4.

Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem kontrol yang terkait
(Operate main andauxiliary machineryand associatedcontrol systems)

1. A ship has a medium speed engine and a controllable pitch propeller propulsion system. What
would the propeller pitch normally have to be at to allow starting of the engine?
A. Zero

2. After water-washing the turbocharger exhaust side it starts to vibrate even though it was
operating normally prior to the washing procedure. What is the most likely cause of this
problem?
A. The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned

3. Choose the option which most accurately completes the following statement. The expansion
tank in a closed cooling water system is designed to maintain a positive head on the
system and also to……
A. Allow for changes in water volume due to temperature variation (expansion)
DPKP

4. How is the effective delivery stroke of a helix type fuel pump for a diesel engine controlled
to increase or decrease the quantity of fuel delivered?
A. Rotation of the plunger by the fuel rack from the governor signal.

5. How is the temperature of the high temperature circuit of a central cooling system
normally controlled?
A. By mixing with water from the low temperature circuit.

6. In a diesel engine lubrication system the circulating pump normally takes suction from the
oil sump tank. Where would the oil normally pass to directly after the
pump?
A. Lube oil cooler.

7. The exhaust gas temperatures of all cylinders of a diesel engine are seen to be high.
Select, from the options given, the most likely cause of this.
A. Poor fuel oil quality.
DPKP
8. The level in a diesel engine lubricating oil sump has increased noticably during operation
without any new oil being added. What action would you take?
A. Stop the engine and check for a fuel or water leak.

9. The lubricating oil in the bearing housing at the turbine end of a turbocharger gets very
dirty after only a few hours in service. What is the most likely reason for this happening?
A. Damaged rotor shaft sealing bushes allowing exhaust gas to leak into the bearing housing.

10. The main engine turbocharger speed has increased during the night while operating in
UMS mode. From the options given, what is the most likely cause of
this?
A. The engine load has increased due to external factors such as current and wind.

11. What could be the most likely reason for an increase in the viscosity of a diesel engine
lubricating oil during operation?
A. Fuel oil leakage into the lub oil system.
 12. What could cause diesel engine lubricating oil to appear cloudy with a slightly
"milky" colour?
A. Water contamination of the system.

13. What is likely to be the cause of black smoke from a diesel engine exhaust seen
at the funnel?
A. Incomplete combustion of the fuel.

14. What is the purpose of an oil mist detector, OMD, as fitted to a diesel engine?
A. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown of any potentially explosive atmosphere
in the crankcase.

15. What is the purpose of diesel engine cylinder head safety valve?
A. To indicate and relieve excessive high pressure in the cylinder to protect the engine
frombeing damaged.
DPKP

16. What is the recommended range for the pH-value for the water in a diesel engine cooling
system engine cooling water be maintained?
A. Between 7 and 10.

17. What would be the most probable cause of light, smoky exhaust from a diesel engine?
A. Water carry over from charge air cooler to engine cylinders.

18. What would be the most probable cause of the exhaust gas temperature from one cylinder of
a diesel engine being lower than normal?
A. The opening pressure for the injection valve for the cylinder is set too high.

19. When should adjustments to the fuel injection valve spring tension be made?
A. Only on the fuel injection valve test rig.
DPKP

20. Which of the following options would be the cause of a low exhaust temperature in one
cylinder of a diesel engine?

3
 A. Faulty fuel injection valve.

21. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?

A. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.

22. Which would be the most suitable point in the system to obtain a representative of diesel
engine lubricating oil for analysis?
A. From the lubricating system pipeline on the discharge side of the circulating pump.

23. Why are duplex filters usually employed in the lubricating oil system of an auxiliary
diesel engine?
A. Changing of the filter element can be carried out without interrupting engine operation.
DPKP

24. Why is it necessary to have routine testing of diesel engine cooling water
systems?
A. To ensure that the recommended levels of treatment chemicals are maintained at all
times.

25. With reference to diesel engine ancillary system operation, which one of the given
statements is true?
A. The normal jacket water temperature before the jacket water cooler is approximately 80
to 90 C.

26. With reference to non-VIT diesel engine high pressure fuel pumps that have helix control,
how is the timing of fuel injection normally adjusted?
A. By raising or lowering the pump plunger relative to the pump barrel.
DPKP

27. In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic circuit, which of the alternatives does the following
symbol indicate?
A. Double check valve.
.

28. A piston ring set for a trunk piston engine often includes a slotted ring tensioned by an internal
spring. What is the purpose of this type of piston ring?

4
 A. It is an oil control ring.

29. During the cycle of a four stroke diesel engine there is a load reversal on the bottom end
bearing when the load transfers from the upper part of the bearing to the lower part. What is
the main cause of this load reversal on a modern, turbocharged, medium speed diesel engine?
A. The lack of gas load to oppose the inertial forces generated during the exhaust stroke.
DPKP
30. During the normal operating cycle of a diesel engine there are side thrusts generated by
the piston as it moves up and down the cylinder due to the changing angle of the connecting
rod. How are these side thrusts accommodated in a trunk
piston engine?
A. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the engine frame by the piston skirt in
way of the gudgeon pin.

31. Many modern medium and high speed diesel engines operate at very high power ratings
resulting in relatively high bearing loads. In order to accommodate these loads the bearings are
required to have a high load carrying capacity. What kind of bearings are normally used for
main and bottom end purposes to achieve this?
A. Thin steel shells lined with aluminium tin alloys.
DP

32. Some main propulsion medium speed engine installations operate with a hydraulic oil
type fluid coupling between the engine and the reduction gearbox instead of a mechanical
clutch. With this type of installation a separate flexible coupling is not normally fitted. Why
is a separate flexible coupling usually omitted from this type of installation?
A. The hydraulic fluid in the coupling isolates the gearbox from the engine vibrations.

33. The majority of medium speed main propulsion installations incorporate a reduction
gearbox between the engine and the propeller shaft. Why is this arrangement usually required?
A. So that the propeller operates in a relatively efficient speed range.
DPK
34. The peak pressure (maximum cylinder pressure) is often taken as an indicator of medium
speed engine performance along with other parameters. What would be a typical peak pressure
for a modern, highly rated, medium speed diesel engine?
A. 140 to 180 bar
35. The Total Base Number (TBN) is important as a measure of neutralizing ability of a diesel
engine lubricating oil against strong acids formed during combustion. What action should be

5
 taken if the results from an oil analysis show that the TBN of the lubricating oil has reduced
slightly?
A. Freshen up the system by draining of some of the oil and adding a quantity of fresh oil.

36. What is the reason for fitting 'Rotocaps' to the cylinder head valves of some 4- stroke diesel
engines?
A. To extend the service life of the valves by giving even heat and wear distribution.DPK

37. When operating a propulsion installation consisting of medium speed diesel engines
driving a controllable pitch propeller it is possible to operate the combination of engine speed
and propeller pitch in a number of different ways. What would be the main reason for
operating with constant speed and variable
pitch?
A. To allow constant speed operation of a shaft generator while the engine load changes
with pitch variation.

38. Which of the given statements is true in relation to the features and operation of a
4 stroke diesel engine ?
A. The camshaft rotates with half the RPM of the crankshaft in a 4 stroke engine.

39. Which symptoms would indicate piston blow-by when operating a 4 stroke trunk piston type
engine ?
A. Increased pressure in the crankcase and smoke at the crankcase vent.
DPKP

40. A slow speed diesel engine is fitted with a slow turning facility. How would the slow turning
normally be set to operate?
A. It should automatically operate before the normal start sequence
following an engine stopped period of more than 20 to 30 minutes
when manoeuvring.

41. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence following an engine
stopped period of more than 10 minutes. In the event of a severe scavenge fire, which of the
following is most likely to be seriously damaged?
A. Piston rod and stuffing box.

6
42. Large slow speed diesel engines are usually of the crosshead type and have various
arrangements to deliver lubricating oil directly to the crosshead bearings and guides to ensure
adequate lubrication. Why are the crosshead bearings considered differently to the other
bearing in this type of engine in respect of lubrication requirements?
A. The running surfaces oscillate relative to each other during operation
rather than rotate and therefore full film hydrodynamic lubrication is
not possible.

43. Many large 2 stroke marine diesel engines are equipped with an auxiliary scavenge air
blower. What is the purpose of this equipment?
A. To provide combustion air at start up, during manouevring and low load running when the
turbocharger delivery is insufficient.
B. To assist the main turbochargers in supplying combustion air when on full load.
C. To allow full load running when the main turbocharger is defective..
D. To help cool the engine after it has been stopped.

44. Many large slow speed diesel engines operating on heavy fuel oil have a fuel injection
system which features Variable Injection Timing. How does this affect engine operation?
A. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically maintaining the
maximum cylinder pressure over part of the load range.
DPKP

45. any modern large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion operate with a so
called constant pressure turbocharging system. What is meant by constant pressure when used
to describe such a turbocharging system?
A. Pressure variations at the turbocharger inlet are damped out due to
the large volume of the exhaust receiver and the short lengths
of pipe from individual cylinders.

46. Modern large slow speed diesel engines operate with very efficient turbochargers.
This has resulted in much later opening of the exhaust valve as less energy is needed to
drive the turbocharger giving exhaust timing which is almost symmetrical about bottom dead
centre. How has this affected the reversing operation of the engines?
A. Only the fuel and starting air timing needs to be changed to
reverse the engine.

7
 DPKP

47. Modern slow speed, two stroke diesel engines often have locating pins or pegs to keep the
piston rings in a fixed position. Why is this arrangement used?
A. It avoids the risk of the ends of the piston rings being forced out
by the gas pressure and catching on the scavenge ports.

48. The majority of large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion purposes are
direct drive to a fixed pitch propeller? What is the main reason for this arrangement?
A. A fixed pitch propeller can operate with reasonable efficiency at the
same sort of speed as the engine.
49. What is one of the main features of the cylinder lubricating oil used in large 2 stroke marine
diesel engines which normally operate on heavy fuel oil?
A. It is strongly alkaline.

8
 DPKP

50. What is the main reason for sometimes having a separate forced lubrication system for
the camshaft on large cross head engines?
A. To prevent any fuel leakage from the high pressure fuel pumps
contaminating the oil in the main lubrication system.

51. Why is it important to check the timing of diesel engine cylinder oil lubricators?
A. To ensure cylinder lubricating oil enters the cylinders when
the piston is in the required position.

52. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be
50 ppm. What action should be taken if any? A. No
action is necessary.
DPK
53. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double shut off type
with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve. What is the main function of
the non-return valve?
A. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out
through the feed line if the feed line fractures or a joint in the line
blows.

54. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most accurate in
relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers.
A. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain less water
than fire tube boilers. They are prone to major damage when run dry
during operation.

55. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
A. Every day.

9
 DPKP

56. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm.
What action should be taken?
A. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage.

57. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most beneficial?
A. When the boiler is firing on high rate.

58. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of less than 9?
A. Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the
pH value is back within normal range.

59. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the pH-value in the boiler
water is slightly over 11.5?
A. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler water
treatment chemicals.

60. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler water?
A. Conductivity test.

61. What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil fired steam boiler?
A. 9 - 11.

62. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
A. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the risk of
overheating.

63. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
A. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed water.
DPKP

64. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam boiler?
A. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising
steam pressure or when the boiler is not on-line.

10
65. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based compounds
present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried out? A. It will cause
corrosion and scale deposits in the
boiler.

66. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
A. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which collect on the
surface of the water in the boiler steam drum.

67. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
A. To heat the feed-water
DPKP
68. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace?
A. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes and other
fittings from overheating.

69. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit of oil or gas
fired steam boilers?
A. To check that the flame is present during start up or normal operation
of the burner; if not then fuel is shut off automatically.

70. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water tests?
A. At room temperature.

71. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing condensate
to build up in the heat exchanger?
A. Reduced heating capacity of the heater.

11
 DPKP

72. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
A. From the boiler water space.

73. Which part is the spindle house ?

A. Number 4

74. Which part is the exhaust gas receiver ?

D. Number 1

75. Which part is the exhaust valve ?

B. Number 2

76. What is part number 3 ?

D. The combustion chamber

12
 DPKP

77. What is part number 5 ?

D. The scavenging air box

78. What is part number 8 called ?

D. The air cooler

79. Which part is the turbine wheel ?

D. Number 9

80. Which part is the auxiliary fan ?

A. Number 10

81. That is part number 11 ?

A. The blower
DPKP
82. The turbine wheel number 9 is made to rotate by: A.
pressured air supplied by blower number 10

83. What liquid is used to clean the turbo charger of a large low speed main engine? (high speed
air side, half speed gas side)
D. Water

84. The force tending to twist the material such as the force on a shaft is called:
B. torsional stress.

85. What is the purpose of counterbore in a cylinder ?

C. To distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface

86. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing in a current of air which provides clean air
for the next compression stroke is called ……….
B. scavenging.

13
 DPKP

87. The last stroke of two-stroke diesel engine is called the ………
. C. power stroke.

88. If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can happen ?
A. Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder
walls

89. If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen ?

B. A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder

walls

90. Which mode of automatic temperature control is used for this Jacket Cooling
Water system ?
B. Keeping outlet temperature constant by regulating on
the inlet
DPKP

91. What is item "J “ ?

D. The Jacket Cooling Water Pump

92. What kind of Jacket Cooling water system is shown here ?

A. A forced circuit

93. What absorbs the impact of the up-and-down movement of the piston telescopic pipes in
this water flow system ?

14
 A. The air cushion in the buffer tank

94. If the system pressure is 3.5 kglcm2, what will be the pressure in the buffer vessels ?
A. Fluctuating around 3.5 kg/cm2
DPKP

95. Why there an indicating flap 'IF" (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted on the
outlet of the piston water buffer tank ?
A. To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.

96. What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops ?

D. The level will decrease.

97. How are the crosshead bearings supplied with lubricating oil ?

A. Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod
DPKP

98. How is the gear train lubricated ?

C. Direct from the common lub oil circuit

99. Flow is the thrust bearing lubricated ?

D. Direct via the main lub oil line

15
 DPKP

100. Which of the following components is NOT directly lubricated by the lubricating inlet supply
line ?

C. The crosshead

101. What is the function of the value PR close to the lubrication oil pump ?

C. To keep the oil pressure constant

DPK
102. What type of pump is the pump “P" ?

B. A gear or worm wheel pump

103. What type of scavenge air system is applied to this diesel engine ?

C. Uniflow scavenging

104. When does the exhaust valve 'EV" open ?

C. At the end of the working stroke

DPKP
105. Which type of exhaust manifold feeds this turbocharger ?
]

D. Constant pressure type

106. What is the function of drain valve “D" ?

D. To drain the moisture from the manifold

107. Which thermometer always indicates the highest temperature in the

turbocharger?

B. TE
DPKP

16
 108. What do you think would be a reasonable scavenge air pressure for this engine
running at full speed?
A. 7.0 kg/cm2
109. What might be a reasonable value for the scavenge air temperature of this diesel
running at full speed ?
A. 45 degrees C
110. Under normal running conditions, what pressure is the air entering the exhaust gas
turbocharger “EGT" ?

D. Under slight overpressure

17
 DPKP

111. In what part shown on this scavenge air schematic diagram is heat converted into mechanical
power?

C. In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine

112. The scavenge air compressed in the turboblower is cooled down in the scavenge
air cooler (item 3) under…….

A. constant pressure (Isobaric condition)

18
 DPKP

113. In which part indicated on this scavenge air schematic is mechanical power converted
to thermal power ?

D. In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5)

114. In an “impulse type" exhaust gas turbocharger, the exhaust gases of the main engine
………?

D. are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger

19
 DPKP

115. On which unit of the scavenge air system is an automatic drain fitted ?

C. On the scavenge air manifold

116. Why can the temperature of the scavenge air after the scavenge air cooler not be lowered
below a given temperature and why has the temperature to be regulated above this value ?

A. To avoid condensate and water entering the engine

DPKP
117. In a constant pressure type turbocharger the exhaust gas enters the turbo charger
via …………..?

B. the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold

118. For a turbo charger is running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump temperature
on the turbine side ?
A. 45 to 50 degrees C

20
 DPKP

119. When you read a crankshaft deflection figure and the + sign is indicated, for
example +4, this means that……

A. the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm

120. What are the two most important factors influencing the crankshaft deflection readings ?

D. bearing wear and bedplate alignment

21
 DPKP

121. What are the steps to be taken, in what order, to stabilise the governor of a diesel engine after
overhaul ?
B. Adjust speed P, then integrate, next differentiating, from 0

122. What is the purpose of a safety valve fitted in the cylinder cover of a diesel engine ?
C. To release excessive gas pressure from the cylinder

123. What force makes a safety value of a diesel engine open ?

D. The pressure inside the combustion space

124. At which moment exactly does the safety value of a diesel engine opens ?
A. When the gas pressure in the engine exceeds the spring pressure
DPKP

125. In which stage of its working process is this two-stroke diesel engine ?
B. Compressing

126. What type of engine is shown here ?

C. A two stroke diesel with uniflow scavenging

127. If you are taking crankshaft deflections, for which position will you list the reading which
was last taken if the engine turns counterclockwise ? Right is PS, left is SB.
A. Zero

128. What is the structural lay-out of this diesel engine ?

A. Separate bedplate, columns, cylinder block for each cylinder

129. From which type of diesel engine is this running gear ?

D. A two stroke trunk type diesel engine

940
 DPKP

130. A piston of this type is composed of the following main parts:

B. piston crown, piston body, piston rings

131. What would you call the assembly fitted on the piston rod, which fits into a flange on top
of the crankcase block opening through which the piston rod moues in order to secure tightness
?
A. The piston rod stuffing box

132. During normal operation, the telescopic piping of this diesel engine's piston are
sliding up and down into ……..
B. telescopic buffer vessels.

133. What should you inspect and measure on the piston crown, when overhauling this main
engine piston ?
A. The scavenge and exhaust ports, the piston/ring grooves
D
134. What is the purpose of the starting value fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel engine ?

C. To allow starting air of 25 kg/cm2 into the cylinder if applicable

135. At what moment will the cylinder head starting air valve, shown here, open and allow 25
kg/cm2 to flow into the cylinder ?
A. When the control air on top is vented by the starting cam

136. How is the air-tightness of the sliding piston (moved by control air pressure and spring)
ensured in starting air values of this type ?
A. Teflon seats are fitted
B. Labyrinth seals are fitted
C. O-ring seals are fitted
D. Piston rings are fitted

137. What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out on the main engine prior to
manoeuvering with regard to the starting air system ?
D. Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture

941
 DPKP

138. How are starting air values made gas tight in the cylinder heads of diesel engines?
B. A copper gasket is fitted

139. What kind of scavenging is shown on the top left drawing ?

B. Transversal scavenging
140. What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top centre drawing ?

D. Loop scavenging
141. What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top right drawing ?

D. Cross scavenging

942
 DPKP

142. What kind of scavenging system is shown on the bottom left drawing ?
A. Loop scavenging
143. What kind of scavenge air system is shown on the right bottom drawing ?
A. Uniflow scavenging

144. Loop scavenging, cross scavenging and traverse scavenging are called …………
scavenging, as opposed to UNIFLOW scavenging.
A. REVERSE FLOW
145. How is it ensured that the flow of the scavenge air is directed symmetrically through the
cylinder ?

C. By the scavenge port shape

146. What common name is given for this type of fuel pump ?
A. Bosh type fuel pump

147. What determines the amount of fuel pumped per stroke with this fuel pump ?

D. The rotating angle of the plunger in the barrel

148. How is the timing adjusted on this type fuel pump ?

A. By the fuel cam setting
DPKP

149. The fuel delivery pipe between fuel pump and injector, is shown here as a red interrupted
line. For "UMS " classed vessel, how is this pipe best described ?
B. It needs to be a shielded pipe so that in case of
rupture the fuel leakage can be contained and the
alarm sounded

943
150. What is the mechanism that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector and causes
the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder ?
B. The mechanical force of the fuel cam

151. If you want to obtain a higher lift-off pressure in the injector, you can…….
B. tension the injector spring more.
152. The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is ……..

C. main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller.

153. The upward movement caused by the fuel cam is transferred to the plunger via
the ………… on the pump.

C. roller

154. The injector seen in the drawing is best described as …. type injector.

D. a water cooled

944
 DPKP

155. The end of the pumping action of this fuel pump is determined by the position of
the………
C. overflow valve

156. As an engine runs the position of the crankshaft changes constantly with respect
to the engine bedplate. Distortions need to be measured and are called ……..

A. crankshaft distortion readings.

B. crankshaft misalignment calibrations. C.
crankshaft deflection measurements.. D. Any of these
answers.

157. What is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head known as when the piston is at
bottom dead center ?
A. Any of these
B. The stroke
C. The compression clearance
D. The combustion clearance

945
 DPKP

158. In an engine operation, what is the effect called that describes the unstable operation of
the governor that will not maintain a steady state condition ?
D. Hunting

159. In a diesel engine using a constant stroke fuel pump, to increase the firing pressure or
maximum pressure in the cylinder the fuel pump plunger is adjusted by..

B. lowering the plunger.

160. When a new cylinder liner is fitted to a 2-stroke engine, which of the following steps should
be taken ? I. Increase the cylinder oil flow. II. Reduce the cylinder load. III. Reduce the oil
flow.
A. I, II and lII

161. When checking the tightness of nuts and bolts during a the quickest and most
effective method is……
D. tapping the nuts and bolts with a hammer.

946
 DPKP

162. If you get a heavy scavenging air fire, which of these parts is likely to take the most
serious damage?
D. The stuffing box.

163. In diesel engines, cylinder lubrication has the primary function of ….

D. forming a film between liner and rings acting as a sealing barrier to prevent the escape of
combustion gases, at same time reduce friction of parts.

164. Broken piston rings on diesel engines, if not visibly broken, can be identified
because …….
D. they are darker in colour and lack elasticity when pushed towards the inside of their
grooves.

165. Fire in the scavenging chambers of diesel engines may be caused by combustion
of carbon deposits accumulated over an extended period due to……..
B. slow combustion caused by poor injection.

950
 DPKP

166. Diesel Engine crankcase oil mist detectors are designed to analyse….
C. the concentration of oil vapours in the crankcase. D. fire risk
in the crankcase.

167. The direction of flow of cooling water in an engine is always…….

B. from bottom to top.

168. Which part of a diesel engine keeps the engine speed constant regardless of the engine load
?
D. The governor

169. Automatic shutdown of the main diesel engine always acts on the…….
B. fuel supply.

170. Putting additives into diesel engines cooling water is primary designed to
prevent….
D. overheating.

951
 DPKP

171. In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are the Lub Oil and the Scavenge air coolers
fitted in front of the jacket and piston water coolers ?

D. The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower

172. Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by:

C. All of these.

173. Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by:

B. a defective fuel valve
DPKP

174. Which part is the fresh water cooler ?

C. Number 1
175. What is part number 5 ?

176. What part is the de-airating tank ?

D. A three way valve
D. Number

952
 DPKP

177. Pipe number 8 is connected to the salt water cooling system. Why ?

B. For use in an emergency only

178. What is the purpose of part number 6 ?

A. To prevent accumulation of air in the cooling system

179. What is the purpose of the expansion tank ?

B. To take up the difference of water volume with changes of
temperature

180. Which of the following is a record of the pressure existing in the cylinder at vacuum
positions of the piston throughout the engine cycle ?
A. An Indicator diagram
DPKP

181. To find the indicated power developed in the cylinder the indicator card is used
to determine the……..
A. mean effective pressure.

182. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ?
C. In parallel with the cylinders.

183. The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with
unmanned engine. This is be cause by ………
A. the wind and current holding the vessel back.

184. Which of the following is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head when the
piston is at bottom dead center ?
C. Cylinder clearance
185. An engine's fuel pump supplies fuel in excess of the fuel consumed and this
excess fuel is returned to the pump suction via the ….
C. pressure regulating valve.

953
 DPKP

186. Failed O-rings on a 2 stage air compressor cylinder liner have resulted in a water leak. Where
is the leaking water most likely to go when the compressor is operating?
B. Into the LP cylinder.

187. For which duties are gear and screw pumps normally employed?
D. Main sea water circulation systems.

188. From the options given, select the conditions that you would expect to give best separation
results from a centrifuge operating as a purifier.
B. High flow rate and low temperature.

189. How is the condenser cooling water flow regulating valve automatically controlled in a
vapour compression refrigeration system?
C. By the quantity of refrigerant in the system.
190. How is the condenser in a fresh water evaporator normally cooled?
C. With air
191. How often should an oxygen analyser instrument for the inert gas system be calibrated?
A. Prior to every plant start-up following a shut down of 8 hours or
more.

192. In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would be considered to be the maximum allowable
chloride level of the boiler water?
A. 300 PPM.

193. In a low pressure, auxiliary boiler, water tests show that the p-alkalinity is 50 ppm
CaCO3. What action should be taken?
A. Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment.
194. In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is the probable cause of the
processed oil containing water?
A. The gravity disc is too small and/or the flow rate is too high
DPKP

195. The amp-load for an electric motor driving a centrifugal pump has gradually reduced over a
period of service. The pump is still supplying water but at a reduced pressure and flow. Which
of the alternatives given is the probable reason for this?

954
 A. The pump impeller and wear rings have worn.

196. What action should be taken if a purifier starts to vibrate heavily during normal operations?
A. Stop the purifier immediately. Check the machine for fouling or
mechanical damage. Donot restart until cause is identified and fault
rectified.

197. What action should be taken if the heat transfer capacity of a heat exchanger operating as a
lubricating oil cooler is reducing?
A. The heat transfer surfaces should be cleaned.

198. What cooling medium is normally used to cool the condenser of a fresh water generator?
A. Seawater
DPKP

199. What effect does an increased oil feed flow rate have on the performance of a centrifuge
operating as a purifier?
A. Separating efficiency is reduced.

200. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a centrifugal
pump?
A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.

201. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion valve in a
vapour - compression refrigeration system?
A. Liquid at high pressure.

202. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board ship?
A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional water.DPKP
system using only sea

203. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh water in a
central cooling system?
A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.

955
204. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than normal
when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?
A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned.

205. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a centrifugal
pump when it is running?
A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation.

206. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit?

A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the evaporator.
DPKP

207. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression refrigeration

compressor?
A. The same as the suction pressure.

208. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor discharge
of an air conditioning system?
A. + 85 ° C

209. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil throughput
rate is too great?
A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to discharge from
the water outlet.

210. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a centrifuge
in order to ensure good separation?
A. 95 - 98 Celsius.

956
 DPKP

211. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil based
lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
A. 65 -85 C.

212. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
A. + 1.0 bar

213. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low pressure
auxiliary boiler?
A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3.

214. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the discharge
valve closed for an extended period of time?
A. The pump will eventually overheat.
DPKP

215. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling water flow
through the condenser?
A. Increased delivery pressure

216. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement, what is the
purpose of the clarifier?
A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal. B. To
stabilise the feed temperature.
C. To increase the overall throughput rate.
D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.

217. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning system
evaporator icing up?
A. Too low suction pressure.
B. Too high discharge pressure. C. Low
sea water temperature. D. High sea water
temperature..

957
218. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage.
D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from each stage is
equal.

958
 DPKP

219. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat exchanger
during operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid. C.
Pressure drop for cooling water.
D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids

220. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the cooling
system is connected to a fresh water generator?
A. Chromates are poisonous.
B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water generators.
C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh water
generator.
D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any cooling water
system.

221. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase when the
compressor is stopped.
B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
C. To boil off any water from condensation in the crankcase.
D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.

222. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems?
A. To prevent biological growth in the system. B. To
prevent corrosion of the system
C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system. D. To
reduce sediment build up in the system.

959
 DPKP

223. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water pressure in
a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
A. Prevent seawater contamination of the central cooling system
in the event of seal failure.
B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat exchanger.
D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.

224. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is the
difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil, whereas in a
purifier both solids and water are removed from the oil
B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil. D.
Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.

225. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a centrifugal
pump?
A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve. B. By
throttling of the pump suction valve.
C. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
D. By opening the pump recirculation line.

226. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion valve in a
vapour - compression refrigeration system?
A. Liquid at high pressure. B. Vapour
at high pressure. C. Liquid at low
pressure. D. Vapour at low pressure.

960
 DPKP

227. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board ship?
A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional water.
B. It is a simple system with minimum control requirements. system using only sea
C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties. D. It does
not require any seawater.

228. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh water in a
central cooling system?
A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers. B.
Insufficient cooling water treatment.
C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the turbochargers.
D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.

229. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than normal
when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?
A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned. B. High
fuel oil temperature.
C. Broken water seal.
D. Drive clutch slipping.

230. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a centrifugal
pump when it is running?
A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation. B. Water
hammer in the pump casing.
C. Fluid friction in the suction line. D. Pump
suction valve fully open.

961
 DPKP

231. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit?

A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the evaporator.
B. To control the suction pressure at the compressor. C. To
control the cargo hold temperature.
D. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.

232. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression refrigeration

compressor?
A. The same as the suction pressure.
B. The same as the discharge pressure.
C. The same as the atmospheric pressure. D. The same
as the lubricating oil pressure.

233. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor discharge
of an air conditioning system?
A. + 85 ° C B. + 5 ° C
C. -10 ° C D. + 40 ° C

234. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil throughput
rate is too great?
A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to discharge from
the water outlet.
B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will be lost.
C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil outlet.
D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.

962
 DPKP

235. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a centrifuge
in order to ensure good separation?
A. 95 - 98 Celsius. B. 85 - 88
Celsius C. 75 - 78 Celsius.
D. 105 - 108 Celsius.

236. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil based
lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
A. 65 -85 C. B. 45 - 65 C.
C. 85 - 105 C. D. < 45 C.

237. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
A. + 1.0 bar B. - 0.5 bar
C. + 5.0 bar D. + 10 bar

238. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low pressure
auxiliary boiler?
A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3. B. 0 - 100
ppm CaCO3.
C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3. D. 600 -
1000 ppm CaCO3.

963
 DPKP

239. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the discharge
valve closed for an extended period of time?
A. The pump will eventually overheat.
B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to the bilge.
C. The electric motor will eventually overheat.
D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.

240. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling water flow
through the condenser?
A. Increased delivery pressure
B. Reduced delivery pressure
C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line. D. reduced
suction pressure

241. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement, what is the
purpose of the clarifier?
A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal. B. To
stabilise the feed temperature.
C. To increase the overall throughput rate.
D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.

242. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning system
evaporator icing up?
A. Too low suction pressure.
B. Too high discharge pressure. C. Low
sea water temperature. D. High sea water
temperature..

964
 DPKP

243. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage.
D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from each stage is
equal.

244. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat exchanger
during operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid. C.
Pressure drop for cooling water.
D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids

245. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the cooling
system is connected to a fresh water generator?
A. Chromates are poisonous.
B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water
generators.
C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh water
generator.
D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any cooling water
system.

246. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase when the
compressor is stopped.
B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
C. To boil off any water from condensation in the crankcase.
D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.PKP

247. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems?

965
 A. To prevent biological growth in the system. B. To
prevent corrosion of the system
C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system. D. To
reduce sediment build up in the system.

248. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water pressure in a sea
water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
A. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central cooling system
in the event of seal failure.
B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat exchanger.
D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.

249. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is the difference
between a purifier and a clarifier.
A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil, whereas in a
purifier both solids and water are removed from the oil
B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil. D.
Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.

250. When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel stand-by system,
and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the following is a feasible sequence
of activities ?
A. Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by diesel runs. + 40 sec:
the power is restored
B. Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. « 45 sec: he stand-by diesel runs. + 60 sec :
the power is restored
C. Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 25 sec:
the power is restored
D. Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8DPKP

sec: the power is restored

251. The best way of testing the "stand-by' function of the emergency diesel alternator
is by…..

966
 A. starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any leakages or
deficiencies.
B. causing a total black-out on the ship, example in drydock or when time is available in
port.
C. by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main switch board.
D. switching on the lest run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.

252. In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced ?

A. In the rotor
B. In the sliprings
C. In the stator
D. In the excitatory

253. How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled ?

A. By the excitation current in the rotor
B. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard
C. By the excitation current in the stator
D. By the alternator speed

254. The reason why two-stage starting air compressors are used in preference to single stage
compression is that .........
A. the temperature developed by single stage compression would be too high. B. the
starting air current of a single stage compressor would be too high.
C. the power absorption by single stage compression would be too high. D. the
friction in a single stage compressor would be too high.

967
 DPKP

255. In what kind of machinery do you find this type of valve fitted ?

A. Main engine scavenge air manifold

B. Air compressors cylinder heads C.
Auxiliary diesel crankcase doors D. Ventilation
air ducts

256. Which kind of cooling water system is used with this compressor ?

A. Free flow fresh water cooling

B. Forced sea water cooling
C. Open free flow sea water cooling
D. Forced fresh water cooling

257. What is the indication of the inlet of the cooling water in position "I" of both cylinders ?
A. Water inlet of cylinders
B. Water inlet of cylinders/intercoolers
C. Water inlet of aftercoolers
D. Water inlet of Intercoolers

968
 DPKP

258. Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0 kg/cm2. What class of
compressor could this be ?
A. An instrument air compressor. B. A
service air compressor.
C. A starting air compressor. D. A
working air compressor.

259. What are the units marked "C" fitted on both cylinders ?
A. Aftercoolers
B. Cooling water vessels
C. Intercoolers
D. Cylinder blocks

260. When is manual by-pass valve of this compressor cooler ''CW" operated ?
A. During normal running to keep the temperature constant
B. In cold climates to avoid moisture
C. When the compressor is new/overhauled with new rings
D. When the compressor is started to allow for temperature rise

261. This drawing indicates the timing of the unloader and drains of a compressor.
After how many seconds will the compressor pump at full capacity ? A.
Somewhere between
7 and 14 seconds
B. 12 seconds C. 14
seconds D. 7 seconds

969
 DPKP

262. When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the
drain valves closed ?
A. So the pumping action can blow the drains
through
B. To prevent the compressor fromtripping
C. To avoid the safety valves blowing
D. To avoid air blowing in the bilges

263. Why is it necessary to start a compressor with the drains open ?

A. To get rid of all the dirt inside
B. To avoid overloading
C. To hear that it is delivering pressure
D. To blow clear the inevitable moisture of

264. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way ?
A. It keeps the suctions valves closed B. it keeps
the delivery valvesclosed C. It keeps the suction
valves open
D. It keeps the delivery valves open

265. What is the function of item "PC" ?

A. Pressure Container admitting air to air bottle
B. Piston Controller activating compressor
piston movement
C. Pressure Controller activating 3-way valve solenoid
D. Pressure Container activating automatic
pressure release valve

970
 DPKP

266. What is item "U" how does it act on item "S" ?

A. Item "U" is the unloader lifting the compressor
suction valve
B. Item "U" is the upper pressure limit valve
activating the solenoid
C. Item "U" is the activator for the safety release
valve
D. Item "U" is the uplifter of the air bottle's safety
valve.

267. What would be the pressure in the air bottle which activates the "PC" and "S" connecting
the unloader line with c and a?
A. Between 6.5 and 8.5 kg/cm2
B. Between 8.5 and 9.35 kg/cm2
C. Between 0 and 8.5 kg/cm2
D. Between 8.5 and 10.0 kg/cm2

268. What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor assembly ?
A. All of these.
B. To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping piston
C. As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder
D. To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the guide

269. In this oil-free compressor, of what material are the piston rings of the pumping piston "P"
made?
A. Ribbed alloy
B. Chromium
C. Slotted chromium
D. Carbon

971
 DPKP

270. Which main compressor is normally used to top up the main air bottles ?

No. 17 - 26

A. Main air compressor No 1

B. Main air compressor No 1 or No 2
C. Main air compressor No 2
D. Main air compressor No 1 and No 2

271. During vessel manoeuvring, which Main Air Bottles are used ?
A. No 1 and No 2 Main Air Bottle B. No 1 or
No 2 Main Air Bottle C. No 1 Main Air Bottle
D. No 2 Main Air Bottle

272. What are items "NR "fitted after the compressors.

A. Demisters
B. Oil separators C. Check
valves D. safety valves

972
 DPKP

273. What kind of filling valves are fitted on all the air bottles ?
A. High pressure butterfly valves
B. High pressure remote-control valves
C. High pressure gate valves
D. High pressure S.D. check valves

274. What is item "M" fitted in the discharge line of the Instrument Air Compressor
(I.A.C.) ?
A. A moisture separator
B. A drain valve
C. An oil separator
D. An automatic drain valve

275. What is the primary purpose of drain valves "D" fitted on all air bottles ?
A. To remove excessive oil from the bottle
B. To remove water and condensate from the bottle
C. To remove dirt from the bottle
D. To blow the bottles empty if required

276. Which of the appendages listed below is NOT usually fitted on a compressed air bottle ?
A. A manometer B. A drain
valve C. A thermometer D. A
safety valve

277. What is item "A.D." in the main air supply line from the Instrument Air Bottle ?
A. An air dryer
B. An air drain
C. An air safety discharge valve
D. An air pressure safety device

973
 DPKP

278. What are items "CP" fitted in the Working Air and Instrument Air supply lines ?
A. Pressure capacity vessels
B. Pressure relief units
C. Condensate pots
D. Constant pressure vessels

279. Suppose you find that the safety valve of the Working Air Bottle blows off at a pressure in
excess of 8.5 g/cm2. Which of the causes listed below is not a possible cause for this
lifting of the safety valve ?
A. Insufficient air consumption by the working air consumers
B. Compressor unloader is stuck in loading position
C. Pressure reducing valve from main air bottle defective or stuck
D. Setting of cut-in / cut-out pressostat wrongly adjusted or defective

280. What is part No 3 of this valve ?

A. A suction/discharge plate disc

B. A valve flexible disc C. A feather spring plate D. A disc connecting plate

281. How do you to make valve air tight during overhaul?

A. By lapping and polishing valve disc

4 and seat plate 5
B. By fitting O-rings on seat plate 5

C. By fitting cupper gaskets to the valve body

D. By machining the seat of valve disc
4 and seat plate 5

974
 DPKP

282. What will happen if the seat plate 5 is grinded too much so that the distance of the value
disc 4 in open position increases ? Same applies for the suction as well as for the delivery valve.

A. The thermodynamic efficiency decreases B. The

maximum output pressure decreases C. All of these.
D. The compression ratio decreases

283. How is the value shown here made air tight in the cylinder head of the compressor ?

A. Face to face polished in the cylinder head seat

B. An 0-ring of perbunan is fitted between valve and seat
C. A flat Teflon or Viton gasket is fitted
D. A copper gasket is fitted

980
 DPKP

284. In which kind of compressor is this type of piston assemble fitted

A. Refrigeration compressor
B. Service air compressor
C. CO2 compressor
D. Oil-free instrument air compressor

285. How is this type valve kept in place in the cylinder head of an air compressor ?

A. It is pressed down on seating by a pressure bolt in the cylinder head

B. It is fitted in a valve housing which is bolted by a flange onto the cylinder head
C. It is screwed into the value space of the cylinder head
D. It is kept in place by a collar flange, bolted on the cylinder head

981
 DPKP

286. Why is a heavy flywheel (item number 7) required on this starting air compressor
?
A. To accelerate evenly when starting
B. To absorb the large torsional forces (2 cylinder)
C. To avoid stalling when drain and unloaders close
D. To absorb the vibrations due to high speed
(900 - 720 RPM)

287. How are the cylinder liners and piston rings of main air compressors usually lubricated ?
A. Ho lubrication is required
B. By splash lubrication
C. By an oil wick
D. By a small lubricator drop by drop via the suction valve

288. In which machinery can you not add oil when running?
A. Air compressors or refrigerant compressors
B. Hydraulic power packs
C. Main Engine or Auxiliary Diesels
D. Steering machinery or stern tube header tanks

289. When would the high sea suction values be used?

A. When the ship is in shallow water
B. When the ship is deeply laden at sea C. When the
ship is in ballast condition D. When the ship is in
polluted waters

982
 DPKP

290. Can leaking stern tube seals be replaced when the vessel is afloat and if yes, how?
A. Yes, ballast the ship until the stern tube is clear of the water
B. Yes, but only the forward seal can be replaced
C. No, they can only be replaced in dry-dock
D. Yes, with divers working under water whilst the forward seal is blanked

291. How is stern tube wear down measured when in dry-dock?

A. By blade feelers inserted in the after seal
B. By a poker gauge, inserted in the plugm above the stern boss tube
C. By measuring the lift on the shaft
D. By blade feelers inserted in the forward bush from the engine roo

292. What is the purpose of the 3-way cock sited in the lowest point of the stern tube oil circuit?
A. To change from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit
B. To drain or sample the oil from the stern tube bearing
C. To remove air from the system
D. To fill oil in the system

293. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level?
A. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
B. Ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal
C. Ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal
D. To prevent bilge water entering the stern tube

294. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lub oil system to remove metallic particles?
A. A Metal edge strainer
B. A Fuller's earth strainer
C. A Magnetic basket strainer
D. A Simplex strainer

983
 DKP

295. What is the steering system oil tank within the steering pedestal?
A. Header tank for the auto pilot control system
B. Main hydraulic system header tank
C. Lubrication tank for the steering gear linkage
D. Reservoir for the telemotor system

296. What type of filling value is fitted on all air bottles?

A. High pressure S.D. check values
B. High pressure remote-control values
C. High pressure gate values
D. High pressure butterfly value

297. What regular maintenance is required on the burner?

A. Cleaning and resetting of the air register
B. Overhauling of the shut-off valves
C. Renewing of the electrodes
D. Cleaning of the burner tips

298. What is the first action when flashing up a boiler?

A. Start up the water feed pump
B. Clean the burner nozzle C. Purge
furnace with air D. Power the oil
pressure

299. What is the effect if the fuel oil temperature is too low?
A. Flame impingement and refractory damage
B. Blocking of fuel filters
C. Fuel delivery pump cutting out
D. Flame failure

984
 DPKP

300. What is the most dangerous effect of water in fuel?

A. Damage to furnace refractory
B. Loss of boiler efficiency
C. Extinguishing of burner flame
D. Poor combustion

301. What purpose is the settling tank?

A. To settle out sludge
B. To settle out all impurities
C. To settle out water
D. To settle out suspended solids

302. What is the function of a Viscotherm?

A. Controlling fuel pressure and temperature
B. To control viscosity by altering temperature
C. To regulate the fuel pressure
D. To control the fuel temperature

303. What is the most damaging fuel contaminant?

A. Plater
B. Sludge
C. Bacterial growth
D. Suspended solids

304. What are gauze element filters designed to remove?

A. Fine non-metallic solids
B. Water and sludge C. Metallic
particles D. Coarse solids

985
 DPKP

305. What could be the purpose of checking the fuel pump spill position?
A. To check the position the fuel pump ceases delivery. B. To
check the tightness of the pump delivery value.
C. To check the amount of fuel the pump will deliver.° D. To
check the start point of injection

306. How does the fuel pump rack adjust the fuel delivery?
A. By altering the length of time the fuel pump roller contacts the cam
B. By increasing the delivery pressure
C. By altering the opening and closing of the delivery valve
D. By altering the effective stroke of the plunger

307. What is the required temperature in the ship's fish room?

A. From -15 to -20 deg. C. B. From -5
to -10 deg. C. C. From 0 to -5 deg. C.
D. Below -25 deg. C.

308. How are boiler tubes secured in the end plates?

A. Screwed
B. Expanded
C. Screwed collar on the outside of the plate
D. Welded

309. What is the most damaging on riveted mountings?

A. Rusting of the rivet heads B. Raising
steam too quickly C. Chloride levels too
high
D. Leakage through the rivets

986
 DPKP

310. What condition would necessitate blowing down the boiler?

A. Water level too high
B. PH reading below 7 ppm
C. Steam pressure too high
D. Chloride readings too high

311. Why are some boiler tubes not plain cylindrical?

A. To reduce scale formation. B. To
facilitate gas flow.
C. To glue a greater heating area. D. For
extra strength

312. What test is used in boilers to detect leaks after structural repairs?
A. A hydrostatic test
B. A penetrant dye crack test
C. An efficiencytest
D. Air pressure test

313. What is the term for the weakening of boiler steel, as the result of inner crystalline
cracking?
A. Caustic embrittlement. B.
Exposure stress.
C. Corrosion.
D. Alkaline stress.

314. What dailytest should be carried out on boiler water?

A. Chloride0
B. Sludge
C. Dissolved nitrogen^ D.
Dissolved oxygen°

987
 DPKP

315. What is the most dangerous effect of scale build up in the water space?
A. Flame impingement on the furnace walls B.
Overheating and deformation of furnace C. Damage to
feed water values
D. Loss of boiler efficiency

316. What is the test to determine the discharge capacity of boiler safety values?
A. Safety value adjustment test. B. Steam
stop test.
C. Pop test.
D. Accumulation test.

317. Why are cylindrical boiler end plates of dished shape?

A. Increased water capacity
B. Stronger than flat plates
C. Easier access to manhole doors
D. Better accommodates the furnace

318. What mountings must be tested daily on steaming boilers?

A. Water level indicators
B. Main feed water check values
C. Safety value easing gear
D. Boiler blow down values

319. What material is the boiler shell constructed from?

A. High tensile steel
B. Good quality low carbon steel^ C. High
grade Molybdenum steel^ D. High carbon steel

988
 DPKP

320. What is the usual pressure adjustment method on safety values?

A. Machine able adjustment rings
B. Removable shim packs C.
Different rate springs D. Set bolt and
locknut

321. What is the purpose of the scum values?

A. Draining the boiler water to the bilge
B. Removal of scum from boiler water surface
C. Removal of scum from feed tank water
D. Removal of scum from drains observation tank

322. What best describes the "easing gear"?

A. Manual lifting arrangement of safety valves
B. Feed control unit
C. Remote operation of stop valves
D. Reduction gearing to facilitate opening of main stop valves

323. What term is used to describe access holes to the boiler drum?
A. Manholes
B. Furnace inspection panels
C. Access spaces
D. Inspection holes

324. What mountings must be dismantled for inspection during survey?

A. Feed water check valves
B. Safety values
C. Gauge glass & value components
D. AIl boiler mountings

989
 DPKP

325. What is "simmer" in a safety value?

A. A metallic hammering noise
B. A hissing sound indicating that a safety value is leaking
C. A failure of a safety value to re-seat
D. Initial leakage before the safety value opens

326. What is the purpose of air release valves on boiler shell?

A. To vent the boiler when shut down.0
B. To expel air when filling the boiler. C. To
expel air when raising steam.0
D. To check when steam is being produced.

327. How is "water hammer" best avoided in steam lines?

A. Leave main stops and line values open when shutting down the boiler
B. Ensure lines are drained and open valves slowly
C. Open line valves as quickly as possible
D. Fully open main stops and line valves when raising steam

328. What controls feed water delivery?

A. Water level control of feed water inlet value
B. Steam demand
C. Water level control of feed pump
D. Feed water tank level

329. What is the function of the Low Level alarm?

A. Sound low level alarm
B. Sound alarm and shut down boiler burner C. Reduce
the oil supply to the boiler burner D. Increase the feed
water supply

990
 DPKP

330. If the gauge glass indicates no water level what is your first action?
A. Check the feed tank water level
B. Shut off all the burners
C. Blow down the gauge glass
D. Check the operation of the feed pump

331. What action would you take if Chloride readings are too high?
A. Add more chemical to the feed water
B. Drain and refill the feed water tank
C. Increase frequency of testing
D. Blow down the boiler regularly until readings are acceptable

332. What action should you take in the case of an uptake fire?
A. Shut off burners, shut down fans and close off air supply
B. Operate soot blowers to extinguish fire
C. Shut down burners but maintain fans to clear fire
D. Increase air supply to burn fire out

333. What percentage CO2 in the flue gases would indicate correct combustion?
A. 5% B. 20% C.
7% D. 13%

334. A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water to check for: A.

Sulphates
B. Nitrates
C. Phosphates
D. Excess oxygen

991
 DPKP

335. What is the most likely source of Chloride contamination?

A. Fuel heater
B. Feed water tank
C. Accommodation heating
D. Trains cooler

336. What is the possible consequence of too high a water level in the boiler?
A. Insufficient steam generation
B. Feed pump cutting out
C. Boiler shutting down
D. Carry-over of the boiler water

337. When testing for chlorides what does the test indicate?
A. Total dissolved solids present in the water
B. Phosphate present in the water
C. Alkalinity level
D. Solids in the water from sea contamination

338. What damage could be caused by raising steam too quickly?

A. Overpressure of the shell B. Lifting
the safety values C. Damage to
refractory
D. Excess soot deposits

339. What term is used for unequal distribution of burner spray in the furnace?
A. Combustion air imbalance
B. Unequal firing
C. Furnace distortion
D. Flame impingement

992
 DPKP

340. What would your first action be if the feed pump stopped?
A. Shut the main stop valves
B. Check the gauge glass readings
C. Change over to the auxiliary feed pump
D. Shut down the boiler burners

341. Is it possible to blow down a steaming boiler?

A. No, this should never be carried out
B. Yes but steam pressure should be maintained
C. Yes but never allow the level to disappear from the gauge glass
D. Only in an extreme emergency

342. How is temperature controlled in a steam oil heater?

A. Steam inlet value throttled
B. Oil flow increased
C. Steam supply pressure reduced
D. Steam outlet value throttled

343. Why is a by-pass fitted onto the cooling water of the charge air cooler?
A. To prevent overcooling of the charge air
B. To prevent the air temperature going too high
C. To allow increased Jacket water flow to the water spaces
D. To maintain the jacket water temperature

344. What precaution must be observed when fitting new anodes?

A. PTFE tape applied to the plug threads to enable easy removal
B. Ensure the anode is as close as possible to the tube plate
C. Ensure no damage is caused to the exterior surface of the anode.
D. Ensure good, clean contact is made between anode and cooler body

993
 DPKP

345. How is temperature controlled in a jacket water heat exchanger?

A. Jacket water bypassing the heat exchanger
B. Regulating the sea water inlet value
C. Seawater bypassing the heat exchanger
D. Regulating the sea water outlet value

346. What could be the effect of excess steam or reduced oil flow in an oil heater ?
A. Carbon formation
B. Deformation
C. Corrosion
D. Fitting

347. What is the plate material used in sea- water, plate heat exchangers?
A. Stainless steel
B. Bronze
C. Cupro Nickel
D. Titanium

348. Why are anodes fitted to the seawater side of heat exchangers?
A. To afford corrosion protection to the heat exchanger
B. To prevent the formation of marine growth in the water spaces C. To afford
corrosion protection for the system pipes and values D. To prevent scaling of
the tubes and tube plates

349. What is the main advantage of plate heat exchangers?

A. Require less maintenance
B. Easier to clean
C. More efficient and take up less space
D. Cheaper to install

994
 DPKP

350. How is the quality of the distilled water from a fresh water generator improved?
A. Decreasing the jacket water flow to the evaporator
B. Decreasing the seawater feed to the evaporator
C. Slowing down the output of the evaporator
D. Increasing the shell vacuum

351. What is the required salinity of the fresh water produced as drinking water onboard?
A. Below 50 ppm B. Below
7 ppm C. Below 2 ppm D.
Below 20 ppm

352. What liquid is present in the collecting point at the bottom of the evaporator?
A. Brine
B. Fresh water
C. Sea water
D. Ejector water

353. What is the maximum salinity for water produced by a fresh water generator when it is
to be used in water ube medium pressure boilers?
A. 20 ppm B. 15 ppm
C. 7 ppm D. 2 ppm

354. How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator ?

A. By the condensing effect in the condenser
B. By the vapour ejector driven bythe ejector pump
C. By pumping or ejecting out the brine
D. By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water

995
 DPKP

355. Why is a baffle plate fitted between evaporator and condenser?

A. To maintain vacuum inside the shell. B. To
prevent carry over of brine
C. To maintain the evaporator temperature
D. To cool the vapour

356. What is the main advantage of vacuum production of FW?

A. Low cost of distillation equipment
B. Utilizes waste heat from the main engine
C. Less possibility of contamination
D. Simpler to operate

357. What precaution is necessary before starting the distillate pump?

A. The vacuum in the evaporator is still minimum
B. The discharge valve of the pump is shut
C. The pump is primed via the priming line
D. Water is visible in the sight glass of the condenser

358. How far from the coast is it permitted to use Low-pressure evaporation to produce
drinking water?
A. 20 miles B. 30
miles C. 5 miles D. 12
miles

359. Why is it necessaryto produce fresh water from seawater?

A. To save cost
B. To ensure purity
C. To make use of waste engine heat
D. Limited shipboard storage.

996
 DPKP

360. What factors influence the vacuum inside the shell of a fresh water generator?
A. The temperature of the sea water cooling the condenser B. The
pressure of the ejector water on the vacuum ejector C. All of these.
D. The temperature of the fresh water heating the evaporator

361. In a single stage air compressor what is the maximum practical delivery pressure?
A. 15 bar B. 7 bar C.
3 bar D. 10 bar

362. What is the purpose of the automatic unloading value?

A. Unload the compressor at working air pressure
B. Avoid high starting current on the motor
C. Avoid the first stage relief values lifting when starting
D. Prevent damage to the values when starting

363. In the case of air-cooled compressors what form does the cooler take?
A. Horizontal box section pipes
B. Finned circular pipes
C. Honeycombed radiator
D. Vertical flattened pipes

364. What material are cylinder blocks and covers normally constructed from?
A. Fabricated steel
B. Cast steel C. Cast iron
D. Gunmetal

997
 DPKP

365. What type of values are normally found in air compressors?

A. Plate or disc values
B. Poppet values
C. Piston controlled ports
D. Slide values

366. Why is the presence of oil particularly dangerous in starting air lines?
A. It could affect the operation of the relief valves
B. The high oxygen content makes it very explosive
C. It may cause sticking of the air start values
D. It may carbon up and choke the lines

367. What shutdown device might be fitted on air compressors?

A. High air pressure
B. Low first stage pressure
C. High delivery temperature
D. Over speed

368. Which is the correct sequence after starting the compressor.

A. Drain value closes and then unloader deactivates
B. Drain closes and unloader deactivates together
C. Drain value only operates on shutdown
D. Unloader deactivates then drain value closes

369. What service is most suitable for the use of rotary compressors?
A. High pressure, tow volume B. Low
pressure, high volume C. High pressure,
high volume D. Low pressure, low volume

998
 DPKP

370. Where would you find a rotary compressor in the engine room?
A. Diesel engine charge air compressor
B. Starting air compressor
C. Control air compressor
D. Emergency air compressor

371. What slows the rudder movement when the requested position is reached?
A. The steering wheel transmitter B. The rudder
control receiver unit C. The hunting gear
feedback signal D. The rudder telemotor control

372. In a conventional rudder system when will least power be required to move the rudder ?
A. With vessel moving astern
B. Vessel full ahead at service speed
C. With the vessel stationary
D. With vessel moving slowly ahead

373. What happens if the rudder is moved in a heavy sea?

A. The tetemotor pump prevents movement by increasing the hydraulic pressure
B. The main pressure relief valves lift
C. The over pressure is absorbed by system accumulators
D. The hydraulic motor absorbs the shock

374. What is a telemotor system?

A. Hydraulic actuation of steering rams
B. Steering gear feedback system
C. Transfer of steering signals from wheel to steering gear
D. Hand actuation of steering gear

999
 DPKP

375. In a hydraulic telemotor system what does wheel movement provide?

A. Movement of the transmitter electric motor
B. Movement of the transmitter pistons
C. Transmits electrical signal to the hydraulic actuator valves
D. Direct control of the main hydraulic pumps

376. What is the purpose of Hunting Gear?

A. Limits the speed of the rudder movement
B. To transmit hydraulic pressure
C. Provides feedback to the pump control
D. To control hydraulic motor swash plate movement

377. In an electrically controlled hydraulic system what do the electrical controls replace?
A. Rudder feedback signal
B. Hydraulic control values
C. Hydraulic telemotor system
D. The hunting gear

378. What does the telemotor receiver unit control?

A. Hydraulic operating pressure B. Speed
of rudder movement C. Hydraulic control
valve
D. Main steering motor control voltage

379. What is meant by radial vane type steering system?

A. Telemotor is vane type operation
B. Hydraulic actuation is onto vanes mounted onto Budderstock
C. Steering is via rotating propulsion unit
D. Hydraulic pumps are vane type pumps

1000
 DPKP

380. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action?

A. As soon as the electric motor is started
B. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge
C. As soon as a signal is received from the telemotor receiver
D. As soon as the telemotor pump is started

381. Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is given?
A. The degree of opening of the hydraulic bypass valve
B. On the distance the hydraulic control lever is moved by the floating link
C. On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection
D. On the hydraulic pressure setting of the relief valves

382. What is the function of the relief values fitted between main hydraulic cylinders?
A. To be opened to allow emergency steering
B. To act as automatic by-pass values when the steering gear is stopped
C. To act as safety values to absorb shock and avoid damage
D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump

383. When would both steering gear motors be run together?

A. When at anchor in a confined anchorage
B. In the tropics to overcome the lowering of the oil viscosity
C. When manoeuvring in confined areas
D. When on passage to minimise wear

384. In a single motor electrical steering system what supplies the main steering motor?
A. Mains electrical supply
B. Electrical supplyfrom a local motor!generator
C. Hydraulic power delivered bythe main steering motors
D. Hydraulic power pack

1001
 DPKP

385. Mat does wheel movement control in an electric steering system?

A. Hydraulic transmitter
B. The electrical balance of the wheel and steering motor fheostats^ C. Current
supplied directlyto the electric steering motor
D. Current to the steering gear motortgenerator

386. Which of the following is a system for controlling the steering electrically?
A. Graduated stepper motors
B. Ward Leonard System
C. Compass repeater motors
D. AC-DC rectification

387. In tankers an alternate hydraulic oil supply must be automatically connected within what
time?
A. 2 minutes B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes D. 45
seconds

388. What provides power to hydraulic emergency steering system

A. Accumulators in the hydraulic system
B. Battery power to the entire steering system
C. Emergency generator running main hydraulic pumps
D. Manual operation of main pumps

389. What would be the most likely cause of high compressor discharge pressure?
A. Failure of the expansion value
B. Inadequate condenser cooling
C. Overcooling of the evaporator return
D. Ice formation on the evaporator coils

1002
 DPKP

390. Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants?

A. Freon 12
B. Ammonia
C. Freon 22
D. Carbon Dioxide

391. What could cause frost on the discharge side of the expansion value?
A. Insufficient condenser cooling
B. Chamber temperature too low
C. The expansion value being dirty or iced up
D. Air in the refrigerant system

392. Why should refrig. compressor oil be stored in small capacity drums?
A. Ease of stowage
B. Only small quantities are required
C. Refrigerator oil is hygroscopic and should not be stored in part full drums
D. Ease of handling

393. What would be fitted to relieve excess compressor pressure?

A. Pressure relief value to atmosphere.0
B. Pressure relief value to suction line. C.
Bursting disc to condenser inlet.
D. Bursting disc to compressor suction.^

394. How is an air conditioning compressor normally unloaded?

A. By throttling the discharge values
B. By throttling the suction values
C. By holding open the suction values
D. By holding open the discharge values

1003
 DPKP

395. What kind of metal must never be allowed to come in contact with freon liquid or freon gas
and why?
A. Copper, it has a harmful effect on the freon
B. Iron, it will be rapidly wasted by the freon
C. Aluminium, it dissolves in contact with freon
D. Chromium, it will overheat

396. What is the function of the expansion valve?

A. To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
B. To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
C. To regulate flow and reduce the pressure of refrigerant to the evaporator
D. To allow the expansion of the high-pressure gas before the condenser

397. What is the function of the low-pressure cut-out fitted on the compressor suction line.
A. Cut-out/cut-in device, no reset required
B. Low-pressure shutdown with manual reset C. To
prevent over pressure of the evaporator D. Safety shutdown
device with manual reset

398. What is the function of the HP cutout fitted on the compressor discharge line?
A. High-pressure shutdown with manual reset
B. High pressure cut out with auto cut-in
C. By-pass device cutting out the expansion value
D. High-pressure alarm device only

399. What is the function of the oil differential pressure switch?

A. To indicate oil is returning from the oil separator
B. As warningicut out due to oil foaming
C. High temperature alarm
D. As a low lub oil pressure shutdown

1004
 DPKP

400. What effect has the solenoid stop valve?

A. lectrically shuts down the compressor
B. Operates the stop value on the compressor discharge line
C. Stops the refrigerant from entering the evaporator
D. Shuts off the refrigerant on the compressor suction line

401. What is the correct S. G. for brine used as a secondary refrigerant?

A. 1.05
B. 1.5
C. 1.25
D. 1.1

402. What determines the brine S.G. required?

A. Capacity of refrigerant compressors B. Type of
primary refrigerant in use C. Carrying temperature
of the cargo D. Amount of brine in circulation

403. What is the required temperature in the ship's vegetable room?

A. From +4 to +6 degree C B. From +3
to -3 degree C C. From 0 to +4 degree C
D. From +8 to +12 degree C

404. What is the most usual cause of a restriction at the expansion value?
A. Moisture in the system B.
Insufficient gas charge C. Dirt in the
system
D. Blockage in the filter/drier unit

1005
 DPKP

405. What does the sight glass indicate?

A. Operation of the expansion value
B. Adequate refrigerant charge
C. Condition of the filter drier unit
D. Condition of the condenser

406. Where is the fitter/drier unit fitted?

A. At the evaporator inlet
B. Between expansion value and evaporator
C. On the compressor discharge line
D. Between condenser and expansion value

407. What is the state of refrigerant leaving the evaporator?

A. Low-pressure liquid
B. High pressure gasiliquid mixture
C. Gas at high pressure
D. Gas at low pressure

408. What is the state of the refrigerant flowing from the condenser ?
A. High pressure liquid
B. High-pressure gas
C. Low pressure liquid
D. Gas liguid mixture at evaporator pressure

409. Where is the temperature of the refrigerant highest?

A. At the expansion value
B. At the compressor discharge
C. At the compressor suction
D. At the condenser outlet

1006
 DPKP

410. When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the
drain values are closed?
A. To avoid the safety valves blowing
B. To avoid air blowing in the bilges
C. So the pumping action can blow the drains through
D. To prevent the compressor from tripping

411. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way?
A. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES open
B. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES open
C. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES closed
D. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES closed

412. Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0bar.Which compressor
could this be?
A. A starting air compressor
B. An instrument air compressor
C. A service air compressor
D. A working air compressor

413. What is part number 3 called ?

A. The primary pump
B. The purifier
C. The clarifier pump
D. the secondary pump

1007
 DPKP

414. What is shown here ?

A. A common suction mesh strainer
B. A Fuel Oil pressure line filter
C. A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter
D. A centrifugal filter

415. What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the fitter body (3) ?
A. The clamp on top of the fitter cover
B. The fitter's gasket
C. The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp
D. The vacuum created in the filter

416. What type of filter is shown here ?

A. A magnetic fitter
B. A cartridge type pressure line fitter
C. A suction wire mesh fitter
D. A rotating fitter

1008
 DPKP

417. What is the correct parts description list of this pressurised filter ?
A. 1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing
B. I = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed cartridge, 3 = Filter body
C. I = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body
D. I = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body

418. How is pump '4" driven from the purifier ?

A. By being directly attached to the gears of the purifier crankcase

B. By electric motor
C. By replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase
D. By lf-belt

1009
 DPKP

419. What is item 'F’ ?

A. A fuel shut-off solenoid

B. A normal mesh filter/strainer
C. A fine filter
D. A flow meter

420. What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier
(Tin) ?

A. 70 degree C B. 75
degree C C. 95 degree C D.
85 degree C

1010
 PKP

421. When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since the power
from the electric motor is transferred by …………. to the purifier

A. a magnetic coupling
B. Friction pads
C. a rotating coupling
D. the bowl spindle

422. What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ?

A. A plate battery heat exchanger

B. A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger
C. A finned bank block heat exchanger
D. A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger

1011
 DPKP

423. If the heated medium of this heater is oil and the heating medium is steam, excess steam supply
or sufficient oil flow could cause excessive …………... in the heater.

A. deformation
B. corrosion
C. carbon formation
D. pitting

424. What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ?

A. Marine diesel
B. Gas oil
C. Distillate diesel
D. Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1)

1012
 DPKP

425. What are items ‘F’ ?

A. Filters
B. Flow controllers
C. Flow meters
D. Fast shut-off values

426. What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank ?

A. To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use

B. As supply source of the system oil
C. To collect the system oil in use
D. All of these.

1013
 DPKP

427. What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?

A. A heavy fuel oil system

B. A blend fuel oil system
C. A marine diesel oil system
D. A gas oil system

428. What is the component marked ‘BUC’ ?

A. The Blend Unit Caforifier B. The

Base Unit Calorifier C. The Basic Unit
Controller D. The Blend Unit Controller

1014
 DPKP

429. Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the
required viscosity?

A. The diesel oil and heavyfuel oil booster pumps

B. The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater
C. All of these.
D. The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender

430. Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?

A. In unit H
B. In units DP and FP C. In unit
BUC
D. In unit BU

1015
 DPKP

431. What are the components marked 'M’ ?

A. Manometers
B. Magnetic shut-off values
C. Flow meters
D. Microprocessors

432. What are the components marked ‘F’ ?

A. Fuel pumps B. Flow

meters C. Fuel heaters D.
Fuel filters

1016
 DKP

433. Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture.

A. The blending unit controller BUC B. The

HFO daily tank
C. The blending unit BU D. The
unit H

434. What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ?

A. To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

B. To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils
C. To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes
D. To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intend for purification

1017
 DPKP

435. In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter ?
A. In bilge piping
B. In fuel oil piping
C. In sea water piping
D. In starting air piping

436. If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or it takes too
long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should change the ……………….
A. friction pad linings. B. gravity
disc.
C. purifier ball bearings.
D. O-rings and seal set of the bowl.

437. The most common reason for overflow on purifiers is ………………

A. Sall bearings worn out. B. the
wrong gravity disc.
C. dirt between purifier plates. D. water
seal broken.

438. When the density of purified oil has increased, you should …………..
A. Increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter. B. Decrease
the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter. C. Decrease the
temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter. D. Increase the temperature
and decrease the gravity disc diameter.

1018
 DPKP

439. During start up of a purifier, how will you notice when the bowl has reached the required
revolutions ?
A. The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from the starting
current.
B. The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast
C. The purifier will make a humming noise
D. The vibrations on the purifier will increase

440. Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great danger.
Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling, assembling, inspection,
maintenance. This is because ……………..
A. oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This danger is increase
because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated.
B. static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing explosion
within the purifier.
C. danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor, various control
solenoids and other required operational controls is great.
D. purifier bowls revolve at very high speed causing great centrifugal forces to act, careless
handling causes danger of disintegration.

441. If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective, what action should be taken?
A. Order the specific bowl spare part
B. Have it repaired on board if it can be done
C. Sent it to a qualified workshop for repair
D. Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advise only

442. The starting/accelerating current of a purifier is ……………% of the normal

operating current. A. 100
B. 150
C. 50
D. 250

1019
 DPKP

443. The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen correctly, in
general the more frequent the interval, the better, however intervals too short give bad
efficiency, intervals too long …………
A. will atso give bad efficiency.
B. may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt. C. will
result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge.
D. may result in water seal depletion.

444. As a rule of the thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of diesel oil
purifiers should be….. hours.
A. 4 to 5
B. 2 to 4
C. 6 to 8
D. 6 to 9

445. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 380 cSt
heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………. hours.
A. 1 to 2
B. 6 to 8
C. 4 to 6
D. 2 to 4

446. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 180 cSt
heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………hours.
A. 3 to 5
B. 2 to 3
C. 4 to 6
D. 6 to 8

1020
 DPKP

447. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of lubricating
oil purifiers used on crosshead type engine sumps should be………hours.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3

448. As a rule of the thumb, time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers
fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set at……….hours.
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6

449. The factors which determine the selection of the size of gravity disc for a purifier
are………..
A. the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific gravity.
B. the bowl speed, the oil temperature and water content.
C. the specific gravity of the oil, the oil temperature and the feed rate.
D. the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.

450. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The
purifying operation is………
A. the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and is called a two-
phase operation.
B. the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation.
C. a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water, oil, dirt).
D. the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from ater) and is called a two-phase
operation.

1021