Civil Engineering Mcqs

This set of Geotechnical Engineering test focuses on Explanation: The compaction energy used in the proctor
“Standard Proctor Test”. test is 6065 kg cm per 1000 ml of soil which is equal to
595kJ/m3.
1. The standard proctor test was developed by
___________ 4. Which of the following test are used in the laboratory,
for compaction?
a) Darcy
a) Vibration test
b) Terzaghi
b) Standard proctor test and Jodhpur-mini compactor test
c) Proctor
c) None of the mentioned
d) Rendulic
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer:b
Explanation: The standard proctor test was developed by
R.R.Proctor in 1933 for the construction of earth fill dams Explanation: Some of the compaction tests used in the
in the state of California. laboratory is: standard and modified proctor test, Harvard
Miniature compaction test, Abbot Compaction test and
2. The compaction process can be accomplished by Jodhpur-mini compactor test.
___________ process.
5. A line showing the water content dry density relation
a) Rolling for the compacted soil is ___________
b) Tampering a) Zero air voids lines
c) Vibration b) Air-voids line
d) All of the mentioned c) Density line
View Answer d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: Compaction can be done by rolling, tamping Answer: b

or vibration by a steel-tyred or rubber-tyred roller.
Explanation: Air-voids line is a line which shows the water
3. The compaction energy used for standard proctor test is content dry density relation for the compacted soil
___________ containing a constant percentage of air voids.
a) 595 kJ/m3 6. Which of the following equipment is not used in

standard compactor test?
b) 300 kJ/m3
a) Cylindrical metal mould
c) 6065 kJ/m3
b) Rammer
d) 1000 kJ/m3
c) Circular face plate
View Answer
d) Collar
Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: c d) Compaction test
Explanation: The compactor test equipment consists of View Answer

cylindrical metal mould, detachable base plate, collar,
rammer of 2.5kg. Answer: b
7. The initial percentage of water content taken for coarse- Explanation: The modified compactor test was
grained soil in proctor test is __________ standardized by the American Associates of State highway
officials and is known as the modified AASHO test.
a) 4
10. In standard compactor test, soil is compacted into
b) 10 _____________ layers.
c) 25 a) 2
d) 50 b) 4
View Answer c) 3
Answer: a d) 5
Explanation: The initial water content may be taken as 4 % View Answer

for coarse-grained soils and 10 % for fine-grained soils as
the quantity of water to be added for the first test Answer: c
depends on the probable optimum water content for the
Explanation: The standard compactor test consists of
soil.
compacting the soil at various water contents in the
8. The water content corresponding to the maximum mould, in three equal layers, each layer being given 25
density in compaction curve is called ____________ blows from the rammer.
a) Water content of compacted soil This set of Geotechnical Engineering Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Method of site
b) Optimum water content exploration”.
c) Air void water content
d) None of the mentioned 1. Hand auger can be used for depths up to ________
View Answer a) 7 m
Answer: b b) 6 m
Explanation: The water content goes on increasing till the c) 2 m

maximum density is reached. The water content
corresponding to the maximum density is called optimum d) 10 m
water content W0.
View Answer
9. The modified compactor test is also known as
__________
Answer: b
a) Standard compactor test
Explanation: Mechanical augers are used for greater depth
b) AASHO test
and Hand augers are used for depth up to 6 m.
c) Dietert test
2. Auger boring is used in __________ type of soil.
a) Cohesion less soil Explanation: Wash boring is a fast and simple method for
advancing holes for all types of soils.
b) Cohesive soil
5. Rotary boring can also be called as ___________
c) Coarse-grained soil
a) Percussion boring
d) Pervious soil
b) Wash boring
View Answer
c) Core boring
d) Pit boring
Answer: b
View Answer
Explanation: Augers are used in cohesive and other soft
soils above the water table.
3. The type of boring, used for making deep excavations is Answer: c

_________
Explanation: Rotary borings are used for rotary drilling and
a) Cylindrical augers simultaneously obtaining the rock cores or samples. The
method is then also known as core boring or core drilling.
b) Percussion boring
6. Auger boring is most suitable for __________ type of
c) Rotary boring work.
d) Wash boring a) Air field pavement
View Answer b) Highway exploration
c) Dam construction
Answer: a d) Buildings
Explanation: Cylindrical augers and shell with cutting edge View Answer
on teeth at the lower end can be used for making deep
boring.
4. Which of the following method is adopted for fast Answer: b

boring?
Explanation: Auger boring is fairly satisfactory for highway
a) Cylindrical augers explorations at shallow depths and for exploring borrow
pits.
b) Percussion boring
7. Wash boring cannot be used for _________ type of soil
c) Rotary boring strata.
d) Wash boring a) Cohesive soil
View Answer b) Cohesion less soil
c) Boulder
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
d) Rotary boring
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: Wash boring cannot be used for strata

containing boulders and rocks, as they cannot be
penetrated by this method. Answer: d
8. Mud rotary drilling belongs to _________ type of boring Explanation: Rotary boring or rotary drilling is a very fast
method. method of advancing hole in both rocks and soil by drill
rod.
a) Percussion boring
11. The commonly used geophysical method for site
b) Rotary boring exploration is ________
c) Wash boring a) Gravitational method
d) Auger boring b) Electrical resistivity
View Answer c) Magnetic method
Answer: b
Explanation: A drilling mud is forced downed in rotary Answer: b

boring, hence the method is also known as mud rotary
drilling. Explanation: The electrical resistivity and seismic
refraction methods are the most commonly used for civil
9. The Instruments used in hand augers are _________ engineering purposes.
a) Post hole auger 12. Electrical resistivity method is based on measurement

of _____________
b) Sand pump
a) Specific resistance
c) Wash boring apparatus
b) Voltage
d) Stationary piston
c) Potential drop
View Answer
d) Current
Answer: a
Answer: a
Explanation: The electrical resistivity method is based on
Explanation: Helical auger and Post hole auger are the the measurement and recording of changes in the mean
common types of Hand auger in use. resistivity or apparent specific resistance of the various
soils.
10. The type of boring method that can be used for both
rock and soils are ________ 13. The method used for studying of horizontal changes in
the sub-soil is _______
a) Shell boring
a) Resistive soundings
b) Wash boring
b) Resistive mapping
c) Auger boring
c) Mean resistivity Explanation: The number of soil layers and number of
tamps per layers depends upon the type of soil and the
d) Critical distance amount of compaction required.
Answer: b 2. The rolling equipment’s are of __________ types.
Explanation: For knowing the horizontal changes in the a) 5

sub-soil, the electrodes kept at a constant spacing are
moved as a group along the line of test. This method is b) 4
known as resistive mapping.
c) 2
14. The commonly used penetration test are _______
d) 3
a) IS penetration test
Answer: a
b) Cone penetration test
Explanation: The rolling equipment’s are of five types:
c) Dutch standard test
i. Smooth level rollers
ii. Pneumatic tyred rollers
Answer: b
iii. Sheep foot rollers
Explanation: Standard penetration test and the cone
penetration test is the two commonly used penetration iv. Pneumatic tyred construction plant
test.
v. Track laying vehicles.
15. In the seismic refraction method, the waves sent along
3. Sheep-foot-rollers is most suitable for compacting
the ground surface is picked by _________
____________
a) Geo satellite instrument
a) Fine-grained soil
b) Geophone
b) Cohesive soil
c) Wave detector
c) Cohesion-less soil
d) Clay soil
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: The radiating shock waves created in to the
Explanation: Sheet-foot-rollers are recommended for
soil at the ground level are picked up by the vibration
compacting cohesive soils, but are not considered
detector known as a geophone.
effective on coarse grained cohesion-less soil.
1. The number of layers of soil compaction depends on
4. The tyre pressures in the smaller rollers are in the order
___________
of ____________
a) Type of soil and Amount of compaction required
a) 250 kN/m2
b) Water content of soil
b) 400 kN/m2
c) 500 kN/m2
d) 100 kN/m2
Answer: a
Answer: a 8. Jumping rammers that are used for compacting the soil
is also known as ____________
Explanation: Smaller rollers are having a tyre load of about
7.5kN and pressure in the order of 250 kN/m2. a) Frog rammers
5. Which of the following rollers have wheels, mounted at b) Combustion rammers

slight angle with respect to axle?
c) Pneumatic rammers
a) Sheep foot roller
d) None of the mentioned
b) Smooth wheel roller
Answer: a
c) Wobble wheel roller
Explanation: Internal combustion type jumping rammers
d) Tandem roller are also known as frog rammers. They weigh up to 10 tons.
Answer: c 9. Pneumatic tyred rollers are best suited for

____________
Explanation: To provide a kneading action, the wobble
wheel rollers have wheels mounted at a slight angle with a) Cohesion-less sand
respect to the axle.
b) Cohesive soils
6. The performance of a compaction equipment depends
on _____________ c) Cohesion-less gravels
a) Soil type d) All of the mentioned
b) Water type Answer: d
c) Particle size distribution Explanation: Due to the combined action of pressure and
kneading makes pneumatic rollers best suitable for
d) All of the mentioned cohesion-less sand and gravels and, and on cohesive soils.
Answer: d 10. The foot pressure in sheep foot rollers ranges from
_____________
Explanation: The performance of compaction equipment
depends on the soil type, its particle distribution and its a) 800-350 kN/m2
water content.
b) 800-3500 kN/m2
7. Which of the following type of vibrating unit used in a
vibrator? c) 300-1500 kN/m2
a) Out-of balance weight type and Pulsating hydraulic type d) 350 kN/m2
b) Piston hydraulic type Answer: b
c) None of the mentioned Explanation: For sheep foot rollers, the foot pressure
ranges from 800 to 3500 kN/m2.
1. What are the types of water flow in the soil?
Answer: a
a) Turbulent flow and Laminar flow
Explanation: The vibrators consist of vibrating unit of
either the out-balance weight type or a pulsating hydraulic b) Linear flow
type mounted on a screed, plate or roller.
d) All of the mentioned 5. Which of the following equation defines Darcy’s law?
Answer: a a) q=KA
Explanation: The flow of water through soils may be either b) q=K/A

a laminar flow or turbulent flow.
c) q=K i A
2. In what way, do the fluid particles travel in a turbulent
flow? d) q=K i/A
a) Twisting Answer: c
b) Crossing Explanation: According to Darcy’s law, the rate of flow or

discharge per unit area is proportional to the hydraulic
c) Re-crossing gradient.
d) Definite path qαi
Answer: d q = K i A, where K =Darcy’s coefficient of permeability
Explanation: In laminar flow, each fluid particles travels A = total cross-sectional area.
along a definite path which never crosses the path of any
other particles. 6. Coefficient of permeability or simple permeability is
expressed in terms of ____________
3. Gravels are __________ permeable.
a) cm/sec
a) Highly
b) m/day
b) Least
c) feet/day
c) Partially
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: As the dimension of the coefficient of
Explanation: The pore size in gravel is larger, hence the permeability k are same as those of velocity. It is
gravels are highly permeable than sand which is least expressed in terms of cm/sec or m/day or feet/day.
permeable.
7. The co-efficient of permeability of fine sand is
4. The law of flow of water through the soil was first ____________
studied by ___________
a) 1.0 and greater
a) Taylor
b) 1×10-6 and smaller
b) Darcy
c) 1×10-2 to 5×10-3
c) Lambe
d) 5×10-2 to 1×10-3
d) Khosla
Answer: d
Answer: b
Explanation: For fine sand, the coefficient of permeability
Explanation: In 1856, Darcy studied the law of flow of is 0.05 to 0.001 cm /sec or
water through soil and demonstrated experimentally the
laminar flow conditions. 5×10-2 to 1×10-3.
8. Darcy’s law is valid for only ___________ c) Ground water flow towards well
a) Laminar flow d) All of the mentioned
b) Turbulent flow Answer: d
c) Hydraulic flow Explanation: The study of seepage of water through soil is

important for the following engineering problem
i. Ground water towards soil and drainage of soil
Answer: a
ii. Calculation of seepage through the body of earth dams,
Explanation: Darcy’s law of linear dependency between and s
the velocity of flow and hydraulic agent is valid for only
laminar flow conditions in the soil. 1. The Tri axial compression test was introduced by
__________
9. Darcy’s law is valid as long as it is equal to or less than
____________ a) A. casagrande and Karl Terzaghi
a) 1 b) Mohr
b) 0 c) None of the mentioned
c) 0.1 d) All of the mentioned
d) 2 Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The tri axial compression test was first

introduced in U.S.A by A. casagrande and Karl Terzaghi in
Explanation: In 1933, Lewis and Barnes demonstrated 1936-37.
experimentally that Darcy’s law is valid if it is ≤ 1.
2. Which of the following strength test is commonly used
10. Stiff clays are ______________ permeable. in the laboratory?
a) Highly a) Direct shear test
b) Least b) Confined compression test
c) Partially c) Tri axial shear test
d) None of the mentioned d) Unconfined shear test
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: As stiff clay does not contain any porous Explanation: As a shear test can be performed under all
materials, it may be termed as least permeable or three drainage condition, tri axial test is most commonly
impermeable. used in research laboratory.
3. Which of the following outlet is provided at the base of

the tri axial test apparatus?
11. The study of seepage of water through soil is
important for, which of the following purpose? a) Cell fluid inlet
a) Drainage of soils b) Pore water outlet
b) Stability of slopes c) Drainage outlet

d) All of the mentioned Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: In tri axial test, the major principle stress σ1 is

applied in the vertical direction, and the other two
Explanation: Three outlet connections are generally principal stresses σ and σ are applied in the horizontal
provided through the base of the test apparatus: cell fluid direction by the fluid pressure round the specimen.
test, pore water outlet from the bottom of the specimen
and the drainage outlet from the bottom of the specimen. 7. The deviator stress developed in the proving ring,
through the applied pressure is equal to are____________
4. Pore pressure developed in the tri axial test can be
measured by ____________ a) σ1 + σ3
a) Bishop’s apparatus b) σ1 – σ3
b) Pore pressure apparatus c) σ2 – σ3
c) Terzaghi’s apparatus d) σ2 + σ1
d) Mohr’s apparatus Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The vertical stress applied by the loading

frame, through the proving ring is equal to (σ1 – σ3); this
Explanation: Pore pressure developed in the specimen stress difference is called the deviator stress.
during the test can be measured with the help of a
separate pore pressure measuring equipment such as 8. When the sol is in the state of stress, it is said to be in
Bishop’s pore pressure apparatus developed by Bishop in _____________
1950, 1961.
a) Constant state
5. Bishop’s apparatus does not contain which one of the
following equipment? b) Plastic equilibrium
a) Porous disc c) Stress conditioned state
b) Top cap d) Equilibrium condition
c) Rollers Answer: b
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: When the soil is in the state of stress defined
by the equation σ1’= σ3’tan2 α’ + 2c’ tan α’ as principal
Answer: d stress relationship, it is said to be in plastic equilibrium.
Explanation: Bishop’s apparatus mainly consists of the null 9. The deviator stress σd is given by __________
indicator, the control cylinder, pressure gauge, mercury
manometer and burette. a) σd = σ1 + σ
6. The vertical stress on the solid cylindrical test apparatus b) σd = σ3 – σ1

is applied by ____________
c) σd=additional axial load/A2
a) Major principal stress
d) σd = σ1 – σ3
b) Minor principal stress
Answer: c
c) Intermediate principal stress
Explanation: The deviator stress σd, is given as the ratio of
d) All of the mentioned additional axial load to the area A2 at failure or during at
any stage of the test.
10. Which of the following is an advantage of using tri axial 3. The material retained or supported by the retaining
test? structure is called __________
a) Accurate result is not possible a) Surcharge
b) The plane of shear failure is predetermined b) Support wall
c) Stress conditions are complex c) Back fill
d) Precise measurement d) All of the mentioned
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: In tri axial test, precise measurements of the Explanation: The material retained or supported by the
pore pressure and volume change during the test are structure is called backfill which may have its top surface
possible. horizontal or inclined.
1. The theory of plasticity pertaining to soils is based on 4. The coefficient of earth pressure when the soil is at
___________ equilibrium is ___________
a) Mohr’s theory a) σv /σh
b) Rankine’s method b) σh /σv
c) Mohr-coulomb theory c) σv × σh
d) None of the mentioned d) σ1 / σ3
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: The theory of plasticity pertaining to soils is Explanation: When the soil is at elastic equilibrium(i.e. at
based on Mohr’s theory of rupture. rest) the ratio of horizontal to vertical stress is called the
co-efficient of earth pressure of rest.
2. On designing retaining walls it is necessary to take care
of __________ exerted by soil mass. σh /σv = K0.
a) Erosion 5. The computation of stress in plastic equilibrium is based

on __________
b) Lateral pressure
a) Theory of plasticity
c) Surcharge
b) Mohr’s theory of rupture
d) Lateral stress
c) Rankine’s theory
Answer: b
Explanation: In the designing of retaining walls; sheet piles
or other earth-retaining structures, it is necessary to Answer: a
compute the lateral pressure exerted by the retained mass
of soil. Explanation: The theory on which the computation of the
stress in a state of plastic equilibrium is based is called the
theory of plasticity.
6. The wedge-shaped portion of the backfill tending to b) Plasticity
move with the wall is called _______
c) Surcharge
a) Wedge fall
d) Slip lines
b) Active fall
Answer: c
c) Failure wedge
Explanation: The position of the backfill lying above a
d) None of the mentioned horizontal plane at the elevation of the top of a wall is
called the surcharge, and its inclination to the horizontal is
Answer: c called surcharge angle β.
Explanation: During the active state, the wall moves away 10. What will be the co-efficient of passive earth pressure,
from backfill and a certain portion of the backfill in at a depth of 8m in cohesion less soil sand with an angle of
wedged-shaped tend to move which is called a failure internal friction of 30° when the water rises to the ground
wedge. level?
7. In active stress, the major principal stress σ1 acting on a) 4

the wall will be in __________ plane.
b) 5
a) Vertical
c) 3
b) Horizontal
d) 1
c) Inclined
Answer: c
d) Zero
Explanation: Given φ = 30°
Answer: b
Co-efficient of passive earth pressure, Kp = (1 + sin φ) / (1
Explanation: In an active state, the major principal stress – sin φ)
σ1 is vertical and the minor principal stress σ3 is
horizontal. Kp = (1 + sin 30)/ (1 – sin 30°)
8. The plastic state of stress was proposed by KP = 3

___________
Phreatic Line of an Earth Dam”.
a) Mohr
b) Rankine
1. What are the essentials, required to draw a flow net?
c) Coulomb
a) Top Flow and Phreatic line
d) Darcy
b) Stream line
Answer: b
Explanation: The plastic state of stress when the failure is
imminent was investigated by Rankine in 1860. d) All of the mentioned
9. The position of the backfill lying above the horizontal Answer: a

plane at the top of wall is called _________
Explanation: In order to draw the flow net, it is first
a) Active state essential to find out the location and shape of the phreatic
line and top flow line separating the saturated and horizontal plane which at a certain place becomes
unsaturated zones. permeable.
2. The phreatic line can be located by which of the 5. What is the line within a dam section, below which
following method? there are positive hydrostatic pressures?
a) Graphical method a) Phreatic and Seepage line
b) Experimental method b) Equipotential line
c) Analytical method c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: As suggested by casagrande, the phreatic line Explanation: The phreatic line or seepage line is the line
can be located by graphical, experimental and analytical within a dam section below which there are hydrostatic
methods. pressures in the dam. The hydrostatic pressure below on
the phreatic line itself is atmospheric.
3. Kozney’s top flow lines is called as ____________
6. The flow lines and equipotential proposed by Kozney is
a) Basic and Base parabola in the shape of ____________
b) Simple parabola a) Hyperbola
c) None of the mentioned b) Ellipse
d) All of the mentioned c) Parabola
Answer: a d) Circle
Explanation: Kozney’s solution for flow of water consists of Answer: c

a family of confocal parabola s representing the flow lines.
Hence kozney’s top flow line is called the basic or base Explanation: According to flow net derived by Kozney, the
parabola. flow lines and equipotential consist of the shape of
parabola.
4. For the water flowing above an impervious, infinite,
horizontal plane. The net flow is given by ___________ 7. The analytical solution of schaffernak and Van Iterson
gave result only for slopes, having __________
a) Casagrande
a) α>30°
b) Kozney
b) α<30°
c) Forchheimer
c) α>60°
d) Darcy
d) α<60°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The analytical solution of schaffernak and van

Answer: a iterson provided result, as long as slope is gentle i.e.,
α<30°. For steeper slopes, the deviation form correct
Explanation: In 1938, kozney analytically derived a flow net
values increases rapidly beyond tolerable limits.
for the case of water flowing above an impervious, infinite,
8. What kind of method was suggested by Casagrande, for Explanation: Depending upon the mode of supporting and
determining the phreatic line? distributing loads, pavements are classified in to Flexible,
rigid and semi-flexible.
a) Experimental method
3. The thickness design of the flexible pavement is
b) Analytical method influenced by _________
c) Graphical method a) Distributing load
d) All of the mentioned b) Strength of sub-grade
Answer: c c) Sub-base
Explanation: Graphical method was used by Casagrande d) Soil properties

for the determination of the phreatic line using flow net..
View Answer
“Types of pavement”.
Answer: b
1. Which of the following is a classification of pavements?
Explanation: The design of flexible pavement is based on
a) Load pavement the principal that a surface load is dissipated by carrying it
deep in to the ground through the layer of sub-grade.
b) Sub-grade pavement
4. The essential difference between rigid flexible
c) Flexible pavement
pavements is ___________
d) Rigidity pavement
a) Distribution of load over sub-grade
View Answer
b) Distribution of load over sub-base
c) Materials used
Answer: c
d) Thickness of layers
Explanation: Pavements are classified in to Flexible, rigid
View Answer
and semi-flexible, based on distributing loads.
2. Pavements are classified, based on ________ factors.

Answer: a
a) Earth surface
Explanation: The essential difference between rigid flexible
b) Materials used
pavements is the manner in which they distribute the load
over the sub-grade.
c) Rigidity of the pavement
5. Rigid pavement are commonly made of ________
d) Distributing loads
a) Bitumen
View Answer
b) Portland cement concrete
c) Dry-lean concrete
Answer: c
View Answer a) Compaction
b) water contact
Answer: b c) Materials used
Explanation: Rigid pavements are made up of Portland d) Rigidity

cement concrete and may or may not have a base course
between the pavement and the sub-grade. View Answer
6. Which of the following pavement is capable of resisting

small tensile strength?
Answer: b
a) Semi-flexible pavement
Explanation: Stability of the sub-grade is influenced by soil
b) Rigid pavement texture, water content, density, frost action, shrinkage and
swelling and other climatic factors.
c) Flexible pavement
9. In pavements, ___________ forms the foundation layer.
a) Base course
View Answer
b) Sub-base
c) Sub-grade
Answer: c
d) Wearing course
Explanation: A flexible pavement consists of relatively then
wearing surface and hence, can resist only very small View Answer
tensile strength then the other pavement.
7. The wearing surface of pavement are made of

Answer: c
_________
Explanation: The sub-grade is the foundation layer, the
a) Bituminous materials
structure which must eventually support all the loads
b) Portland cement concrete which come on to the pavement.
c) Dry-lean concrete 10. Base course and sub-base course are used under
flexible pavements for __________ purpose.
d) Other materials
a) To provide foundation
View Answer
b) To increase durability
c) To increase load supporting capacity

Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of wearing course, made of
bituminous materials is to provide a smooth riding surface View Answer
that is re silent and to resist the pressure exerted by the
tyres.
Answer: c
8. The stability of sub-grade in a pavement is influenced by
__________
Explanation: Base course and sub-base course are used b) Sub-base
under flexible pavements primarily to increase the load
supporting capacity of the pavement by distributing the c) Sub-grade
load through a finite thickness of pavement.
d) Surfacing course
advertisement
View Answer
11. The flexible pavement-thickness consists of

Answer: a
__________ components.
Explanation: The base course lies close to the pavement
a) Two
surfa
b) Three
“Direct Shear Test”.
c) Four
1. Shearing resistance can be determined in the laboratory
d) Five by _________ methods.
View Answer a) 2
b) 6
Answer: b c) 4
Explanation: Generally, the flexible pavement-thickness d) 8

consists of three components: surfacing, base and sub-
Answer: c
base course.
Explanation: Shearing resistance can be determined in the
12. Which of the following pavement can be used, for
laboratory by following four methods
construction on black cotton soils?
i) Direct shear test
a) Flexible pavement
ii) Tri axial shear test
b) Semi-flexible pavement
iii) Unconfined shear test
c) Rigid pavement
iv) Vane shear test.
2. Which of the following shear test is developed based on
View Answer
drainage conditions?
a) Quick test and Consolidated un drained test

Answer: c
b) Direct shear test
Explanation: The rigid pavements are used for heavier
loads and can be constructed over relatively poor sub-
grade such as black cotton or plastic soils, peat etc.
13. Which of the following layer of pavement should

Answer: a
withstand a high level of deformation?
Explanation: Depending upon drainage conditions, three
a) Base course
types of shear tests have been developed:
i) Un-drained test or quick test a) Direct shear test
ii) Consolidated un-drained test b) Slow test
iii) Drained test. c) Vane shear test
3. The direct shear test can also be called as ___________ d) Quick test
a) Simple shear test Answer: b
b) Stress test Explanation: In drained test, perforated grids are sheared

sufficiently slowly so that complete dissipation of pore
c) Strain controlled shear box test pressure takes place.
d) All of the mentioned 7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the shear

box test?
Answer: b
a) Stress condition of soil is complex
Explanation: Since the shearing strain is made to increase
at a constant rate in a direct shear test, and hence the test b) The test cannot be used for coarse grained soil
is called the Strain controlled shear box test.
c) No control on the drainage of soil
4. The commonly used apparatus used for performing
shear box test is ___________ d) The shear box test is more complex test
a) Shear-box apparatus Answer: a
b) Bishop’s pore pressure apparatus Explanation: The stress condition across the soil sample is
very complex. The distribution of normal stresses and
c) Tri axial shear test apparatus shearing stresses over the potential surface of sliding is
not uniform. The entire strength of the soil is not
mobilized simultaneously.
Answer: a
8. The shearing of cohesive soil in drained test requires
___________ days.
Explanation: Shear-box test is the most commonly used
apparatus for the direct shear test.
a) 2
5. To conduct un-drained test, which of the following is
b) 1 to 2
used?
c) 2 to 5
a) Slope grids
d) 1
b) Perforated grids
Answer: c
c) Plain grids
Explanation: As the soil in drained test is sheared
sufficiently slowly so that complete dissipation of pore
pressure takes place, it takes 2 to 5 days long for shearing
Answer: c
cohesive type of soil.
Explanation: To conduct un-drained test, plane grids are
9. A major difference between the direct shear test and tri
used and for the drained test, perforated grids are used.
axial shear test is _____________
6. The drained test is also known as ___________
a) Control on the drainage level
b) Stress condition c) Tri axial shear test
c) None of the mentioned d) Unconfined shear test
d) All of the mentioned Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: As a shear test can be performed under all

three drainage condition, tri axial test is most commonly
Explanation: As compared to the tri axial system, there is a used in research laboratory.
little control on the drainage of soil in the direct shear test.
3. Which of the following outlet is provided at the base of
10. In direct shear test, the soil load is subjected to more the tri axial test apparatus?
stress at _____________
a) Cell fluid inlet
a) Centre
b) Pore water outlet
b) Edges
c) Drainage outlet
c) Top and bottom
Answer: d
Answer: b
Explanation: Three outlet connections are generally
Explanation: In a direct shear test, the stress condition provided through the base of the test apparatus: cell fluid
across the soil sample are very complex, the stress is more test, pore water outlet from the bottom of the specimen
at the edges and less in the Centre. Due to this, there is a and the drainage outlet from the bottom of the specimen.
progressive failure of the specimen.
4. Pore pressure developed in the tri axial test can be
“Tri axial Compression Test”. measured by ____________
a) Bishop’s apparatus
1. The Tri axial compression test was introduced by b) Pore pressure apparatus
__________
c) Terzaghi’s apparatus
a) A. casagrande and Karl Terzaghi
d) Mohr’s apparatus
b) Mohr
Answer: a
Explanation: Pore pressure developed in the specimen
d) All of the mentioned during the test can be measured with the help of a
separate pore pressure measuring equipment such as
Answer: a
Bishop’s pore pressure apparatus developed by Bishop in
1950, 1961.
Explanation: The tri axial compression test was first
introduced in U.S.A by A. casagrande and Karl Terzaghi in
5. Bishop’s apparatus does not contain which one of the
1936-37.
following equipment?
2. Which of the following strength test is commonly used
a) Porous disc
in the laboratory?
b) Top cap
a) Direct shear test
c) Rollers
b) Confined compression test
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: When the soil is in the state of stress defined
by the equation σ1’= σ3’tan2 α’ + 2c’ tan α’ as principal
Answer: d stress relationship, it is said to be in plastic equilibrium.
Explanation: Bishop’s apparatus mainly consists of the null 9. The deviator stress σd is given by __________
indicator, the control cylinder, pressure gauge, mercury
manometer and burette. a) σd = σ1 + σ
6. The vertical stress on the solid cylindrical test apparatus b) σd = σ3 – σ1

is applied by ____________
c) σd=additional axial load/A2
a) Major principal stress
d) σd = σ1 – σ3
b) Minor principal stress
Answer: c
c) Intermediate principal stress
Explanation: The deviator stress σd, is given as the ratio of
d) All of the mentioned additional axial load to the area A2 at failure or during at
any stage of the test.
Answer: a
10. Which of the following is an advantage of using tri axial
Explanation: In tri axial test, the major principle stress σ1 is test?
applied in the vertical direction, and the other two
principal stresses σ and σ are applied in the horizontal a) Accurate result is not possible
direction by the fluid pressure round the specimen.
b) The plane of shear failure is predetermined
7. The deviator stress developed in the proving ring,
through the applied pressure is equal to are____________ c) Stress conditions are complex
a) σ1 + σ3 d) Precise measurement
b) σ1 – σ3 Answer: d
c) σ2 – σ3 Explanation: In tri axial test, precise measurements of the

pore pressure and volume change during the test are
d) σ2 + σ1 possible.
Answer: b “Types of foundation”.
Explanation: The vertical stress applied by the loading

frame, through the proving ring is equal to (σ1 – σ3); this
stress difference is called the deviator stress. 1. Foundations can be broadly classified under
__________
8. When the sol is in the state of stress, it is said to be in
_____________ a) Shallow foundation and Deep foundation
a) Constant state b) Pile foundation
b) Plastic equilibrium c) None of the mentioned
c) Stress conditioned state d) All of the mentioned
d) Equilibrium condition Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Foundations may be broadly classified under

two heads: shallow foundations and deep foundations.
2. A foundation is said to be shallow if its depth is 5. The pressure intensity beneath the footing depends
________ than its width. upon ___________
a) Equal to and Less than a) Rigidity of the footing
b) Greater than b) Soil type
c) None of the mentioned c) Condition of soil
d) All of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: According to Terzaghi, a foundation is shallow Explanation: Both from observations as well as the
if its depth is equal to or less than its width. In the case of analytical studies from elasticity, it is known that the
deep foundations, the depth is equal to or greater than pressure distribution beneath footing is not uniform and it
the width. depends on the rigidity of footing, the soil type, and the
condition of the soil.
3. which of the following, is a type of shallow footing?
6. Once the pressure distribution is known ___________ in
a) Spread footing the reinforced concrete footing can be calculated.
b) Pile foundation a) Bending moment and Shear force
c) Pier foundation b) Bearing pressure
d) Well foundation c) None of the mentioned
Answer: a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The shallow foundations are of the following Answer: a

types: spread footing (or simple footing), strap footing,
combined footing, and mat footing or raft footing. Explanation: Knowing the pressure distribution is known,
the bending moment and shear force can be calculated,
4. Which of the below is the most commonly used shallow and the thickness of the structural member of the member
foundation? can be calculated using properties of reinforced concrete.
a) Strap footing 7. In conventional design, allowable bearing capacity

should be taken smaller than which of the following value?
b) Spread footing
a) Safe bearing capacity and Allowable bearing pressure
c) Combined footing
b) The pressure intensities beneath the footing
d) Raft footing
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b
Explanation: In conventional design, the allowable bearing
Explanation: In spread footing, load is transmitted through
capacity should be taken as the smaller of the following
an isolated column or wall to the subsoil; hence this is
two values: i) the safe bearing capacity based on ultimate
most common type of foundation.
capacity, and ii) the allowable bearing pressure on
tolerable settlement.
8. In cohesive soil, the pressure distribution beneath the “Pile Load Tests”.
footing is ___________
a) Linear
1. The pile load test should be performed on __________
b) Non linear
a) Working pile
c) Zero
b) Test pile
c) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: When a footing rests on cohesive soil, the
edge stresses may be very large, but the pressure Answer: c
distribution may be considered to be linear.
Explanation: The pile load test can be performed on a
9. When do strap footings are used in foundation? working pile which forms the foundation of the structure
or on a test pile.
a) To transfer load of an isolated column
2. A Factor of safety that should be adopted for finding an
b) Distance between the columns are long allowable load for a pile is _________
c) Two column loads are unequal a) 2.5 and 3
d) All of the mentioned b) 4
Answer: b c) None of the mentioned
Explanation: A strap footing may be used where the d) All of the mentioned
distance between the columns is so great that the
combined trapezoidal footing becomes quite narrow, Answer: a
with a high bending moment.
Explanation: The IS code recommends that for working out
10. When two column loads are unequal, which of the allowable load, a minimum factor of safety 2.5 or 3 should
possible footing can be provided? be used.
a) Strap footing 3. For pile in cohesive soil __________ is neglected for

individual pile action.
b) Raft footing
a) Frictional resistance
c) Trapezoidal combined footing
b) Surface area of pile
d) Mat footing
c) Shear strength of soil
Answer: c
Explanation: When the two columns load are unequal,
with the outer column carrying a heavier load, and when Answer: b
there is space limitation beyond the outer column, a
Explanation: For the pile in cohesive soil, point bearing is
trapezoidal footing is provided.
generally neglected for individual pile action, since it is
negligible as compared to frictional resistance.
4. The allowable load for the pile is given by __________

equation.
a) Qa = Qup/ F a) Ultimate skin fraction
b) Qa = Qup× F b) Total ultimate point
c) Qa = WH /F(S+C) c) Ultimate bearing capacity
d) Qa = WH /6(S+2.5) d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The allowable load Qp for a pile is given by Explanation: The result of Dutch cone penetration test can
dividing the ultimate bearing capacity Qup by a suitable be applied with sufficient accuracy to determine the
factor of safety F. ultimate bearing capacity of piles in cohesion soils.
Qa = Qup/ F. 8. The elastic compression Δ L of a pile can be calculated

by the expression based on ___________
5. The separation of Q at any stage of loading into Rp and
Rf in cyclic test is based on experimental value found out a) Terzaghi’s theory
by________
b) Hooke’s law
a) Hailey
c) Meyerhof’s theory
b) A.F. Van Weele
d) Hiley’s formula
c) A.M. Wellington
Answer: b
d) MacArthur
Explanation: The elastic compression Δ L of the pile
Answer: b corresponding to any load Q (= Rf + Rp) can be calculated
from the following expression based on Hooke’s law,
Explanation: The separation of Q at any stage of loading
into Rp and Rf in cyclic test is based on experimental found Δ L = (Q – Rf/2) L / AE.
value of A.F. Van Weele (1957) that the load on the pile
toes (1957) that the load on the pile toe (i.e. RP) increases “Shapes of wells and component parts”.
linearly with the elastic compression of the soil.
6. The test which can be used for separating load carried

1. The common types of well shape are _________
by the pile is _________
a) Rectangular
a) Cyclic load test
b) Dumb bell
b) Pile load test
c) Single circular
c) Penetration test
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: The common types of well shapes are: i)
Explanation: The cyclic load test is particularly useful in
single circular ii) Twin circular iii) Dumb-well iv) Double-D
separating the load carried by the pile into the skin friction
v) Twin-hexagonal vi) Twin-octagonal vii) Rectangular.
and point bearing resistance.
2. Well are also called as __________
7. The result of Dutch cone penetration test can be applied
to determine _________
a) Open caissons
b) Shell sunk Answer: a
c) Caisse Explanation: The caissons are of three types: i) Box

caissons ii) open caissons iii) pneumatic caissons.
6. Which of the following caissons, permits excavation in
Answer: a dry?
Explanation: Open caissons (“caisson” a French word) are a) Pneumatic caissons

called as wells.
b) Box caissons
3. ___________ forms the most common type of deep
foundation for bridges. c) Open caissons
a) Pile foundation d) All of the mentioned
b) Well foundation Answer: a
c) Shallow foundation Explanation: A pneumatic caisson has its lower end

designed as a working chamber in which compressed air is
d) Pier foundation forced to prevent the entry of water and thus permit
excavation in dry.
Answer: b
7. The sinking of the dredge is uniform in which of the
Explanation: In India, well foundation forms the most
following, shapes of well?
common type of deep foundation for bridges.
a) Double-D
4. The choice of a particular shape for a well depends on
________ b) Rectangular
a) Dimension of the base and Cost of sinking c) Circular
b) Type of soil condition d) Dumb-well
c) None of the mentioned Answer: c
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: As the perimeter of the circle is equidistant at

all points from the center of the dredge hole, the sinking is
Answer: a
more uniform than other shapes.
Explanation: The choice of a particular shape of well
8. The components that are needed to be considered in
depends upon the dimension of the pier or abutment, the
designing of a well foundation is _______
care and cost of sinking, the considerations of the tilt and
shift during the sinking. a) Shape of the well
5. What are the types of caissons that can be used as a b) Sand filing
foundation?
c) Bottom plug
a) Box caissons and Open caissons
d) Dredge hole
b) Closed caissons
Answer: c
Explanation: The following components of a well have to
d) All of the mentioned be considered in the design of a well foundation: well curb
cutting edge, steining, Bottom plug and well cap.
9. A disadvantage in using circular shape of well 2. In an un-drained test on saturated clays, both σ1’ and
foundation is ___________ σ3’ is independent of ____________
a) Minimum perimeter a) Pore pressure
b) Skin friction is maximum b) Shear strength
c) Diameter of well is more than required c) Cell pressure
d) Sinking is more uniform d) Effective pressure
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: The disadvantage of a circular well is that in

the direction parallel to the span of the bridge, the
diameter of the well is much more than the minimum size Answer: c
required.
Explanation: In an un-drained test on saturated clays
10. The most economical shape, of a well for the (B=1), both the major principal effective stress σ1’ and the
construction of large pier is _________ minor principal effective stress σ3’ are independent of the
magnitude of cell pressure applied.
a) Twin circular
3. The consolidated-un drained test can be performed in
b) Double-D ___________ methods.
c) Rectangular a) 3
d) Single circular b) 2
Answer: b c) 4
Explanation: The dredge area for a double-D shape is d) 1

smaller when compared to others; hence it can be more
economical than a singular circular well. Answer: b
“Shear Strength of Cohesive Soil”. Explanation: The consolidated-undrained tests are

performed by two methods: i) the remoulded specimens
are sheared under a cell pressure. ii) the moulded
specimens are consolidated under the same cell pressure
1. The un-drained test is carried out on sample of clay, silt, and sheared with different cell pressure.
and peat to determine _____________
4. Which of the following cannot be obtained by using un-
a) Shear Strength of natural ground and Sensitivity drained test?
b) Pore pressure a) Effective stress failure envelope
c) None of the mentioned b) Shear strength
d) All of the mentioned c) sensitivity
Answer: a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The un-drained test is carried out on Answer: a

undisturbed sample of clay, silt and peat to determine the
strength of the natural ground and also carried out on Explanation: Since only one Mohr circle in terms of
remoulded samples of clay to measure it its sensitivity. effective stresses, is obtained from all un-drained tests,
effective stress failure envelope cannot be obtained from 8. Negative pore pressure in clay or sand is developed due
this test. to __________
5. The change in the pore pressure during an un-drained a) Expansion on loading

shear can be explained by ___________
b) Over loading
a) Lateral pressure
c) Loose structure
b) Effective stress
d) Compaction
c) Pore pressure parameter
Answer: a
d) Mohr’s circle
Explanation: A negative pore pressure is developed when
Answer: c we apply load on a sample of clay or sand because both
sand and clay tends to expand on loading.
Explanation: The change in the pore pressure due to
change in the applied stress, during an un-drained, any be 9. If the pore pressure is measured during un-drained
explained in terms of empirical coefficients called pore stage of the test, the result can be expressed in terms of
pressure parameters. __________
6. Factor affecting pore pressure parameters is a) C’ and φ

___________
b) cu
a) Type of shear
b) Temperature
c) Nature of the fluid
Answer: a
Explanation: Both effective parameters C’ and φ’ can be
Answer: d expressed when pore pressure is measured during un-
drained stage of the test.
Explanation: Type of shear, sample disturbance, and
environment during shear such as temperature and nature 10. The equation for the unconsolidated un drainage
of the fluid are the factors that affect pore pressure strength of clay is __________
parameter.
a) τ = c + σ tan φ
7. The value of pore pressure parameter, at failure for
saturated clay is __________ b) τf = ccu + σ tan φcu
a) 1.2 to 2.5 c) τ = c + σ
b) 2 to 3 d) τ = σ tan φ
c) 0.3 to 0.7 Answer: b
d) 0.7 to 1.3 Explanation: The equation for consolidated undrained

strength of the preconsolidated clay in terms of total
Answer: b stress can be approximately expressed as τf = ccu + σ tan
φcu where, σ is the normal pressure.
Explanation: The approximate value of pore pressure
parameter at failure for very loose, fine saturated sand,
saturated clays is 2 to 3.
11. What will be the shearing resistance of a sample of c) Strength
clay in an unconfined compression test, falls under a load
of 150 N? Take change of cross-section Af=2181.7 mm2. d) Joint
a) 68.75 kN/m2 Answer: d
b) 34.38 kN/m2 Explanation: A seamless section is a section of the cylinder

having no joint. No other section in a cylinder is as strong
c) 11.35 kN/m2 as seamless section of the same thickness and dimensions.
d) 0.6875 kN/m2 3. A water main of 1 m in diameter and 25 mm thick is

subjected to an internal pressure of 2.5 N/mm2. Calculate
Answer: b the longitudinal stress induced.
Explanation: Given, a) 20 N/mm2
Af=2181.7 mm2; Pf=150 N b) 25 N/mm2
qu = Pf/ Af = 150/2181.7 c) 30 N/mm2
= 68.75 kN/m2 d) 35 N/mm2
Shear resistance = qu/2 = 68.75/2 Answer: b
= 34.38 kN/m2 Explanation: Longitudinal stress = fl = pd/4t
Therefore, Shearing resistance = 34.38 kN/m2 fl= 2.5 × 1000 / 4 × 25
“Rivet Joint”. fl = 25 N/mm2.
4. What is the design Bond stress in plane bars intention

for m25 grade concrete?
1. The effect of ___________ holes is to reduce the
strength of connected plates. a) 1.2 N/mm2
a) Lap b) 1.4 N/mm2
b) Weld c) 2 N/mm2
c) Rivet d) 3 N/mm2
d) Butt Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: The design Bond stress in plane bars intention

for m25 grade concrete is 1.4 N/mm2.
Explanation: The effect of rivet holes is to reduce the
strength of the connected plates. The strength of the plate Grade of concrete M20 M25 M30
or strength of rivet whichever is less is called the strength
of the joint. Design in (N/mm2) bond stress 1.2 1.4
1.5
2. A cylinder section having no __________ is known as
seamless section. 5. The value of design Bond stress in plain bars will
increase in compression by __________
a) Moment
a) 30%
b) Force
b) 25% c) Shear
c) 50% d) Longitudinal
d) 60% Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Tension reinforcement is designed for section

where the bending moment is maximum. The bending
Explanation: The value of design bond stress will be moment varies along the span of a beam depending on the
increased by 25% in compression and for the deformed loading and support conditions.
(HYSD bars) these values may be increased by 60%.
9. In case of __________ beams, the 50% of bars are
6. What is the anchorage value of standard “U” type hook? curtailed at a distance of 0.5 ×l.
a) 16 times the diameter of bar a) Simply supported
b) 12 times the diameter of bar b) Cantilever
c) 8 times the diameter of bar c) Continuous
d) 4 times the diameter of bar d) Overhanging
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: The anchorage value of standard “U” type Explanation: According to the simplified rules for
hook is 16 times the diameter of bar. curtailment of bars, In case of cantilever beams, 50% of
bars may be curtailed at 0.5 l or Ld which is more from the
Type of hook / bend U hook 45° Bend 90° Bend
face of the support.
Anchorage value 16 × diameter of bar 4×
10. Splices are provided when the ________ bar available
diameter of bar 8 × diameter of bar
is less than that required.
7. The flexural bond is _________ at the section.
a) Diameter
a) Zero
b) Length
b) Maximum
c) Effective depth
c) Minimum
d) Number of
d) Uniform
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: Splices are generally provided when the
length of the bar available is less than that of required. The
Explanation: The flexural (local) bond is maximum at the
splicing of reinforcement is provided by lap joint or
section where the shear force is large. Therefore the check
mechanical joint on the welded joint.
for flexural bond is necessary at the sections where shear
force is maximum and bending moment is zero.
11. Lap splices should not be used for bars larger than
__________ mm.
8. _________ reinforcement is designed for sections
where the bending moment is maximum.
a) 24 mm
a) Torsional
b) 42 mm
b) Tension
c) 54 mm
d) 36 mm 14. The __________ of the slab is governed by span to
depth ratio.
Answer: d
a) Strength
Explanation: Lap splices should be used if and only if, the
size of bars is less than 36 mm. For larger diameter, bars b) Stiffness
may be welded.
c) Reinforcement
12. Cantilever slab is categorised based on support
conditions. d) Stability
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: The term stiffness is defined as the ability to

resist deformation. The stiffness of slabs is governed by
View Answer span to depth ratio. It depends on the type of steel and
the percentage of steel.
15. The material does not possessing any kind of elastic

Answer: a symmetry, then the material is said to be _______
Explanation: Based on support conditions, the slabs are a) Isotropic

classified as
b) Exo tropic
i. Simply supported slab
c) Anisotropic
ii. Cantilever slab
d) Orthotropic
iii. Fixed slab
Answer: c
iv. Continuous slab
Explanation: The material do not possessing any kind of
v. Flat slab. elastic symmetry in them than the material is said to be
anisotropic material or allotropic material. It has 21 elastic
13. According to IS 456: 2000; the span to depth ratio of a
constants.
simply supported beam is ___________
“Rivet Lap Joint”.
a) 7
b) 20
1. What is the ratio of maximum deflection to maximum
c) 26
bending stress if a simply supported rectangular beam of
span “L” and it carries a central load W.
d) 32
a) L2/12 Ed
Answer: b
b) L2/10 Ed
Explanation: As per clause 23.2 of IS 456 for spans not
exceeding 10 m, this span to depth ratio should not
c) L2/ 4 Ed
exceed the limits given below
d) L2/ 6 Ed
Cantilevers – 7
Answer: d
Simply supported – 20
Explanation: Maximum deflection in simply supported
Continuous – 26.
beam is y = Wl2/48EI
y= Wl3/48E (bd3/12) 5. Which of the following layout is used for “Direct-
Indirect system”.
y/f = l2/ 6Ed.
a) Radial system
2. In a cantilever of span subjected to a point load of w
acting at a distance of (1/3) L from free end. The deflection b) Grid system
under load will be
c) Reticulated system
a) WL3/81 EI
d) Interlaced system
b) 14WL3/ 81EI
Answer: a
c) 8WL3/81EI
Explanation: The radial system is a reverse of the ring
d) WL3/64 EI system, in this the water flows radially from one point to
the outer periphery. The system is suitable where the
Answer: c roads are laid radially in the city.
Explanation: Deflection under load at B = W × (2L/3)3/ 3EI 6. ________ layout is best suited for well planned towns.
= 8WL3/81EI. a) Tree system
3. The slabs whose corners are prevented from lifting are b) Ring system
known as _________
c) Reticulated system
a) simply supported
d) Radial system
b) cantilever
Answer: b
c) restrained
Explanation: In the ring system, the entire locality is
d) suspended divided into either rectangular or circular blocks. The
water mains are laid along the peripheral roads with
Answer: c
submains branching out from the main mains. Thus, every
point can receive the supply from two directions. This is
Explanation: The slabs whose corners are prevented from
obviously the most Ideal system.
lifting are called as restrained slabs. They may be
supported on continuous or discontinuous edges.
7. A ___ is used to prevent water from flowing back in the
opposite direction.
4. As the corners are held down ___________
reinforcement has to be provided at the corners.
a) Sluice valve
a) Tension
b) Check valve
b) Shear
c) Air valve
c) Torsional
d) Drain valve
d) Longitudinal
Answer: b
Answer: c
Explanation: Check valve is a valve which allows water to
go in one direction only. The wall prevents the passage of
Explanation: Against lifting, the corners are held down
water in the reverse direction. This valve is also known as
then torsional reinforcement has to be provided at the
Reflux valve.
corners (at the discontinuous edge) to prevent cracking of
corners.
8. Scour valve in water distribution system is provided at d) Reducer
________
Answer: d
a) High points
Explanation: The component in the pipeline which reduces
b) Junction points the pipe size from larger to smaller bore is known as
reducer. Usually, there are two types of reducers: 1.
c) Low points concentric reducers 2. eccentric reducers.
d) Key points 12. The maximum pressure in (kg/cm2) to which cast iron
pipes may be subjected is _________
Answer: c
a) 3
Explanation: Scour valves are the ordinary valves which
can be operated manually. These are similar to drain b) 7
valves. These are located at the depressions and low ends
to remove the accumulated silt. c) 11
9. _______ valves are known as “Washout ” valves. d) 14
a) Drain valves Answer: b
b) Scour valves Explanation: Cast iron pipes are widely used in water
supply and sewage systems. They possess high durability,
c) Check valves strength & resistant to corrosion etc. They are available in
1000 – 1200 mm in diameter. They can withstand upto a
d) Sluice valves
temperature of 7 kg/cm2.
Answer: a
13. The pipe extending from a stop cock to the storage
tank is called ________
Explanation: These are called as drain valves. They are
provided at all dead ends and depressions of pipelines to
a) Supply pipe
drain out the wastewater. These are ordinary walls
operated by hand. b) Service pipe
10. Check valve is provided on the delivery side of a pipe. c) Street main
a) False d) Distribution pipe
b) True Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: The pipe which is subjected to water pressure

from the water main is called the supply pipe. The pipe
Explanation: Check valve and pressure relief valves are
extends from the stop cock up to the bib cock or entrance
provided on the delivery side because the reflux valve
of the storage tank.
prevents the passage of water in a reverse direction. It
allows the water to flow only one direction. 14. Calculate the elongation of the rod if you still out of
490 mm square area and 600 M long are subjected to an
11. _____ reduces the pipe size from larger to smaller
axial pull of 40 kN. Take E = 2×105N/mm2.
bore.
a) 0.56 mm
a) Aqua phone
b) 0.78 mm
b) Tee
c) 0.24 mm
c) Elbow
d) 0.16 mm c) Young’s Modulus
Answer: c d) Energy
Explanation: Given that l = 600 mm, P = 40 kN. Answer: b
The Elongation = Pl / AE Explanation: By the principle of work, the amount of strain

energy in a body is found. When a load acts on a body
= 40000 × 600 / 490 × 2×102 there will be deformation, which causes movement of the
applied load. This work is done by the applied load.
= 0.24 mm.
3. Calculate the Strain energy stored in a body of stress
15. The ratio of change in thickness to original thickness is
0.0366 N/mm2. The cross sectional area is 60 m2and
known as ___________
length of body is 1 m. Take E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) Lateral strain
a) 0.2009 N.mm
b) Linear strain
b) 0.0416 N.mm
c) Longitudinal strain
c) 0.0987 N.mm
d) Volumetric strain
d) 0.1316 N.mm
Answer: a
Answer: a
Explanation: The lateral deformation per unit original
Explanation: Given that : l = 1000 mm ; A = 60000 mm2; f =
lateral dimension is called a lateral strain. When a material
0.0366 N/mm2.
is subjected to uniaxial stress within elastic limit it not only
deforms longitudinally but also laterally. Strain energy stored = f2/2EI × Volume
“Strain Energy”. = (0.0366)2/ 2×2×105× (200×300) × (1000)
= 0 2009 N.mm.
1. Resilience can also be termed as ___________ 4. What are the units of measurement for wooden and
steel trusses?
a) Stress energy
a) 1 RM
b) Strain energy
b) 1 N.o
c) Modulus
c) m2
d) Tenacity
d) m
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: The capability of a material to absorb energy
when it is deformed elastically and release that energy Explanation: The units of measurement for wooden and
upon unloading is known resilience. This resilience is also steel trusses is 1 N.o
termed as Strain energy.
Description of workUnits of measurement
2. Mathematically, strain energy = _________
Earth work excavation 1 m3
a) Power
Steel reinforcement 1 kN
b) Work done
Wooden and steel trusses 1 No b) 30 mm
5. Which of the following methods is also known as c) 40 mm

individual wall method?
d) 50 mm
a) Centre line method
Answer: c
b) Alignment method
Explanation: Generally foundation concrete is laid about
c) Long wall and short wall method thickness of 30 cm with proportion 1:4:8 (or) 1:5:10 and
are measured in m3.
d) Voluminous method
Before laying the concrete bed level, sand filling and
Answer: c sinking must be done and checked properly.
Explanation: Long wall short wall method is tedious and 9. What is the painting coefficient for flush doors?
long lasting. In this method, the length of wall running in
one direction are measured first out to out and that of a) 2.3
running in the perpendicular direction are measured in to
in. b) 2.4
6. Centre line method is accurate method. c) 3.4
a) False d) 3.6
b) True Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: The painting coefficient for flush doors is 2.4.
Explanation: The estimates can be prepared quickly by Description Multiplying factor of Paint coefficient
using center line method. This is not only an accurate
Fully glazed doors 1.6
method but also a very quick method.
Fully ventilated doors 3.6
7. _______ gives the nature and class of work.
Flush doors 2.4
a) Estimate
10. Which of the following rules is known as “Prismoidal
b) Specifications
Rule”?
c) Tenders
a) Mean sectional rule
d) Survey
b) Trapezoidal rule
Answer: b
c) Simpson’s rule
Explanation: Drawings cannot give every information
d) Mid sectional rule
about materials and quality. The specifications give the
nature and class of work, quantity of materials and
Answer: c
workmanship. They are very useful during the execution of
work. Explanation: Prismoidal rule is used when the shape of the
solid between two parallel cross sections is in the shape of
8. In foundation concrete, coarse aggregate size should be
a prismoid. This is also known as Simpsons rule volume is
__________
calculated by
a) 20 mm
V = L/6 (A1 + 4A + A2).
11. Which of the following estimates is also known as a Explanation: Detailed estimate is required for arranging
preliminary estimate? the contract and entering into the agreement. In this
estimate, the quantities are worked out in the order in
a) Detailed estimate which construction proceeds. For getting technical
sanction, the detailed estimate is prepared.
b) Scientific estimate
14. Which of the following is an exact estimate?
c) Approximate estimate
a) Abstract
d) Abstract estimate
b) Detailed
Answer: c
c) Rough
Explanation: An approximate estimate is prepared to
decide whether the funds available for the proposal is d) Preliminary
sufficient or not. The estimate is accompanied by a
detailed report explaining the necessity and utility of the Answer: b
proposal.
Explanation: In a detailed estimate, the quantities of each
12. Service unit method is related to ___________ item of work such as earth excavation, bed concrete and
estimate. brick masonry are calculated. Detailed drawings are
required for this estimate.
a) Abstract
15. Calculate the instantaneous elongation if a steel rod of
b) Approximate 40 mm and 4 m long subjected to an axial pull of 80 kN.
Take E = 2×105 N/mm2.
c) Detailed
a) 1.23 mm
d) Cubic content
b) 1.27 mm
Answer: b
c) 1.31 mm
Explanation: There are over a number of methods
available for preparing approximate estimate but the d) 1.43 mm
following methods are important
Answer: b
i. Plinth area method
Explanation: An instantaneous elongation = f/A × L ; and f
ii. Cubic content method = P/A = 80000/1256.63 = 63.66 N/mm2.
iii. Service unit method. = 63.66/1256.63 × 4000
13. By ___________ estimate, a technical sanction is = 1.27 mm.

obtained.
“Dams”.
a) Approximate
b) Detailed
1. The obstruction or a barrier built across the stream or
c) Abstract river is called _____________
d) Preliminary a) Barrage
Answer: b b) Weir
c) Dam
d) Reservoir Explanation: It is the total quantity of water stored up to
FRL. It includes dead storage also. It is expressed generally
Answer: c in thousand hectare metre or million cubic metres (Mm3).
Explanation: A dam may be defined as an obstruction or a 5. MDDL Stands for ________

barrier built across the stream or river these are artificial
storage works. It retains water to create an impounding a) Minimum draw down level
reservoir.
b) Maximum draw down level
2. FTL Stands for ________
c) Million drop down level
a) Free tank level
d) Mega drop down level
b) Full tank level
Answer: a
c) Full top level
Explanation: It is the lowest level up to which the reservoir
d) Fill toe level is depleted from the considerations of hydropower
generation. So this level is known as minimum draw down
Answer: b level (MDDL).
Explanation: It is also called a full reservoir level (FRL). It is 6. _____ dam which resists are the external forces by
a level up to which the water stored obviously the crest of virtue of its self weight.
the spillway is fixed at this level.
a) Earthen dam
3. _______ is openings extending from upstream to
downstream of the dam. b) Storage dam
a) Guide banks c) Detention dam
b) Divide voids d) Gravity dam
c) Sluices Answer: d
d) Spillway Explanation: A gravity dam is that, which is stable against

all the external forces achieved by the weight of the dam
Answer: c itself. This is the most permanent one and hence it is very
commonly used. It may be constructed in all localities.
Explanation: Sluices are openings or conduits extending
from upstream face of the dam to downstream face of the 7. The factor of safety against overturning should not be
dam. They are used to clean the silt from the reservoir. less than ______
They also decrease the peak flood in the reservoir.
a) 1.8
4. Water stored in dam is expressed in _______
b) 2.25
a) Mega cumec metres
c) 1.5
b) Million cubic metres
d) 1.75
c) Metric cumec
Answer: c
d) Million cusec metres
Explanation: In the dam section, the overturning takes
Answer: b place when a resultant force cuts the base of the dam
downstream of the toe. The factor of safety against
overturning is the ratio of the stabilizing moment to the d) Equilateral triangle
overturning moments. The safety against overturning
should not be less than 1.5. Answer: b
8. In sliding failure, the co-efficient of friction varies from Explanation: In the absence of any other forces, the forces
________ due to water and self weight of the dam form an
elementary profile which will be in triangular section
a) 0.65 – 0.75 having zero top width at water level, where the pressure is
zero and maximum base width is at bottom where the
b) 0.8 – 0.9 maximum water pressure acts.
c) 0.45 – 0.65 11. _____ acts as an inspection chamber in Dams.
d) 0.85 – 1 a) Spillway
Answer: a b) Heel
Explanation: To avoid sliding, the factor of safety against c) Drainage gallery

the sliding should be greater than 1.
d) Toe
F.S = M(V-U) / €H > 1
Answer: c
Where M = Co-efficient of friction. It varies from 0.65 to
0.75 Explanation: A drainage gallery is an opening in the body
of a dam which runs longitudinally. It runs through the
V = Total vertical force length of the dam. Generally, it is a rectangle shape with
flat a semi-circular head usually 1.5 m wide and 2.5m
U = Upward force.
height.
9. Which of the following forces do not act on the dam?
12. The minimum standard height for a construction joint
is about ________
a) Silt pressure
a) 1.2 m
b) Wave pressure
b) 1.5 m
c) Creep pressure
c) 2.1 m
d) Uplift
d) 2.3 m
Answer: c
Answer: b
Explanation: Among the above forces, creep pressure does
not act on the dam. Generally on gravity dam number of
Explanation: The joints which facilitate construction of the
forces such as water pressure, wave pressure, wind
dam to proceed in small lifts. These joints are also known
pressure, ice pressure etc. will be acting in a horizontal
as horizontal joints. A lift may be defined as the vertical
direction. In the same way, uplift, self weight acts in
distance between two consecutive construction joints. The
vertical direction.
height is about 1.5 m each.
10. The elementary profile of a dam is generally a
13. Cracks developed in the body of dam section can be
________
avoided by ________
a) Isosceles triangle
a) Construction joints
b) Right angled triangle
b) Contraction joints
c) Scalene triangle
c) Transverse joints a) Fixed beam
d) Longitudinal joints b) Continuous beam
Answer: b c) Cantilever beam
Explanation: Due to variation in temperature it causes d) Simply supported beam

contraction and expansion in masonry or concrete of the
dam. It will develop fine cracks in the body of the dam. By Answer: b
providing contraction joints, these cracks can be avoided.
Explanation: A beam which is supported on more than two
14. ______ is the over flow section or portion of the dam. supports is known as a continuous beam. The intermediate
supports of a continuous beam are always subjected to
a) Heel some bending moment.
b) Toe 2. Which of the following them is also known as multi span

beam _______
c) Spillway
a) Cantilever beam
d) Gallery
b) Simply supported beam
Answer: c
c) Fixed beam
Explanation: A spillway is the overflow section or portion
of the dam over which surplus discharge flows from d) Continuous beam
reservoir to downstream face. This structure is provided in
the body of the dam or near the dam or on the periphery Answer: d
of the reservoir.
Explanation: A continuous beam is a beam which is
15. _______ is the common type of spillway used in gravity supported on more than two supports. It is also known as
dams. multi span beam. The degree of indeterminacy depends
upon the number of supports and nature of supports.
a) Ogee spillway
3. In deflection of a continuous beam, when loaded there
b) Trough spillway will be convexity upwards over _________ supports.
c) Side channel spillway a) End
d) Emergency spillway b) Alternate
Answer: a c) Intermediate
Explanation: An ogee spillway is very common type of d) Every

spillway used in gravity dams. It consists of two parts
namely ¡)ogee crest and ¡¡) a bucket. In this spillway water View Answer
spills and flows over and ogee crest in the form of a rolling
sheet of water. Due to this, the development of negative
pressures can be avoided.
Answer: c
“Analyse Indeterminate Beam”.
Explanation: When a continuous beam is loaded, the
deflection of the beam takes place along the intermediate
supports with convexity upwards.
1. A beam which is supported on more than two supports
4. The _________ is more over the supports then at
is called as______
midspan in continuous beams.
a) Slope a) Pitot tube
b) Bending moment b) Hydraulic lift
c) Deflection c) Orificemeter
d) Shear force d) Venturimeter
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: The bending moment is more over the Explanation: Hydraulic lift is an example of Pascal’s law.
supports then at midspan in case of continuous beams and According to Pascal’s law the “At a given point, the force is
hence the weight of the beam does not materially affect applied in all directions” and the rest are the examples of
the stresses in the beam. Bernoulli’s equation.
5. Moment distribution method is also known as 8. Which of the following devices measures the velocity of
__________ flow?
a) Hardy Cross method a) Pitot tube
b) Macaulay’s method b) Venturimeter
c) Mohr’s Theorems method c) Orificemeter
d) Kennedy’s theory d) Hydraulic jacks
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The moment distribution method is evolved Explanation: A pitot tube is a device which is used for
by professor Hardy cross in 1932 and can be used with measuring the velocity of flow at any point in a pipe or
advantage to analyse statically indeterminate structures channel. It is based on the principle that if the velocity of
and frames with rigid joint this method is simple and flow at any point becomes zero, the pressure there is
involves a process of relaxation. increased due to the conversion of kinetic energy into
pressure energy.
6. Which of the following device is not based on Bernoulli’s
equation? 9. Which of the following is the coefficient of pitot tube?
a) Venturimeter a) 0.96
b) Orificemeter b) 0.98
c) Hydraulic lift c) 0.97
d) Pitot tube d) 0.95
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation is applied to Explanation: The velocity (V) = Cv (2gh)1/2.

incompressible liquid flow where energy consideration is
involved. Some of the hydraulic devices which are based Where Cv = coefficient of pitot tube = 0.98
on Bernoulli’s equation are venturimeter, orificemeter,
h= difference between liquid levels in the pitot tube and
Pitot tube.
piezometer.
7. Pascal’s law is applied in ____________
10. Bernoulli’s equation is applicable only for ___________
flow.
a) Rotational 13. ____________ is used to empty a tank of water having
no outlet.
b) Steady
a) Venacontracta
c) Compressible
b) Syphon
d) Unsteady
c) Summit
Answer: b
d) Dyne
Explanation: The Bernoulli’s equation has been derived on
the assumption that the velocity is uniform over the Answer: b
section. The Bernoulli’s equation is applicable only for
steady, incompressible and irrotational flows. Explanation: A syphon is used to connect two different
elevations separated by a mountain
11. Flow of water when a tap is just open is an example of
__________ flow. They also used to supply water to a town over a ridge and
supply type of water having an outlet.
a) Uniform
14. Find out the elongation of a tie of 2m long, if the axial
b) Steady rigidity is 5000 × 104 mm2. The axial pull be 20 kN.
c) Un steady a) 0.8 mm
d) Turbulent b) 0.6 mm
Answer: c c) 0.5 mm
Explanation: The flow is said to be unsteady if at any point d) 1mm

in flowing liquid any one or all flow characteristics change
with time liquid that is flowing at a changing rate as in the Answer: a
case. The flow in the tap is just opened is a perfect
Explanation: Axial pull 20000N.
example for unsteady flow.
Elongation : Pl/ AE
12. A Straight cantilever of uniform area carries a udl over
its entire length. If the free end of a cantilever is now prop
Change in length = PL/ AE
at the level of the fixed end, the vertical force required at
the prop be __________ = 20×10/500×11÷103.
a) 3/4 W 15. Glass is an example of _________
b) 3/8 W a) Elastic
c) 5/8 W b) Brittle
d) W c) Toughness
Answer: b d) Hardness
Explanation: Where, total load on beam = W = wl Answer: b
Wl3/8EI = B×l3 / 3EI Explanation: Brittleness is a property of a material by

which It Breaks without much deformation produce his
Reaction at B = 3W/8.
property generally considered to be highly objectionable in
engineering.
“Introduction to Shear Force and Bending Moment”. Answer: a
Explanation: Let the fixed end be “A”
1. Shear force is unbalanced _____ to the left or right of Reaction at A = 10×4 = 40 kN

the section.
Moment at A = (10×4)×4/2
a) Horizontal force
= 80 kNm.
b) Vertical force
4. Shear force is diagram is _______ representation of
c) Inclined force shear force plotted as ordinate.
d) Conditional force a) Scalar
Answer: b b) Aerial
Explanation: The shear force at the cross section of a beam c) Graphical

may also be defined as the unbalanced vertical force to
the left or right of the section. It is also the algebraic sum d) Statically
of all the forces I get to the left to the right of the section.
5. Hogging is________
2. SI units of shear force is _______________
a) Negative bending moment
a) kN/m
b) Positive shear force
b) kN-m
c) Positive bending moment
c) kN
d) Negative shear force
d) m/N
Answer: a
Answer: c
Explanation: The bending moment at a section is
Explanation: As shear force at any section is equal to the considered to be negative when it causes convexity
algebraic sum of the forces, the units of the shear force upwards or concavity at bottom, such bending moment is
are also in kilo newtons and it is denoted by kN. called hogging bending moment or negative bending
moment.
3. Determine the moment at fixed end.
6. At the point of contraflexure, the value of bending
moment is ____________
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Can’t be determined
d) Minimum
a) 40 kNm
Answer: a
b) 50 kNm
Explanation: A point at which bending moment changes its
c) 60 kNm sign from positive to negative and vice versa. Such point is
termed as point of contraflexure. At this point, the value of
d) 80 kNm bending moment is zero (0).
7. _________ positive/negative bending moments occur Explanation: Moment is a product of force and
where shear force changes its sign. perpendicular distance and the bending moment is the
algebraic sum of moments taken away from the left or the
a) Minimum right of the section hence the SI units of bending moment
is same as the moment i.e kNm.
b) Zero
10. What is the other name for a positive bending
c) Maximum
moment?
d) Remains same
a) Hogging
Answer: c
b) Sagging
Explanation: If shear force and bending moment values
c) Inflation
obtained are thus plotted as a diagram, the SF & BM
relationship always behaves vice versa. d) Contraflexure
8. Shear force of following diagram View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bending moment at a section is

considered to be positive when it causes convexity
downwards such bending moment is called sagging
a) Rectangle bending moment positive bending moment.
b) Square “Types of Beams and Loads”.
c) Circle
d) Trapezoidal 1. _______ is a horizontal structural member subjected to

transverse loads perpendicular to its axis.
Answer: a
a) Strut
Explanation: SF @ AB is 10 kN
b) Column
FA = 10 kN
c) Beam
FB = 10 kN.
d) Truss
Answer: c
9. SI units of Bending moment is ___________
Explanation: A beam is a horizontal structural member
a) kN subjected to a transverse load perpendicular to its own
axis. Beams are used to support weights of roof slabs,
b) kN2
walls and staircases. The type of beam usually depends
c) kNm upon the span, type of load elasticity and type of
structure.
d) km
2. Example for cantilever beam is ______
Answer: c
a) Portico slabs
b) Roof slab b) Uniformly developed loads
c) Bridges c) Uniaxial distributed load
d) Railway sleepers d) Uniformly distributed loads
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at one end and is free Explanation: These loads are uniformly spread over a
at other end, it is called cantilever beam. The examples for portion or whole area. They are generally represented as
it are portico slabs and sunshades. rate of load that is Kilo Newton per meter length (KN/m).
3. The diagram depicts _______ kind of beam. 6. Given below diagram is ______ load.
a) Cantilever
a) Uniformly distributed load
b) Continuous
b) Uniformly varying load
c) Over hanging
c) Uniformly decess load
d) Propped cantilever
d) Point load
Answer: d
Answer: b
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at one end and free at
other end is called cantilever beam. In this case, some Explanation: A load which varies uniformly on each unit
support other than the existing ones may be provided in length is known as uniformly varying load. Sometimes the
order to avoid excessive deflection or to reduce the load is zero at one end and increases uniformly to the
amount of bending moment, the additional support is other forms of uniformly varying loads.
known as a prop. The beam is known as a propped
cantilever beam. 7. Moving train is an example of ____ load.
4. Fixed beam is also known as __________ a) Point load
a) Encastered beam b) Cantered load
b) Built on beam c) Rolling load
c) Rigid beam d) Uniformly varying load
d) Tye beam Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: As train’s wheels (rolling stock) move in

rolling way. The upcoming load will be considered as
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at both supports is rolling load.
called fixed beam or encastered beam. All framed
structures are examples of fixed beams. 8. Continuous beams are _________
5. U.D.L stands for? a) Statically determinate beams
a) Uniformly diluted length b) Statically indeterminate beams

c) Statically gravity beams a) Free end
d) Framed beams b) Fixed end
Answer: b c) Centre
Explanation: Fixed beams and continuous beams are d) Point of inflection

statically indeterminate beams which cannot be analyzed
only by using static equations. Answer: b
9. A beam which extends beyond it supports can be Explanation: As the moment is the product of
termed as __________ perpendicular distance and force. In cantilever beam, at its
free end the moment will be zero as there is no distance,
a) Over hang beam but at the fixed end the moment is maximum that is W×l.
b) Over span beam 2. Bending moment in a beam is maximum when the

_________
c) Isolated beams
a) Shear force is minimum
d) Tee beams
b) Shear force is maximum
Answer: a
c) Shear force is zero
Explanation: A Beam extended beyond its support. And
the position of extension is called as over hung portion. d) Shear force is constant
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum bending moment occurs in a

beam, when the shear force at that section is zero or
changes the sign because at point of contra flexure the
bending moment is zero.
10. Units of U.D.L?
3. Positive bending moment is known as _______
a) KN/m
a) Hogging
b) KN-m
b) Sagging
c) KN-m×m
c) Ragging
d) KN
d) Inflection
Answer: a
Answer: a
Explanation: As these loads distribute over span the units
for this kind of loads will be load per meter length i.e Explanation: The positive bending moment in a section is
KN/m. It is denoted by “w”. considered because it causes convexity downwards. Such
bending moment is called a sagging bending moment or
“Maximum Bending Moment”. positive bending moment.
4. A simply supported beam of span “x” meters carries a

udl of “w” per unit length over the entire span, the
1. A cantilever beam subjected to point load at its free
maximum bending moment occurs at _____
end, the maximum bending moment develops at the
________ of the beam. a) At point of contra flexure
b) Centre It is denoted by “M”. Whereas SF is denoted by “F”.
c) End supports 7. Number of points of contra flexure for a double over

hanging beam.
d) Anywhere on the beam
a) 3
Answer: b
b) 2
Explanation: As we know that BM occurs at center.
Because at supports the moment is obviously zero. c) 4
At the centre, maximum bending moment is wl2/8. d) Infinite
Answer: b
Explanation: Point of contraflexure in a beam is a point at

which bending moment changes its sign from positive to
negative and vice versa. In the case of overhanging beam,
there will be two points of contraflexure.
8. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever beam

5. The maximum BM is ______
subjected to udl (w)over the entire span (l).
a) 40 kNm
a) wl
b) 50 kNm
b) wl3
c) 90 kNm
c) wl2
d) 75 kNm
d) w
Answer: c
Answer: c
Explanation: Above diagram depicts cantilever beam
Explanation: In a cantilever beam the maximum bending
subjected to point load at the free end. The maximum
moment occurs at the fixed end. Moment at the free end
bending moment at A is W × I
is 0 and maximum at the fixed end. Maximum shear force
= 30 × 3 is w×l.
= 90 kNm. 9. Determine the maximum bending moment for the

below figure.
6. Bending moment can be denoted by ____
a) K
b) M
c) N
a) wl/2
d) F
b) wl/3
Answer: b
c) wl/4
Explanation: Bending moment is the product of force and
perpendicular distance. Units are kNm d) wl
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: First of all, let’s assume the length between Explanation: According to the theoretical approach, there
end supports be ”l” the maximum bending moment in a are many sign conventions to follow but the standard one
simply supported beam with point load at its centre is is “right upwards negative” the sign convention is
wl/4. We know that in simply supported beam the thoroughly followed unanimously.
maximum bending moment occurs at the centre only.
2. At hinge, the moments will be _________
10. What is the variation in the BM, if the simply
supported beam carries a point load at the centre. a) Maximum
a) Triangular b) Minimum
b) Rectangular c) Uniform
c) Trapezoidal d) Zero
d) Other quadrilateral Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: At the support of a member, there is no

distance prevailing to take the upcoming load. As we know
the moment is a product of force and perpendicular
distance, but at hinge (end support) the distance is zero.
Answer: a Hence the moment developed is zero.
Explanation: For simply supported beam with point load at 3. What is variation in SFD, if the type of loading in the
the centre, the maximum bending moment will be at the simply supported beam is U.D.L is ____
centre i.e. wl/4. The variation in bending moment is
a) Rectangle
b) Linear
c) Trapezoidal
d) Parabolic
Answer: b
Explanation: The shear force is defined as the algebraic

triangular.
sum of all the forces taken from any one of the section. If
“Maximum Shear Force”. you figure out the SFD for a simply supported beam
carrying U.D.L throughout its entire length, in the SFD we
can observe that shear force is same at supports. In the
centre, the shear force is zero. Hence the diagram varies
1. Which of these is the correct way of sign convention for linearly.
shear force?
4. The rate of change of shear force is equal to _____
a) R U P
a) Direction of load
b) L U P
b) Change in BMD
c) R U N
c) Intensity of loading
d) L D P
d) Maximum bending
Answer: c b) UDL
Explanation: Consider a simply supported beam subjected c) UVL

to udl for the entire span considered a free body diagram
of small portion of elemental length dx. d) LDP
Answer: a
Let the shear force at left of the section is = F Explanation: Shear Force diagram started from left side of
the m as per the load. For point loads draw vertical lines
Let the increase in shear force in length of the dx = dF and under UDL draw slope lines.
Let the Indian city of load on this part of the beam = w 7. A cantilever beam loaded with udl throughout, the
maximum shear force occurs at____
Total downward load in this elemental length = wdx
a) Free end
€V = 0
b) Fixed end
dF = -wdx
c) At centre
dF/dx = -w
d) At point of contraflexure
This rate of change of shear force at any section is equal to
the intensity of loading at that section. Answer: b
Explanation: In a case of a cantilever beam subjected to

udl, at the free end there will be zero shear force because,
we need to convert udl to load by multiplying with
distance. Hence at the fixed end the shear force is w×l i.e
(maximum).
8. A simply supported beam of span 1 m carries a point

5. The shear force in a beam subjected to pure positive
load “w” in centre determine the shear force in the half
bending is _____
left of the beam.
a) Positive
a) W/3
b) Negative
b) W/4
c) Zero
c) W/2
d) Cannot determine
d) W
Answer: c
Answer: c
Explanation: In the determination of shear force and
Explanation: Let the two ends of the beam be A and B, the
bending moment diagrams it is clear that shear force
given load on a beam is symmetrical hence RA = RB= W/2.
changes its sign when the bending moment in a beam is
SFD at any section in the left of the beam is equal to the
maximum and the shear force in a beam subjected to pure
W/2. SFDat any section in the right half of the beam is
positive bending will be zero as the neutralizing effect
equal to -W/2.
comes under.
9. Point of inflection is known as _____
6. In SFD, vertical lines are for ______
a) Point of regurrence
a) Point loads
b) Point of contraflexure a) Joists
c) Point of rigid factor b) Junctions
d) Point of flexural moment c) Joints
Answer: b d) Jumble
Explanation: Point of contraflexure in a beam is a point at Answer: c

which bending moment changes its sign from positive to
negative and vice versa. Point of inflection is popularly Explanation: In the equation m= 2j-3
known as point of contraflexure. At the point of
Where, m = number of members
contraflexure, the value of bending moment is zero.
J = number of joints
10. When SF is zero, the bending moment is _____
“If this equation gets satisfied then the frame for which
a) Zero
the equation has setup is perfect frame“.
b) Maximum
4. In statically determinate structures _______ is
c) Very difficult to say independent.
d) Minimum a) Shear force
Answer: a b) Bending moment
Explanation: When is shear force changes its sign, the c) Shear stress
bending moment in a beam will be either maximum
d) Axial load
positive or maximum negative. This is because of the sign
convention adopted.
Answer: b
“Stresses in Frames – 1”.
Explanation: If conditions of equilibrium are sufficient to
analyse the structure fully, then it is statically determinate
structure. In this bending moment at a section is
1. _________ is a structure made up of several members independent of the material of the components of the
connected to each other. structure.
a) Frame 5. What is the splay provided in splayed wing walls?
b) Form work a) 30°
c) Strut b) 45°
d) Caisson c) 60°
Answer: a d) 90°
Explanation: Frame is a structure made up of several Answer: b

members riveted and welded together. The members of
Explanation: Splayed wing walls permit smooth entry and
the frame are made in such a way that the form angle iron
exit of water under the bridge. The splay is usually
or channel sections.
provided at 45°. The weep holes are also provided.
3. In the equation m = 2j-3 ; the letter “j” stands for
6. The wing wall resembling the letter “U” in plan, is
__________
___________
a) Return wing wall c) Spikes
b) Approach wing wall d) Lugs
c) Splayed wing wall Answer: a
d) Straight wing wall Explanation: The joint which is made between two rails
together with two fish plates and four fish bolts to form an
Answer: a expansion gap of 1.5 to 3 mm. Rail joint is the weakest
part in the railway track.
Explanation: The return wing walls resemble the letter “U”
in plan wing walls are parallel to the centre line of the 10. Sabotage problem is eliminated in _______
bridge. It is used where rivers having steep and rocky
banks and not subjected to the erosion of soil. a) Round spike
7. __________ coat develop resistant texture. b) Dog spike
a) Prime coat c) Screw spike
b) Seal coat d) Polar spike
c) Tack coat Answer: c
d) Open coat Explanation: Holding capacity of rails to sleepers is more

and costly. Hence screw spike is used in driving and
Answer: b extraction. Though it is costly and time consuming, the
sabotage problem is eliminated due to screw spike.
Explanation: Seal code is final coat lay over bituminous
pavements which are not impervious. Seal coat develops 11. ________ are made of high carbon steel to withstand
skid resistant texture and they provide better riding heavy stresses.
surface.
a) Fish plates
8. Which of the following roads (pavements) does not
develop any corrugations? b) Fish bolts
a) Bituminous c) Spikes
b) Concrete d) Lugs
c) Water bound macadam Answer: b
d) Asphalt Explanation: For each rail joint, four fish bolts are required
to connect fish plates and rails together. Fish bolts are
Answer: b made of medium or high carbon steel to which stand
heavy stresses.
Explanation: Concrete road is suitable even under poor
sub grades. It is not develop any corrugations and its 12. For each sleeper _______ pandrol clips are used.
maintenance cost is low.
a) 3
9. Which of the following is the weakest part in the railway
track? b) 2
a) Rail joint c) 4
b) Plates d) 5
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: Pandrol clip is made of silicon manganese Explanation: The sleepers should be capable of resisting
spring steel bar of 20.6 mm diameter and heat treated. It vibrations and shocks due to fast moving trains. The
exerts a toe load of 6.97 kN. For each sleeper, four pandrol fastenings used to fix rails to sleepers should be minimum.
clips are used. The sleepers should permit track circuiting.
advertisement “Stresses in frames – 2”.
13. The Wheels of Rolling stock have slope ________ 1. The Velocity at which flow changes from viscous to
turbulent is called __________ velocity.
a) 1 in 10
a) Critical
b) 1 in 15
b) Frictional
c) 1 in 20
c) Relative
d) 1 in 30
d) Nominal
Answer: c
Answer: a
Explanation: The wheels of rolling stock are made in the
shape of a frustum of a cone having a slope of 1 in 20 is Explanation: A fluid motion is always subjected to a certain
known as coning of wheels. The objective of coning of resistance. In reality, this resistance is mainly due to
wheels is to prevent lateral movement of trains in straight sliding. The velocity at which the flow changes from a
track. viscous flow to turbulent flow is called critical velocity.
14. ________ are transverse ties on which the rails are 2. Flow in circular pipes will be turbulent is Reynolds
laid. number is _________
a) Lugs a) < 2800
b) Sleepers b) > 2800
c) Spikes c) = 2800
d) Clips d) ~ 2800
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Sleepers are transverse ties on which the rails Explanation: Reynold’s number (Re) = Vd/v
are laid and transfer the load from rails to ballast. The
main function of a sleeper is to provide a firm and even V = Mean velocity of flow in pipe
support to rails.
d = Diameter of pipe
15. _______ permits track circuiting.
v = Kinematic viscosity of liquid
a) Clips
Flow in circular pipe will be turbulent if Reynolds number
b) Rails is greater than 2800.
c) Spikes 3. _____ number is the ratio between inertia and viscous

forces.
d) Sleepers
a) Lamina’s a) Frictional
b) Parker’s b) Skid
c) Macadam’s c) Shear
d) Reynold’s d) Coupling
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: Professor Reynold’s deduced from his Explanation: When the liquid flows at a velocity that is less
experiments that at lower velocities the liquid flow was a than the critical velocity. A thin stationary film of the liquid
laminar and at higher velocities, the flow was turbulent. It is formed on a supporting surface. This is a reason that the
is a dimensionless number as it is the ratio between inertia frictional resistance is independent of the nature of
and viscous forces. surface of contact.
4. The frictional resistance is ______ to the surface area of 7. Calculate the specific weight of oil. If the specific gravity
contact. is 0.95. Take specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3.
a) Inversely proportional a) 750 kg/m3
b) Directly proportional b) 850 kg/m3
c) Equal c) 950 kg/m3
d) Not equal d) 1250 kg/m3
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The frictional resistance is directly Explanation: The specific gravity (S) = specific weight of oil
proportional to the surface area of contact. The frictional / specific weight of
resistance is independent of the pressure and where is
considerably with temperature. Specific weight of oil = S × specific weight of water
5. ___________ flow the liquid particles move along Specific weight of oil = 0.95 × 1000
straight parallel paths.
= 950 kg/m3.
a) Steady
8. In _______ liquid flows under atmospheric pressure.
b) Unsteady
a) Pipe flow
c) Laminar
b) Open channel
d) Turbulent
c) Stream
Answer: c
d) Aqueduct
Explanation: Flow in circular pipes will be laminar if the
Answer: b
Reynolds number is less than 2000. The laminar flow is a
type of flow in which the liquid particles move along
Explanation: Liquid flows under atmospheric pressure in
straight parallel path in layers or laminates.
an open channel due to its slope of the channel. There
must be some slope in the bed of the channel to flow to
6. The __________ resistance is independent of the nature
take place.
of surface contact.
9. The energy gradient line is _______ to drop in bed, in an b) Rise in Virtual Flow
open channel.
c) Rapidly Varied flow
a) Equal
d) Rapidly Viscous flow
b) Parallel
Answer: c
c) Perpendicular
Explanation: RVF stands for Rapidly Varied Flow. If the
d) Unequal depth floor changes abruptly over a comparatively shorter
distance, the flow is characterised as rapidly varied flow.
Answer: a Typical examples of rapidly varied flow are hydraulic jump
and hydraulic drop.
Explanation: For uniform flow in an open channel the drop
in the energy gradient line is equal to drop in bed. Flows in 13. Froude number is the ratio of inertial force to the
irrigation channels, streams and rivers are some examples _________ force.
of open channel flow.
a) Shear
10. Aqueduct is an example of __________ channel.
b) Gravity
a) Natural
c) Uplift
b) Prismatic
d) Viscous
c) Non prismatic
Answer: b
d) Artificial
Explanation: The ratio of the inertia force and gravity force
Answer: d is known as the Froude number. It is denoted by Fr.
Explanation: An artificial channel is the one which is built Fr = V/(gD)1/2.

artificially for some specific purpose such as irrigation
water supply and water power development etc. The 14. For super critical flow, Fr _________ 1.
examples include canals, drainage gutters and aqueducts.
a) >
11. Rectangular channel is _________ channel.
b) <
a) non Prismatic
c) =
b) Prismatic
d) ~
c) Natural
Answer: a
d) Artificial
Explanation: Froude number the ratio of inertial force to
Answer: b the gravity force.
Explanation: A channel is said to be prismatic if the cross- Fr = V/(gD) 1/2

section is uniform and the bed slope is constant
throughout its length. The rectangular channel comes For supercritical flow, Fr > 1.
under Prismatic channel.
15. Strut is a tension member.
12. Expand RVF _________
a) True
a) Rapid Vary Fluid
b) False
Answer: b 5. The field water efficiency of trickle irrigation is:
Explanation: Strut is the member of a structure any a) 50-55%

position carrying the compressive load. It may be
horizontal, inclined or even vertical. b) 55-85%
“Types of Irrigation”. c) 80-90%
d) 60-70%
1. _________ is a form of overhead irrigation. Answer: c
a) Centre Pivot irrigation Explanation: Drip irrigation is also called trickle irrigation. If
this system is managed correctly, the field water efficiency
b) Sprinkler irrigation can be as high as 80-90%.
c) Terraced irrigation 6. Sub-irrigation is used in areas with:
d) Drip irrigation a) Low water table
Answer: a b) High water table
Explanation: In centre pivot irrigation, steel/Al pipes are c) Sloping terrain

joined together, supported by trusses and mounted on
wheeled towers. d) Flat terrain
2. Inundation irrigation system is functional all through the Answer: b

year.
Explanation: Sub-irrigation is a method of artificially raising
a) True water table to allow the soil to be moistened from below
plant’s root zone. It is also used in commercial greenhouse
b) False production.
Answer: b 7. Water for irrigation can come from ____________

sources.
Explanation: Inundation canal gets water which flows from
a flooded river only. These are then discharged into the a) 3
fields. Only if rivers are flooded (rainy season), these are
functional. b) 2
3. Surface irrigation is again subdivided into: c) 4
a) 2 d) 5
b) 4 Answer: a
c) 3 Explanation: The sources of water for irrigation can be

ground water, surface water and non-conventional
d) 5 sources. The non-conventional sources are treated
wastewater, drainage water, fog collection, etc.
Answer: c
8. Fertigation is a process in ___________ irrigation.
Explanation: The three types are furrow, border strip and
basin irrigation. It is also called flood irrigation when the a) Sprinkler
field is immersed in water completely.
b) Surface
c) Drip Explanation: It is a system where water is distributed
under low pressure through the piped network in a pre-
d) Centre pivot determined pattern and applied to each plant. Hence, it is
called localized irrigation
Answer: c
Explanation: In drip irrigation nowadays, a plastic mulch is

incorporated which reduces evaporation and is a means of
delivering fertilizers. Hence, the process fertigation.
9. The field water efficiency is determined by:
a) Water transpired by crop – water applied to a field
b) (Water absorbed by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x

100%
c) Water absorbed by crop – water applied to a field
d) (Water transpired by crop ÷ water applied to a field) x

100%
Answer: d
Explanation: The field water efficiency is the way to

determine if the method of irrigation is efficient. It is
determined by using the formula (water transpired by crop
÷ water applied to a field) x 100%. It is expressed in %.
10. Spate irrigation is a special form of irrigation using

surface water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is also called flood water harvesting. In this

case, water is diverted to normally dry river beds using a
network of dams, gates and channels and are spread over
large areas.
11. Micro-irrigation is also called:
a) Nano-irrigation
b) Petite irrigation
c) Localized irrigation
d) Flood irrigation
Answer: c

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This set of Geotechnical Engineering test focuses on Explanation: The compaction energy used in the proctor

b) Tampering a) Zero air voids lines

c) Vibration b) Air-voids line

d) All of the mentioned c) Density line

View Answer d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d View Answer

Explanation: Compaction can be done by rolling, tamping Answer: b

a) 595 kJ/m3 6. Which of the following equipment is not used in

Explanation: The compactor test equipment consists of View Answer

Explanation: The initial water content may be taken as 4 % View Answer

c) Air void water content

Explanation: The water content goes on increasing till the c) 2 m

3. The type of boring, used for making deep excavations is Answer: c

d) Wash boring a) Air field pavement

View Answer b) Highway exploration

4. Which of the following method is adopted for fast Answer: b

d) Wash boring a) Cohesive soil

View Answer b) Cohesion less soil

Answer: d d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c View Answer

Explanation: Wash boring cannot be used for strata

c) Wash boring a) Gravitational method

d) Auger boring b) Electrical resistivity

View Answer c) Magnetic method

d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: A drilling mud is forced downed in rotary Answer: b

a) Post hole auger 12. Electrical resistivity method is based on measurement

Answer: b 2. The rolling equipment’s are of __________ types.

Explanation: For knowing the horizontal changes in the a) 5

5. Which of the following rollers have wheels, mounted at b) Combustion rammers

Answer: c 9. Pneumatic tyred rollers are best suited for

a) Soil type d) All of the mentioned

b) Water type Answer: d

b) Piston hydraulic type Answer: b

Explanation: The flow of water through soils may be either b) q=K/A

b) Crossing Explanation: According to Darcy’s law, the rate of flow or

d) Definite path qαi

Answer: d q = K i A, where K =Darcy’s coefficient of permeability

a) Laminar flow d) All of the mentioned

b) Turbulent flow Answer: d

c) Hydraulic flow Explanation: The study of seepage of water through soil is

b) 0 c) None of the mentioned

c) 0.1 d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a Explanation: The tri axial compression test was first

a) Highly a) Direct shear test

b) Least b) Confined compression test

c) Partially c) Tri axial shear test

d) None of the mentioned d) Unconfined shear test

3. Which of the following outlet is provided at the base of

a) Drainage of soils b) Pore water outlet

b) Stability of slopes c) Drainage outlet

Answer: d Explanation: In tri axial test, the major principle stress σ1 is

b) Pore pressure apparatus c) σ2 – σ3

d) Mohr’s apparatus Answer: b

Answer: a Explanation: The vertical stress applied by the loading

a) Porous disc c) Stress conditioned state

b) Top cap d) Equilibrium condition

6. The vertical stress on the solid cylindrical test apparatus b) σd = σ3 – σ1

a) Accurate result is not possible a) Surcharge

b) The plane of shear failure is predetermined b) Support wall

c) Stress conditions are complex c) Back fill

d) Precise measurement d) All of the mentioned

View Answer View Answer

a) Mohr’s theory a) σv /σh