv)®(C)
(3) (i) ® (C); (ii) ® (B); (iii)®(D); (iv)®(A) (4) (i) ® (B); (ii) ® (C); (iii)®(A); (iv)®(D)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Na2CO3 . 10H2O ® Solvay process
Mg(HCO3)2 ® Temporary hardness
NaOH ® Castner – Kellner process
Ca3Al2O6 ® Portland cement ingredient
25. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a chemical reaction at an absolute temperature T is given by
Dr Gº = A - BT
Where A and B are non-zero constants. Which of the following is TRUE about this reaction?
(*1) Endothermic if A > 0 (2) Exothermic if B < 0
(3) Endothermic if A < 0 and B > 0 (4) Exothermic if A > 0 and B < 0
Ans. (1)
Sol. DG = A – BT
DG = DH – TDS
DH = A = +ve (endothermic)
26. The number of bridging CO ligand(s) and Co-Co bond(s) in Co2(CO)8, respectively are :
(1) 0 and 2 (2) 4 and 0 (*3) 2 and 1 (4) 2 and 0
Ans. (3)
Sol. Co2(CO)8.
Number of bridging CO ligands is 2.

Co – Co bond is 1.
27. A compound 'X' on treatment with Br2/NaOH, provided C3H9N, which gives positive carbylamine test. Compound
'X' is :
(*1) CH3CH2CH2CONH2 (2) CH3COCH2NHCH3 (3) CH3CH2COCH2NH2 (4) CH3 CON(CH3)2
Ans. (1)
Sol.
28. The higher concentration of which gas in air can cause stiffness of flower buds?
(*1) SO2 (2) CO (3) NO2 (4) CO2
Ans. (1)
Sol. High concentration of SO2 leads to stiffness of flower buds which eventually fall off from plants.
29. In the following compound,
the favourable site/s for protonation is/are :

(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) (3) (a) and (e) (*4) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans. (4)
Sol. The lone pair of nitrogen present on b, c, d are localized, so they are easily available for protonation.
30. 25 ml of the given HCl solution requires 30 mL of 0.1 M sodium carbonate solution. What is the volume of this
HCl solution required to titrate 30 mL of 0.2 M aqueous NaOH solution?
(1) 12.5 mL (2) 75 mL (*3) 25 mL (4) 50 mL
Ans. (3)
Sol. Eq. of HCl = Eq. of Na2CO3
25 × N = 2 × 0.1 × 30
HCl = 0.24 N
Eq. of HCl = eq. of NaOH
0.24 × V = 30 × 0.2
V = 25 ml
Maths
1. If a hyperbola has length of its conjugate axis equal to 5 and the distance between its foci is 13, then the
eccentricity of the hyperbola is :
13 13 13
(1) (2) (*3) (4) 2
6 8 12
Ans. (3)
Sol. 2b = 5
2ae = 13
13
ae =
2
a2e2 = a2 + b2
a=b
b2 13
e2 = 1+ 2 gives e =
a 12
2. Let 3 î + ˆj, î + 3 ˆj and b î + (1 - b)jˆ respectively be the position vectors of the points A, B and C with
3
respect to the origin O. If the distance of C from the bisector of the acute angle between OA and OB is ,
2
then the sum of all possible values of b is :
(1) 2 (2) 3 (*3) 1 (4) 4
Ans. (3)
1
Sol. y –1= (x – 3 )
3
3y – 3 = x – 3
x – 3y = 0
y – 3 = 3 ( x – 1)
y – 3 = 3x – 3
3x – y = 0
x – 3y 3x – y
=±
2 2
x – 3x = 3y – y
x(1 – 3 ) = – y(1 – 3 )
x + y = 0 (obtuse angle)
and x – y = 0 (acute angle)
| b – (1 – b) | 3
=
2 2
|2b – 1| = 3
b = 2 or –1
Sum is 1
3. If the point (2, a, b) lies on the plane which passes through the points (3, 4, 2) and (7, 0, 6) and is perpendicular
to the plane 2x – 5y = 15, then 2a – 3b is equal to :
(*1) 7 (2) 17 (3) 5 (4) 12
Ans. (1)
Sol. Normal vector to the plane = ?
x 1 = 4 ĵ – 4 ĵ + 4k̂
x 2 = 2 ĵ – 5 ĵ + 0k̂
î ˆj kˆ
uur uur
x1 ´ x 2 = 4 –4 4 = 4(5ˆj + 2ˆj – 3k)
ˆ
2 –5 0
Eq. of plane : 5(x – 7) + 2(y – 0) – 3(z – 6) = 0

5x – 35 + 2y – 3z + 18 = 0
5x + 2y – 3z – 17 = 0
10 + 2a – 3b – 17 = 0
2a – 3b = 7
4. All x satisfying the inequality (cot–1x)2 – 7(cot–1x) + 10 > 0, lie in the interval :
(*1) (–¥, cot5) È (cot2, ¥) (2) (–¥, cot5) È (cot4, cot2)
(3) (cot5, cot4) (4) (cot2, ¥)
Ans. (1)
Sol. (cot–1x – 2) (cot–1x – 5) > 0
cot–1x > 5 and cot–1x < 2
x < cot 5 and x > cot 2
x - 3 y +1 z - 6 x+5 y-2 z-3

5. Two lines = = and = = intersect at the point R. The reflection of R in the
1 3 -1 7 -6 4
xy-plane has coordinates :
(1) (2, –4, 7) (2) (–2, 4, 7) (*3) (2, –4, –7) (4) (2, 4, 7)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Point on L1 (l + 3, 3l – 1, –l + 6)
Point on L2 (7u – 5, –6u + 2, 4u + 3)
l + 3 = 7u – 5 and 3l – 1 = –6u + 2
l – 1, u = 1
Point R (2, –4, 7)
Refection in xy plane i.e. z = 0
h – 2 k + 4 m – 7 –2(7)
= = =
0 0 1 1
h = 2, k = –4, m = –7
6. A circle cuts a chord of length 4a on the x-axis and passes through a point on the y-axis, distant 2b from the
origin. Then the locus of the centre of this circle, is :
(*1) a parabola (2) a straight line (3) a hyperbola (4) an ellipse
Ans. (1)
Sol. The equation of circle is x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0.
It passes through (0, 2b) : 0 + 4b2 + 0 + 4fb + c = 0
Also 2 g2 – c = 4a , g2 – c = 4a2 , c = g2 – 4a2

now, 4b2 + 0 + 4fb + g2 – 4a2 = 0, we get x2 – 4yb + 4(b2 – a2) = 0 parabola.
7. Let z be a complex number such that |z| + z = 3 + i (where i = -1 . Then |z| is equal to :
5 34 41 5
(*1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 4 4
Ans. (1)
Sol. |z| + z = 3 + i
z = 3 – |z| + i , let 3 – |z| = a
then |z| = 3 – a
Þ z = a + i Þ | z | = a2 + 1
4
9 + a2 – 6a = a2 + 1 , 6a = 8 , a =
3
4 5
|z|=3– =
3 3
8. Let a and b be the roots of the quadratic equation x2 sinq – x(sinqcosq + 1) + cosq = 0
æ n (-1)n ö ¥
(0 < q < 45º), and a < b. Then å ç a + n ÷ is equal to :

n=0 è b ø
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) + (*2) + (3) - (4) -
1 + cos q 1 - sin q 1 - cos q 1 + sin q 1 + cos q 1 - sin q 1 - cos q 1 + sin q
Ans. (2)
Sol. D = (1 + cosq sinq)2 – 4sinq cosq = (1 – cosq sinq)2
So, a = cosq, b = cosecq
¥
æ n (–1)n ö ¥ ¥
1 1
å ça + ÷= (cos q)n + å (– sin q)n = å +
ç b n ÷ 1 – cos q 1 + sin q
n =0 è ø n =0 n= 0
p/ 4
dx
9. The integral ò sin 2x(tan
p/6
5
x + cot 5 x)
equals :
1 æ 1 ö 1æ p -1 æ 1 öö p 1 æp -1 æ 1 öö
(1) tan-1 ç ÷ (2) 5 ç 4 tan ç ÷÷ (3) (*4) 10 ç 4 - tan ç ÷÷
20 è9 3 ø è è 3 3 øø 40 è è 9 3 øø
Ans. (4)
p/4
1 tan 4 x sec 2 x
Sol. =
2 ò
p/6
(1 + tan10 x )
dx put tan5x = t
1
1 1 1 æp 1 ö
ç – tan –1 ÷
=
10 ò 5 1+ t 2
dt =
10 çè 4 ÷
9 3ø
æ 1 ö
çç ÷÷
è 3ø
x d- x
10. Let f(x) - 2 2
- , x Î R, where a, b and d are non-zero real constants. Then :
a +x b + (d - x)2
2
(1) f' is not a continuous function of x

(2) f is a decreasing function of x
(3) f is neither increasing nor decreasing function of x
(*4) f is an increasing function of x
Ans. (4)
1.2x 2(d – x)(–1)

a2 + x2 – x b 2 + (d – x)2 (–1) – (d – x)
Sol. 2 a +x –2 2
2 b2 + (d – x)2
f '(x) =
(a2 + x 2 ) b2 + (d – x)2
a2 b2
= + > 0 " x ÎR
(a2 + x 2 )3/ 2 (b2 + (d – x)2 )3 /2
So f(x) is an increasing function.
11. Let S = {1, 2,....., 20}. A subset B of S is said to be "nice", if the sum of the elements of B is 203. Then the
probability that a randomly chosen subset of S is "nice" is :
4 7 5 6
(1) (2) (*3) (4)
220 220 220 220
Ans. (3)
Sol. Sum of all number of set S = 210.
We have to find numbers whose sum is 203.
So basically we have to remove 7.
7 can be obtained as 7
1, 6
2, 5
3, 4
1, 2, 4
Total =5
Samples space = 220
5
So
2 20
12. A bag contains 30 white balls and 10 red balls. 16 balls are drawn one by one randomly from the bag with
æ mean of X ö
replacement. If X be the number of white balls drawn, then ç ÷ is equal to :
è s tan dard deviation of X ø
4 3
(*1) 4 3 (2) (3) 4 (4) 3 2
3
Ans. (1)
30 3
Sol. Probability of getting a white ball = =
40 4
10 1
Probability of getting a red ball = =
40 4
n = 16
Mean = np and variance = npq
3 3 1
So mean = 16. and s.d. = 16 . .
4 4 4
So mean = 12 and s.d. = 3
mean of x 12 4 ´ 3
So = = =4 3
s.d. of x 3 3
13. If in a parallelogram ABDC, the coordinates of A, B and C are respectively (1, 2), (3, 4) and (2, 5), then the
equation of the diagonal AD is :
(1) 3x + 5y – 13 = 0 (2) 5x + 3y – 11 = 0 (3) 3x – 5y + 7 = 0 (*4) 5x – 3y + 1 = 0
Ans. (4)
Sol.
It gives D : (4, 7)
Line AD is : 5x – 3y + 1 = 0
x cot(4x)
14. lim is equal to :
x ®0
sin2 x cot 2 (2x)
(1) 4 (2) 0 (*3) 1 (4) 2

Ans. (3)
tan2 2x 2
2 x 4x
x tan 2x 4x 2
lim = lim =1
Sol. x ®0
tan4x sin2 x x ®0 tan4x sin2 x 2
4x. 2 x
4x x
15. The area (in sq. units) in the first quadrant bounded by the parabola, y = x2 + 1, the tangent to it at the point
(2, 5) and the coordinate axes is :
187 14 37 8
(1) (2) (*3) (4)
24 3 24 3
Ans. (3)
Sol. Eq. of tangent : 4x – y = 3
æ3 ö
It cuts x axis at ç , 0 ÷
è4 ø
2
2 1 5 37
So, ò (x
0
+ 1) dx – . .5 =
2 4 24
x +1
16. If ò dx = f(x) 2x - 1 + C , where C is a constant of integration, then f(x) is equal to :
2x - 1
2 1 2 1
(1) (x - 4) (*2) (x + 4) (3) (x + 2) (4) (x + 1)
3 3 3 3
Ans. (2)
Sol. Put 2x – 1 = t2 Þ 2dx = 2t dt Þ dx = t . dt
t2 + 1
+1 1 æ t3 ö t
2 t2 + 3 = ç + 3t ÷ + c = ( t 2 + 9) + c
ç ÷
ò t
t dt = ò 2
dt 2è 3 ø 6
æ 2x – 1 + 9 ö æx+4ö
= 2x – 1 ç ÷ + c = 2x – 1 ç ÷+c
è 6 ø è 3 ø
x+4
So, f ( x ) =
3
2 n
æ q + 1ö æ q + 1ö æ q + 1ö
17. Let Sn = 1 + q + q2 +.......+ qn and Tn = 1 + ç ÷ +ç ÷ + ...... + ç ÷ where q is a real number and
è 2 ø è 2 ø è 2 ø
q ¹ 1. If 101C1 + 101C2 ×S1 +.....+ 101C101 ×S100 = aT100, then a is equal to :

(1) 202 (*2) 2100 (3) 299 (4) 200
Ans. (2)
æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö
ç1 – ç ÷ ÷
ç è 2 ø ÷
Sol. 101C + 101C2 (1 + q) + ...... + 101C101 (1 + q + ..... + q100) = 2a = è ø
1
1– q
(1 – q101 )(1 – q) æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö

101
C1 (1 – q) + 101C2 (1 – q2) + ..... + 101C1 = 2aç1 – ç ÷ ÷
(1 – q) ç è 2 ø ÷
è ø
æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö
ç ÷
(2101 – 1) – ((1 + q)101 – 1) = 2a ç1 – ç 2 ÷ ÷
è è ø ø
æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö
2101 ç 1 – ç ÷ ÷ = 2aç1 – ç ÷ ÷
ç è 2 ø ÷ ç è 2 ø ÷
è ø è ø
a = 2100.
18. Let A and B be two invertible matrices of order 3 × 3. IF det(ABAT) = 8 and det(AB–1) = 8, then det(BA–1BT)
is equal to :
1 1
(1) 16 (2) 1 (*3) (4)
16 4
Ans. (3)
Sol. |A| |B| |AT| = 8 and |A|2 |B| = 8
|A| 1
Also = 8 Þ |A| = 4 and | B | =
|B| 2
1 T 1 1 1 1 1 1
|BA–1 BT| = | B | = | A | | B |= 2 . 4 . 2 = 4 . 4 = 16
19. Let x, y be positive real numbers and m, n positive integers. The maximum value of the expression
x m yn
1+ x 2m
1 + y 2n is :
m+n 1 1
(1) 1 (2) 6mn (*3) (4)
4 2
Ans. (3)
1
Sol.
æ m 1 öæ n 1 ö
ç x + m ÷ çç y + n ÷÷
è x øè y ø
1
xm +
xm ³ 1 Þ 1 1
£
2 1 2
xm +
xm
1 1
Similarly £
1 2
yn + n
y
1 1
Together £
æ m 1 öæ n 1 ö 4
ç x + m ÷çç y + n ÷÷
è x øè y ø
20. The number of functions f from {1, 2, 3,...., 20} onto (1, 2, 3,...., 20)} such that f(k) is a multiple of 3, whenever
k is a multiple of 4, is :
(1) 65 × (15)! (2) 5! × 6! (3) 56 × 15 (*4) (15)! × 6!
Ans. (4)
Sol. f(k) = (3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18)
For k = 4, 8, 12, 16, 20
For these k we have 6.5.4, 3.2 ways = 6!
For other numbers we have 15! ways.
So total = 15!.6!
1
21. Let a function f: (0, ¥) ® [0, ¥) be defined by f(x) = 1 - . Then f is :
x
(1) not injective but it is surjective (2) neither injective nor surjective
(3) both injective as well as surjective (4) injective only
Ans. (1)
ì1– x
ïï x ,0 < x <1
Sol. f(x) = í
ï x -1 ,x ³1
ïî x
Range is [0, ¥)
22. Let K be the set of all real values of x where the function
f(x) = sin|x| – |x| + 2(x – p) cos|x| is not differentiable. Then the set K is equal to :
(*1) f(an empty set) (2) {0, p} (3) {p} (4) {0}
Ans. (1)
Sol. f(x) is differentiable at 0, and p both. So empty set.
23. Contrapositive of the statement "If two numbers are not equal, then their squares are not equal." is :
(1) If the squares of two numbers are not equal, then the numbers are not equal.
(*2) If the squares of two numbers are equal, then the numbers are equal.
(3) If the squares of two numbers are not equal, then the numbers are qual.
(4) If the squares of two numbers are equal, then the numbers are not equal.
Ans. (2)
Sol. Contrapositive of p ® q is ~q ® ~p
24. If 19th terms of a non-zero A.P. is zero, then its (49th term) : (29th term) is :
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 2 : 1 (*4) 3 : 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. a + 18d = 0
a + 48 d –18d + 48d 30 d 3
= = =
a + 28 d – 18d + 28d 10 d 1
b+c c +a a+b cos A cosB cosC

25. Given - = for a DABC with usual notation. If = = , then the ordered triad
11 12 13 a b g
(a, b, g) has a value :

(1) (5, 12, 13) (*2) (7, 19, 25) (3) (3, 4, 5) (4) (19, 7, 25)
Ans. (2)
Sol. b + c = 11m, c + a = 12m, a + b = 13m
a = 7m, b = 6m, c = 5m
Using consine formula,
1 19 5
cos A = , cos B = , cos C =
5 35 7
So, a : b : g = 7 : 19 : 25
dy
26. The solution of the differential equation, = (x - y)2 , when y(1) = 1, is :
dx
2-y 1+ x - y
(1) loge = 2(y - 1) (2) – loge = x+y-2
2-x 1- x + y
2- x 1- x + y
(3) loge = x-y (*4) - loge = 2(x - 1)
2- y 1+ x - y
Ans. (4)
dy dt
Sol. Let (x – y) = t Þ = 1–
dx dx
dt 1
1– = t2 Þ òdt = 1 dx ò
dx 1– t2
1 1+ t 1 1+ x – y
ln = x + c Þ ln = x + c given y(1) = 1
2 1– t 2 1– x + y
So, we get c = –1
1+ x – y
So, ln 1 – x + y = 2( x – 1)
a2
27. Let (x + 10)50 + (x – 10)50 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 +.......+ a50x50, for all x Î R; then a is equal to
0
(1) 12.00 (2) 12.50 (3) 12.75 (*4) 12.25

Ans. (4)
Sol. (10 + x)50 + (10 – x)50
a2 = 2.50C2 1048
a0 = 2.50C01050
50
a2 C2
So, = = 12.25
a0 10 2
28. Let the length of the latus rectum of an ellipse with its major axis along x-axis and centre at the origin, be 8.
If the distance between the foci of this ellipse is equal to the length of its minor axis, then which one of the
following points lies on it ?
(1) 4 2,2 2 (2) 4 2,2 3 (3) 4 3,2 3 (*4) 4 3,2 2
Ans. (4)
2b 2 b2 b
Sol. =8Þ = 4 Þ b. = 4
a a a
b
2ae = 2b Þ =e
a
b2 1
e2 = 1 – 2
Þ e 2 = 1 – e 2 Þ 2e 2 = 1 Þ e = Þ b = 4 2 and a = 8
a 2
x 2 b2
So, equn. of illipse is + =1
64 32
(4) satisfies.
29. If the area of the triangle whose one vertex is at the vertex of the parabola, y2 + 4(x – a2) = 0 and the other two
vertices are the points of intersection of the parabola and y-axis is 250 sq. units, then a value of 'a' is :
(1) 5(21/3) (2) 5 5 (3) (10)2/ 3 (*4) 5
Ans. (4)
Sol. Vertex of the parabola is (a2, 0)
y2 = –4(x – a2)
P.O.I. of parabola and x = 0 Þ (0, ±2a)
1
Area of triangle = .4a.(a 2 ) = 250
2
a3 = 125 or a = 5
a-b-c 2a 2a
30. If 2b b - c - a 2b = (a + b + c) (x + a + b + c)2, x ¹ 0 and a + b + c ¹ 0, then x is equal to :
2c 2c c -a-b
(1) 2(a + b + c) (*2) –2(a + b + c) (3) abc (4) –(a + b + c)

Ans. (2)
a +b+c a+b +c a+b+c

2b b–c –a 2b
Sol. R1 ® R1 + R2 + R3 we get
2c 2c c –a–b
1 1 1
= (a + b + c ) 2b b – c – a 2b
2c 2c c –a–b
1 0 0
C2 ® C2 – C1
= (a + b + c) 2b –(a + b + c) 0
C ® C3 – C1
2c 2c c–a–b 3
= (a + b + c) [–(a + b + c) (c – a – b)]
= (a + b + c) (a + b + c)2
x = –2(a + b + c)
JEE Main Online Test 2019 12-01-19_Morning
Physics :
1. Let the moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of length 30 cm (inner radius 10 cm and outer radius 20 cm),
about its axis be I. The radius of a thin cylinder of the same mass such that its moment of inertia about its
axis is also I, is :
(1) 14 cm (2) 18 cm (3) 16 (4) 12 cm
Ans. (3)
m éë(20)2 + (10)2 ùû
Sol. I= = mK 2
2
Þ K2 = 250 Þ K = 5 10 Þ 16 cm
2. A point source of light, S is placed at a distance L in front of the centre of plane mirror of width d which is
hanging verticaly on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line parallel to the mirror, at a distance
2L as shown below. The distance over which the man can see the image of the light source in the mirror is:
d
(1) d (2) (3) 2d (4) 3d
2
Ans. (4)
Sol.
By similar triangle AB = 3d
3. Two electric bulbs, rated at (25 W, 220 V) and (100 W, 220V), are connected in series across a 220 V voltage
source. If the 25 W and 100 W bulbs draw powers P1 and P2 respectively, then :
(1) P1 = 16 W, P2 = 4 W (2) P1 = 16 W, P2 = 9 W
(3) P1 = 9 W, P2 = 16 W (3) P1 = 4 W, P2 16 W
Ans. (1)
V 2 (220)2
Sol. R1 = = = 484 × 4W
P 25
(220)2
R2 = = 484 W
100
220 1
I= = Amp
(484)(5) 11
2
æ 1ö
P1 = I2R1 = ç ÷ × 484 × 4 = 16W,,
è 11 ø
1
P2 = ´ 484 = 4W
121
r
4. The position vector of the centre of mass r cm of an asymmetric uniform bar of negligible area of cross-
section as shown in figure is :
r 13 5
(1) r cm = Lx̂ + Lŷ
8 8
r 3 11
(2) r cm = Lx̂ + Lŷ
8 8
r 11 3
(3) r cm = Lx̂ + Lŷ
8 8
r 5 13
(4) r cm = Lx̂ + Lŷ
8 8
Ans. (1)
æ 5L ö
2M(L) + M(2L) + M ç ÷ 13L
Sol. XC.M. = è 2 ø =
8
4M
æLö
2M(L) + M ç ÷
YC.M. = è 2 ø = 5L
4M 8
r 13L 5L
rCM = xˆ + yˆ
8 8
5. The galvanometer deflection, when key K1 is closed but K2 is open, equals q0 (see figure). On closing K2 is
q0
also and adjusting R2 to 5W , the deflection in galvanometer becomes . The resistance of galvanometer
5
is, then, given by [Neglect the internal resistance of battery] :
(1) 5 W (2) 12 W (3) 22 W (4) 25 W

Ans. (3)
E0
Sol. = Kq0 ... (i)
220 + G
E0 æ 5 ö æq ö
ç ÷ = Kç 0 ÷
æ G´ 5 ö è 5 + G ø è 5ø ... (ii)
ç 220 + G + 5 ÷
è ø
Solving above two equations G = 22 W
6. A proton and an a-particle (with their masses in the ratio of 1 : 4 and charges in the ratio of 1 : 2) are
accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. If a uniform magnetic field (B) is set up perpendicular
to their velocities, the ratio of the radii rp : ra of the circular paths described by them will be :
(1) 1: 3 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1: 2 (4) 1 : 2

Ans. (3)
2mqv m
Sol. r= Þ rµ
qB q
rp 1 2 1
= ´ =
ra 4 1 2
7. In the figure shown, a circuit contains two identical resistors with resistance R = 5W and an inductance with
L = 2mH. An ideal battery of 15V is connected in the circuit. What will be the current through the battery long
after the switch is closed?
(1) 6 A (2) 3 A (3) 7.5 A (4) 5.5 A

Ans. (1)
Sol. QR=5W
15 15
Isteady state = + = 6A
R R
8. A straight rod of length L extends from x = a to x = L + a. The gravitational force it exerts on a point mass 'm'
at x = 0, if the mass per unit length of the rod is A + Bx2, is given
é æ1 1 ö ù é æ 1 1ö ù
(1) Gm ê A ç – ÷ + BL ú (2) Gm ê A ç – ÷ + BL ú
ë èa a +Lø û ë èa+L aø û
é æ 1 1ö ù é æ1 1 ö ù
(3) Gm ê A ç – ÷ – BL ú (4) Gm ê A ç – ÷ – BL ú
ë è a + L a ø û ë è a a + L ø û
Ans. (1)
a +L
GmdM a +L
(A + Bx 2 )dx é a +L A (a + L)
ù é æ 1 ö a +L ù
Sol. F= ò 2 = Gm ò 2
= Gm êò 2 dx + ò Bdx ú = Gm ê A ç - ÷ + B(L)ú
a x a x ëa x a û êë è x ø a úû
é æ1 1 ö ù
= Gm ê A ç - ÷ + BL ú
ë èa a +L ø û
9. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown for a gas, the work done is :
(1) 1J (2) 5 J (3) 10 J (4) 30 J

Ans. (3)
1
Sol. W= ò pdV = (4)(5) = 10 J
2
10. A person standing on an open ground hears the sound of a jet aeroplane, coming from north at an angle 60º
with ground level. But he finds the aeroplane right vertically above his position. If n is the speed of sound,
speed of the plane is :
3 2n n
(1) n (2) n (3) (4)
2 3 2
Ans. (4)
dcos 60° d
Sol. =
VP VS
VS
VP =
2
11. A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R. The thermal
conductivity of the material of the inner cylinder is K1 and that of the outer cylinder is K2. Assuming no loss
of heat, the effective thermal conductivity of the system for heat flowing along the length of the cylinder is :
2K1 + 3K 2 K1 + 3K 2 K1 + K 2
(1) K1 + K2 (2) (3) (4)
5 4 2
Ans. (3)
1 1 1
Sol. = +
R eq R1 R 2
K eq (4pR2 ) K1( pR2 ) 3K 2 pR 2

= +
l l l
æ K + 3K 2 ö
K eq = ç 1 ÷
è 4 ø
12. The least count of the main scale of a screw gauge is 1 mm. The minimum number of divisions on its circular
scale required to measure 5 mm diameter of a wire is :
(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 50 (4) 500
Ans. (2)
1´ 10 -3
Sol. 1 C.S.d = 5 × 10–6 =
N
1000
N= = 200
5
13. A light wave is incident normally on a glass slab of refractive index 1.5. If 4% of light gets reflected and the
amplitude of the electric field of the incident light is 30V/m, then the amplitude of the electric field for the wave
propogating in the glass medium will be :
(1) 30V/m (2) 24 V/m (3) 6V/m (4) 10 V/m
Ans. (2)
1
Sol. I= e0E0 2C
2
1 2
I' = eE V
2
I' = 0.96 I
e0 C
E = 0.96 E0
e 0 er V
E = 0.96 mr
m = m r er Q mr » 1
0.96 0.96
E= E0 = (30) = 24 V/m
m 1.5
14. There is a uniform spherically symmetric surface charge density at a distance R0 from the origin. The charge
distribution is initially at rest and starts expanding because of mutual repulsion. The figure that represents
best the sped V(R(t)) of the distribution as a function of its instantaneous radius R(t) is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (1)
KQ2 KQ2 1
Sol. = + mV 2
2r0 2r 2
KQ2 æ 1 1 ö
V= ç - ÷
m è r0 r ø
dV
is positive & decreasing with increase in r..
dr
15. Determine the electric dipole moment of the system of three charges, placed on the vertices of anequilateral
triangle, as shown in the figure :
î + ˆj ˆj – î
(1) 2ql ˆj (2) (ql ) (*3) – 3ql ˆj (4) 3ql
2 2
Ans. (3)
r æ 60° ö
Sol. P = 2pcos ç ÷ = 2(q l)cos30 = 3qL
è 2 ø
r
p = - 3 q l ˆj
16. An ideal batteryof 4V and resistance R are connected in series in the primary circuit of a potentiometer of
length 1 m and resistance 5W. The value of R, to give a potential difference of 5 mV across 10 cm of
potentiometer wire, is :
(1) 495 W (2) 395 W (3) 480 W (4) 490 W
Ans. (2)
5 ´ 10 -3 æ 4 ö
Sol. =ç ´ 5 ÷ = Potential gradient
10 ´ 10 -2 è R + 5 ø
1 20
= Þ 400 = R + 5
20 R + 5
R = 395 W
17. The output of the given logic circuit is :
(1) AB + AB (2) AB (3) AB (4) AB + AB

Ans. (2)
Sol. Y = A .AB . AB + B
= A . AB + ABB
= A A + B + ABB
= AB + 0
dR
18. In a meter bridge, the wire of length 1 m has a non-uniform cross-section such that, the variation of its
dl
dR 1
resistance R with length l is µ . Two equal resistance are connected as shown in the figure.
dl l
The galvanometer has zero deflection when the jockey is at point P. What is the length AP?
(1) 0.2 m (2) 0.25 m (3) 0.3 m (4) 0.35 m

Ans. (2)
Cdl
Sol. dR =
l
l 1
dl dl
òC
0 l
= Cò
l l
l 1
2 l =2 l
0 l
2 l= 2-2 l
Þ4 l= 2
1
Þ l= = 0.25m
4
1 2
19. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) = kr . If Bohr's quantization
2
conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals and energy levels vary with quantum number n as :
1 1
(1) rn µ n, En µ (2) rn µ n2, En µ (3) rn µ n , En µ n (4) rn µ n, En µ n
n n2
Ans. (3)
dv
Sol. Fr = - = -Kr
dr
mv 2
Fr = Kr =
r
Þ Kr2 = mv2 ... (i)
nh
& mvr = ... (ii)
2p
By (i) & (ii)
1/ 4
æ h2 ö 1/2
r =ç 2 ÷ n
è 4 p mK ø
Þrµ n
1
KE = mv 2 Þ KE µ n
2
&vµn ÞEµn
20. A satellite of mass M is in a circular orbit of radius R about the centre of the earth. A meteortie of the same
mass falling towards the earth, collides with the satellite completely inelastically. The speeds of the satellite
and the meteorite are the same, just before the collision. The subsequent motion of the combined body will
be :
(1) In the same circular orbit of radius R (2) In an elliptical orbit
(3) Such that it escapes to infinity (4) In a circular orbit of a different radius
Ans. (2)
Sol.
By momentum conservation,
v v v2 v2 v
vx = vy = Þ vNet = + =
2 2 4 4 2
Q vt < vNet < v0

Þ Path is elliptical
21. A passenger train of length 60 m travels at a speed of 80 km/hr. Another freight train of length 120 m travels
at a speed of 30 km/hr. The ratio fo times taken by the passenger train to completely cross the freight train
when : (i) they are moving in the same direction, and (ii) in the opposite directions is :
3 11 25 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 5 11 2
Ans. (2)
x x
Sol. t1 = =
v - u 50
x x
t2 = =
v + u 110
t1 11
=
t2 5
22. An ideal gas occupies a volume of 2 m3 at a pressure of 3 × 106 Pa. The energy of the gas is :
(1) 6 × 104 J (2) 3 × 102 J (3) 9 × 106 J (4) 108 J
Ans. (3)
3 3
Sol. E= PV = (3 ´ 10 6 )(2) = 9 × 106 J
2 2
23. What is the position and nature of image formed by lens combination shown in figure? (f1, f2 are focal lengths)
(1) 70 cm from point B at right ; real (2) 70 cm from point B at left; virtual
20
(3) 40 cm from point B at right ; real (4) cm from point B at right, real
3
Ans. (1)
1 1 1
Sol. + =
V1 20 5
1 1 1 3
= - =
V1 5 20 20
20
V1 = cm
3
20 14
U2 = -2= cm
3 3
1 3 1 1 1
- =- Þ =
v 14 5 v 70
Þ v = 70 cm
Þ Final image is 70 cm right at B.
24. Two light identical springs of spring constant k are attached horizontally at the two ends of a uniform
horizontalrod AB of length k and mass m. The rod is pivoted at its centre 'O' and can rotate freely in horizontal
plane. The other ends of the two springs are fixed to right supports as shown in figure. The rod is gently
pushed through a small angle and released. The frequency of resulting oscillation is :
1 k 1 2k 1 6k 1 3k
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2p m 2p m 2p m 2p m
Ans. (3)
Sol. tNet = Ia
æ l ö l ml
2
-2 ç k q ÷ = á
è 2 ø2 12
æ 6k ö
Þ a = - ç ÷ q Þ a = –w2q
èmø
6k
Þ w=
m
6k
Þ 2pf =
m
1 6k
Þ f=
2p m
25. As shown in the figure, two infinitely long, identical wires are bent by 90º and placed in such a way that the
segments LP and QM are along the x-axis, while segments PS and QN are parallel to the y-axis.
If OP = OQ = 4 cm, and the magnitude of the magnetic field at O is 10–4 T, and the two wires carry equal
currents (see figure), the magnitude of the current in each wire and the direction of the magnetic field at O will
be (m0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2) :
(1) 40 A, perpendicular into the page (2) 40 A, perpendicular outof the page
(3) 20 A, perpendicular out of the page (4) 20 A, perpendicular into the page
Ans. (4)
æmIö
Sol. B = 2ç 0 ÷
è 4pd ø
2(4p ´ 10 -7 )I
10-4 =
æ 4 ö
(4p) ç ÷
è 100 ø
I = 20A
By Right hand thumb rule, it is clear that magnetic field should be into the plane of paper.
26. A 100 V carrier wave is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by a modulating signal. What is the modulation
index?
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.3
Ans. (3)
Sol. From given information
AC = 100
AC + AM = 160
AC – AM = 40
AC = 100, AM = 60
AM 60
Modulation index = m = A = 100 = 0.6
C
27. A travelling harmonic wave is represented by the equation y(x, t) = 10–3sin(50t + 2x), where x and y are in
meter and t is in seconds. Which of the following is a correct statement about the wave?
(1) The wave is propagating along the negative x-axis with speed 25 ms–1.
(2) The wave is propagating along the negative x-axis with speed 100 ms–1.
(3) The wave is propagating along the positive x-axis with speed 100 ms–1.
(4) The wave is propagating along the positive x-axis with speed 25 ms–1.
Ans. (1)
w 50
Sol. v= = = 25 m/sec
k 2
As coefficient of both t & x is positive Þ wave is travelling in negative x-axis.
28. In the figure shown, after thw switch 'S' is turned from position 'A' to position 'B', the energy dissipated in the
circuit in termsof capacitance 'C' and total charge 'Q' is :
3 Q2 3 Q2 5 Q2 1 Q2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 C 4 C 8 C 8 C
Ans. (1)
Sol. Q = CV (initial charge)
V
V' = (voltage long time after connecting two capacitors)
4
CV' + 3CV' = CV
2
1 2 1 æVö 3 3 Q2
Heat = |DU| = CV - 4C ç ÷ = CV 2 =
2 2 è4ø 8 8 C
29. A simple pendulum, made of a string of length k and a bob of mass m, is released from a smallangle q0.
It strikes a block of mass M, kept on a horizontal surface at its lowest point of oscillations, elastically.
It bounces back and goesup to an angle q1. Then M is given by :
m æ q0 + q1 ö m æ q0 – q1 ö æ q0 + q1 ö æ q0 – q1 ö
(1) 2 ç q – q ÷ (2) 2 ç q + q ÷ (3) m ç q – q ÷ (*4) m ç q + q ÷
è 0 1 ø è 0 1 ø è 0 1 ø è 0 1 ø
Ans. (4)
Sol. u = 2gl(1 - cos q0 )
æ m -Mö
V=ç ÷u
è m + Mø
æm-Mö
2gl(1 - cos q1 ) = ç ÷u
èm +Mø
M æ q0 - q1 ö æ q0 - q1 ö
=ç ÷
m è q0 + q1 ø Þ M = ç q + q ÷m
è 0 1 ø
30. A particle A of mass 'm' and charge 'q' is accelerated by a potential difference of 50 V. Another particle B of
mass '4 m' and charge 'q' is accelerated by a potential difference of 2500 V. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
lA
lB is close to :
(1) 10.00 (2) 14.14 (3) 4.47 (4) 0.07
Ans. (2)
h
Sol. l=
2mqv
lp 4 ´ 1´ 2500
= = 10 2 = 14.14
la 1´ 1´ 50
Chemistry
1. Decomposition of X exhibits a rate constant of 0.05 mg/year. How many years are required for the decomposition
of 5 mg of X into 2.5 mg?
(1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 25 (4) 20
Ans. (2)
Sol. It is a zero order reaction
a0 5
t 1/ 2 = = = 50 year
2K 2 ´ 0.05
2. Water samples with BOD values of 4 ppm and 18 ppm, respectively, are :
(1) Clean and Highly polluted (2) Highly polluted and Clean
(3) Clean and Clean (4) Highly polluted and Highly polluted
Ans. (1)
Sol. Clean water would have BOD value of less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value
of 17 ppm or more.
3. In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is formed at the cathode. The cathode is made out of :
(1) Platinum (2) Pure aluminium (3) Carbon (4) Copper
Ans. (3)
Sol. In the Hall - heroult process, Steel vessel with lining of carbon acts as cathode and graphite anode is used.
4. Given
Gas H2 CH4 CO2 SO2
Cirtical 33 190 304 630
Temperature/K
On the basis of data given above, predict which of the following gases shows least adsorption on a definite
amount of charcoal?
(1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) SO2 (4) H2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Less critical temperature less adsorption of gas.
5. cannot be prepared
by :
(1) HCHO + PhCH(CH3)CH2Mgx (2) PhCOCH2CH3 + CH3MgX
(3) CH3CH2COCH3 + PhMgX (4) PhCOCH3 + CH3CH2MgX
Ans. (1)
Sol.
6. Iodine reacts with concentrated HNO3 to yield Y along with other products. The oxidation state of iodine in Y,
is :
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 1 (4) 5
Ans. (4)
I2 2HIO3
Sol. + 10 HNO3 ® + 10NO2 + 4H2 O
0 +5
7. The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will be an/a :

(1) Alkaline earth metal (2) Inner-transition metal
(3) Transition metal (4) Alkali metal
Ans. (1)
Sol. Z = 120 will be alkaline earth metal.
8. For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which of the following plots does not correctly describe the
relation between various thermodynamic quantities?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol. For diatomic ideal gas
5
CV = R
2
7
CP = R
2
CV depends on T and independent on V
CP depends on T and independent on P
9. The correct order for acid strength of compounds :

CH º CH, CH3 – C º CH and CH2 = CH2 is as follows :
(1) CH3 – C º CH > CH2 = CH2 > HC º CH (2) CH º CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C º CH
(3) CH3 – C º CH > CH º CH > CH2 = CH2 (4) HC º CH > CH3 – C º CH > CH2 = CH2
Ans. (4)
Sol. HC º CH > CH3 – C º CH > CH2 = CH2
Acidic strength order.
10. The metal d-orbitals that are directly facing the ligands in K3[Co(CN)6] are :
(1) dxy and dx2–y2 (2) dxy, dxz and dyz
(3) dxz, dyz and dz2 (4) dx2–y2 and dz2
Ans. (4)
Sol. In octahedron complex, ligand approach axially. So energy of axial d-orbitals is raised.
Axial d-orbitals are d x 2 y 2 ; dz 2 .
11. Among the following compounds most basic amino acid is :

(1) Lysine (2) Asparagine (3) Serine (4) Histidine
Ans. (4)
Sol. Most basic Amino acid is Histidine.
12. The molecule that has minimum/no role in the formation of photochemical smog, is :
(1) N2 (2) CH2 = O (3) O3 (4) NO
Ans. (1)
Sol. The common components of photo chemical smog are ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde &
peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN).
13. In the following reactions, products A and B are :
(1) A = ;B=
(2) A = ;B=
(3) A = ;B=
(4) A = ;B=
Ans. (4)
Sol.
+
14. Two solids dissociate as follows

A(s) ƒ B(g)+ C(g) ; Kp1 = x atm 2
D(s) ƒ C(g) + E(g) ; Kp2 = y atm2
The total pressure when both the solids dissociate simultaneously is :
(1) x2 + y2 atm (2) x + y atm (3) (x + y) atm (4) 2 x + y atm
Ans. (4)
Sol.
a(a + b) = x .....(1)
(a + b)b = y .....(2)
(1) + (2) (a + b) = x+y
Ptotal = a + (a + b) + b = 2 x + y
15. Poly-b-hydroxybutyrate-co-b-hydroxyvalerate(PHBV) is a copolymer of ______.

(1) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 4-hydroxypentanoic acid
Ans. (2)
Sol. PHBV is a polymer of 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-Hydroxy pentanoic acid.
16. Freezing point of a 4% aqueous solution of X is equal to freezing point of 12% aqueous solution of Y. If
molecular weight of X is A, then molecular weight of Y is :
(1) A (2) 3A (3) 2A (4) 4A
Ans. (2)
4
Sol. ( Tf ) x = –K f ´
A ´ 0.096
12
( Tf )y = –K f ´
M y ´ 0.088
Given (Tf)x = (Tf)y
4 12
=
A ´ 0.096 M y ´ 0.088 Þ My = 3.27 A
æ dEº ö
17. The standard electrode potential Eº and its temperature coefficient ç ÷ for a cell are 2V and –5 × 10–4
è dT ø
VK–1 at 300 K respectively. The cell reaction is Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) ® Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s). The standard reaction
enthalpy (DrHº) at 300 K in kJ mol–1 is,
[UseR = 8 JK–1 mol–1 and F = 96,000 Cmol–1]
(1) 192.0 (2) –384.0 (3) –412.8 (4) 206.4
Ans. (3)
Sol. DHº = DGº + TDSº
é dEº ù
DHº = –nFEº + T ê nF = – 2 × 96000 × 2 + 300[2 × 96000 × (–5 × 10–4)] = –412800 J mol–1.
ë dT úû
18. In a chemical reaction, A + 2B 2C + D, the initial concentration of B was 1.5 times of the concentration
of A, but the equilibrium concentrations of A and B were found to be equal. The equilibrium constant(K) for the
aforesaid chemical reaction is :
1
(1) 16 (2) (3) 1 (4) 4
4
Ans. (4)
Sol. A + 2B 2C + D
t=0 a 1.5a 0 0
t = Eq. a – x 1.5a – 2x 2x x
Given a – x = 1.5a – 2x Þ x = 0.5 a
[C]2 [D] a2 ´ 0.5a

K= = =4
[A][B]2 0.5a ´ (0.5a)2
2 4
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
20. The volume of gas A is twice than that of gas B. The compressibility factor of gas A is thrice than that of gas
B at same temperature. The pressures of the gases for equal number of moles are :
(1) PA = 2PB (2) 2PA = 3PB (3) 3PA = 2PB (4) PA = 3PB
Ans. (2)
Sol. ZA = 3ZB
PA VA 3PB VB
=
nRT nRT
Þ PA × 2VB = 3PBVB
Þ 2PA = 3PB
21. 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is needed to neutralize 25 mL of sodiumhydroxide solution. The amount of NaOH
in 50 mL of the given sodium hydroxide solution is :
(1) 8 g (2) 4 g (3) 1 g (4) 2 g
Ans. (2)
Sol. Mili equivalents of oxalic acid = mili equivalent of sodium hydroxide
Þ 50 × 0.5 × 2 = 25 × M × 1 Þ M = 2 molar
50
Mass of NaOH in 50 ml solution = × 2 × 40 = 4g
1000
22. Among the following four aromatic compounds, which one will have thelowest melting point?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Melting point of Napthalene is near about 80ºC.
23. The pair of metal ion that can give a spin only magnetic moment of 3.9 BM for the complex [M(H2O)6]Cl2, is:
(1) V2+ and Fe2+ (2) V2+ and Co2+ (3) Cr2+ and Mn2+ (4) Co2+ and Fe2+
Ans. (2)
Sol. Magnetic moment ® 3.9 BM ® 3 unpaired electrons.
[V(H2O)6]Cl2 ® V2+ ® [Ar] 3d3 ® 3 upe
[Co(H2O)6]Cl2 ® Co2+ ® [Ar] 3d7 ® 3 upe
24. A metal on combustion in excess air forms X. X upon hydrolysis with water yields H2O2 and O2 along with
anotherproduct. The metal is :
(1) Rb (2) Li (3) Mg (4) Na
Ans. (1)
Sol. Rb(s) + O2(g) ® RbO2(s)
2RbO2(s) + 2H2O(l) ® 2RbOH + H2O2 + O2.
On combustion in excess of air, lithium forms mainly the oxide, Li2O, Sodium form the peroxide Na2O2 whilst
K, Rb, Cs form the superoxides MO2.
25. In the following reaction

HCl
Aldehyde + Alcohol ¾¾¾ ® Acetal
Aldehyde Alcohol
HCHO tBuOH
CH3CHO MeOH
The best combination is :
(1) CH3CHO and MeOH (2) HCHO and tBuOH
(3) CH3CHO and tBuOH (4) HCHO and MeOH
Ans. (4)
Sol.
26. What is the work function of the metal if the light of wavelength 4000Å generates photoelectrons of velocity
6 × 105 ms–1 from it?
(Mass ofelectron = 9 × 10–31 kg, Velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1, Planck's constant = 6.626 × 10–34 Js,
Charge of electron = 1.6 × 10–19 JeV–1)
(1) 0.9 eV (2) 2.1 eV (3) 3.1 eV (4) 4.0 eV
Ans. (2)
1
Sol. KE = × 9 × 10–31 × (6 × 105)2
2
= 162 × 10–21 J ~ 1 eV
12400
Energy of photon E = = 3.1 eV
4000
E = f + KE
3.1 = f + 1
f = 2.1 eV
27. The hardness of a water sample (in terms of equivalents of CaCO3) containing 10–3 M CaSO4 is :
(molar mass of CaSO4 = 136 g mol–1)
(1) 10 ppm (2) 90 ppm (3) 50 ppm (*4) 100 ppm
Ans. (4)
Sol. Moles of CaSO4 = 10–3 moles
Mass of water = 1000 g
10 –3 ´ 100
DOH (in terms of CaCO3) = × 106 = 100 ppm
1000
28. The increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds towards reaction with alkyl halides directly is :
(1) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D) (2) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B)
(3) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C) (4) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Nucleophilicity order :
2
2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
30. Mn2(CO)10 is an organometallic compound due to the presence of :
(1) Mn – C bond (2) Mn – Mn bond (3) Mn – O bond (4) C – O bond
Ans. (1)
Sol. [Mn2(CO)10]
Organometallic compounds are having M – C bond.
Maths
z–a
1. If (a Î R) is a purely imaginary number and |z| = 2, then a value of a is :
z+a
1
(1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4) 1
2
Ans. (3)
æz-aö æz–aö
Sol. ç ÷ = -ç ÷
è z + a ø èz–aø
Þ zz – a z + az – a 2 = – zz + az – az + a 2
2|z|2 = 2a2
Þ a=2
2. If the sum of the deviations of 50 observations from 30 is 50, then the mean of these observations is :
(1) 30 (2) 31 (3) 51 (4) 50
Ans. (2)
50
Sol. å(x
i =1
i – 30 ) = 50
50
Þ åx
i =1
i
– 30 ´ 50 = 50
50
åx
i =1
i
= 50 × 31
x = 31
3. An ordered pair (a, b) for which the system of linear equations (1 + a) x + by + z = 2, ax = (1 + b)y + z = 3,
ax + by + 2z = 2 has a unique solution, is :
(1) (2, 4) (2) (–4, 2) (3) (–3, 1) (4) (1, – 3)
Ans. (1)
Sol. D ¹ 0 (for unique solution)
1+ a b 1
a 1+ b 1 Þ 0
a b 2
Þ C1 ® C1 + C2 + C3
1 b 1
(a + b + 2) 1 1+ b 1 ¹ 0
1 b 2
i.e. a+b++2¹0
a = 2, b = 4
dy
4. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation, x + y = x loge x, (x > 1). If 2y(2) = loge 4 – 1, then
dx
y(e) is equal to :
e2 e2 e e
(1) – (2) (3) – (4)
2 4 2 4
Ans. (4)
æ dy ö æ y ö
Sol. ç ÷ + ç ÷ = log x
è dx ø è x ø e
1
ò x dx = x x x
Þ I.f = e y= lnx -
2 4
e e
y.x = ò xl n
x dx y(e) = -
2 4
x2 1 x2 e
= (l n x)· -ò . y(e) =
2 x 2 4
x2 x2
y.x = (lnx) – +C
2 4
put x = 2
2y = 2(ln2) – 1 + C
(2ln2 – 1) = 2ln2 – 1 + C ; C=0
5. The product of three consecutive terms of a G.P. is 512. If 4 is added to each of the first and the second of
these terms, the three terms now form an A.P. Then the sum of the original three terms of the given G.P. is :
(1) 28 (2) 36 (3) 24 (4) 32
Ans. (1)
a
Sol. Let , a, ar be three terms of G.P..
r
Þ a3 = 512 Þ a=8
8
Þ + 4,12, 8r ( AP)
r
8
24 = (8r+ + 4)
r
2
Þ 6 = 2r + +1
r
2r2 – 5r + 2 = 0
1
r = 2, r = so the terms are (16, 8, 4) or (4, 8, 16)
2
sum = 28
x+2 y–2 z+5
6. The perpendicular distance from the origin to the plane containing the two lines, = = and
3 5 7
x –1 y – 4 z + 4
= = , is :
1 4 7
11
(1) 6 11 (2) 11 (3) 6 (4) 11 6
Ans. (3)
î ĵ k̂
r r
Sol. (b1 ´ b 2 ) 3 5 7 = î (7 ) – ĵ(14 ) + k̂(12 – 5 ) = 7 î – 14 ĵ + 7k̂
1 4 7
So, d. r. {1, –2, 1}

Þ 1.(x + 2) – 2(y – 2) + (2 + 5) = 0
x – 2y + 2 + 11 = 0
æ 11 ö
distance from origin = çç ÷
÷
è 6ø
7. Let S be the set of all points in (–p, p) at which the function, f(x) = min {sinx, cosx} is not differentiable. Then
S is a subset of which of the following?
ì p p p pü ì 3 p p p 3p ü ì 3p p 3 p p ü ì p pü
(1) í – ,– , , ý (2) í – , – , , ý (3) í – ,– , , ý (4) í – , 0, ý
î 2 4 4 2þ î 4 2 2 4þ î 4 4 4 4þ î 4 4þ
Ans. (3)
Sol. f(x) = min (sinx, cosx)
ì 3p p 3 p p ü
í– ,– , , ý
î 4 4 4 4þ
é1 0 0ù
ê3 1 0ú q21 + q31
8. Let P = ê ú and Q = [qij] be two 3 × 3 matrices such that Q – P5 = I3. Then is equal to :
êë9 3 1úû q32
(1) 135 (2) 15 (3) 10 (4) 9

Ans. (3)
é1 0 0 ù é 1 0 0ù é 1 0 0ù
ê ú ê ú ê ú
Sol. p2 = ê3 1 0 ú ê3 1 0ú = ê 3 + 3 1 0ú
êë9 3 1úû êë9 3 1úû êë9 + 9 + 9 3 + 3 1úû
é 1 0 0ù
ê ú
15 1 0ú
P5 = P4 P = ê
êë135 15 1úû
Þ Q – P5 = I3
æ q21 + q31 ö æ 15 + 135 ö

ç ÷ = ç ÷ = 10
è q32 ø è 15 ø
1 + 2 + 3 + .... + k 2 2 2 5
9. Let Sk – . If S1 + S2 + ... + S10 = A, then A is equal to :
k 12
(1) 301 (2) 156 (3) 303 (4) 283
Ans. (3)
æ K + 1ö
Sol. SK = ç ÷
è 2 ø
10 é ù
æ 5A ö 10
1 + 2k + 1) = 1 ê K +
2
Þ ç ÷ =
è 12 ø
åS
k =1
2
K Þ
4
å (K 2
å
4 ëê k =1
å 2K + å1úûú
k =1 k =1
k =1
1 é k(k + 1)(2k + 1) + k(k + 1) + k ù

= ê ú
4 ë 6 û
æ 5A ö 1 é10.11.21 + 10.11 + 10 ù
ç 12 ÷ = ê 6 ú
è ø 4 ë û
æ 5A ö
ç ÷ = (385 + 120) = 505
è 3 ø
A = 303
ì –1 –1 pü
10. Considering only the principal values of inverse functions, the set A = í x ³ 0 : tan (2x) + tan (3x) = ý
î 4 þ
(1) Contains two elements (2) Contains more than two elements
(3) is an empty set (4) is a singleton
Ans. (4)
p
Sol. tan–1 (2x) + tan–1 (3x) =
4
æ 5x ö
Þ ç ÷ =1 Þ 6x2 + 5x – 1 = 0
è 1 – 6x 2 ø
Reject x = – 1 , x = 1/6
so x = 1/6 only solution
a
11. Let f and g be continuous functions on [0, a] such that f(x) = f(a – x) and g(x) + g(a – x) = 4, then ò f(x)g(x) dx
0
is equal to :
a a a a
(1) –3 ò f(x)dx (2) ò f(x)dx (3) 4 ò f(x)dx (4) 2ò f(x) dx

0 0 0 0
Ans. (4)
a a a
Sol. I= ò
0
f ( x ).g( x )dx = ò
0
f (a – x )·g(a – x ) dx = ò f (x)·(4 – g( x))dx
0
a a
ò ò
I = 4 f ( x )dx – f ( x)·g( x )dx
0 0
a a
2I = 4 ò
0
f ( x )dx Þ I=2 ò f ( x)dx
0
12. Let S = {1, 2, 3, ... , 100}. The number of non-empty subsets A of S such that the product of elements in A is
even is :
(1) 250 + 1 (2) 250 (250 – 1) (3) 2100 – 1 (4) 250 – 1
Ans. (2)
Sol. Product of elements in A is even = (total subjects) – (Number of subject of all whose element are odd)
= 2100 – 250
= 250(250 – 1)
13. A tetrahedron has vertices P(1, 2, 1), Q(2, 1, 3), R(–1, 1, 2) and O(0, 0, 0). The angle between the faces OPQ
and PQR is :
æ 9 ö æ7ö æ 17 ö æ 19 ö
(1) cos –1 ç ÷ (2) cos–1 ç ÷ (3) cos–1 ç ÷ (4) cos–1 ç ÷
è 35 ø è 31ø è 31 ø è 35 ø
Ans. (4)
Sol. Þ Normal vector to the
î ĵ k̂
plane OPQ = 1 2 1 = 5 î – ĵ – 3k̂
2 1 3
î ĵ k̂
Normal vector to plane PQR = 2 1 – 1 = î – 5 ĵ – 3k̂
1 –1 2
|5+5+9| æ 19 ö
so the angle between OPQ & PQR is cos q = = ç ÷
35 35 è 35 ø
14. If a variable line, 3x + 4y – l = 0 is such that the two circles x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 and
x2 + y2 – 18x – 2y + 78 = 0 are on its opposite sides, then the set of all values of l is the interval :
(1) (23, 31) (2) {12, 21] (3) (2, 17) (4) [13, 23]
Ans. (2)
Sol. Centre lies on opposite side of line
Þ (3 + 4 – l) (27 + 4 – l) < 0
l Î (7, 31)
|3+4–l|
distance from S1, ³1 Þ l Î (–¥, 2] È [12, ¥)
5
| 27 + 4 – l |
distance from S2 , ³ 2 Þ l Î (–¥, 21] È [41, ¥) so l Î [12, 21]
5
15. If the straight line, 2x – 3y + 17 = 0 is perpendicular to the line passing through the points (7, 17) and (15, b),
then b equals :
35 35
(1) –5 (2) – (3) (4) 5
3 3
Ans. (4)
Sol. The line is 3x + 2y = l
Þ 3(7) + 2(17) = l Þ l = 55
3x + 2y = 55
Now, 3(15) + 2b = 55
2b = 55 – 45
b=5
16. The Boolean expression ((p Ù q) Ú (p Ú ~q)) Ú (~ p Ù ~q) is equivalent to :

(1) p Ù q (2) (~ p) Ù (~ q) (3) p Ù (~ q) (4) p Ú (~ q)
Ans. (2)
Sol. (ii) (~p) ^ (~q)
17. If the vertices of a hyperbola be at (–2, 0) and (2, 0) and one of its foci be at (–3, 0), then which one of the
following points does not lie on this hyperbola?
(1) 2 6,5 (2) – 6, 2 10 (3) 4, 15 (4) 6, 5 2
Ans. (4)
x 2 y2
Sol. – = 1 be the equn.
4 b2
Þ ae = 3, b2 = a2(e2 – 1)
Þ b2 = (a e)2 – a2
=9–4
x2 y2
b2 = 5 so equn. of hyperbola, – =1
4 5
(6, 5 2 ) does not lie.
18. The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the parabola, y = x2 + 2 and the lines y = x + 1, x = 0 and
x = 3, is
17 15 21 15
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 2 4
Ans. (2)
3
2
Sol. So Area = ò ((x
0
+ 2) – ( x + 1)) dx
3
2 9
= ò (x
0
– x + 1)dx = 9 –
2
+3
æ 15 ö
= ç ÷
è 2 ø
19. If l be the ratio of the roots of the quadratic equation in x, 3m2x2 + m(m – 4) x + 2 = 0, then the least value
1
of m for which l + = 1, is
l
(1) 2 – 3 (2) –2 + 2 (3) 4 – 2 3 (4) 4 – 3 2

Ans. (4)
a
Sol. l= (given)
b
1 a b m(m – 4) æm – 4ö æ 2 ö
Now, l + =1 Þ + =1 & a + b = – =– ç ÷ ab = ç ÷
l b a 3m 2
è 3m ø è 3m2 ø
Þ a2 + b2 = ab
Þ (a + b)2 – 3ab = 0
(m - 4 ) 2 3. 2
– =0
9m 2
3m 2
Þ (m – 4)2 – 18 = 0
(m – 4) = ± 3 2
m=4± 3 2 so m=4– 3 2
æ pö
20. The maximum value of 3cosq + 5sin ç q – ÷ for any real value of q is :
è 6ø
79
(1) (2) 31 (3) 19 (4) 34
2
Ans. (3)
æ pö æ 3 1 ö÷ æ5 3 ö æ 1ö
ç
Sol. Y = 3 cos q + 5sin ç q – ÷ = 3cosq + 5 ç sin q. 2 – cos q. 2 ÷ = ç ÷ sinq + ç ÷ cosq
è 6 ø ç ÷ è2ø
è ø è 2 ø
2
æ5 3 ö æ 1ö 75 + 1
ymax = ç ÷ +ç ÷
ç 2 ÷ è4ø = 4
= 19
è ø
21. Let C1 and C2 be the centres of the circles x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y – 2 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 6x – 6y + 14 = 0
respectively. IfP and Q are the points of intersection of these circles, then the area (in sq. units) of the
quadrilateral PC1QC2 is :
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 6
Ans. (3)
Sol. C1 (1, 1) & C2(3,. 3)
r1 = 1+ 1+ 2 & r2 = 9 + 9 – 14
r1 = 2 r2 = 2
now , in DPC1C2
4+4–8
cosa = =0 Þ a = 90º
2·2·2
é1 ù
Area of P C1 Q C2 = 2[Area of DPC1C2] = 2 ê · 2 · 2ú = 4
ë2 û
dy
22. For x > 1, if (2x)2y = 4e2x – 2y, then (1 + loge 2x)2 is equal to :
dx
x loge 2x + loge 2 x loge 2x – loge 2

(1) x loge 2x (2) (3) (4) loge 2x
x x
Ans. (3)
Sol. (2x)2y = 4e2x–2y
Þ (2y)log(2x) = (2x – 2y) + log4
2ylog(2x) + 2y = 2x + log4
1
æ x + log 2 ö æ dy ö (1 + ln2x) – (x + ln2)· ·2
ç ÷
y = ç 1 + log 2 x ÷ ; ç ÷ = 2x
è ø è dx ø (1 + ln2x)2
xln2 x – ln2
(1 + ln2x)2 y¢ =
x
23. The integral ò cos(loge x) dx is equal to : (where C is a constant of integration)
(1) x[cos(logex) – sin(logex)] + C (2) x[cos(logex) + sin(logex)] + C
x x
(3) [sin(logex) – cos(logex)] + C (4) [cos(logex) + sin(logex)] + C
2 2
Ans. (4)
é sin(log x) ù
ò êë xdx ú
Sol. I= ò 1. cos(log x )dx = x.cos(logx) +
x û
I = x.cos(logx) +
ò sin(log x)dx
I = x.cos(logx) + xsin(logx) – ò cos(log x)dx
2I = x [cos(logx) + sin(logx)]
x
I= [cos(logx) + sin(logx)] + C
2
24. A ratio of the 5th term from the beginning to the 5th term from the end in the binomial expansion of
10
æ 1 1 ö
ç2 3 + 1
÷ is :
ç 2(3) 3 ÷
è ø
1 1 1 1
(1) 4(36) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2(6)3 (3) 1 : 4(16)3 (4) 2(36)3 : 1
Ans. (1)
4
10 æ 1 ö 1
th
C 4 ( 21 / 3 )10 – 4 ·ç 1/ 3 ÷ 22 ·
Ratio of 5 term from the begining è 2·3 ø 2 ·3 4 / 3
4
Sol. = 10 – 4 = 1
Ratio of 5th term from the end 10 æ 1 ö · 24 / 3
C 4 ç 1/ 3 ÷ ·(21/ 3 ) 4 6 2
2 .3
è 2·3 ø
22 ·(2 2 ·3 2 )
= Þ 4 · 62 · 6–4/3 = 4 . (36)1/3
64 / 3
25. The maximum area (in sq. units) of a rectangle having its base on the x-axis and its other two vertices on the
parabola, y = 12 – x2 such that the rectangle lies inside the parabola, is :
(1) 32 (2) 18 3 (3) 20 2 (4) 36

Ans. (1)
Sol. A = t.(12 – t2)
= 12t – t3
æ dA ö
ç ÷ = 12 – 3t2
è dt ø
t=±2
so A(2, 8)
Area of sectangle = 2(2.8) = 32
cot 3 x – tan x
26. lim is :
4 cos x + p
x ®p
4
(1) 8 2 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 4 2

Ans. (2)
æ ö
ç 3
÷
ç cot x - tan x ÷ lim æç 1 - tan 4 x ö
Sol. Lim ç ÷ p ÷
æ p ö = x® ç 3 ÷
x ®p / 4 4 è tan x. cos( x + p / 4 ) ø
çç cosç x + 4 ÷ ÷÷
è è ø ø
(1 + tan 2 x)(1 - tan 2 x ) (cos2 x – sin2 x )

Þ Lim Þ 2 2 lim
x ®p / 4 1 x ®p / 4 cos 2 x.(cos x - sin x )
1. (cos x – sin x )
2
4 2 lim (cosx + sinx)

x ®p / 4
Þ 4 2. 2 =8
27. In a random experiment, a fair die is rolled until two fours are obtained in succession. The probability that the
experiment will end in the fifth throw of the die is equal to :
175 200 150 225

(1) (2) (3) (4)
65 65 65 65
Ans. (1)
1 æ 53 2 C1·5 2 ö æ 175 ö
ç + ÷=ç ÷
Sol. –––––––44= ç 62
62 è 6 3 ÷ø è 65 ø
28. Consider three boxes, each containing 10 balls labelled 1, 2, ...., 10. Suppose one ball is randomly drawn
from each of the boxes. Denote by n1, the label of the ball drawn from the ith box, (i = 1, 2, 3). Then, the
number of ways in which the balls can be chosen such that n1 < n2 < n3 is :
(1) 82 (2) 240 (3) 120 (4) 164
Ans. (3)
10 · 9 · 8
Sol. Total number of ways = 10C3 = = 120
6
29. The sum of the distinct real values of m, for which the vectors, m î + ˆj + k,
ˆ î + mˆj + k,
ˆ î + ˆj + mkˆ are co-planar, is:
(1) 0 (2) –1 (3) 2 (4) 1

Ans. (2)
m 1 1
1 m 1
Sol. for coplanar D = 0 =0
1 1 m
Þ R1 ® R1 + R2 + R3
1 1 1
(m + 2) 1 m 1 = 0
1 1 m
Þ (m + 2) = 0 & 1(m2 – 1) – 1(m – 1) + 1(1 – m) = 0

m=–2 m2 – 1 – m + 1 + 1 – m = 0
m2 – 2m + 1 = 0
m=1
Sum = – 1
30. Let P(4, –4) and Q(9, 6) be two points on the parabola, y2 = 4x and let X be any point on the arc POQ of this
parabola, where O is the vertex of this parabola, such that the area of DPXQ is maximum. Then this maximum
area (in sq. units) is :
125 75 625 125

(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 4 2
Ans. (1)
t2 2t 1
Sol. Area = 1/2 9 6 1
4 -4 1
1 2
= (t (6 + 4) – 2t(9 – 4) + 1(–36 – 24))
2
10 2
= (t – t – 6)
2
f(t) = 5t2 – 5t – 30
f¢(t) = 10t – 5 = 0
t = 1/2
æ1 1 ö
so area is = 5 ç – – 6 ÷
è 4 2 ø
æ 1 ö æ 125 ö
= 5 ç – – 6÷ = ç ÷
è 4 ø è 4 ø
JEE Main Online test_12-01-19_Evening (Physics)
1. In the figure, given that VBB supply can vary from 0 to 5.0 V, VCC = 5V, b dc = 200, RB = 100 kW, RC = 1 kW and
VBE = 1.0V. The minimum base current and the input voltage at which the transistor will go to saturation, will
go to saturation, will be, respectively :
(1) 25 mA and 2.8V (2) 20 mA and 3.5V (3) 25 mA and 3.5V (4) 20 mA and 2.8V
Ans. (3)
Sol. When switch on and key is closed
VCE = 0
VCC – RC iC = 0
VCC 5
iC = = 3
= 5 ´ 10 – 3 A
RC 1´ 10
iC = b iB
iC 5 ´ 10 –3
iB = = = 25 ´ 10 – 6 A
b 200
Using KVL at input side

VBB – iB RB – VBE = 0
VBB = (VBE + iB RB) = 3.5 volt
2. Formation of real image using a biconvex lens is shown below :
If the whole set up is immersed in water without disturbing the object and the screen positions, what will one
observe on the screen?
(1) Erect real image (2) Image disappears (3) Magnified image (4) No change
Ans. (2)
æ fu ö u
Sol. V=ç ÷ =
è f + u ø 1+ uf
When immersed in water f so V.
3. A 10 m long horizontal wire extends from North East to South West. It is falling with a speed of 5.0 ms–1, at
right angles to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field, of 0.3 × 10–4 Wb/m2. The value of the
induced emf in wire is :
(1) 2.5 × 10–3 V (2) 1.5 × 10–3 V (3) 1.1 × 10–3 V (4) 0.3 × 10–3 V
Ans. (3)
ur ur r æ 1.5 ö
Sol. e = (V ´ B) · L = ç ´ 10 –3 ÷ volt » 1.1 × 10–3 volt
è 2 ø
4. Two particles A, B are moving on two concentric circles of radii R1 and R2 with equal angular speed w. At t =
0, their positions and direction of motion are shown in the figure :
r r p
The relative velocity uA - uB at t = is given by :
2w
(1) w(R1 - R 2 )iˆ (2) w(R1 + R2 )iˆ (3) -w(R1 + R2 )iˆ (4) w(R2 - R1 )iˆ
Ans. (4)
uuur uuur uuur
Sol. VA = VA – VB = – wR1î + wR 2 î = w(R2 – R1 )iˆ
B
uuur
ìï VA = – wR1î üï æ p ö
í uuur ý at t = ç ÷
ˆ è 2w ø
îï VB = – wR2 i þï
5. A block kept on a rough inclined plane, as shown in the figure, remains at rest upto a maximum force 2 N
down the inclined plane. The maximum external force up the inclined plane that does not move the block is
10 N. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is : [Take g = 10 m/s2]
3 3
(1) (2)
2 4
2 1
(3) (4)
3 2
Ans. (1)
Sol. 2 + mg sin 30º = (fs)max
mg sin30º + (fs)max = 10
mg = 8
(fs)max = 6
(fs)max = m mg cos 30º
3
m=
2
6. A paramagnetic material has 1028 atoms/m 3. Its magnetic susceptibility at temperature 350 K is 2.8 × 10–4.
Its susceptibility at 300 K is :
(1) 2.672 × 10–4 (2) 3.726 × 10–4 (3) 3.672 × 10–4 (4) 3.267 × 10–4
Ans. (4)
1
Sol. lm µ
T
2.8 300
=
l m 350
lm = 3.26 × 10–4.
7. To double the covering range of a TV transmition tower, its height should be multiplied by :
1
(1) 2 (2) (3) 4 (4) 2
2
Ans. (3)
Sol. Range = 2gh
If h become 4h then range become double.
8. A vertical closed cylinder is separated into two parts by a frictionless piston of mass m and of negligible
thickness. The piston is free to move along the length of the cylinder. The length of the cylinder above the
piston is l1, and that below the piston is l2, such that l1 > l2. Each part of the cylinder contains n moles of
an ideal gas at equal temperature T. If the piston is stationary, its mass, m, will be given by :
(R is universal gas constant and g is the acceleration due to gravity)
nRT é l 1 - l 2 ù RT é l 1 - 3l 2 ù nRT é 1 1 ù RT é 2l 1 + l 2 ù
(1) ê ú (2) ng ê l l ú (3) ê + ú (4) g ê l l ú
g ë l1 l2 û ë 1 2 û g ë l 2 l1 û ë 1 2 û
Ans. (1)
mg
Sol. P1 + = P2
A
nRT mg nRT
+ =
l 1A A l 2A
æ l – l2 ö
mg = nRTçç 1 ÷÷
è l 1l 2 ø
æ nRT öæ l 1 – l 2 ö
m = çç ÷÷çç ÷÷
è g øè l 1l 2 ø
9. The charge on a capacitor plate in a circuit, as a function of time, is shown in the figure :
What is the value of current at t = 4s ?
(1) 1.5 mA
(2) 3 mA
(3) 2 mA
(4) zero
Ans. (4)
dq
Sol. i= =0
dt
at t = 4 sec.
232
10. In a radioactive decay chain, the initial nucleus is 90
Th . At the end there are 6 a-particles and 4b-particles
which are emitted. If the end nucleus is AZ X , A and Z are given by :

(1) A = 202; Z = 80 (2) A = 208; Z = 80 (3) A = 200; Z = 81 (4) A = 208; Z = 82
Ans. (4)
Sol. 90
Th232 ¾® 78XI208 ¾® 82XII208
11. A resonance tube is old and has jagged end. It is still used in the laboratory to determine velocity of sound in
air. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz produces first resonance when the tube is filled with water to a mark 11
cm below a reference mark, near the open end of the tube. The experiment is repeated with another fork of
frequency 256 Hz which produces first resonance when water reaches a mark 27 cm below the reference
mark. The velocity of sound in air, obtained in the experiment, is close to :
(1) 322 ms–1 (2) 328 ms–1 (3) 341 ms–1 (4) 335 ms–1
Ans. (2)
l
Sol. = 0.11 + e
4
V
= 0.11 + e .....(1)
(512)4
V
= 0.27 + e .....(2)
(256)4
After solving (1) and (2) V = 328 m/s
12. A parallel plate capacitor with plates of area 1 m2 each, are at a separation of 0.1 m. If the electric field
between the plates is 100 N/C, the magnitude of charge on each plate is :
C2
(Take Î0 = 8.85 × 10–12 N - m2 )
(1) 8.85 × 10–10 C (2) 9.85 × 10–10 C (3) 7.85 × 10–10 C (4) 6.85 × 10–10 C
Ans. (1)
s Q
Sol. E= =
Î0 A Î0
Q = AÎ0E = 8.85 × 10–10 C
13. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere, about an axis parallel to its diameter and at a distance of x from it,
is 'I(x)'. Which one of the graphs represents the variation of I(x) with x correctly?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
2
Sol. I= MR 2 + MX 2 . There is parabolic relation between I v/s x.
5
14. In the given circuit diagram, the currents, I1 = –0.3 A, I4 = 0.8 A and I5 = 0.4 A, are flowing as shown. The
currents I2, I3 and I6, respectively, are :
(1) 1.1 A, 0.4 A, 0.4 A (2) 0.4 A, 1.1 A, 0.4 A (3) 1.1 A, –0.4 A, 0.4 A (4) –0.4 A, 0.4 A, 1.1 A
Ans. (1)
Sol. Applying junction law at S
I4 = I5 + I3
0.8 = 0.4 + I3
I3 = 0.4 A
Applying junction law at R
I4 = I1 + I2
0.8 = I2 – 0.3
I2 = 1.1 Amp
I6 = I5 = 0.4 A
3 3
15. In the below circuit, C = mF, R2 = 20 W, L = H and R1 = 10W. Current in L–R1 path is I1 and in C-R2
2 10
path it is I2. The voltage of A.C. source is given by , V = 200 2 sin(100t) volts. The phase difference
between I1 and I2 is :
é –1 æ 1000 ö ù é –1 æ 1000 ö ù
(1) ê60º – tan ç ÷ú (2) ê60º + tan ç ÷ú
êë è 3 ø úû êë è 3 ø úû
é –1 æ 1000 ö ù é –1 æ 1000 ö ù
(3) ê60º – tan ç 3 ÷ ú (4) ê60º + tan ç 3 ÷ ú
ë è øû ë è øû
Ans. (2)
XL
Sol. tan f1 = = 3
R1
f1 = 60º
1 1000
tan f 2 = =
X CR 2 3
é æ 1000 öù
( f1 + f 2 ) = ê60º + tan –1çç ÷ú
÷
ëê è 3 øûú
16. An ideal gas is enclosed in a cylinder at pressure of 2 atm and temperature, 300 K. The mean time between
two successive collisions is 6 × 10–8 s. If the pressure is doubled and temperature is increased to 500 K, the
mean time between two successive collisions will be close to :
(1) 0.5 × 10–8 s (2) 2 × 10–7 s (3) 3 × 10–6 s (4) 4 × 10–8 s
Ans. (4)
1
Sol. t=
2 phd2 VAvg
æ No. of molecules ö N
h=ç ÷=
è volume ø V
V
t=
2 pNd2 VAvg
2RT
VAvg =
Mw
V
ta
T
T
ta
p
t1 T1 æ p2 ö
= ç ÷
t2 T2 è p1 ø
T2 æ p1 ö
t 2 = 6 ´ 10 -8 ç ÷
T1 è p2 ø
500 æ p ö
t2 = 6 ´ 10 -8 ç ÷
300 è 2p ø
5
t 2 = 3 ´ 10-8
3
t 2 ; 4 ´ 10 -8 sec .
17. Let l, r, c and u represent inductance, resistance, capacitance and voltage, respectively. The dimension of
l
in SI units will be :
rcu
(1) [A–1] (2) [LA–2] (3) [LTA] (4) [LT2]

Ans. (1)
æLö L æ ohm ö æ 1 ö
Sol. XL XC = ç ÷ ohm2 = =ç =ç ÷ = [A–1]
èCø RCV è volt ÷ø è Amp ø
18. Two satellites, A and B, have masses m and 2m respectively. A is in a circular orbit of radius R, and B is in
a circular orbit of radius 2R around the earth. The ratio of their kinetic energies, TA/TB, is :
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 1
2 2
Ans. (4)
2
1 æ GM ö
T= m0 ç
Sol. 2 ç R ÷÷
è ø
GMm0
T=
2R
m0
Ta
R
TA æ RB ö æ m0A ö
=ç ÷ç ÷
TB è RA øè m0B ø
TA æ 2R öæ m ö
=
TB çè R ÷ç ÷ =1
øè 2m ø
19. A particle of mass 20 g is released with an initial velocity 5 m/s along the curve from the point A, as shown
in the figure. The point A is at height h from point B. The particle slides along the frictionless surface. When
the particle reaches point B, its angular momentum about O will be : (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 6 kg-m 2/s (2) 2 kg-m2/s (3) 8 kg-m2/s (4) 3 kg-m2/s

Ans. (1)
Sol. Applying C.O.M.E.
1
mg(10) = mv 2
2
v = 2g(10) = 200
L = mv(20)
æ 20 ö m2
L=ç ÷ 200 (20) ; 6kg ´
è 1000 ø sec
20. In a Frank-Hertz experiment, an electron of energy 5.6 eV passes through mercury vapour and emerges with
an energy 0.7 eV. The minimum wavelength of photons emitted by mercury atoms is close to :
(1) 2020 nm (2) 250 nm (3) 220 nm (4) 1700 nm
Ans. (2)
Sol. E = (5.6 – 0.7)eV = 4.9 eV
æ 12400 ö
l=ç ÷ ; 2500Å
è 4.9 ø
21. A load of mass M kg is suspended from a steel wire of length 2 m and radius 1.0 mm in Searle's apparatus
experiment. The increase in length produced in the wire is 4.0 mm. Now the load is fully immersed in a liquid
of relative density 2. The relative density of the material of load is 8. The new value of increase in length of the
steel wire is :
(1) 5.0 mm (2) 3.0 mm (3) zero (4) 4.0 mm
Ans. (2)
Mg / A
=Y
Sol. æ DL ö
ç ÷
è L ø
Mg æ DL ö
= Yç ÷
A è L ø
(8r w )vg DL
=Y
A L
(8r w vg - 2vrw g) æ DL ' ö
= Yç ÷
A è L ø
4 DL
=
3 DL '
3 DL
DL ' = = 3mm
4
22. An alpha-particle of mass m suffers 1-dimensional elastic collision with a nucleus at rest of unknown mass.
It is scattered directly backwards losing, 64% of its initial kinetic energy. The mass of the nucleus is :
(1) 4 m (2) 1.5 m (3) 2 m (4) 3.5 m
Ans. (1)
Sol. mv0 = – m(0.6 v0) + MV2
m
V2 = 0.8 V0
M
M = 4m
23. A plano-convex lens (focal length f2, refractive index m2, radius of curvature R) fits exactly into a plano-
concave lens (focal length f1, refractive index m1, radius of curvature R). Their plane surfaces are parallel to
each other. Then, the focal length of the combination will be :
2f1f2 R
(1) f1 – f2 (2) f + f (3) m - m (4) f1 + f2
1 2 2 1
Ans. (3)
1 æ 1 1ö
Sol. = (m1 - 1) ç - ÷
f1 è¥ Rø
1 (m - 1)
=-
f1 R
1 æ1 1ö
= (m2 - 1) ç - ÷
f2 èR ¥ ø
1 (m2 - 1)
=
f2 R
1 1 1 (m 2 - m1 )
= + =
f f1 f2 R
R
f=
(m 2 - m1 )
24. A soap bubble, blown by a mechanical pump at the mouth of a tube, increases in volume, with time, at a
constant rate. The graph that correctly depicts the time dependence of pressure inside the bubble is given
by:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol. v = c1t
4 3
pr = c 1t
3
r = c2t1/3
4T
p = p0 + c t1/ 3
2
25. When a certain photosensitive surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of frequency n, the stopping
potential for the photo current is –V0/2. When the surface is illuminated by monochromatic light of frequency
n/2, the stopping potential is –V0. The threshold frequency for photoelectric emission is :
3n 5n 4
(1) (2) (3) n (4) 2 n
2 3 3
Ans. (1)
v0
Sol. hn = f + e
2
hn
= f + v0e
2
v 0 e = hn
-3v 0 e -3hn 3hn

f= = =
2 2 2
3hn
hn 0 =
2
3n
n0 =
2
26. The mean intensity of radiation on the surface of the Sun is about 108 W/m2. The rms value of the corresponding
magnetic field is closest to :
(1) 102 T (2) 1 T (3) 10–4 T (4) 10–2 T
Ans. (3)
æ B2 ö
Sol. I = ç 0 ÷C
è 2m 0 ø
2m 0 I
B0 =
C
B0
Br.m.s. = = 10 -4 Tesla
2
27. A long cylindrical vessel is half filled with a liquid. When the vessel is rotated about its own vertical axis, the
liquid rises up near the wall. If the radius of vessel is 5 cm and its rotational speed is 2 rotations per second,
then the difference in the heights between the centre and the sides, in cm, will be :
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.1 (3) 2.0 (4) 1.2
Ans. (3)
w2R 2
Sol. m= –3
2g = 2 × 10 m = 2 c.m.
w = 4p rad/sec
R = 5 × 10–2 m
28. A simple harmonic motion is represented by :
y = 5(sin3pt + 3cos3pt)cm
the amplitude and time period of the motion are :
3 2 2 3
(1) 5 cm, s (2) 5 cm, s (3) 10 cm, s (4) 10 cm, s
2 3 3 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. y = 5 sin3pt + 3 cos 3pt c.m.
y = 10sin 3pt + p / 3 c.m.
A = 10 c.m.
2p 2p 2
T= = = sec.
w 3p 3
29. A galvanometer, whose resistance is 50 ohm, has 25 divisions in it. When a current of 4 × 10–4 A passes
through it, its needle (pointer) deflects by one divisions. To use this galvanometer as a voltmeter of range 2.5
V, it should be connected to a resistance of :
(1) 6250 ohm (2) 250 ohm (3) 6200 ohm (4) 200 ohm
Ans. (4)
Sol. Hg = full scale deflection current = 4 × 10–4 × 25 Amp
Hg = 10–2 Amp
2.5 = (50 + R)(10–2)
R = 200W
30. In the circuit shown, find C if the effective capacitance of the whole circuit is to be 0.5 mF. All values in the
circuit are in mF.
6 7 7
(1) mF (2) mF (3) 4 mF (4) mF
5 10 11
Ans. (4)
1 1 1
Sol. = +
0.5 æ 7 ö C
ç ÷
è3ø
7
C= mF
11
JEE Main Online test_12-01-19_Evening (Chemistry)
1. The magnetic moment of an octahedral homoleptic Mn(II) complex is 5.9 BM. The suitable ligand for this
complex is :
(1) NCS– (2) CN– (3) ethylenediamine (4) CO
Ans. (1)
Sol. m = 5.9 BM ® 5 unpaired e–
Mn2+ –[Ar]3d5 configuration only possible with relatively weaker ligand.
So NCS– is the answer (1).
2. The aldehydes which will not form Grignard product with one equivalent Grignard reagents are :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (B), (C) (2) (B), (C), (D) (3) (C), (D) (4) (B), (D)
Ans. (4)
Sol. and contain acidic-H

2
æ 8– + –ö
Grignard's reagent çç R — Mg X ÷÷ acts as a Base and abstrats acidic-H to give R – H. Thus, G.R. is
è ø
destroyed. Thereforce, only other two could give Nucleophilic Addition Reaction with G.R.
3. The element that shows greater ability to form pp-pp multiple bonds, is :
(1) C (2) Si (3) Ge (4) Sn
Ans. (1)
Sol. Carbon has unique ability to form pp-pp multiple bonds with itself and with other atoms of small size.
Heavier elements do not form pp-pp bonds because their atomic orbitals are too large and diffuse to have
effective overlapping.
(i) NaNO /H+

2
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
(ii) CrO /H+ ®
3
(iii)H2SO4 (conc.), D
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
5. The two monomers for the synthesis of Nylon 6, 6 are :

(1) HOOC(CH2)6COOH, H2N(CH2)4NH2 (2) HOOC(CH2)6COOH, H2N(CH2)6NH2
(3) HOOC(CH2)4COOH, H2N(CH2)6NH2 (4) HOOC(CH2)4COOH, H2N(CH2)4NH2
Ans. (3)
Sol.
6. The upper stratosphere consisting of the ozone layer protects us from the sun's radiation that falls in the
wavelength region of :
(1) 600 – 750 nm (2) 0.8 – 1.5 nm (3) 400 – 550 nm (4) 200 – 315 nm
Ans. (4)
Sol. The upper stratosphere consists of considerable amount of ozone (O3), which protects us from the harmful
ultraviolet (UV) radiations (l = 255 nm) coming from the sun.
s-option (4) is correct.
7. The correct order of atomic radii is :

(1) Ce > Eu > Ho > N (2) Eu > Ce > Ho > N (3) Ho > N > Eu > Ce (4) N > Ce > Eu > Ho
Ans. (2)
Sol. Atomic radic gradually decrease along the series. If we consider the atomic (i.e., metallic) radii for the
lanthanides, two peaks appear at (63Eu [Xe] 4f7 5d0 6s2) and 70Yb [Xe] 4f14 5d0 6s2.
Eu and Yb each can provide only 2 electrons for metallic bonding while the other members each can provide
3e– for the bonding purpose.
8. The element that does NOT show catenation is :
(1) Sn (2) Si (3) Pb (4) Ge
Ans. (3)
Sol. The order of catenation in 14th group elements is (C >> Si > Ge » Sn). Pb does not show catenation.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol. NaBH4 reduces Polar F.G. like but doesn't
Reduce Non-polar F.G. like , –C º C–
10. The correct structure of histidine in a strongly acidic solution (pH = 2) is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
11. Chlorine on reaction with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide gives :
(1) Cl– and ClO– (2) Cl– and ClO3– (3) ClO3– and ClO2– (4) Cl– and ClO2–
Ans. (2)
Hot &
Sol. Cl2(g) + 6NaOH(aq) ¾¾ ¾® 5NaCl(aq) + 1NaClO3(aq) + 3H2O(l)
conc.
12. Among the following the false statement is :
(1) Latex is a colloidal solution of rubber particles which are positively charged.
(2) Tyndall effect can be used to distinguish between a colloidal solution and a true solution.
(3) Lyophilic sol can be coagulated by adding an electrolyte.
(4) It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing electrified sand carrying charge opposite to the one on
clouds from an aeroplane.
Ans. (1)
Sol. Rubber particles are negatively charged.
13. If Ksp of Ag2CO3 is 8 × 10–12, the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 in 0.1 M AgNO3 is :
(1) 8 × 10–11 M (2) 8 × 10–13 M (3) 8 × 10–10 M (4) 8 × 10–12 M
Ans. (3)
Sol. Ag2CO3(s) 2Ag+(aq) + CO32–(aq)
– 2x x
AgNO3(aq) ¾¾® Ag+(aq) + NO3–(aq)
0.1 0.1
–12 2 1
8 × 10 = (0.1 + 2x) (x)
8× 10–10 =x
14. Molecules of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) dimerise in benzene. 'w' g of the acid dissolved in 30 g of benzene
shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2 K. If the percentage association of the acid to form dimer in
the solution is 80, then w is : (Given that Kf = 5 K kg mol–1, Molar mass of benzoic acid = 122 g mol–1)
(1) 1.5 g (2) 2.4 g (3) 1.8 g (4) 1.0 g
Ans. (2)
Sol. DTf = ikfm
w 1000
2=i×5× ´
122 30
æ1 ö
i = 1 + ç – 1÷0.8 = 0.6
è2 ø
i = 0.6 w = 2.44 grams
(1) CH3CH = C = CH2 (2) (3) CH3CH = CHCH2NH2 (4) CH3CH2C º CH
Ans. (4)
Sol.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
17. The correct statement(s) among I to III with respect to potassium ions that are abundant within the cell fluids
is/are :
I. They activate many enzymes
II. They participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP
III. Along with sodium ions, they are responsible for the transmission of nerve signals
(1) I and III only (2) I and II only (3) I, II and III (4) III only
Ans. (3)
18. The volume strength of 1M H2O2 is :

(Molar mass of H2O2 = 34 g mol–1)
(1) 5.6 (2) 11.35 (3) 22.4 (4) 16.8
Ans. (2)
V.S. of H2O 2
Sol. 1M =
11 .35
19. If the de Broglie wavelength of the the electron in nth Bohr orbit in a hydrogenic atom is equal to 1.5 pa0
(a0 is Bohr radius), then the value of n/z is :
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.40 (3) 1.0 (4) 1.50
Ans. (1)
Sol. 2pr = nl
n2
2p a0 × = n 1.5 p a0
z
n
= 0.75
z
20. 8 g of NaOH is dissolved in 18 g of H2O. Mole fraction of NaOH in solution and molality (in mol kg–1) of the
solution respectively are :
(1) 0.167, 22.20 (2) 0.2, 11.11 (3) 0.167, 11.11 (4) 0.2, 22.20
Ans. (3)
8 / 40 100
Sol. m= ´ 1000 = = 11.11
18 9
8 / 40 0.2 1
XNaOH = = = = 0.167
18 1.2 6
1/ 5 +
18
21. The increasing order of the reactivity of the following with LiAlH4 is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D) (2) (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)
(3) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D) (4) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Reactivity of group µ Electrophilicity of Carbonyl group
µ Leaving group tendency.
22. The major product in the following conversion is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
23. The combination of plots which does not represent isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is :
(1) (B) and (D) (2) (A) and (C) (3) (A) and (D) (4) (B) and (C)
Ans. (1)
Sol. PV = nRT
24. Given :
(i) C(graphite) + O2(g) ® CO2(g) ; DrH1 = x kJ mol–1
1
(ii) C(graphite) + O (g) ® CO2(g) ; DrH1 = y kJ mol–1
2 2
1
(iii) CO(g) + O (g) ® CO2(g) ; DrH1 = z kJ mol–1
2 2
Based on the above thermochemical equations, find out which one of the following algebraic relationships is
correct?
(1) x = y – z (2) x = y + z (3) z = x + y (4) y = 2z – x
Ans. (2)
Sol. x=y+z
25. The compound that is NOT a common component of photochemical smog is :
(1) (2) CF2Cl2 (3) O3 (4) CH2 = CHCHO
Ans. (2)
Sol. The common components of photo chemical smog are ozone (O3), acrolein (CH2 = CH – CH = O), peroxyacetyl
nitrate (PAN) , formaldehyde, nitric oxide.
26. The pair that does NOT require calcination is :

(1) ZnO and Fe2O3×xH2O (2) Fe2O3 and CaCO3×MgCO3
(3) ZnCO3 and CaO (4) ZnO and MgO
Ans. (4)
Sol. ZnO and MgO both are in oxide form so there is no change on calcination of ZnO and MgO whereas
carbonate decompose into oxide and CO2 on calcination.
27. An open vessel at 27ºC is heated until two fifth of the air (assumed as an ideal gas) in it has escaped from the
vessel. Assuming that the volume of the vessel remains constant, the temperature at which the vessel has
been heated is :
(1) 750º C (2) 500º C (3) 500 K (4) 750 K
Ans. (3)
æ 2n ö
Sol. n × 300 = ç n – ÷ ´ T2
è 5 ø
500 k = T2.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
29. Ùmo for NaCl, HCl and NaA are 126.4, 425.9 and 100.5 S cm2 mol–1, respectively. If the conductivity of 0.001
M HA is 5 × 10–5 S cm–1, degree of dissociation of HA is :
(1) 0.125 (2) 0.75 (3) 0.50 (4) 0.25
Ans. (1)
Lm
Sol. a=
L¥m
L¥m = 425.9 + 100.5 – 126.4
5 ´ 10 –5 ´ 1000
Lm = = 50
0.001
50 1
a= = = 0.125
400 8
30. For a reaction, consider the plot of ln k versus 1/T given in the figure. If the rate constant of this reaction at
400 K is 10–5 s–1, then the rate constant at 500 K is :
(1) 10–4 s–1 (2) 2 × 10–4 s–1 (3) 4 × 10–4 s–1 (4) 10–6 s–1
Ans. (1)
k2 é 100 ù
Sol. 2.303log –5
= 4606 ê ú
10 ë 500 ´ 400 û
k2 2 ´ 10
log =
10 –5 20
k2 = 10 × 10–5 = 10–4 sec–1.
JEE Main Online test_12-01-19_Evening (Maths)
1. In a class of 60 students, 40 opted for NCC, 30 opted for NSS and 20 opted for both NCC and NSS. If one of
these students is selected at random, then the probability that the student selected has opted neither for
NCC nor for NSS is :
1 2 1 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 6 6
Ans. (3)
Sol. A ® NCC
B ® NSS
n(A) = 40
n(B) = 30
n(A Ç B) = 20
P(A Ç B) = P(A È B)
= 1 – P(A È B)
Now,
n(A È B) = 40 + 30 – 20 = 50
50 5
P (A È B) = =
60 6
5 1
\ P(A Ç B) = 1 - =
6 6
2. The set of all values of l for which the system of linear equations
x – 2y – 2z = lx
x + 2y + z = ly
– x – y = lz
has a non-trivial solution :
(1) is a singleton (2) is an empty set
(3) contains more than two elements (4) contains exactly two elements
Ans. (1)
Sol. (1–l)x – 2y – 2z = 0
x + (2–l)y + z = 0
–x – y – lz = 0
for non-trivial solution; D = 0
1 - l -2 -2
1 2-l 1 = 0
Þ
-1 -1 -l
Þ (1–l) [ l(l–2) + 1] + 2(–l + 1) – 2(–1 + (2–l)) = 0

Þ (1–l)[(l–1)2] – 2(l–1) + 2(l–1) = 0
Þ (1–l) [(l–1)2] = 0
l=1
3. Let S be the set of all real values of l such that a plane passing through the points (–l2, 1, 1), (1, –l2, 1) and
(1, 1, –l2) also passes through the point (–1, –1, 1). Then S is equal to :
(1) {3, –3} (2) {1, –1} (3) 3 (4) 3, – 3
Ans. (4)
Sol. Three lines form by these points will be coplanar
-l2 - 1 1 + l 2 0
-1 - l 2 0 1 + l2 = 0
Þ
-l 2 + 1 2 0
Þ 0 + 0 + (l2 + 1)2 (1–l2) – [0 + 2(1+l2)(–l2–1) + 0] = 0

Þ (1+l2)2(1–l2) + 2(1+l2)(1+l2) = 0
Þ (1+l2)2 [1–l2 +2] = 0 Þ l2 = 3
Þ l=± 3
x +1 y - 2 z - 3 æ
-1 2 2
ö
4. If an angle between the line, = = and the plane, x – 2y – kz = 3 is cos çç 3 ÷÷ , then a
2 1 2 è ø
value of k is :
3 5 3 5
(1) - (2) - (3) (4)
5 3 5 3
Ans. (4)
2.1 - 2. + 2K
Sol. cos(90 - q) =
3. 5 + K 2
2K æ 2K ö
Þ sin q = Þ q = sin-1 çç ÷
2
3 5+K 2 ÷
è3 5+K ø
æ 2K ö æ
-1 2 2
ö
Now sin-1 çç ÷÷ = cos çç ÷÷ given
è 3 ø
2
è 3 5 +K ø
æ 1ö
= sin-1 ç ÷
è3ø
2K 1
Þ =
3 5+K 2 3
Þ 2K = 5 + K 2
Þ 4K2 = 5 + K2
Þ 3K2 = 5
5
Þ K=±
3
3x13 + 2x11
5. The integral ò 4
dx is equal to :
2x 4 + 3x 2 + 1
(where C is a constant of integration)
x12 x4
(1) 6 2x 4 + 3x 2 + 1 3
+C (2) 2x 4 + 3x2 + 1 3 + C
x4 x12
(3) 6 2x 4 + 3x 2 + 1 3 +C (4) 2x 4 + 3x2 + 1 3 + C
Ans. (1)
æ 3 2 ö
(3x13 + 2x11 ) dx ç 3 + 5 ÷ dx
è x x ø
Sol. ò 4
= ò 4
æ
16 3 1 ö æ 3 1ö
x ç2 + 2 + 4 ÷ ç 2 + + ÷
è x x ø è x2 x 4 ø
3 1
Put 2+ 2
+ 4 =t
x x
æ 6 4 ö æ 3 2 ö
ç0 - 3 - 5 ÷ dx = dt Þ -2 ç 2 + 5 ÷ dx = dt
è x x ø èx x ø
æ 1ö
ç - ÷ dt 1 t -3 1 x12
I= è 2ø = - +C= = +C
ò t4 2 -3 æ 3 1ö
6ç 2 + 2 + 4 ÷
3
6(2x 4 + 3x2 + 1)3
è x x ø
6. Let f be a differentiable function such that f(1) = 2 and f'(x) = f(x) for all x Î R. If h(x) = f(f(x)), then h'(1) is equal
to :
(1) 4e2 (2) 2e2 (3) 4e (4) 2e
Ans. (3)
f '(x)
ò = 1
f(x) ò
Sol.
Þ log|f(x)| = x + C
log2 = 1 + C
Þ C = log2 – 1
log|f(x)| = x + log2 – 1
if f(x) > 0 :
logf(x) = (x –1) + log2
f(x)
log = x -1
2
f(x) = 2.ex-1
2 x
f(x) = e
e
2 f (x)
Now f f(x) = e
e
2 æ 2e ex ö
h(x) = çe ÷÷
e çè ø
2 æ 2e ex 2 x ö
h'(x) = çe ´ .e ÷÷
e çè e ø
2é 2 2 ù
h'(1) = e ´ e ú = 4e
e êë e û
if f(x) < 0 :
|f(x)| = 2ex–1
f(x) = –2 ex–1 < 0
then h'(1) will be –ve
7. The tangent to the curve y = x2 – 5x + 5, parallel to the line 2y = 4x + 1, also passes through the point :
æ1 ö æ 1 ö æ7 1ö æ1 7ö
(1) ç , -7 ÷ (2) ç - ,7 ÷ (3) ç , ÷ (4) ç , ÷
è8 ø è 8 ø è2 4ø è4 2ø
Ans. (1)
Sol. 2y = 4x + 1
Tangent : y = 2x + C
Now (2x + C) = x2 – 5x + 5
Þ x2 – 7x + (5–C) = 0
Þ D=0
Þ 49 – 4.1.(5–C) = 0
49 – 20 + DC = 0
-29
C=
4
29
\ Tangent : y = 2x -
4
Þ 4y = 8x – 29
Þ 8x – 4y – 29 = 0 ... (A)
Checking option :
1
x= , y = –7 put in (A)
8
æ 1ö
Þ 8 ç ÷ - 4( -7) - 29 = 0
è8ø
Þ 1 + 28 – 29 = 0
Þ 0 = 0 hold
similarly check option (2), (3), (4), which not hold
æ1 ö
\ Ans. (i) ç , - 7 ÷
è 8 ø
8. The equation of a tangent to the parabola, x2 = 8y, which makes an angle q with the positive direction of x-
axis is :
(1) y = xtanq + 2cotq (2) y = xtanq – 2cotq (3) x = ycotq + 2tanq (4) x = ycotq – 2tanq
Ans. (3)
Sol. x = 4.2.y
Y2 = 4.2.X
2
Tangent : Y = mx +
m
2
Þ x = my +
m
1 2
Þ y= x- 2
m m
1
Slope Þ = tan q
m
\ y = tanqx – 2tan2q
Þ cotqy = x – 2tanq
Þ x = (cotq)y + 2tanq
9. If the function f given by f(x) = x3 – 3(a – 2)x2 + 3ax + 7, for some aÎR is increasing in (0, 1] and decreasing
f(x) - 14
in [1, 5), then a root of the equation, = 0(x ¹ 1) is :
(x - 1)2
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) –7 (4) 5

Ans. (2)
Sol.
Þ f '(1) = 0
Now f ' = 3x2 – 6(a –2)x + 3a
Þ 3 – 6(a – 2) + 3a = 0
Þ 15 – 3a = 0
Þ a=5
f(x) = x3 – 3(3)x2 + 15x + 7
f(x) – 14 = x3 – 9x2 + 15x – 7 ... (i)
Now put x = 1 in eq. (i)
Þ (x–1)x2 – 8(x –1)x + 7(x –1)
= (x–1) [x2 – 7x – x + 7]
x(x –7) – 1(x – 7) = (x – 1)(X –7)
AT Q
(x - 1)2 (x - 7)
if x ¹ 1
(x - 1)2
Þ x–7=0 Þ x=7
r r r r r
10. Let a, b and c be three unit vectors, out of which vectors b and c are non-parallel. If a and b are the angles
r r r r r r 1r
which vector a makes with vectors b and c respectively and a ´ b ´ c = b, then |a – b| is equal to :
2
(1) 45º (2) 60º (3) 30º (4) 90º
Ans. (3)
1
Sol. (a.c)b - (a.b)c = b
2
æ 1ö
Þ ç a.c - 2 ÷ b = (a.b)c
è ø
1
Þ a.c = & a.b = 0
2
1
Þ 1.1.cos b = & 1.1.cosa = 0
2
b = 60° a = 90°
Þ |a – b| = 30°
p - 2 sin-1 x
11. lim
x ® 1-
is equal to :
1- x
1 p 2
(1) (2) p (3) (4)
2p 2 p
Ans. (3)
Sol. L.Hosp. :
1 1
0 - 2. ´
-1
2 sin x 1- x2
1 1 2
1 = 2. . =
(-1) p 1+ 1 p
2 1- x
2
12. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point P which is 25 m above a lake be 30º and the angle of
depression of reflection of the cloud in the lake from P be 60º , then the height of the cloud (in meters) from
the surface of the lake is :
(1) 42 (2) 50 (3) 45 (4) 60
Ans. (2)
h
Sol. tan30° = Þ Pm = 3 h ... (i)
Pm
50 + h
& tan60° =
Pm
Þ 3. 3 h = 50 + h
Þ 2h = 50
Þ h = 25
\ Height = 25 + 25 = 50
2x x
ïìæ x ö æ e ö ïü
e
13. The integral ò íç e ÷ - ç x ÷ ý logex dx is equal to

1î ïè ø è ø þï
1 1 3 1 1 1 1 3 1 1
(1) -e- 2 (2) -e- 2 (3) - + - (4) - -
2 e 2 2e 2 e 2e 2 2 e 2e 2
Ans. (4)
é ù
êæ
e x 2 ú
æxö ö 1 ú
Sol. ê
I = ò çç ÷ ÷ - loge x dx
êç e ø ÷ x
æxö ú
1 èè ø
ê çe÷ ú
ëê è ø úû
x
æxö
çe÷ = t
è ø
Þ x(logx –1) = logt
æ1 ö 1 dt
Þ 1. loge x - 1 + x ç - 0 ÷ =
è x ø t dx
1
1 æ 2 1ö 1
Þ loge xdx = dt
t
Þ ò çè t - ÷. dt
tø t
1/e
1 1
æ 1ö t2 1
Þ ò çè t - t2 ÷ø dt Þ +
2 t 1/e
1/e
æ1 ö æ 1 ö 3 1
Þ ç 2 + 1÷ - ç 2 + e ÷ Þ - -e
è ø è 2e ø 2 2e2
14. In a game, a man wins Rs. 100 if he gets 5 or 6 on a throw of a fair die and loses Rs.50 for getting any other
number on the die. If he decides to throw the die either till he gets a five or a six or to a maximum of three
throws, then his expected gain/loss (in rupees) is :
400 400 400

(1) 0 (2) loss (3) loss (4) gain
9 3 3
Ans. (1)
Sol. P(S) = 5 or 6
1 1 1
= + =
6 6 3
1 2
\ P(S) = 1 - =
3 3
Expectation = P(S) or P(S)
1 2
= (100) + ( -50) = 0
3 3
15. If nC4,nC5 and nC6 are in A.P., then n can be :

(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 14 (4) 12
Ans. (3)
Sol. 2.nC5 = nC4 + nC6
n n
C4 C6
Þ 2= n
+ n
C5 C5
n n
4. n - 4 6. n - 6
+
Þ n n
n - 5. 5 5. n - 5
5 (n - 5)
2= +
n-4 6
30 + (n - 4)(n - 5)
2=
6(n - 4)
12(n – 4) = 30 + n2 – 9n + 20
n2 – 9n + 50 = 12n – 48
n2 – 21n + 98 = 0
(n–4)(n–14) = 0
n = 7, 14
n = 14 Ans.
16. The mean and the variance of five observations are 4 and 5.20, respectively. If three of the observations are 3,
4 and 4 ; then the absolute value of the difference of the other two observations, is :
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 1
Ans. (3)
x1 + x 2 + 3 + 4 + 4
Sol. =4 Þ x1 + x2 = 9
5
å x i2 9 + 16 + 16 + x12 + x 22
- 16 = 5.2
- m = 5.2 Þ
5 5
41 + x12 + x22 – 80 = 26
x12 + x22 = 65
(x1 + x2)2 –2x1x2 = 65
92 – 65 = 2x1x2
16 = 2x1x2
x 1x 2 = 8
(x1 – x2)2 = (x1 + x2)2 – 4x1x2
= 92 – 4×8
= 81 – 32
= 49
Þ |x1 – x2| = 7
17. If a circle of radius R passes through the origin O and intersects the coordinate axes at A and B, then the
locus of the foot of perpendicular from O on AB is :
(1) (x2 + y2)3 = 4R2x2y2 (2) (x2 + y2)2 = 4R2x2y2 (3) (x2 + y2)2 = 4Rx2y2 (4) (x2 + y2)(x + y) = R2xy
Ans. (1)
k
Sol. Slope (OM) =
h
h
equation of AB : y – k = - (x - h)
k
k2
put y = 0 : = x -h
h
k 2 + h2
Þ x=
h
h2
put x = 0 : y -k =
k
k 2 + h2
y=
k
æ k 2 + h2 ö æ k 2 + h2 ö
Aç ,0 ÷ , B ç 0, ÷
è h ø è k ø
2 2
æ k 2 + h2 ö æ k 2 + h2 ö 2
Q AB = 2R Þ ç - 0÷ + ç ÷ = 4R Þ (x2 + y2)3 = 4x2y2R2
è h ø è k ø
x 2 - 2y
18. If a curve passes through the point (1, –2) and has slope of the tangent at any point (x, y) on it as ,
x
then the curve also passes through the point :
(1) ( 3,0) (2) (3, 0) (3) - 2,1 (4) (–1, 2)

Ans. (1)
dy 2
Sol. = - y+x
dx x
dy æ 2 ö
+ y=x
dx çè x ÷ø
2
I.F. = eò dx 2
x = eloge x = x 2
x4
y.x2 = ò x 2 .x dx = +C
4
1
-2.1 = +C
4
9
C=-
4
x4 9
yx 2 = - ... (i)
4 4
Check option :
(1) 3,0 put in equation (i)
9 9
0= - = 0 hold
4 4
19. The expression ~ (~ p ® q) is logically equivalent to :

(1) p Ù q (2) ~ p Ù q (3) ~ p Ù ~ q (4) p Ù ~ q
Ans. (3)
Sol. ~(~p ®q)
= ~pÙ~q
20. Let z1 and z2 be two complex numbers satisfying |z1| = 9 and |z2 – 3 – 4i| = 4. Then the minimum value of
|z1 – z2| is :
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. C1(0, 0), C2(3, 4)
r1 = 9, r2 = 4
Þ C1C2 = 5
= r1 – r2
Þ both touches internally
Þ |z1 – z2| = 0 min. at point of contact.
æ n n n 1ö
21. lim
n ®¥ ç 2
+ 2 + 2 + ..... + is equal to :
2 2
è n +1 n + 2 n + 3
2
5n ÷ø
p p
(1) tan–1(2) (2) (3) tan–1(3) (4)
2 4
Ans. (1)
æ n n n ö 2n
n
Sol. lim ç 2 2 + 2 2
+ .... + 2 2 ÷ Þ lim å 2 2
n®¥ n + 1 n + 2 n + (2n) r =1 n + r
n®¥
è ø
2
1 -1
2
ò 1 + x2 dx = tan x
0 = tan–1 2
0
2
22. Let Z be the set of integers. If A = {x Î Z : 2( x + 2)(x - 5 x + 6)
= 1} and B = {x Î Z : - 3 < 2x - 1 < 9}, then the
number of subsets of the set A × B, is :

(1) 212 (2) 215 (3) 218 (4) 210
Ans. (4)
Sol. A = (x + 2) (x2 – 5x + 6) = 0
(x + 2)(x–2)(x–3) = 0
x = 2, 3, –2
n(A) = 3
-3 + 1 9 +1
&B= <x<
2 2
–1 < x < 5
x = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
n(B) = 5
\ n(A × B) = 3 × 5
\ Subsets of A × B = 23×5 = 215
60
23. The total number of irrational terms in the binomial expansion of 71/ 5 - 31/10 is :
(1) 48 (2) 49 (3) 55 (4) 54

Ans. (4)
r 60 -r
Sol. Tr+1 = 60
Cr .7 5.( -3) 10
For rational term Þ r = multiple of 10

Þ r = 0, 10, 20....... 60 (7 terms)
\ irrational terms = 61 – 7 = 54
(Q total no. of terms = 60 +1)
24. Let S and S' be the foci of an ellipse and B be any one of the extremities of its minor axis. If DS'BS is a right
angled triangle with right angle at B and area (DS'BS) = 8 sq. units, then the length of a latus rectum of the
ellipse is :
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 4 2
Ans. (3)
b-0 b-0
Sol. Þ ´ = -1
0 - ae 0 + ae
Þ b2 = a2e2
Þ a2(1– e2) = a2e2
1
Þ e=
2
a2
\ b2 =
2
1
Now .2ae.b = 8
2
ab = 8 2
a2b2 = 64 × 2
a2 . a2 = 64 × 22
a2 = 8 × 2
a = 4 & b2 = 8
2b2 8
\ Length of L.R. = = 2. = 4
a 4
25. The number of integral values of m for which the quadratic expression, (1 + 2m)x2 – 2(1 + 3m)x + 4(1 + m),
xÎR, is always positive, is :
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 7
Ans. (4)
Sol. 1 + 2m > 0 & D < 0
1
m>- ... (i)
2
4(1 + 3m)2 – 4(1 + 2m).4(1+m) < 0
Þ (1 + 3m)2 – 4(1 + m + 2m + 2m2) < 0
Þ 1 + 9m2 + 6m – 4(1 + 3m + 2m2) < 0
Þ m2 – 6m –3 < 0
6 ± 36 + 4.1.3 6±4 3
m= = =3±2 3
2 2
3 - 2 3 < m < 3 + 2 3 » 6.46

m = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
\ values of m = 7
é 1 sin q 1 ù
ê
A = ê - sin q 1 sin qúú æ 3p 5p ö
26. If ; then for all qÎ ç , ÷ , det (A) lies in the interval :
êë -1 - sin q 1 úû è 4 4 ø
é5 ö æ 3ù æ3 ù æ 5ù
(1) ê ,4 ÷ (2) ç 0, ú (3) ç ,3 ú (4) ç 1, ú
ë2 ø è 2û è2 û è 2û
Ans. (3)
Sol. |A| = 1 + sin2q – sin2q – (–1 – sin2q –sin2q)
= 2 + 2sin2q
|A|min = 2
2
æ 1 ö
|A|max ~ 2 + 2. ç ÷ ~ 3 Þ Range [2, 3)
è 2ø
3 3 3 3
æ 3 ö æ 1ö æ 1ö 3 æ 3ö
27. If the sum of the first 15 terms of the series ç ÷ + ç 1 ÷ + ç 2 ÷ + 3 + ç 3 ÷ + ...... is equal to 225 k, then
è 4ø è 2ø è 4ø è 4ø
k is equal to :
(1) 108 (2) 9 (3) 54 (4) 27
Ans. (4)
3 3 3 3
æ3ö æ3ö æ9ö 3 æ 15 ö
Sol. ç 4 ÷ + ç 2 ÷ + ç 4 ÷ + 3 + ..... ç 4 ÷ upto 15 terms
è ø è ø è ø è ø
3 3 3 3
æ 3 ö æ 6 ö æ 9 ö æ 12 ö
Þ ç ÷ + ç ÷ + ç ÷ + ç ÷ + ..... 15 terms
è 4ø è4ø è 4ø è 4 ø
2
33 3 27 æ 15.16 ö
Þ é1 + 23 + 33 + ..... + 153 ù = 225K Þ = 152 × K
43 ë û 64 çè 2 ÷ø
Þ 27 = K Þ K = 27
28. If sin4a + 4cos4b + 2 = 4 2 sin a cos b; a, b Î [0, p], then cos(a + b) - cos( a - b) is equal to :
(1) 2 (2) –1 (3) - 2 (4) 0

Ans. (3)
Sol. AM ³ GM
sin4 a + 4 cos4 b + 1 + 1
³ (sin4a.4cos4b.1.1)1/4
4
³ 2 .sina.cosb
Þ sin4a + 4cos4b + 1 + 1 ³ 4 2 .sina.cosb
But given sin4a + 4cos2b + 2 = 4 2 .sina.cosb

Þ numbers are equal & +ve
Þ sin4a = 1 & 4cos4b = 1
p 1 p
a= & cos b = Þ b=
2 2 4
Þ cos(a + b) – cos(a – b)
æp pö æp pö
Þ cos ç + ÷ - cos ç - ÷
è2 4ø è2 4ø
1 1
Þ - - = - 2
2 2
29. There are m men and two women participating in a chess tournament. Each participant plays two games
with every other participant. If the number of games played by the men between themselves exceeds the
number of games played between the men and the women by 84, then the value of m is :
(1) 7 (2) 12 (3) 9 (4) 11
Ans. (2)
m
Sol. C2 × 2 – 2C1.mC1.2 = 84
m(m - 1)
Þ .2 – 4m = 84
2
m2 – 5m – 84 = 0
(m – 12)(m + 7) = 0
m = 12
30. If a straight line passing through the point P(–3, 4) is such that its intercepted portion between the coordinate
axes is bisected at P, then its equation is :
(1) x – y + 7 = 0 (2) 3x – 4y + 25 = 0 (3) 4x + 3y = 0 (4) 4x – 3y + 24 = 0
Ans. (4)
x y
Sol. Line : + =1
a b
a+0 b+0
Þ = -3 & =4
2 2
x y
\ Line : + =1
-6 8
8x – 6y = –48
4x – 3y + 24 = 0

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JEE Main Online test_09-01-19_Morning

(1) 18 N (2) 25 N (3) 32 N (4) 23 N

kinetic-energy is lost in whole process. What is value of M/m?

(1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

(1) 5A (2) 3A (3) 4A (4) 2A

(1) 1.8 (2) 2.5 (3) 1.4 (4) 5.6

msinq = 1.5 sinr

Total force = 2Fsinq

(1) 2.24 (2) 0.32 (3) 0.45 (4) 3.16

(1) 40 J (2) 20 J (3) 100 J (4) 80 J

(R2 + x2) – 3x2 = 0

equation (i) / (ii)

m0 (10) p/ 4 m 0 (10) p/4

f = (3.5 × 10–3) (0.4T)×sin(50pt)

when car has acceleration a,

(1) 60 ºC (2) 45 ºC (3) 35 ºC (4) 75 ºC

2. The isotopes of hydrogen are

(The Rydberg constant, RH is in wave number unit)

4. The correct decreasing order for acid strength is

7. The ore that contains both iron and copper is

|w| = nRT ln v2 – nRT lnv1

10. The major product of the following reaction is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) p2 (2) p1/2 (3) p1/4 (4) p

13. Which amongst the following is the strongest acid?

(1) AIH(i -Bu )2

(1) RCHO (2) RCOOH (3) RCONH2 (4) RCH2NH2

15. Correct statements among a to d regarding silicones are :

[A] [B] Initial Rate of reaction

The time (in minutes) required to consume half of A is

So, r = K × (0.1) × (0.2)0 = 6.93 × 10–3

Sol. m = n(n + 2) B.M.

n = Number of unpaired e–.

18. The major product of the following reaction is :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

20. The compounds A and B in the following reaction are, respectively :

Sol. 20 ml 0.1 M H2SO4 Þ nH+ = 4 m mol

30 ml 0.2 M NH4OH Þ nNH4OH = 6 m mol

NH4OH + H+ NH4+ + H2O

23. Arrange the following amines in the decreasing order of basicity

24. The one that is extensively used as a piezoelectric material is

26. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is

(1) 13 – 4 cos6q (2) 13 – 4 cos2q + 6sin2qcos2q

(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 14

Hence remainder is '8'

(where c is a constant of integration)

latus rectum lies in the interval

Latus rectum e(3, ¥)

15. Let f : R ® R be a function defined as

145 145 145 145

on squaring both sides

For z to be purely imaginary z + z = 0

(1) 2 3 y = 12 x + 1 (2) 2 3 y = – x – 12 (3) 3 y = 3x + 1 (4) 3y = x + 3

(3) has a unique solution for | a | = 3 (4) is inconsistent when | a | = 3

Sol. f2 J0 f1(x) = f3 (x)

1 - J(f1 (x)) = f3 (x)

écos q - sin q ù é cos q sin q ù

é cos q sin q ù é cos 2q sin 2q ù

écos( -50q ) - sin( -50q) ù

(1) (4, –4) (2) (6, 4 2 ) (3) (5, 2 6 ) (4) (8, 6)

1. The position co-ordinates of a particle moving in a 3-D coordinate system is given by

(1) 300 W (2) 550 W (3) 450 W (4) 230 W

(1) 0.8 V (2) 0.4 V (3) 0.2 V (4) 0.6 V