010-111

ACSM Certified Personal Trainer

Version 3.0
QUESTION NO: 1

The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT

A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.

B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Support for the body.

B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins.
Which of the following is a contractile protein?

A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer
symptoms. This person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise
program to improve flexibility in the low back. Which exercise would be most
appropriate for this person to address the stated goal?

A. Hip flexor stretch.

B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT

A. The diaphysis is composed of compact bone.

B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases the medullary canal.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6

The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT

A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7

The prime movers for extension of the knee are the

A. Biceps femoris.
B. Biceps brachii.
C. Quadriceps femoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 8

A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?

A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9

Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?

A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right
atrium and ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right
atrium to the right ventricle?

A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11

An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called

A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12

Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?

A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 13

Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?

A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 14

Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the

A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15

A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the

A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 16

The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the

A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 17

Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior
venae cavae into the

A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 18

Arteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course
through the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become

A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 19

The law of inertia

A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to
continue to stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on
by an outside force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is
also doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite
and equal to the first force.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 20

Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In

comparison to walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21

Who first described that a body immersed in fluid is buoyed up with a force equal to the
weight of the displaced fluid?

A. Einstein.
B. Freud.
C. Whitehead.
D. Archimedes.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 22

Which of the following bones articulates proximally with the sternal manubrium and
distally with the scapula and is helpful to palpate in electrode placement?

A. Scapula.
B. Sternum.
C. Clavicle.
D. Twelfth rib.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 23

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the "power position" used for lifting
with proper body mechanics?

A. Shoulders slouched.
B. Back straight.
C. Body bent forward from the hips.
D. Knees slightly bent.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 24

The intervertebral disks have which of the following characteristics?

A. Calcified outer ring.
B. Gelatinous inner nucleus portion.
C. Gray matter surrounding the neural cell bodies.
D. All of the above.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 25

Pain caused by low back muscle guarding and spasm in the absence of signs of disk
herniation is often treated with muscle stretching. Which of the following is (are) helpful
stretching activities for the low back?

A. Knee to chest.
B. Double-knee to chest.
C. Lower trunk rotation.
D. All of the above.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 26

Which of the following will increase stability?

A. Lowering the center of gravity.

B. Raising the center of gravity.
C. Decreasing the base of support.
D. Moving the center of gravity farther from the edge bf the base of support.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 27

Which type of musculoskeletal lever is most common?

A. First-class.
B. Second-class.
C. Third-class.
D. Fourth-class.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 28

Angular motion occurs when

A. A force is applied off-center to a freely- moveable object.
B. A freely-movable object moves in a straight line when a force is applied on-center.
C. An object is free to move only in a linear path.
D. All of the above.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 29

In second-class lever,

A. The Axis is located between the effort force and the resistance.
B. The resistance is located between the effort force and the axis.
C. The effort force is located between the resistance and the axis.
D. None of the above.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 30

Slapping of the foot during heel strike and increased knee and hip flexion during swing
are characteristic of

A. Weakness in the gluteus medius and minimus.

B. Weakness in the quadriceps femoris.
C. Weakness in the plantarflexors.
D. Weakness in the dorsiflexors.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 31

Which of the following is characteristic of running versus walking?

A. Less vigorous arm action.

B. Decreased stride length.
C. Period of nonsupport.
D. Period of double-support.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 32

Low back pain occurs most commonly in the lumbar region, because
A. The lumbar vertebrae are the least mobile.
B. The lumbar disks are subject to the most pressure.
C. The lumbar vertebrae support much of the body weight.
D. All of the above.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 33

The rear-foot motion called pronation results from a combination of

A. Abduction, eversion, and plantarflexion.

B. Adduction, inversion, and plantarflexion.
C. Abduction, eversion, and dorsiflexion.
D. Adduction, inversion, and dorsiflexion.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 34

Which of the following is NOT a major food fuel during exercise?

A. Glucose.
B. Fatty acids.
C. Protein.
D. Glycogen.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 35

The chemical energy that is directly converted to do work is

A. ATP.
B. Creatine phosphate.
C. Beta oxidation of fatty acids.
D. All of the above.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 36

Which of the following is true when two people of different weights (80 and 70 kg) are
exercising at 5 mphl5% grade on a treadmill?

A. Vo2 will be different if expressed in mL/kg/min.

B. Vo2 will be the same if expressed in L/min.
C. Cardiac output will be the same in L/min.
D. None of the above.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 37

Which of the following would provide the SMALLEST potential energy source in the
body?

A. Fat.
B. Protein.
C. PCr.
D. ATP.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 38

Before and after 10 weeks of endurance training, an individual performs a submaximal

exercise test at a constant work rate. Which of the following changes would most likely
occur as a result of the endurance training?

A. A lower cardiac output.

B. An increase in oxygen consumption.
C. An increase in the blood flow to the exercising muscle.
D. Lower blood lactate levels.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 39

When compared with leg exercise, arm exercise results in a relatively

A. Increased HR at all intensities.

B. Lower SBP at all intensities.
C. Increased venous return at all intensities.
D. Increased Vo2max.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 40

During exercise of increasing intensity, the SV of normal adults

A. Continues to increase throughout the duration of exercise up to Vo2max.
B. Remains relatively stable during submaximal exercise of greater than approximately
50% of Vo2max.
C. Will continue to increase and then level off just before the achievement of Vo2max.
D. None of the above.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 41

The simplest and most rapid method to produce ATP during exercise is through

A. Glycolysis.
B. The ATP-PCr system.
C. Aerobic metabolism.
D. Glycogenolysis.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 42

In general, the higher the intensity of the activity, the greater the contribution of

A. Aerobic energy production.

B. Anaerobic energy production.
C. The Krebs cycle to the production of ATP.
D. The electron-transport chain to the production of ATP.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 43

The energy to perform long-term exercise (> or = 15 min) comes primarily from

A. Aerobic metabolism.
B. A combination of aerobic and anaerobic metabolism, with anaerobic metabolism
producing the bulk of the ATP.
C. Anaerobic metabolism.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 44

The energy to perform long-term exercise (> or = 15 min) comes primarily from
A. Aerobic metabolism.
B. A combination of aerobic and anaerobic metabolism, with anaerobic metabolism pro-
ducing the bulk of the ATP.
C. Anaerobic metabolism.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 45

In a rested, well-fed athlete, most of the carbohydrate used as a substrate during exercise
comes from

A. Muscle glycogen stores.

B. Blood glucose.
C. Liver glycogen stores.
D. Glycogen stored in fat cells.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 46

Fast-twitch muscle fibers have which of the following characteristics compared with
slow- twitch muscle fibers?

A. Easily fatigued and well-developed aerobic system.

B. High force production and well-developed blood supply.
C. High PCr stores and high ATPase stores.
D. None of the above.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 47

The motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates are called a

A. Motor junction.
B. Motor unit.
C. Motor end plate.
D. N one of the above.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 48

The three principal mechanisms for increasing venous return during dynamic exercise are
A. A decrease in SV, HR, and compliance of the vascular system.
B. Venoconstriction, pumping action of muscle, and the pumping action of the respiratory
system.
C. An increase in vascular resistance, increase in HR, and decrease in blood pressure.
D. None of the above.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 49

Any physical activity with a performance time of approximately 30 seconds or less relies
on which of the following energy systems?

A. ATP.
B. PCr.
C. ATP-PCr.
D. Aerobic glycolysis.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 50

Which of the following is NOT a muscle type?

A. Skeletal.
B. Smooth.
C. Cardiac.
D. Generic.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 51

When a motor unit is stimulated by a single nerve impulse, it responds by contracting one
time and then relaxing. This is called a

A. Twitch.
B. Summation.
C. Tetanus.
D. Summary.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 52
Which muscle protein contains many cross-bridges?

A. Myofibril.
B. Sarcomere.
C. Troponin.
D. Myosin.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 53

Cardiac muscle action potentials are longer in duration than those of skeletal muscle. The
longer action potential does not allow the muscle to

A. Twitch.
B. Undergo summation.
C. Have tetanus.
D. Summarize.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 54

Which of the following cardiovascular variables does NOT increase as a result of chronic
exercise while performing a single bout of maximal exercise?

A. Maximal HR.
B. Maximal cardiac output.
C. Maximal SV.
D. Maximal oxygen consumption.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 55

Myocardial oxygen consumption is best estimated from

A. Maximal oxygen consumption.

B. RPP.
C. Cardiac output.
D. HR.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 56
During mild to moderate exercise, pulmonary ventilation increases primarily as a result
of increased

A. Tidal volume.
B. Breathing frequency.
C. Vital capacity.
D. Total lung volume.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 57

The anaerobic threshold occurs at the onset of

A. Oxidative phosphorylation.
B. Maximal oxygen consumption.
C. Metabolic acidosis.
D. Aerobic metabolism.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 58

Which of the following statements about static exercise is accurate?

A. It results in reduced pressure on the heart.

B. It is inappropriate for any client with heart disease.
C. It involves rhythmic, continuous activity.
D. It results in increased HR and SBP.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 59

Which of the following statements regarding arm versus leg exercise is correct?

A. Target HR should not be used as a guide for arm exercise.

B. Target HR for leg exercise should be decreased by 10 bpm for arm exercise.
C. Target HR for leg exercise should be increased by 10 bpm for arm exercise.
D. Higher maximal oxygen consumption should be expected in arm exercise.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 60

End-diastolic volume is highest when measured with the client in which position?
A. Recumbent.
B. Sitting.
C. Standing.
D. Supine.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 61

Which of the following are byproducts of aerobic metabolism?

A. Carbon dioxide and water.

B. Oxygen and water.
C. ATP and oxygen.
D. Hydrogen and oxygen.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 62

Cardiac output is a function of

A. HR, preload, after load, and contractility.

B. HR and SBP.
C. SV and EDV.
D. Maximal oxygen consumption and arteriovenous oxygenation difference.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 63

Which of the following describes a normal postexercise blood pressure (BP) response?

A. Elevated systolic and diastolic values compared to preparticipation values.

B. Progressive decline in SBP.
C. Progressive increase in SBP.
D. Exaggerated decrease in DBP.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 64

Stroke volume is defined as

A. The product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance.

B. The difference between EDV and ESV.
C. The product of preload and HR.
D. The product of cardiac output and arteriovenous oxygen difference.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 65

As a result of exercise training, cardiac output becomes

A. Higher at any given workload.

B. Lower at any given workload.
C. Essentially unchanged at any given workload.
D. Diminished because of reduced SV.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 66

During exercise, SV increases as a result of

A. The Frank-Starling law.

B. Increased HR.
C. Increased ejection fraction.
D. Increased pulmonary artery pressure

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 67

In terms of chronological age, early childhood is usually described as

A. Birth to 3 weeks.
B. 3 weeks to 1 year.
C. 1 to 6 years.
D. 7 to 10 years.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 68

Which age group is the fastest-growing segment of the U. S. population?

A. Preadolescents.
B. Adolescents.
C. Adults aged 65 to 85 years.
D. Adults older than 85 years.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 69

Increased after load associated with increased peripheral resistance as a result of aging
causes

A. Left ventricular hypertrophy.

B. Kidney failure.
C. Liver damage.
D. Liver failure.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 70

An increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure at rest and during exercise often
accompanies aging. Blood pressure usually increases because of

A. Increased arterial compliance and decreased arterial stiffness.

B. Decreased arterial compliance and increased arterial stiffness.
C. Decrease in both arterial compliance and arterial stiffness.
D. Increase in both arterial compliance and arterial stiffness.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 71

The remains relatively unchanged throughout childhood. However, after age 25, it
typically decreases by

A. 0% to 5% each decade.
B. 5% to 15% each decade.
C. 15% to 20% each decade.
D. 15% to 20% each year.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 72

Cardiac output is a function of heart rate and stroke volume. In children, why is heart rate
higher at rest and during exercise?
A. Because in children, stroke volume is directly related to how much left ventricular
stiffness reduces diastolic filling.
B. Because in children, cardiac output is regulated more by peripheral resistance than
Vo2max by any other variable.
C. Because children typically have a lower stroke volume compared to adults.
D. Because children typically have a more elevated peripheral resistance compared to
adults.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 73

The increases as a result of physical training in elderly persons. This occurs for all of the
following reasons EXCEPT

A. In men, the increase is a function of improved central and peripheral adaptations.

B. In women, the increase is a function of improved peripheral adaptations.
C. In both men and women, regular aerobic exercise slows the decline with aging.
D. In both men and women, regular aerobic exercise speeds the decline with aging.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 74

The total number of muscle fibers is fixed at an early age, but

A. At adolescence, males exhibit rapid hypertrophy of muscle.

B. In comparison to males, females exhibit a more rapid hypertrophy of muscle.
C. Males lose muscle mass faster at an early age when they remain sedentary.
D. Males tend to exhibit muscle hypertrophy at a later age than females.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 75

Strenuous exercise can predispose children to which of the following?

A. Osteoporosis.
B. Osteoarthritis.
C. Malignant tumors.
D. Epiphysitis.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 76
Advancing age brings a progressive decline in bone mineral density and calcium content;
this process is accelerated in women immediately following menopause. Which condition
is commonly associated with this condition?

A. Osteoarthritis.
B. Osteoporosis.
C. Arthritis.
D. Epiphysitis.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 77

All of the following musculoskeletal changes typically occur with advancing age
EXCEPT

A. Decreased flexibility.
B. Impaired balance.
C. Inhibited range of motion.
D. Skeletal muscle hypertrophy

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 78

Body fat generally increases with advancing age, particularly between childhood and
early adultophood, because of

A. An exponential increase in caloric consumption.

B. A great increase in caloric consumption and a small decline in fat production.
C. Body fat accumulation as a result of an imbalance between caloric intake and energy
expenditure.
D. Alterations in resting metabolic rate.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 79

Which of the following factors does NOT impair an older individual's ability to
thermoregulate?

A. Reduced total body water.

B. Decreased renal function.
C. Decreased vascular peripheral responsiveness.
D. Enhanced sweat response.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 80

A medical history as well as risk factor screening are important before prescribing an
exercise program for older adults. Individuals with one or more risk factors for exercise
participation should be referred.

A. Directly to the hospital and admitted for further evaluation.

B. In 1 month to the nearest exercise facility.
C. For diagnostic exercise tolerance testing.
D. Immediately to a hospital emergency room.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 81

Which of the following can an older person expect as a result of participation in an

exercise program?

A. Overall improvement in the quality of life and increased independence.

B. No changes in the quality of life but an increase in longevity.
C. Increased longevity but a loss of bone mass.
D. Loss of bone mass with a concomitant increase in bone density.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 82

Which of the following would generally be the preferred mode of exercise for an elderly
person?

A. Jogging.
B. Calisthenics.
C. Swimming.
D. Archery.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 83

An exercise program for elderly persons generally should emphasize increased

A. Frequency.
B. Intensity.
C. Duration.
D. Intensity and frequency.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 84

For optimal cardiovascular as well as balance and flexibility adaptations, an elderly

person generally should exercise how many days per week?

A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 5 to 7.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 85

In response to regular resistance training,

A. Older men and women demonstrate similar or even greater strength gains when
compared to younger individuals.
B. Younger men have greater gains in strength than older men.
C. Younger women have greater gains in strength than older women.
D. Younger men and women demonstrate similar or greater strength gains compared to
older persons.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 86

Angina that occurs at rest is termed

A. Silent.
B. Stable.
C. Variant.
D. Typical.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 87

A group of pulmonary disorders characterized by expiratory airflow obstruction, dyspnea

(shortness of breath), and some degree of airway reversal is known as

A. Bronchitis.
B. Asthma.
C. Emphysema.
D. COPD.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 88

The primary effects of chronic exercise training on lipid values are

A. Decreased triglycerides and increased HDL.

B. Decreased TC and LDL.
C. Decreased HDL and increased LDL.
D. Decreased TC and increased HDL.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 89

Which of the following would be the best recommendation for exercise training in a hot
and humid, outdoor environment?

A. Wait for approximately 2 weeks to become acclimated to the heat before exercising.
B. Use a mode of activity that would increase heat loss by convection (e.g., bicycling,
running).
C. Reduce the exercise intensity.
D. Increase evaporative cooling by wiping away Sweat that forms on the body.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 90

Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of CAD?

A. Injury to the arterial wall begins in the media.

B. Platelets and thrombi form in the adventitia.
C. The endothelium takes up lipids, especially LDL.
D. Atherosclerotic lesions form in the intima.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 91

A cardiac patient is taking a l3-blocker medication. During an exercise test, you would
expect
A. A radioisotope (e.g., Cardiolite) to be administered, because l3-blockers depress the
ST segment on the resting ECG.
B. An increase in the angina threshold compared to a test without the medication.
C. N a change in heart rate or blood pressure compared to a test without the medication.
D. A slight decrease or no effect on blood pressure compared to a test without the
medication.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 92

The aging-related loss of elasticity (or "hardening") of the arteries is known as

A. Atherosclerosis.
B. Arteriosclerosis.
C. Atheroma.
D. Adventitia.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 93

The deficiency of blood flow to the myocardium that results when oxygen demand
exceeds oxygen supply is known as

A. Infarction.
B. Angina.
C. Ischemia.
D. Thrombosis.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 94

What procedure uses a clot-dissolving agent during acute MI to restore blood flow and
limit myocardial necrosis?

A. PTCA.
B. Thrombolytic therapy.
C. Radionuclide imaging.
D. CABGS.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 95
All of the following are suggestive of cardiovascular and pulmonary disease EXCEPT

A. Palpitations that occur at rest.

B. Dyspnea during strenuous exertion.
C. Syncope during moderate-intensity exercise training.
D. Substernal burning during exertion that dissipates with rest.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 96

Modifiable primary risk factors for CAD include

A. Hypertension, dyslipidemia, advancing age, and tobacco smoking.

B. Homocysteine, lipoprotein( a), C-reactive protein, and t- P A.
C. Obesity, DM, tobacco smoking, and sedentary lifestyle.
D. Tobacco smoking, dyslipidemia, hypertension, and homocysteine.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 97

What is the current state of knowledge on progression or regression of atherosclerosis in

human coronary arteries?

A. Regression of atherosclerosis has been observed in clinical studies.

B. Regression of atherosclerosis has yet to be observed in clinical studies
C. Progression of atherosclerosis begins at puberty.
D. The rate of progression or regression between those who undergo usual medical care is
no different from that in those who aggressively control risk factors.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 98

What is the correct term and definition to describe a potential complication that may
occur after an acute MI?

A. Expansion-another MI.
B. Aneurysm-bulging of the ventricular wall.
C. Extension-left ventricular dilation.
D. Rupture-coronary artery breaks open.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 99
The goal of risk stratification is to

A. Determine the prognosis.

B. Assess the disease severity.
C. Confirm the diagnosis.
D. Increase the safety of exercise participation.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 100

A classic sign of subendocardial ischemia is

A. Angina.
B. ST -segment depression.
C. ST-segment elevation.
D. A pathologic Q wave.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 101

Which of the following is the one true statement concerning the surgical treatment of
CAD?

A. A coronary artery stent carries a lower rate of restenosis than does PTCA.
B. Atherectomy is a prerequisite requirement forPTCA.
C. Venous grafts are significantly superior to arterial grafts in terms of patency.
D. Long term outcome of laser angioplasty is unknown and, thus, are rarely used.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 102

A possible mechanism by which chronic exercise training may reduce resting blood
pressure in hypertensive individuals is through

A. An increase in plasma renin.

B. A higher cardiac output.
C. A reduced heart rate.
D. A lower stroke volume.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 103

An embolism

A. Can increase pulmonary vascular resistance.

B. Is excessive fluid retention.
C. Can be triggered by a chemical mediator (e.g., histamine).
D. Is an outward bulging of the ventricular wall.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 104

A sedentary lifestyle

A. Has a risk similar to that of hypertension, high cholesterol, and cigarette smoking.
B. Increases HDL cholesterol.
C. Increases the sensitivity to insulin.
D. Has little influence on post-MI mortality rates.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 105

Body fat appears to be most dangerous when

A. Weight for height exceeds 20% above recommended.

B. It exceeds 25% for males and 30% for females.
C. Central (android) obesity is present.
D. The BMI exceeds 25

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 106

All of the following are considered possible causes of restrictive lung disease EXCEPT

A. Scoliosis.
B. Obesity.
C. Muscular dystrophy.
D. Cigarette smoke.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 107

Which statement below best describes the condition of asthma?

A. Narrowing of the bronchial airways.
B. Alveolar destruction.
C. Ventilatory dead space.
D. Respiratory muscular atrophy.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 108

Metabolic syndrome (also referred to a syndrome X or the deadly quartet) is comprised of

A. Elevated TC, obesity, diabetes, and physical inactivity.

B. Central obesity, elevated LDL cholesterol, diabetes, and physical inactivity.
C. Low HDL cholesterol, cigarette smoking, hypertension, and physical inactivity.
D. Central obesity, elevated triglycerides and low HDL cholesterol, hypertension, and
insulin resistance.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 109

All of the following risk factors for CAD can be modified by a regular and appropriate
exercise training program EXCEPT

A. Advancing age.
B. DM.
C. Hypertension.
D. HDL cholesterol.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 110

Emerging risk factors for CAD include

A. Advancing age, family history, and male sex.

B. Impaired fasting glucose, obesity, and hypertension.
C. Lipoprotein(a), advancing age, and male sex.
D. Homocysteine, lipoprotein(a), and fibrinogen.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 111

Theories are used in programs for

A. Giving individuals an exercise prescription.
B. Perceiving rewards of certain behaviors.
C. Self- reevaluation.
D. Providing a conceptual framework for behavioral assessment.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 112

In which stage of motivational readiness is a person who is an irregular exerciser?

A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 113

Setting several short-term goals to attain a long term goal to increase self-efficacy is an
example of

A. An application of cognitive-behavioral principles.

B. An evaluation.
C. A relationship to theory.
D. An explanatory theory.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 114

A limitation of psychological theories is

A. They do not reinforce behavior.

B. They leave out important elements (e.g., sociocultural factors).
C. They make too many assumptions.
D. They cannot evaluate programs.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 115

The idea that intention is the most important determinant of behavior is a central
component of the
A. Relapse Prevention Model.
B. Social Cognitive Theory.
C. Theory of Planned Behavior.
D. Transtheoretical Model.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 116

In the Social Cognitive Theory, which three major dynamic interacting influences are
postulated as determining behavioral change?

A. Personal, behavioral, and environmental.

B. Reinforcement, commitment, and social support.
C. High-risk situations, social support, and perceived control.
D. Stage of readiness, processes of change, and confidence.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 117

A decisional balance sheet is used to

A. Assess barriers and benefits for physical activity or exercise.

B. Determine a person's self-efficacy.
C. Determine a person's readiness to change behavior.
D. All of the above.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 118

An individual would not increase self-efficacy by

A. Performance accomplishments.
B. Vicarious experience.
C. Verbal persuasion.
D. Using a decisional balance sheet.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 119

People in which stage are at the greatest risk of relapse?

A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 120

Which of the following strategies can help a person to maintain his or her physical
activity?

A. Schedule check-in appointments.

B. Reduce barriers.
C. Increase benefits.
D. Educate regarding different types of exercise.
E. All of the above.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 121

Referrals to other sources may be required if someone

A. Has health problems.

B. Reports symptoms of depression.
C. Has an eating disorder.
D. All of the above.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 122

Establishing specific expectations of what you are, willing to do as a counselor and

staying focused on exercise/physical activity issues and behavioral skills related to
exercise are strategies for handling which type of client?

A. A dissatisfied client.
B. A needy client.
C. A hostile client.
D. A shy client.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 123

Encouraging moderate-intensity activity and the accumulation of activity throughout the
day are examples of

A. Relapse prevention counseling.

B. Using the stages of change.
C. Allowing individuality in exercise choices.
D. Addressing the individual's agenda.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 124

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral process in the Transtheoretical

Model?

A. Consciousness raising.
B. Stimulus control
C. Dramatic relief.
D. Environmental reevaluation.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 125

One mistake that health care providers and exercise promoters make is to

A. Assume that most individuals are ready to change their behavior.

B. Encourage the accumulation of moderate intensity activity throughout the day.
C. Legitimize a client's concerns.
D. Use the five A's strategy for counseling.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 126

The concept of shaping refers to

A. Using self-monitoring techniques (e.g., exercise logs).

B. Using visual prompts (e.g., packing a gym bag the night before) as reminders to
exercise.
C. The process for establishing self-efficacy.
D. Setting intermediate goals that lead to a long-term goal.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 127

Verbal encouragement, material incentives, self praise, and use of specific contingency
contracts are examples of

A. Shaping.
B. Reinforcement.
C. Antecedent control.
D. Setting goals.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 128

The three functions of the Participant-Centered Education and Counseling Model include

A. Identifying high-risk situations, developing a plan for these situations, and eliminating
"all-or-none" thinking.
B. Information gathering, developing a helping relationship, and participant education
and counseling.
C. Exhibiting empathy, legitimizing a client's concerns, and forming a partnership.
D. Assessing, asking questions, and establishing a supportive relationship.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 129

The Transtheoretical Model assumes that individuals

A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.

B. Only progress forward through the stages.
C. Move back and forth along the stage continuum.
D. Tend to use behavioral processes during the earlier stages of change.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 130

If an individual is in the action stage, he or she

A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.

B. Participates in some exercise, but does so irregularly.
C. Has been physically active on a regular basis for less than 6 months.
D. Has been physically active on a regular basis for more than 6 months.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 131

Which does NOT help to establish a supportive relationship?

A. Exhibit empathy.
B. Legitimize concerns.
C. Respect the person's abilities and efforts.
D. Address the agenda.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 132

The five A's of counseling are

A. Address, Assess, Act, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.

B. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Act.
C. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
D. Act, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 133

Which of the following would assist anxious people before an exercise test?

A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.

B. Thoroughly explain the exercise test.
C. Familiarize them with the exercise equipment by brief practice.
D. All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 134

Which of the following are NOT symptoms of depression?

A. Hearing voices.
B. Change in sleep patterns.
C. Irritability.
D. All of the above.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 135

Which of the following are symptoms of anxiety?

A. Panic attacks.
B. Increased nervousness.
C. Feelings of being "on edge."
D. All of the above.

Answer: D