Drkamalkv's One Liners PDF

drkamalkv’s CLASSES for Foreign Medical Graduates
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ANATOMY
1 Umbilical cord contains which vessels 2 arteries & 1 vein

th
2 Arch of aorta develops from Left 4 aortic arch
3 Epiphysis at the tip of coracoids process is Atavistic epiphyses
4 Function of umbilical vein Carry oxygenated blood towards fetus

nd
5 Facial nerve supplies derivative of which Pharyngeal arch 2
6 Lymphatic drainage of testes Pre-aortic & para-aortic
7 Blood testes barrier is formed by Sertoli cells
8 Brunner’s gland are present in Duodenum
9 Highest point of iliac crest is at the level of L3-L4

nd
10 Tonsils are derived from which pharyngeal pouch 2
11 Chorda tympani nerve arises from which nerve Facial
12 Lower angle of scapula corresponds to vertebrae T7
13 Vertebrae prominence is C7
14 Nerve supply of platysma is Facial
15 Main action of gemellus muscle is External rotation of hip
16 Esophageal opening is at the level of T10
17 Azygos vein drains into Superior vena cava
18 Arch of aorta begins at T4
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19 Structure passing through central tendon of diaphragm Inferior vena cava
20 Head of sperm contains which organelle Nucleus
21 Deep inguinal ring is a defect in Fascia transversalis
22 Tensor veli palatini is supplied by Mandibular
23 Nerve supply of teres minor Axillary
24 Largest sesamoid bone Patella
25 Trigone of bladder is derived from Mesonephric duct
26 Epithelium of fallopian tube Ciliated columnar
27 Action of popliteus Unlocking of knee joint
28 Flexor of hip joint: Ilio-psoas
29 Tail of pancreas lies in which ligament Spleno-renal
30 MC nerve involved in fracture fibular neck Common peroneal
31 Superior radioulnar joint is which type of joint Pivot
32 Regiment badge sign is associated with lesion of which nerve Axillary
33 Attitude of limb in posterior dislocation of hip Flexion, adduction & internal rotation
34 Temporomandibular joint is a which type of joint Condylar
35 Axillary sheath is a continuation of which sheath Prevertebral
36 Strongest ligament in the body Ileofemoral
37 MC bone to fracture in body Clavicle
38 Bone which doesn’t have a medullary cavity Clavicle
39 Long bone which lies horizonatally Clavicle
40 Suprameatal triangle overlies Mastoid antrum
41 Deformity associated with malunited Colle’s fracture Dinner fork
42 Tenderness in anatomical snuff box suggest fracture of Scaphoid
43 Spiral arteries are direct continuation of which arteries Basilar
44 Standing on toe tips is possible due to action of which muscle Gastro-soleus
2
45 Oral cavity diaphragm is formed by which muscle Mylohyoid
46 Bankart’s lesion in recurrent shoulder dislocation involves which structure Glenoidal labrum
47 MC nerve involved in fracture surgical neck of humerus Axillary nerve

rd
48 Chorda tympani carries sensation from Anterior 2/3 of tongue
49 Infrapatellar bursitis is also known as Clergymens knee
50 Renal fascia is also known as Gerota’s fascia
PHYSIOLOGY
1 Site of action of antidiuretic hormone/ ADH: Collecting duct & DCT
2 Normal GFR is … ml/ min 125 ml/ min
3 Reabsorption of water is maximum in: Proximal convoluted tubules
4 Effect of parathormone on calcium levels: Increase in serum calcium
5 Aortic valve closure marks the beginning of which phase of cardiac cycle: Isovolumic relaxation
6 QRS complex is due to which electrophysiological event: Ventricular depolarization

st
7 1 heart sound is due to: Closure of AV valves
8 Most useful parameter for estimating total iron content of blood: Serum ferritin
9 Subarachnoid space ends at: S2
10 Implantation occurs at the age of: Blastocyst
11 Lowest threshold potential in a motor nerve fibre is at: Axon hillock
12 Heat loss from the body depends mostly on: Environmental temperature
13 Maximum surface area is for which vessels: Capillaries
14 Mouth to mouth respiration provides an oxygen concentration of: 16%
15 Hyaline membrane contains: Fibrin
16 Surfactant is secreted by: Type II pneumocytes
17 Best parameter for analysis of hypoxic hypoxia: Arterial pO2
18 Compound which shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right: 2,3 DPG

19 Earliest response to high altitudes: Increased ventilation/ hyper-ventilation
20 Sertoli cell secretes: Inhibin
21 Secretion of prolactin is affected by: Dopamine
22 Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through: Purkinje cells
23 Output from the cerebellum is solely from: Purkinje cells
24 Renin acts on which protein: Angio-tensinogen
25 Type of hypoxia in CO poisoning Anemic
26 Chemically, surfactant is Dipalmito-phosphatidyl choline
27 p waves of ECG is absent in which condition Atrial fibrillation
28 Findings of atrial fibrillation on JVP Absent a waves
29 Effect of sympathetic system on force of contraction of heart Increase
30 Paradoxical sleep is seen in which phase REM
31 Spinal cord in infants ends at the level of: Lower border of L3
32 Human insulin differs from beef insulin by how many numbers of amino 1
acid residues:
33 Normal excretion of protein in urine/ day is: 100 mg/ day
34 Effect of gastrin on gastric juice: Promotes secretion of HCl
35 Intrinsic factor is secreted by: Oxyntic/ parietal cells
36 D cells of the pancreas secretes: Somatostatin
37 Spontaneous release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction Miniature end plate potentials
produces:
38 Effect of fetal hemoglobin of oxygen dissociation curve: Shift to left
39 Function of golgi tendon organ: Checks muscle tension
40 Ventilation perfusion ratio is maximum at: Apex of lungs
41 Highest conduction rate in m/s is observed in: Purkinje fibres (4 m/ s)
42 Order of activation after stimulation of Purkinje fibres is: Endocardium to epicardium
43 Cardiac output in L/ min divided by heart rate equals: Stroke volume
44 Pulmonary microcirculation differs from systemic circulation in having: Low resistance & low capillary pressure
4
45 Blood supply during exercise is increased in: Heart
46 BMR depends on: Body surface area
47 Ketone bodies are produced in: Liver
48 Interstitial cells of testes secretes: Testosterone
49 Movement of …. occurs along with transport of glucose into a cell: Sodium
50 Cell organelle involved in lipid synthesis: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
BIOCHEMISTRY
1 Level of HbA2 is increased in which disease Beta thalassemia trait
2 Hb level in newborn 16-18%
3 Shape of oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curves Sigmoid
4 Shape of oxygen myoglobin dissociation curves Rectangular hyperbola
5 1 gram of heme contains how much of iron 3.34 mg
6 1 gm of hemoglobin binds with how much of oxygen 1.34 ml
7 Which Hb is resistant to alkali denaturation HbF
8 Hartnup disease is associated with deficiency of which vitamin Niacin
9 Which vitamin is synthesized in skin D
10 Halibut liver oil is richest source of which vitamin D
11 Antagonist of biotin Avidin
12 Burning feet syndrome is due to deficiency of which vitamin Pantothenic acid
13 Which vitamin is constituent of coenzyme A Pantothenic acid
14 Increased RBC transketolase activity is observed in deficiency of which Thiamine

vitamin
15 Mineral which is known as glucose tolerance factor Chromium
16 Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to deficiency of Zinc
17 Glutathione peroxidase requires Selenium
18 Keshan disease is because of deficiency of Selenium

19 Xanthine oxidase contains which mineral Molybdenum
20 Cytochrome oxidase contains Copper
21 Carbonic anhydrase contains Zinc
22 Semi-essential amino acid Histidine, arginine
23 Only ketogenic amino acid Leucine, lysine
24 Which amino acid is precursor of heme Glycine
25 Most basic amino acid Arginine
26 Cofactor for alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase NAD
27 Only tissue where NAD & NADP are equally produced Liver
28 MC enzyme deficiency in galactosmeia Galactose-1-phosphate-Uridyl Transferase
29 Accumulation of homogentisic acid causes Alkaptonuria
30 Cause of chronic granulomatous disease NADPH oxidase deficiency
31 Hormone substrate concentration affects the velocity of enzymatic action. Michaelis Menton reaction
This is
32 Hormone synthesized from tyrosine Thyroxine, catecholamines
33 Amino acid used in carnitine synthesis Lysine
34 End product of purine metabolism Uric acid
35 Source of nor-epinephrine Tyrosine
36 Boiled cabbage or rancid butter smelling urine is a feature of Tyrosinemia
37 Brain utilizes urea in the form of Glutamine
38 FIGLU is an intermediate product of which amino acid Histidine
39 Urea cycle is linked to Krebs cycle by Fumarate
40 Alpha oxidation of fatty acid takes place in Endoplasmic reticulum & mitochondria
41 Neimann pick disease is due to deficiency of Sphingo-myelinase
42 Primary ketone body Acetoacetate
43 Fatty liver is due to accumulation of Triglycerides
44 Arachidonic acid is synthesized from Linoleic acid
6
45 Which hormone inhibits hormone sensitive lipase Insulin
46 Lactate produced by glycolysis is utilized by which cycle Cori cycle & TCA cycle
47 Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle is mediated by Succinate thiokinase
48 Dietary fibre is Non-starch polysaccharide (cellulose,

hemicelluloses)
49 Normal threshold for glucose excretion 180 gm%
50 Insulin stimulated glucose uptake is by which GLUT GLUT4
PATHOLOGY
1 MC site of GIST is Stomach
2 Osteomas, adenomatous polyps of intestine & peri-ampullary carcinoma Gardeners syndrome

are seen in which syndrome
3 Klatskin tumour is another term for Cholangio-carcinoma
4 Schiller Duval bodies are seen in: Endodermal sinus/ yolk sac tumour
5 MC malignant bone tumour Secondaries
6 Macrophage in the brain is Microglia
7 MC site of metastasis of medulloblastoma Bone
8 Mode of inheritance of Wilson disease Autosomal recessive
9 HLA complex in human is located on chromosome number 6
10 HLA associated with Rheumatoid arthritis DR4
11 CD marker for angiosarcoma 31
12 Localized Langerhan’s cells histiocytosis affecting head & neck is Eosinophilic granuloma
13 Burkitt’s lymphoma is positive for CD19
14 An anti-apoptotic gene is bcl2
15 Michaelis Gutman bodies are seen in Malako-plakia
16 In xeroderma pigmentosum, defect lies in DNA repair/ nucleotide excision repair defect
17 A patient having cystic medial necrosis with necrotizing arteritis is suffering Giant cell arteritis

from
18 Tram track appearance of glomeruli is found in which condition Membrano-Proliferative GN II
19 Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is inherited as X-linked recessive
20 Range of microalbuminuria 30-300 mg/ day
21 Most sensitive test for DIC is Raised Fibrinogen Degradation Products
22 Female with mantle radiation will suffer from which thyroid malignancy Papillary Ca
23 HMB 45 is used as a marker of Malignant melanoma
24 Ascending aorta is involved in which aneurysm commonly Syphilitic aneurysm
25 Caterpillar cells are seen in which heart condition Rheumatic fever
26 Albumino-cytological (CSF examination) dissociation is seen in Guillain Barre syndrome
27 MC primary tumour of heart Myxoma
28 Myxoma of heart commonly arises from which chamber Left atrium
29 Reactivated TB is MC located near Apex of lung
30 MC heart tumour Secondaries
31 Type of calcification seen in normal tissues with raised serum calcium levels Metastatic calfication
32 Brown induration of lung is seen in Chronic venous congestion of lungs
33 Protein which transport iron Transferrin
34 Type of necrosis in infarction Coagulative/ ischemic
35 Arthus reaction is type … hypersensitivity reaction III
36 Creola bodies are seen in Asthma
37 Lardaceous spleen in seen in Amyloidosis
38 Only immunoglobulin that crosses placenta IgG
39 Complement component which helps in chemotaxis C5a
40 Beta2 microglobulin protein is seen in amyloidosis due to Hemodialysis
41 Small protein which degrades many intracellular proteins Ubiquitin
42 Ovarian counterpart of testicular seminoma Dys-germinoma
8
43 MC involved artery in peripheral aneurysm Popliteal artery
44 Parasite which can cause carcinoma of bladder Schistosoma
45 Transverse ulcers in GIT are seen in which infection TB
46 MC CNS neoplasm Secondaries
47 Marker for squamous cell carcinoma Cytokeratin
48 MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults Membranous GN
49 Psammoma bodies are seen in … carcinoma of thyroid Papillary
50 Multisegmented neutrophils are seen in Megalo-blastic anemia
PHARMACOLOGY
1 Most common side effect of salbutamol Tremors
2 Mechanism of action f Bicalutamide Binds to androgen receptor
3 Alpha1 adrenergic blocker used for symptomatic relief in BPH Tamsulosin
4 Which effect of morphine has least tolerance Constipation
5 Mechanism of action of Clomiphene Anti-estrogen
6 Action of Dapsone is antgonized by PABA (Para-amino-benzoic acid)
7 Most potent cardiac stimulant Adrenaline
8 DOC for Addison disease Hydrocortisone
9 Uricosuric drug for gout Sulfinpyrazone
10 Hyperprolactinemia is a side effect of Meto-clopramide
11 Aspirin should not be given to a patient who is on treatment with Warfarin
12 Effect of phenylbutazone on theophylline levels Increased
13 Botulinum toxin acts by inhibiting release of Acetylcholine
14 Anti-emetic used in cancer chemotherapy used vomiting Ondansetron
15 Corticosteroid which needs least systemic monitoring Budesonide
16 Which anti-asthmatic drug needs monitoring Theophylline

17 Corticosteroid given by inhalational route Beclo-methasone
18 Mechanism of action of Colchicine Suppresses immunity
19 Which anti-helminthic drug also acts as immune-modulator Levamisole
20 Example of Ino-dilator drugs Amrinone, milrinone
21 DOC for gonorrhoea Ceftriaxone
22 DOC for sodium stibgluconate resistant cases of Kala-azar Pentamidine/ amphotericin-B
23 Mefloquine should not be given with ….. for the risk of developing Quinidine
ventricular arrhythmias
24 Side effect of Didanosine Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis
25 Antitubercular drug with high levels in CSF: Pyrazinamide
26 DOC for malignant hypertension Sodium nitroprusside
27 DOC for PSVT/ paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia Adenosine
28 MOA of pentostatin Adenosine deaminase inhibition
29 CVP reflects pressure of which chamber of heart Right atrium
30 MOA of raloxifene Selective estrogen receptor modulator
31 Shortest acting muscle relaxant Succinyl-choline
32 Post tetanic facilitation is shown by which class of muscle relaxants Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant
33 Commonest side effect of Azidothymidine Megaloblastic anemia
34 Anaesthetic agent CONTRAINDICATED in Biers block/ intravenous regional Bupivacaine

anaestehsia/ IVRA:
35 Toxicity of bupivacaine affects which organ Heart
36 Thiopentone is ultra short acting barbiturate because of Rapid redistribution
37 Anaesthetic agent which is cerebroprotective Propofol
38 Oral anticoagulants are stopped how many days before surgery 7 days
39 In a patient, halothane should not be used again within 3 months
40 MOA of flutamide Anti-androgen
41 Anaesthetic agent having low blood and tissue gas partition coefficient Desflurane
10
42 Second gas effect/ diffusion hypoxia is shown by Nitrous oxide
43 Selective cyclo-oxygenase-2 inhibitor drug Celecoxib, etoricoxib, parecoxib
44 Dissociative anaesthesia is a feature of Ketamine
45 Contraindication to ketamine use Raised intracranial tension
46 Naturally occurring anaesthetic agent Cocaine
47 Effect of cocaine on vessels Vaso-constriction
48 Drug used for post-operative reversal of muscular paralysis Neostigmine
49 Anaesthetic agent causing thalamo-cortical limbic dissociation Ketamine
50 Anti-fungal drug which acts by inhibiting mitosis Griseofulvin
MICROBIOLOGY
1 Which Ig can cross placenta IgG
2 Which Ig is the most abundant of all IgG
3 Most abundant IgG subclass IgG1
4 Culture of which bacteria shows fried egg colony appearance Mycoplasma (Eaton agent)
5 Differentiation of Neisseria meningitides from Neisseria gonorrohoea can be Fermentation of maltose

done by
6 MC organism detected in ischiorectal abscess E. coli
7 E157 strain of E. coli can be grown on which media Hektoen Agar
8 Which species of Pseudomonas commonly causes intravenous catheter P. aeruginosa

related infections
9 MC bacterial cause of antibiotic related colitis Clostridium difficile
10 Mode of action of Botulinum toxin Inhibiting acetylcholine release
11 Which bacteria shows tumbling motility Listeria
12 Drug of choice for listerial meningitis Ampicillin + Gentamycin
13 Earliest diagnostic test for H. pylori infection C-14 urea breath test
14 Incubation period of typhoid 3-21 days
15 Method of diagnosis of typhoid in first week Blood culture

16 Which bacteria can be classified on the basis of fermentation of glycerol Yersinia
17 Ito test is done for diagnosing Chancroid
18 Which bacteria is related to ingestion of undercooked shell fish Vibrio para-hemolyticus
19 H. pylori is found in which layer of stomach Mucus
20 Bread crumb colony appearance is for Actinomyces israelii
21 Which bacterial colony shows satellitism Hemophilus
22 Sulfur granules are diagnostic for which bacteria Actinomycetes
23 Test done for diagnosing pyogenic meningitis CSF examination
24 Colour of granules produced by actinomycetes Yellow
25 Buruli ulcer is caused by Mycobacterium ulcerans
26 John’s bacillus is another term for Mycobacterium para-tuberculosis
27 Number of mycobacterium required to be seen in AFB staining 10,000-20,000
28 MC streptococci responsible for causing neonatal meningitis Lancefield group B
29 Which bacteria produces Draughtsman concentric rings on culture Pneumococci
30 Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by Streptococcus viridians
31 Pikes media is used for transporting Streptococcus
32 Which organism is commonly isolated from jaw abscess Staphylococcus aureus
33 MC cause of pyomyositis Staphylococcus aureus
34 Which organism causes localized myogenic infection Staphylococcus aureus
35 Organism causing Lyme disease Borrelia Burgdorferi
36 Dark ground microscopy helps to detect which organism Leptospira, Treponema & Borrelia
37 Weils disease is caused by Leptospira
38 Yaws is caused by Treponema pertune
39 Pneumonia alba is caused by Treponema pallidum
40 Neil Mooser/ tunica reaction is used to differentiate Rickettsia prowazekii Rickettsia typhi
from
41 Endemic typhus is transmitted by Rat flea
12
42 Diagnostic test for rickettsial infection Weil Felix reaction
43 MC cause of bacillary angiomatosis Bartonella Henselae
44 Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetti
45 Process in which DNA of one bacterium is transmitted to another bacterium Transduction

is known as
46 Bacterium used to assess efficacy of sterilization by autoclave Bacillus stearo-thermophilus
47 Blood agar is an example of Enriched media
48 Multiple drug resistance spreads by the process of Conjugation
49 Nitroblue tetrazolium test is done for Phagocytes
50 Which class of disinfectants acts by damaging plasma membrane Quaternary ammonium compounds
FORENSIC
1 Boxers attitude is seen in Burns death
2 Poisoning which does NOT lead to constricted pupils: Dhatura
3 Last organ to putrefy in males Prostate
4 In an adult, spinal cord ends at: L1-L2
5 Hydrostatic test is done for Infanticide
6 Cutis anserina is seen in: Drowning
7 Pugilistic attitude is because of which process: Protein coagulation
8 Bodily injury caused by husband or relative, which lead to death of a 304-B

woman comes under which IPC
9 Acrodynia is associated with which poison Mercury
10 Cruel behaviour of husband, family members or relatives towards a woman 498-A

comes under which IPC
11 Inquest into a case of dowry death is done by Magistrate
12 Brush burn is also known as Graze abrasion
13 MC cause of death in drowning Cardiac arrest
14 Teeth bite marks are which type of abrasions Pressure abrasion

15 In which poisoning, CSF needs to be preserved Alcohol
16 Pugilistic attitude is seen in death due to Burns
17 When two bullets are ejected after one another in succession, it is Tandem bullets
18 Colour of bruise on 2-4 day of injury Bluish black/ dark blue to brown
19 Gastric lavage is CONTRAINDICATED in Kerosene or volatile poisoning; corrosive poisoning
20 Antidote for phosphorous poisoning Copper sulphate
21 Toxicity of sea snake is Myotoxic
22 Florence test is done for which body fluid Semen
23 Which organ putrifies last in females: Uterus
24 Hyoid fracture is common in: Throttling
25 Transplantation of human organ act was passed in which year: 1994
26 Aconite is ….. poison: Cardiac
27 Most poisonous mercury salt is: Mercury chloride
28 Earliest manifestation of chronic lead poisoning is: Facial pallor
29 Sea snake venom is: Musculotoxic
30 Nails and hair is preserve in …… poisoning: Arsenic
31 Spinal cord in infants ends at the level of: L3
32 Human insulin differs from beef insulin by how many numbers of amino 1
acid residues:
33 Severe beating on soles is: Falanga
34 Dribbling of saliva suggests death due to Hanging
35 Fine, frothy discharge from nostrils indicates death due to: Drowning
36 A female consumed 20 tablets of Crocin. Best antidote for this case: N-acetyl-cysteine
37 MC type of fingerprints Loops
38 If the angle of mandible is obtuse, it belong to which age group Infant or old
39 In tandem bullet, number of bullets coming out of the gun are: 2 bullets
14
40 A patient came with cuts at wrist. Feature which will suggest suicidal Hesitation marks/ tentative cuts
nature of injury:
41 Grievous injuries are dealt under IPC IPC 320
42 Entry point of gunshot may show Dirt collar/ grease collar
43 Cause of death in café coronary Asphyxia/ reflex cardiac arrest
44 Le facies sympathique is because of stimulation of …… by knot Cervical sympathetic ganglion
45 Which substance is estimated in Gettlers test NaCl
46 Pugilistic attitude is suggestive of Burns
47 Widmark formula is employed for Alcohol
48 ‘Erethism’ is associated with which poison Mercury
49 Poison which retards putrefaction Arsenic & carbolic acid
50 ‘Saturnism’ is related to which poison Chronic lead poisoning
PSM
1 Case developing from contact with primary case is known as: Secondary case
2 First case coming to the knowledge of investigators is known as: Index case
3 Studies in which neither the doctor nor the patient is aware of the Double blind study
treatment given:
4 Mean +/- 3SD covers: 99.7%
5 Middle observation when the data is arranged in an ascending or Median

descending order:
6 Time period between the first possible diagnosis & usual time of diagnosis Lead time
is known as:
7 True negative/ (true negatives + false positive) is known as: Specificity
8 Incidence in exposed/ incidence in non exposed is known as: Relative risk
9 SAFE strategy is employed for which disease: Trachoma
10 Recommended level of fluoride in drinking water is: 0.5-0.8 mg/L
11 Index used to calculate failure rate of contraceptive agents: Pearl index

12 MC cause of maternal mortality: Hemorrhage
13 Population covered under subcentre in tribal/ hilly or backward areas: 3, 000
14 Human anatomical waste is discarded in …. Colour bags: Yellow
15 Strain recommended by WHO for BCG vaccine: Danish 1331
16 Outbreak response immunization, carried out around 5 km of a case of Ring immunization

acute flaccid paralysis is known as:
17 Gap between 2 doses of DPT vaccine: 4 weeks
18 Vaccine given at 9 months of age: Measles
19 Acrodermatitis enteropathica is associated with the deficiency of: Zinc
20 Condition resulting as a result of adulteration of mustard oil with aregmone Epidemic dropsy
oil:
21 Weight gain per unit protein consumed is known as: Protein efficiency ratio
22 Headquarter of WHO is located in: Geneva
23 Dengue is caused by … mosquito: Aedes
24 Biological transmission shown by malaria in humans: Cyclo-propagative
25 Education, occupation & income are a part of …. Index: Kuppuswami
26 Health promotion is which level of prevention Primary
27 Method used in project planning to find out the longest path in a project Critical path method
28 Recommended dietary intake of zinc in a 4 months old 2 mg
29 For Asians, what ratio of Waist: Hip suggest abdominal fat accumulation in 0.9
males
th
30 World health day is celebrated on 7 april
31 Late expanding in population curve signifies Decreasing BR, More decreasing DR (Birth >>
Deaths)
32 Modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis Obesity
33 Hardness of water is inversely related to diseases of which system CVS
34 Quarantine for yellow fever 6 days
35 Kanawati index is defined as Mid-upper arm circumference/ Head circumference
16
36 Last case of Smallpox was identified in Somalia
37 ICD has how many chapters 21
38 Reference weight for Indian male 60 Kg
39 Source of iron for poor man Jaggery
40 Daylight factor in living room should be 8%
41 Type of desk ideal for students Minus desk
42 Pulses are deficient in which protein Methionine
43 Highest level of integration of health services PHC
44 Sputum positive in TB is defined as 1 or 2 samples positive
45 ORS should be discarded after 24 hours
46 Biological value is maximum for Egg
47 Best parameter for measuring air pollution SO2
48 Extended sickness benefit is given for Maximum of 2 years
49 Upper line in Road to Health chart corresponds to 50%
50 Contraceptive of choice for well educated 37 years old lady IUCD
ENT
1 MC cause of malignant otitis externa Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2 Hyperacusis is prevented by Stapedius

st
3 Eustachian tube develops from 1 pharyngeal pouch
4 Angular acceleration is judged by Semicircular canals
5 Surgical procedure for serous otitis media Myringotomy with grommet tube insertion
6 MC complication of CSOM Mastoiditis
7 Bezolds abscess lies in relation to … Sterno-cleidomastoid
8 Paracusis willisi is a feature of Otosclerosis
9 Audiometric finding of otosclerosis Carhart’s notch

10 Triad of deafness, vertigo and tinnitus is suggestive of Meniere’s disease
11 MC involves structure in acoustic neuroma Superior vestibular nerve
12 Sinus opening in spheno-ethmoid recess Sphenoid sinus
13 Mikulicz cells are seen in Rhinoscleroma
14 Apple jelly nodules on nasal septum is seen in Lupus vulgaris
15 CSF rhinorrhoea is seen in fracture of Cribriform plate of ethmoid
16 MC site of epistaxis Little’s area
17 MC cause of epistaxis in children Trauma
18 MC site of nasopharyngeal carcinoma Fossa of Rosenmuller
19 MC causative agent of quinsy Streptococcus pneumoniae
20 Abductor of vocal cord Posterior cricoarytenoid
21 Epithelial lining of true vocal cords: Stratified squamous non-keratinised
22 Nerve supply of cricothyroid External laryngeal nerve
23 MC cause of stridor of newborn Laryngo-malacia
24 Management of laryngomalacia Observation
25 Virus causing nasopharyngeal carcinoma EBV
26 Endolymph in inner ear is secreted by Stria vascularis
27 Movement of stapes causes vibration in Scala vestibuli
28 Arterial supply of tonsil is mainly through Tonsillar branch of facial artery
29 Frontal sinus is best viewed on which view Caldwell’s view
30 Focal length in the objective piece of microscope commonly used for ear 250 mm
surgery
31 Gold standard procedure for prevention of aspiration Tracheal division and permanent tracheostomy
32 What is placed inside the ear during surgery for cochlear implant Receiver stimulator
33 Excessive hemorrhage after tonsillectomy is due to injury to the Paratonsillar vein
34 To prevent synechiae formation after nasal surgery, packings of …. are used Mitomycin
35 FESS means Functional endoscopic sinus surgery
18
36 Ideal treatment of rhinosporodiosis Excision with cautery at base
37 Etiology of anterior ethmoidal neuralgia Middle turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
38 2 months after tonsillectomy, the patient has referred pain to the ear Injury to glossopharyngeal nerve
because of
39 Chalky white tympanic membrane is seen in Tympanosclerosis
40 Fistula test stimulates Lateral semicircular canal
41 Cold caloric test stimulates Lateral semicircular canal
42 Test for detecting damage to cochlea Absolute bone conduction
43 Ossicular lever ratio is 1.3:1
44 Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through Cochlear aqueduct
45 Pars flaccida of tympanic membrane is also known as Shrapnel’s membrane
46 Prussack’s space is located in Epitympanum
47 Type of deafness found in Meniere’s disease Low frequency, sensorineural hearing loss
48 Angiofibroma bleeds excessively as vessels lack A contractile component
49 Laryngeal cartilage forming complete circle Cricoid
50 Management of carcinoma larynx T1N0M0 stage External beam radiotherapy
OPHTHALMOLOGY
1 Rees Elsworth classification is done for Retino-blastoma
2 In pars planitis, visual loss is due to Cystoid macular edema
3 Pan-retinal photocoagulation is done for Proliferative retinopathy
4 Salt & pepper fundus occurs in Rubella
5 Diabetic retinopathy is directly related with Duration of disease
6 Keith Wegener classification is for Hypertensive retinopathy
7 Cotton wools spots in diabetic retinopathy are due to Retinal edema
8 Distance of macula from optic disc 3 mm

9 Ring scotoma is seen in Retinitis pigmentosa
10 Eales disease is characterized by Recurrent vitreous hemorrhage
11 Secondary vitreous develops from Ectoderm
12 Posterior staphyloma is associated with Pathological myopia
13 Chronic systemic use of steroids causes Cataract
14 Site of bleeding after cataract surgery Posterior ciliary vessels
15 Typical appearance of diabetic cataract Snowflake appearance
16 Thinnest part of lens Posterior pole
17 Lens of eye develops from Surface ectoderm
18 MC cause of blindness in India Cataract
19 Second sight phenomenon is seen with Presbyopia with improved near vision
20 Which type of lentocinus is more common in males Anterior
21 Sunflower cataract is due to Chalcosis
22 Opacity following extra-capsular lens extraction After-cataract
23 Marfans syndrome is associated with which ocular condition Ectopia lentis
24 Sunflower cataract is seen in: Chacosis/ Wilson Disease
25 Homer-Wright rosette is a histological feature of: Retino-blastoma
26 Type of lens used to treat presbyopia: Convex
27 Elevation of optic disc/ mushroom shaped disc is seen in: Papilloedema
28 Complete afferent pupillary defect is seen in: Optci Nerve Lesion
29 Drug of choice for primary open angle glaucoma: Timolol
30 Oral drug use for trachoma: Azithromycin
31 Earliest change of diabetic retinopathy: Microaneurysm
32 Cause of Bitemporal hemianopia: Optic Chiasma Lesion
33 Critical period of development of fixation reflex is: 2-4 Months
34 Photophthalmia is seen with: Ultraviolet Rays
20
35 Hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by: Enterovirus 70
36 Herbert’s pits are seen in: Trachoma
37 A dendritic ulcer is caused by: Herpse Simplex Keratitis
38 Steroids are CONTRAINDICATED in: Herpse Simplex Keratitis
39 Satellite nodule on a corneal ulcer is seen in: Fungal Corneal Ulcer
40 DOC for acute anterior uveitis: Steroids
41 Commonest complication of topical steroids: Glaucoma
42 Left Gastro-epiploic artery is a branch of: Splenic Artery
43 Structure examined for metastasis in Retinoblastoma : Optic Nerve
44 ATT drug, associated with visual deterioration: Ethambutol
45 MC cause of acute anterior uveitis: Ankylosing Spondylitis
46 Scotoma produced by vitamin B12 deficiency: Vitamin B12
47 Loss of eyelashes is known as: Madarosis
48 Purpose of perimetry: Field of vision
49 Organism causing angular conjunctivitis Moraxella
50 Ciliary muscles develops from: Paraxial mesoderm
MEDICINE
1 Electrophoresis of a case with alpha-thalassemia trait will show Normal
2 First investigation to be done in a case with thrombocytopenia Platelet count
3 Changes of Megaloblastic anemia which may not be corrected by Neurological

administering folic acid alone
4 Likely diagnosis of a young girl with repeated episodes of bleeding with von-willebrand disease
raised aPTT & BT with normal PT
5 DOC for cardiogenic shock Dopamine
6 Wide split fixed S2 is heard in ASD
7 Normal cross sectional area of mitral valve is 4-6 cm2

8 Absent ‘a’ waves in JVP are a feature of Atrial fibrillation
9 Aortic dissection is best diagnosed by MRI
10 Syndrome characterized by proteinuria, hematuria & hypertension Nephritic syndrome
11 MC cause of death in patients with CRF on dialysis Cardiovascular lesions
12 Earliest test to diagnose diabetic nephropathy Micro-albuminuria
13 Marker to assess prognosis after surgery for Ca colon CEA
14 Typhoid ulcer perforates usually after … week 3rd
15 Marker specifically elevated in Hepatocellular carcinoma Alpha fetoprotein
16 MC CNS manifestation of HIV Dementia
17 McCallum patch is related with Rheumatic heart disease
18 Drug used to treat gonorrhoea Ceftriaxone
19 Drug given as single dose to prevent mother to child HIV transmission Nevirapine
20 Poisoning, which present as abdominal pain, diarrhea, myelosuppression & Arsenic poisoning
Mees lines on nails
21 Most aneurysm clinically presents as Subarachnoid hemorrhage
22 Festinating gait is seen in Parkinsonism
23 Bradykinesia is a feature of Parkinsonism
24 MC joint to be affected in Charcots joint disease due to diabetes Tarsal
25 Tract involved in neurosyphilis Dorsal/ posterior column
26 MC cause of sporadic viral encephalitis Herpes simplex virus
27 Lymphocytic pleiocytosis in CSF is a feature of meningitis due to TB, viral
28 Asynergia is a feature of Cerebellar lesion
29 CSF Albumino-cytological dissociation is a feature of Guillain Barre syndrome
30 Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy is caused by JC virus
31 Definitive investigation for Addison’s disease Short ACTH test
32 Basic pathology in Conn’s syndrome Hyper-aldosteronism
33 Brown tumour is associated with Hyper-parathyroidism
22
34 Serum calcium levels in hyperparathyroidism Raised
35 Cold intolerance is a clinical feature of Hypothyroidism
36 Most sensitive & specific modality for diagnosing renal artery stenosis Magnetic resonance angiography
37 Renin dependent hypertension Renovascular hypertension
38 MC cause of paroxysmal hypertension Phaeo-chromocytoma
39 HLA link of NIDDM No HLA links
40 Specific gravity of urine in pre-renal azotemia > 1020
41 WBC casts in urine is a feature of Pyelonephritis
42 Treatment of choice for hemochromatosis Phlebotomy
43 Inheritance of Wilson disease Autosomal recessive
44 Markers which indicate high infectivity/ active viral replication HBeAg, HBV DNA
45 Dysarthria, dysphagia & proximal muscle weakness suggests the diagnosis Myasthenia gravis
of
46 Muscle NOT involved in polymyositis Facial, extra-ocular
47 Platelet count & serum complement levels in Henoch Schonlein purpura Normal, normal
are .. & ...
48 Sclerodactyly is associated with Scleroderma
49 Musculoskeletal finding in SLE Non-erosive arthritis
50 MC lung carcinoma in non-smokers Adenocarcinoma
SURGERY
1 Unsutured, infected wounds heal by …. Intention Secondary
2 Capillary haemangioma, not present at birth and appears at 1-3 weeks & Strawberry
then slowly regresses is
3 Undermined edges (of ulcer) are a feature of … infection TB
4 Epidural haematoma is due to rupture of Middle meningeal artery
5 Cause of subdural haematoma is Bridging veins
6 Any 2 vitamin K dependent clotting factors 2, 7, 9, 10

7 As per Wallace rule of nine (for burns), perineum represents what % 1%
8 MC bacterial infection in burn wounds is Pseudomonas
9 Cleft lip operation is done at 3-6 months
10 If a graft is received from different individual, who is genetically identical, Isograft

it is known as
11 Pain in the calf muscle on dorsiflexion of the foot is known as … sign Homan’s sign
12 Colour changes in Raynaud’s phenomenon is …, …. & …. White, blue, red
13 Carcinoma which develops in Marjolin ulcer Squamous cell Ca
14 MC site of basal cell carcinoma on face Inner canthus of eye (tear Ca)
15 Mode of spread of basal cell carcinoma Direct
16 MC route of spread of melanoma Lymphatic
17 MC type of malignant melanoma Superficial spreading
18 MC site of breast carcinoma is …. & … quadrant Upper, outer
19 First node in the ipsilateral axial to drain the tumour in breast is known as Sentinel
…. Node
20 Negative Phren’s sign is seen in testicular … Torsion
21 MC site of cystic hygroma Posterior triangle of neck
22 MC site of thyroglossal cyst Subhyoid/ beneath hyoid bone
23 MC complication of thyroidectomy Hemorrhage
24 Sterile pyuria is seen in Renal TB
25 Pott’s puffy tumour is seen in Chronic frontal sinusitis
26 Idiopathic gangrene of scrotum, mostly by hemolytic streptococci is known Fournier’s gangrene

as
27 Infection of distal pulp space (of finger), secondary to a puncture wound, is Felon
known as
28 MC mediastinal tumour Thymoma
29 Superior vena cava syndrome is MC caused by Lung Ca (small cell)
30 MC testicular tumour Seminoma
31 MC type of hypospadias Glandular
32 MC cause of intestinal obstruction in children less than 2 years of age Intussusception
24
33 Important clinical sign in splenic rupture Kehr’s sign
34 MC elevated (and tested) enzyme in pancreatitis Serum Amylase
35 Single best enzyme for pancreatitis Serum Lipase
36 In haemorrhagic pancreatitis, bluish discoloration in the flanks is known as Grey Turner sign
… sign
37 Whipple’s criteria are used for diagnosing Insulinoma
38 MC route of infection to liver is Through bile duct
39 MC benign tumour of liver Hemangioma
40 MC indication of liver transplantation in children Biliary atresia
41 Landmark for differentiating femoral & inguinal hernia (w.r.t. neck of sac) Pubic tubercle
42 Landmark for differentiating direct & indirect inguinal hernia Inferior epigastric artery
43 Typhoid ulcers are placed ….. w.r.t. long axis of ileum Longitudinal
44 MC position of appendix Retrocaecal
45 Red currant jelly stool is seen in Intussusception
46 Carcinoma colon right side mainly presents as Anemia
47 Goodsall’s rule is related to Fistula-in-ano
48 Earliest complication of rectal carcinoma Bleeding
49 MC complication of Meckel’s diverticulum Intestinal obstruction
50 Carcinoma colon left side mainly presents as Obstruction
OBSTETRICS
1 Graphical representation of stages of labor is done in Partogram
2 Involution of uterus occurs at the rate of 1.25 cm/ day
3 A young girl with 6 weeks of amenorrhea with abdominal mass & empty Ectopic pregnancy
uterus on USG is having
4 Investigation of choice for diagnosing H. mole USG
5 Earliest sign of immune hydrops on USG Scalp edema

6 MC heart disease associated with pregnancy Mitral stenosis
7 Heart disease carrying highest mortality in pregnancy Eisenmengers syndrome
8 Magnesium sulphate is indicated in management of: Eclampsia
9 MC cause of PPH Uterine atony
10 Variable deceleration in fetal heart monitoring is suggestive of Cord compression
11 Low Maternal serum AFP in Down syndrome
12 Very severe disease, in case of transplacental transfer of toxoplasmosis is in First

… trimester
nd
13 Stage of labor lasting from full dilatation of cervix to complete birth of baby 2
is …
14 Chorionic villous sampling, if done before 10 weeks result in Oromandibular limb defect
15 Maximum levels of HCG are reached on 70 days
16 MC type of compound presentation Head & hand
17 Complication of succenturiate placenta Postpartum hemorrhage
18 HCG is secreted by Synctio-trophoblast
19 MC organism responsible for puerperal pyrexia Streptococcus
20 Smallest pelvic diameter in anteroposterior plane of inlet Obstetric conjugate
21 Largest fetal head diameter Mentovertical
22 Most common type of vertex presentation Left occipito anterior/ left occipito ransverse
23 Most common cause of a pregnant lady presenting with fulminant hepatitis Hepatitis E virus
24 Immunoglobulin crossing placenta IgG
25 Best time to diagnose fetal anomalies by USG 18 weeks
26 MC presentation of H. mole Bleeding per vaginum
27 Bishops classification is used for Need of induction of labor
28 Average blood loss in normal delivery 500 cc
29 Most common cause of uterovesical fistula in India is Obstructed labor
30 % of scar dehiscence in lower segment caesaren section 0.5-1%
26
31 Involution of the uterus occurs at the rate of 1.25 cm/ day
32 MC cause of ectopic pregnancy Previous tubal disease
33 Ovulation returns in non lactating women occurs after 4 weeks
34 Low birth weight baby is defined as Less than 2.5 kg
35 Embryonic structure identified earliest on USG to confirm pregnancy Gestation sac
36 Increase in cardiac output in pregnancy is by 40%
37 Relation of different parts of the fetus to each other is known as Fetal attitude
38 Uterus reaches upto umbilical level at 24 weeks
39 Ideal time for screening of blood sugar to rule out diabetes in a pregnant 24-28 weeks
female
40 MC type of anemia in pregnancy Iron deficiency anemia
41 DOC for chronically hypertensive pregnant lady requiring long term Methyl dopa
antihypertensive therapy
42 Polyhydramnios is defined as amniotic fluid volume of more than 2000 ml
43 HCG is secreted by Synctio-trophoblast
44 MC site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tube Ampulla
45 Painful bleeding, tense & tender uterus with absent fetal heart sound is Abruptio placentae
suggestive of:
th
46 OCP should be started on which day of menstrual cycle: 5
47 Which vitamin deficiency is seen in hyperemesis gravidarum: Vitamin B1 & K
48 Lochia serosa is seen from …. Days postpartum 5 to 9
49 Early deceleration on fetal heart monitoring indicates: Head compression
50 In delayed clamping of cord, how much extra blood does baby receive: 50-100 ml
GYNAECOLOGY
1 LH precedes ovulation by 24-36 hours
2 Clue cells are seen in: Bacterial vaginosis

3 Failure rate of Pomeroys method: 0.4%
4 MC site of affection in genital tuberculosis: Fallopian tube
5 Most confirmatory sign of pregnancy: Fetal heart sounds
6 MC cause of post menopausal bleeding in India: 1. HRT
2. Ca endo-metrium
7 MC type of cervical carcinoma: Squamous
8 Calcium requirement in pregnancy: 1 gram
9 Most radiosensitive ovarian tumour: Dysgerminoma
10 Call Exner bodies are seen in: Granulosa cell tumour
11 Ferning of cervical mucus is due to: Estrogen
12 Post partum pituitary gland necrosis is known as: Sheehan syndrome
13 Gonorrhoea first involves which part: Cervix
14 CA 125 is a marker for: Ovarian Ca
15 MC type of endometrial carcinoma: Adeno-carcinoma
16 Karyotype in androgen insensitivity syndrome 46XY
17 Size of uterus: 3 X 2 X 1 inches
18 Stress incontinence is best corrected by: Bladder neck repair
19 Gonococcal infection spreads by: Involvement of adjacent structures/ Ascending

route
20 OCP of choice in lactation period: Minipill/ progesterone only pill
21 A woman has 20 ml menstrual blood loss every 35 days. She suffers from: Oligo-menorrhea
22 MC site of Endometriosis: Ovary
23 Commonest ovarian tumour complicating pregnancy: Dermoid
24 Most definitive clinical sign of pregnancy is: Fetal heart sounds
25 Involution of the uterus is completed by: 6 weeks
26 Earliest indication of concealed acute bleeding in pregnancy is: Tachycardia
27 A patient presents at 28 weeks gestation with severe abdominal pain, Accidental hemorrhage
28
bleeding and hypertension. The most likely diagnosis is:
28 Feature suggestive of ectopic pregnancy in a young woman with acute Amenorrhoea, Abdominal pain, Vaginal bleeding
abdomen:
29 MC type of pelvis associated with direct OccipitoPosterior position is: Anthropoid
30 Most unfavorable presentation for vaginal delivery is: Mento-posterior
31 Deep Transverse Arrest is commonly seen in which type of pelvis: Android
32 An absolute indication for Classical Caesarean section is: Central placenta previa
33 Best contraceptive method in a patient with heart disease is: Barrier methods
34 MC complication of IUCD is: Bleeding
35 Antituberculous drug CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy: Streptomycin, pyrazinamide
36 Safest drug in pregnancy is: INH (also rifampicin)
37 Antithyroid of choice in pregnancy: Propyl-thiouracil (also methimazole)
38 Chorionic villous sample is done at what time: 10-12 weeks
39 Fetus in a diabetic mother are at risk of developing which cardiac lesions: ASD, VSD, COA
40 Menopausal hormonal change: Increased Gonadotropins, Decreased estrogen
41 Progesterone is produced by: Granulosa luteal cells (corpus luteum)
42 Procedure of choice to diagnose uterus didelphis is: Hystero-salpingography
43 Rarest complication in a fibroid uterus is: Sarcomatous change (0.5%)
44 Cryptomenorrhoea occurs due to: Imperforate hymen
45 MC complication of an ovarian tumour is: Torsion
46 MC complication of cryotherapy is: Watery discharge
47 Hormone responsible for positive ‘Fern test’ is: Estrogen
48 Drug used for induction of ovulation: Clomiphene, Tamoxifen
49 Ovarian tumour likely to involve the opposite ovary by metastasis: Granulosa cell tumour
50 Pelvic Ca which can cause Krukenberg’s tumour: Ovarian Ca
SKIN

1 Leonine facies is seen in Leprosy
2 Infectious form of lerosy Lepromatous
3 Period of surveillance for lepromatous leprosy Paucibacillary: 2 years; Multibacillary: 5 years
4 Mycosis fungoides is also known as: Cutaneous T cell lymphoma
5 Chronic ulceration of old burn scars predisposing to squamous cell Marjolins

carcinoma is called ……… ulcers
th
6 Skin sutures on face are usually removed after … days 5
7 Leprosy does NOT affect which organ of females: Uterus
8 Metal, most likely to cause allergic dermatitis: Nickel
9 DOC for erythema nodosum leprosum Steroids (Thalidomide can be used)
10 Chronic familial benign pemphigus is also known as: Hailey Hailey disease
11 Example of endogenous eczema Atopic dermatitis
12 ……… naevus may lead to melanoma: Junctional
13 MC type of basal cell carcinoma: Nodulo-ulcerative
14 Tinea versicolor is caused by: Malassezia furfur
15 DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis: Dapsone
16 Oral treatment of acne: Doxycycline
17 Dermatophyte which can infect nail is tinea …… Unguum
18 Kerion in a ……… infection: Fungal
19 MC site of angio-edema of skin is of: Lips
20 DOC for severe cystic acne: Isotretinoin
21 Annular herald patch is seen in: Pityriasis rosea
22 Nikolsky sign is seen in: Pemphigus, toxic shock syndrome etc
23 Verruca vulgaris is caused by ……… Human papilloma virus
24 Etiology of pemphigus vulgaris: Autoimmune
25 Partial thickness graft includes which portion of skin: Epidermis plus some part of dermis
30
26 Layer of skin involved in acantholysis is stratum Suprabasal/ intra-epidermal
27 Hidradenitis suppurativa is a disease of ……… glands: Apocrine
28 In sebaceous glands, accumulation of sebum leads to ………… Acne
29 Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in: Lichen planus
30 A flat discoloration on skin of 1 cm is known as: Macule
31 A 3 year old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surface. His Atopic dermatitis
mother has a history of bronchial asthma. Diagnosis
32 Auspitz sign is related to: Psoriasis
33 Itchy, polygonal, violaceous papules are seen in: Lichen planus
34 Itchy, purple papule followed by hyper-pigmentation on resolution is a Lichen planus

feature of:
35 Lucio phenomenon is seen in: Leprosy
36 Best diagnostic test for fungal skin infection: KOH mount
37 Soft sore is caused by: Hemophilus ducreyi
38 Condyloma acuminata is caused by: Human papilloma virus
39 Location of bullae in pemphigus Intraepidermal
40 School of fish appearance is suggestive of infection by Hemophilus ducreyi
41 Basal cell degeneration is seen in Lichen planus
42 Which skin layer is absent in premature newborn Stratum corneum
43 DOC for psoriasis in pregnancy Oral steroids
44 MC cause of air borne contact dermatitis in India Parthenium (congress grass)
45 Hives is which type of hypersensitivity reaction Type I
46 Selective destruction of melanocytes is seen in Vitiligo
47 Localized loss of scalp hair in round or oval area (patchy loss of hair) with Alopecia areata
no apparent inflammation is known as
48 Mee’s line is a feature of Arsenic poisoning
49 Focal alopecia, boggy swelling With easily pluckable hair is a feature of Tinea capitis

50 Treatment of tinea versicolor Ketoconazole
ANESTHESIA
1 Last muscle to be paralyzed in retrobulbar block: Superior oblique

2 C/I to nasal intubation: CSF rhinorrhoea etc.
3 C/I to oral intubation: Laryngeal edema etc.
4 Effect of intubation on dead space Decreased
5 Inhalational agent of choice for induction in asthmatics Sevoflurane
6 Early & reliable indicator of air embolism in anaesthesia: End tidal CO2
7 Allens test is done for Integrity of palmar arch
8 Anaesthetic agent of choice in paediatric patient Sevoflurane
9 Which muscle relaxant causes malignant hyperthermia Succinylcholine
10 Most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic agent Bupivacine
11 What is the purpose of developing pin index safety mechanism in To prevent wrong attachment of cylinder
anaesthesia machines
12 Pin Index of nitrous oxide 3, 5
13 Pin index of oxygen 2, 5
14 Which anaesthetic agent produces dissociative anaesthesia Ketamine
15 Which anaesthetic agent is CONTRAINDICATED in porphyria Thiopentone
16 American Society of Anesthesiologists Score assess Overall health status of patient
17 Local anaesthetic agents acts by blocking which channels Sodium
18 Colour of oxygen cylinder Black body with white shoulder
19 Shortest acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxant Mivacurium
20 In local anaesthesia, which nerve fibres are blocked first Type C
21 Sellick manoeuvre is done to prevent Gastric aspiration
22 IVA which precipitates porphyria Methohexitone, phenobarbitone
23 Site of spinal anaesthesia in adults L2, 3/ L3, 4
24 Shortest acting muscle relaxant Succinylcholine
25 Hoffman’s elimination is related with Atracurium
26 Local anaesthetics block … channels Sodium
27 Dissociative anaesthesia is related with Ketamine
28 Agent of choice for day care surgery Propofol
29 Anaesthetic agent causing adrenocortical suppression Etomidate
30 Surgical anaesthesia is stage… III
31 Anaesthetic agent causing post partum haemorrhage Halothane
32 PIN index of nitrous oxide 3, 5
33 Second gas effect/ diffusion hypoxia is seen with Nitrous oxide
34 Nitric oxide is produced from which amino acid Arginine
35 Cause of post dural puncture headache CSF leak from puncture site
36 Colour of oxygen cylinder Black body, white shoulder
37 Mallampatti grading is done for Assessment of oral cavity before intubation
38 Significant hyperkalemia with succinylcholine is seen with Burns, paraplegia, tetanus etc
39 Halothane is useful in Asthma
32
40 Site of SA administration in infants L4, 5

41 Agent of choice for induction in paediatric age group Sevoflurane
42 Anaesthetic agent having low blood and tissue gas partition coefficient Desflurane
43 Anaesthetic agent which sensitizes heart to adrenaline Halothane
44 Etomidate is contraindicated in Adrenal insufficiency
45 Anaesthetic agent which is cerebroprotective Propofol
46 Anaesthetic agent causing profound analgesia Ketamine
47 Pin index of nitrous oxide 3, 5
48 Use of laryngeal mask airway Maintenance of airway
49 Position of head & neck during intubation Neck flexed, head extended
50 MC complication of intubation Sore throat
RADIOLOGY
1 Cobble stoning of intestine with String sign of Kantor is seen in Crohn’s disease
2 Spider leg sign on IVP suggest Polycystic kidney
3 Apple core appearance on barium enema is seen in Carcinoma colon
4 Hampton hump on chest X-ray is seen in Pulmonary embolism
5 Half life of cobalt 5.2 years
6 Double bubble sign on X-ray abdomen suggests Duodenal atresia, Annular pancreas
7 IOC for acute pancreatitis Contrast CT scan
8 Half life of radium 1590 years
9 Crew cut appearance on skull X-ray is seen in Thalassemia
10 Target sign is seen in Intussusception
11 Cork screw appearance on barium swallow is seen in Diffuse esophageal spasm
12 Bone within a bone appearance is suggestive of Osteopetrosis
13 MC used radiotracer in clinical PET scan is Fluoro-deoxy-glucose (FDG)
14 Air bronchogram sign is commonly seen in Pneumonia/ pulmonary consolidation

nd
15 Nuchal thickness on USG is evaluated in which trimester 2
16 IOC for neonatal hypertrophic pyloric stenosis USG
17 IOC for subarachnoid hemorrhage CT scan

18 Saw tooth appearance of sigmoid colon is suggestive of Divertculosis
19 Sentinel loop sign on radiology is seen in Acute pancreatitis
20 Which radio-isotope of Iodine is used for thyroid ablation or treatment of I-131

metastasis
21 Adder head appearance on IVP is seen in Ureterocoele
22 Ionizing radiation with maximum penetration power Neutron followed by gamma rays
23 Flattening of diaphragm with presence of Curschmann spirals in sputum Asthma

microscopy suggest the diagnosis of
24 Flexible bronchoscope contains holes for Ventilation from opposite lung
25 Pipe stem colon on barium enema is seen with Ulcerative colitis
26 Occupational radiation exposure allowed per year to Indian population is 20 mSv
27 Substance having same atomic mass & different atomic number is Isobars
28 Substance used for RAIU I-123
29 MRI rooms are shielded by Copper/ Aluminium
30 Sugar used in PET scan Glucose
31 Tram track appearance of skull on CT scan is seen in Sturge Weber syndrome
32 Triple bubble sign is seen in Jejunal atresia
33 Radiological feature of ureterocoele Adder head appearance
34 Radiological feature of polycystic kidney disease Spider leg appearance
35 Investigation of choice for chronic subarachnoid hemorrhage MRI
36 Investigation of choice for Perthe’s disease MRI
37 Best method to detect minimal pleural effusion on right side USG
38 Radiological feature of ankylosing spondylitis Bamboo spine
39 Claw sign is seen in Intussusception
40 Measure of activity of radiation Gray (SI unit)
41 Medulloblastoma is Radiosensitive
42 Most radiosensitive phase of cycle G2M
34
43 Pseudofractures are radiological findings of Osteomalacia
44 Use of gamma knife Stereo-tactic radiosurgery
45 Radiological feature of pulmonary hamartoma Popcorn calcification
46 Radiological feature of osteoclastoma Soap bubble appearance
47 Frostberg’s reverse 3 sign is seen in Ca head of pancreas
48 Investigation of choice for interstitial lung disease High resolution CT scan
49 ‘Cour en sabot’ heart is seen in Tetralogy of Fallot
50 Rays having maximum ionizing power Alpha rays
PSYCHIATRY
1 Paranoid schizophrenia may be associated with the use of … Amphetamine
2 Longest acting SSRI Fluoxetine
3 Abnormal pre-occupation & normal body function is known as Hypo-chondriasis
4 Irresistible desire to drink alcohol is known as Dipsomania
5 Fear of animals is known as Zoophobia
6 Nihilistic ideas are seen in Depression
7 Grandiosity & flight of ideas may be a feature of Mania
8 MC severe symptom of alcohol withdrawl Delirium tremens
9 Flashback phenomenon is associated with abuse of LSD
10 Nightmares is seen in which phase of sleep REM phase
11 Agent of choice for prophylaxis in mania Lithium
12 Fluoxetine belongs to which group of drug SSRI
13 DOC for phobia Proxetine
14 DOC for OCD Fluoxetine
15 Value of severe mental retardation: 20-34
16 Tactile hallucinations & jet black tongue are associated with abuse of Cocaine

17 Disorder of content of thought Delusion
18 Early morning insomnia may be a feature of Depression
19 Easy distractibility & poor attention span in a adult is a feature of Mania
20 Child with difficulty in forming social relationships Autism
21 To diagnose mania, symptoms should be present for at least 7 days
22 Drug used for smoking cessation Bupropion
23 Effect of long term lithium therapy on thyroid gland Hypo-thytoidism
24 Capacity to make a valid will is known as: Testamentary capacity
25 Sibutramine is which class drug Anti-obesity
26 Formal thought disorder is considered diagnostic of which disorder Schizophrenia
27 Drug useful in acute attack of migraine Sumatriptan
28 Main feature of Korskoff’s psychosis: Confabulation
29 Sertraline is used in Obsessive compulsive disorder
30 Neurotransmitter involved in depression Serotonin
31 Disulfiram-alcohol reaction occurs due to the inhibition of which enzyme Aldehyde dehydrogenase
32 Characteristic clinical manifestation of Schizophrenia Auditory hallucination
33 Maximum loss of DALY occurs in which psychiatric disorder Depression
34 Dementia pugulistica occurs due to Trauma
35 Bad trip weed is: LSD
36 Nihilistic delusion are seen in Depression
37 An alteration in perception to self is known as De-personalization
38 Autism is characterized by onset of symptoms before … years of age 3 years
39 Example of cortical dementia Alzheimer’s disease
40 Amyloid plaques are seen in Alzheimer’s dementia
41 Asperger’s syndrome differs from autism in having No delay in Language

development of
42 Othello syndrome is Morbid jealousy
36
43 Worst prognosis in which type of schizophrenia Hebephrenic & simple
44 MC hallucination in schizophrenia Auditory
45 Irresistible desire to set things on fire PYROMANIA
46 Nocturnal enuresis is considered normal upto the age of 5 years
47 DOC for phobia SSRI
48 Cornerstone of drug therapy for panic disorder Antidepressants
49 Major depression is defined as depressed mood on daily basis for a 14 days

minimum duration of
50 Alcoholic seizures occurs after ……… hours of heavy bout of drinking 24-48 hours
PAEDIATRICS
1 One gram of hemoglobin liberates how many mg of bilirubin 34
2 MC type of congenital heart disease is MC type of congenital cyanotic heart disease: TOF
3 In patent ductus arteriosus, the connection is between Aorta & pulmonary artery
4 MC cause of acute intestinal obstruction in neonates Duodenal atresia
5 Commonest cause of intestinal obstruction in children Intussuception
6 Commonest site of regional enteritis Distal ileum & colon
7 MC cause of cholestatic jaundice in newborn is Neonatal hepatitis
8 MC cause of portal hypertension in children is Extrahepatic compression
9 Profuse watery diarrhoea in an immunocompromised child is due to Giardia

infestation by:
10 MC cause of convulsion on the first day of life in a newborn Anoxia
11 Initial drug of choice in a child with status epilepticus Lorazepam
12 MC intracranial tumour in children Glioma
13 Preventable cause of mental retardation Cretinism
14 Enzyme deficient in phenylketonuria Phenyl-Alanine-Hydroxylase
15 MC presentation of a child with Wilm’s tumour Asymptomatic abdominal mass

16 Edema of hands & feets in infants is characteristic of which syndrome Turners syndrome
17 Measles virus belongs to which group Paramyxovirus
18 Child draws a triangle at the age of 5 years
19 MC cause of bronchiolitis is Respiratory synctial virus
20 Diagnosis of toxoplamosis in newborn is best done by demonstrating which IgM

antibodies (to toxoplasma)
21 MC enzyme deficiency leading to childhood hypertension 21 alpha hydroxylase
22 Compression to ventilation ratio in neonates 3:1
23 MC cause of neonatal meningitis Group B streptococci, E coli
24 MC cause of aseptic meningitis in children is Enterovirus
25 Management of a newborn of HBsAg positive mother Active (HBV) & passive (HBIG) immunization
26 MC cause of 1st day jaundice in a newborn Rh incompatibility
27 MC bacteria cause of diarrhoea in children E. coli
28 Which congenital heart defect is commoner in Down syndrome ASD (endocardial cushion defect)
29 Breathing & swallowing action develops in fetus at which week 12-14 weeks
30 Moro’s reflex is abnormal after how many weeks 12 weeks
31 Best method of diagnosing childhood HIV HIV PCR
32 Epiphyseal dysgenesis is associated with Hypo-thyroidism
33 Most important cause of under 5 mortality is Respiratory tract infection
34 Commonest hematological malignancy in children is ALL
35 Commonest cause of death in diphtheric child Myocarditis
36 Vertical transmission of toxoplasmosis causes more severe disease in which First trimester
trimester
37 % increase in length of infant in first year of life 50% (25 cm)
38 Deletion of chromosome 11 leads to which disease Wilms tumour
39 Which vessel carries highly oxygenated blood toward fetal heart Umbillical vein
40 Umbilical cord usually falls after how many days 10-14 days
38
41 Alpha-1 antitrypsin is synthesized in which organ Liver
42 Weight of low birth baby Less than 2.5 kg
43 Boy who refuses to eat fruit comes with knee swelling & hematoma. Vitamin C
Deficiency of which vitamin can be suspected
44 MC cause of UTI in children less than 5 years of age E. coli
45 Length at birth 50 cm
46 MC cause of pneumonia in children Streptococcus pneumoniae
47 Apnea in prematurity last for how many seconds 20 seconds
48 MC cause of acute infantile gastroenteritis Rotavirus
49 MC cause of death in Klinefelter’s syndrome Infections
50 MC thyroid tumour in children Papillary
ORTHOPAEDICS
1 MC malignant tumour of bone: Secondaries
2 DOC for osteoid osteoma: NSAID
3 MC region of bone, involved in acute osteomyelitis: Metaphysis
4 Cold abscess formation is suggestive of: Spinal TB
5 Earliest sign of volkmann’s ischemia Pain on passive extension of fingers
6 Sunburst appearance is radiological finding of which tumour Osteosarcoma
7 Attitude of limb in posterior dislocation of lower limb Flexion, adduction, internal rotation
8 Looser zone is suggestive of Osteomalacia
9 Condition in which there is either anterior or posterior displacement of a Spondylo-listhesis

vertebrae with respect to the vertebrae below
10 Finkelstein test is done for which condition DeQuervain tenosynovitis
11 Which muscle is chief extensor of knee joint Quadriceps femoris
12 MC type of vertebral involvement in TB spine Paradiscal
13 Injury to C5 & C6 nerve roots can lead to Erb’s palsy

14 Multiple fractures in a child without any healing suggest the diagnosis of Osteogenesis imperfecta
15 Multiple fractures in a child in multiple stages of healing suggest the Battered baby syndrome
diagnosis of
16 MC facial bone to fracture Nasal
17 Attitude of joints in Boutonniere deformity Flexion contracture of PIP, extension of DIP
18 Gower sign is seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy
19 Which joint is spared in rheumatoid arthritis DIP/ distal interphalangeal joint
20 Fracture neck of fibula may injure which nerve Common peroneal nerve
21 Fracture proximal ulna with dislocation of proximal radio-ulnar joint is Monteggia fracture dislocation
known as
22 Aspirin is most useful in which bony tumour Osteoid osteoma
23 MC causative organism of acute osteomyelitis Staphylococcus aureus
24 Hill Sach’s lesion is seen with recurrent dislocation of which joint Shoulder
25 Region of a long bone most commonly involved in acute osteomyelitis Metaphysis
26 MC cause of sciatic nerve damage Iatrogenic (I/M injections)
27 IOC for congenital dislocation of hip in an infant USG
28 Which ligament of foot is at fault in pes planus Spring ligament
29 First sign of impending compartment syndrome Pain on passive stretch
30 Cluttons joint is seen in Late congenital syphilis
31 MC site of fracture of mandible is Neck
32 Related to nerve injuries, motor march is seen in which type Axonotmesis
33 Age of presentation of Ewing sarcoma Second decade
34 Function of anterior cruciate ligament Prevents anterior dislocation of tibia
35 Kienbock disease is avascular necrosis of Lunate
36 Stress fracture is commonly seen in Metatarsals
37 Spina ventosa is known as TB Dactylitis
38 Which nerve is commonly involved in anterior dislocation of shoulder Axillary
40
39 IOC for traumatic paraplegia MRI
40 Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is seen with Fracture lateral humerl condyle
41 Gun stock deformity is seen with Malunited supracondylar fracture humerus
42 Bamboo spine is radiological sign of Ankylosing spondylitis
43 Splaying & widening of metaphysis is radiological sign of Rickets
44 Galleazzi fracture involves…bone Distal radius
45 MC complication of fracture neck of femur Non-union
46 Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to compression of…nerve Median nerve
47 Nerve injured in shoulder dislocation Axillary nerve
48 Wrist drop is seen in lesion of… Radial nerve
49 Foot drop may be a manifestation of fracture… Neck of fibula
50 Ewings sarcoma involves…part of bone Diaphysis
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drkamalkv’s CLASSES for Foreign Medical Graduates

THESE POINTS ARE COMPILED FROM MCQ POINTS – 4TH EDITION.

50 POINTS FROM EACH SUBJECT

PLEASE FEEL FREE TO CIRCULATE THIS MATTER TO MAXIMUM NUMBER OF STUDENTS

ALL QUERIES/ ERRATA CAN BE FORWARDED ON MY WHATSAPP NUMBER (8470004333)

1 Umbilical cord contains which vessels 2 arteries & 1 vein

3 Epiphysis at the tip of coracoids process is Atavistic epiphyses

4 Function of umbilical vein Carry oxygenated blood towards fetus

6 Lymphatic drainage of testes Pre-aortic & para-aortic

7 Blood testes barrier is formed by Sertoli cells

8 Brunner’s gland are present in Duodenum

9 Highest point of iliac crest is at the level of L3-L4

11 Chorda tympani nerve arises from which nerve Facial

12 Lower angle of scapula corresponds to vertebrae T7

14 Nerve supply of platysma is Facial

15 Main action of gemellus muscle is External rotation of hip

16 Esophageal opening is at the level of T10

17 Azygos vein drains into Superior vena cava

18 Arch of aorta begins at T4

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19 Structure passing through central tendon of diaphragm Inferior vena cava

20 Head of sperm contains which organelle Nucleus

21 Deep inguinal ring is a defect in Fascia transversalis

22 Tensor veli palatini is supplied by Mandibular

23 Nerve supply of teres minor Axillary

24 Largest sesamoid bone Patella

25 Trigone of bladder is derived from Mesonephric duct

26 Epithelium of fallopian tube Ciliated columnar

27 Action of popliteus Unlocking of knee joint

28 Flexor of hip joint: Ilio-psoas

29 Tail of pancreas lies in which ligament Spleno-renal

30 MC nerve involved in fracture fibular neck Common peroneal

31 Superior radioulnar joint is which type of joint Pivot

32 Regiment badge sign is associated with lesion of which nerve Axillary

34 Temporomandibular joint is a which type of joint Condylar

35 Axillary sheath is a continuation of which sheath Prevertebral

36 Strongest ligament in the body Ileofemoral

37 MC bone to fracture in body Clavicle

38 Bone which doesn’t have a medullary cavity Clavicle

39 Long bone which lies horizonatally Clavicle

40 Suprameatal triangle overlies Mastoid antrum

41 Deformity associated with malunited Colle’s fracture Dinner fork

42 Tenderness in anatomical snuff box suggest fracture of Scaphoid

43 Spiral arteries are direct continuation of which arteries Basilar

44 Standing on toe tips is possible due to action of which muscle Gastro-soleus

45 Oral cavity diaphragm is formed by which muscle Mylohyoid

47 MC nerve involved in fracture surgical neck of humerus Axillary nerve

49 Infrapatellar bursitis is also known as Clergymens knee

50 Renal fascia is also known as Gerota’s fascia

1 Site of action of antidiuretic hormone/ ADH: Collecting duct & DCT

2 Normal GFR is … ml/ min 125 ml/ min

3 Reabsorption of water is maximum in: Proximal convoluted tubules

4 Effect of parathormone on calcium levels: Increase in serum calcium

6 QRS complex is due to which electrophysiological event: Ventricular depolarization

9 Subarachnoid space ends at: S2

10 Implantation occurs at the age of: Blastocyst

11 Lowest threshold potential in a motor nerve fibre is at: Axon hillock

13 Maximum surface area is for which vessels: Capillaries

14 Mouth to mouth respiration provides an oxygen concentration of: 16%

15 Hyaline membrane contains: Fibrin

16 Surfactant is secreted by: Type II pneumocytes

17 Best parameter for analysis of hypoxic hypoxia: Arterial pO2

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