1) What is the name given to prokaryote chromosome?

a. Genophore

2) T/F prokaryotic DNA is single and circular.

True

3) What is a nucleoid and is it membrane bound?

a. It contains prokaryote genophone
b. its not membrane bound

4) Why don’t viruses and bacteria exhibit true sex?

a. Because they replicate by binary fission.

5) T/F prokaryotes do not generate new variations via mutations as in other organisms.
a. False
b. Prokaryotes do generate new variations as in other organisms via HORIZONTAL
TRANSMISSION

6) T/F new gene combinations can originate via horizontal gene exchange in prokaryotes.
a. TRUE

7) What are plasmids?

a. Extrachromosomal DNA’s (circular)

8) T/F episomes are types of plasmids.

True
9) Episome reversibly bind to DNA
a. True

10) Give the three mechanisms of horizontal gene transmission.

a. Transformation
b. Conjugation
c. Transduction

11) What is transformation?

a. Direct uptake of DNA by a cell.

12) Can all bacterial cells undergo transformation?

a. No

13) What is the term used to describe cells that can undergo transformation?
a. Competent

14) Does transformation require cell to cell contact?

a. No

15) T/F In transformation both cells live.

a. False
b. 1 Living cell (Recipient) and a dead cell (donor)
16) What is conjugation?
a. Cells may have many different types of plasmid
i. One such plasmid is the F plasmid.

17) T/F there is cell-cell contact in conjugation.

a. True

18) T/F all the types of conjugation require cell-cell contact.

a. True

19) In the F+ F- which is the donor/recipient cell?

a. F+ donor
b. F- recipient

20) What is the conjugation tube in F+ F- conjugation?

a. Pili of the bacteria

21) F+ F- of these two cells, which have the fertility plasmid?

a. F+

22) When F+ and F- mate what types of cells are produced, F+ becomes and F- becomes?
a. F+ becomes the donor cell
b. F- becomes with recipient cell

23) Is there recombination between the plasmid and the genophore in the recipient cell?
a. No

24) T/F genes on the plasmid is not homologous to the genes on the chromosome of the recipient
cell in F+ F- conjugation.
a. True
b. genes on the plasmid is homologous to the genes on the chromosome of the recipient
cell in F+ F- conjugation.

25) What occurs in HFr conjugation?

a. HFr plasmid incorporate within the genophore creating HFr.
i. Hfr mates with F- = Hfr and F-
ii. Hfr stays Hfr
iii. F- stays F-

26) What does HFr stand for?

a. High frequency of recombination.

27) T/F in HFr conjugation there is recombination.

a. True

28) When HFr mates with F- do the cells change or stay the same?
a. Stay the same

29) In HFr conjugation which is the donor and recipient cell?

 a. F+ donor
b. F- recipient

30) T/F in HFr conjugation the HFr plasmid incorporates into the genophore.
a. True

31) F’ conjugation is also known as?

a. Sexduction

32) What is transferred in F’ conjugation and this is like what other type of conjugation?
a. Only F plasmid is transferred, just like F+  F- conjugation

33) What is the donor and recipient cell in F’ conjugation?

a. F’ donor cell
b. F- recipient cell

34) T/F in F’ conjugation the F plasmid first binds to the chromosome.

a. True

35) When F’ and F- mates what forms?

a. F’ and F’ merozygote

36) What is a merozygote?

a. It’s partially diploid and has two copied of a gene

37) T/F bacteria can have antibiotics against other bacteria types.
a. True

38) Give the three steps involved in antibiotic resistance.

a. Binds to antibiotic, disabling it
b. Binds to antibiotic target, protecting the target for the antibiotic.
c. Transport protein that expels antibiotic from the cell

39) What is transduction?

a. Transfer of genetic material from one cell to another via a viral vector
b. Most bacteriophages have limited host range so transduction mostly happen between
bacteria of same or closely related species only.

40) T/F Transduction occurs in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes but is more common in
prokaryotes.
a. True

41) Give the two types of transduction.

a. Generalized
b. Specialized

42) T/F in generalized transduction any piece of DNA from host cell can be transferred.
a. True

43) What types of viruses can undergo generalized transduction?

a. Virulent and temperate viruses
44) What type of DNA can be transferred in specialized transduction?
a. Only DNA adjacent to insertion site can be transferred.

45) T/F specialized transduction requires lysogeny.

a. True

46) What type of viruses undergo specialized transduction?

a. Temperate viruses

47) What is at the core of a virus?

a. Nucleic acid

48) Single stranded RNA in viruses are known as what, and give an example?
a. Retroviruses (which has a reverse transcriptase)
b. HIV

49) T/F viruses are highly specific.

a. Yes

50) What are bacteriophages?

a. They take up fragment of DNA from cell 1 and inject it to cell 2 increasing genetic
diversity.

51) What is the outer coat of a virus known as?

a. Envelope

52) T/F viruses can have double/single stranded DNA/RNA.

a. True

53) Some animal viruses are enveloped, what is the envelope?

a. Lipid bilayer outside of capsid

54) What is the envelope derived from?

a. From host cell

55) What are the two functions of the envelope?

a. Gives an added layer of protection of the nucleic acid core
b. Helps to attach to the host cell

56) What are the two types of viral cycles, explain each?
a. Lytic cycle
i. Undertaken by virulent viruses
ii. Example: bacteriophage
1. Attachment
2. Penetration of genetic material
3. Make viral components
4. Assembly
5. Lysis (release virion)
57) What types of viruses undergo the lytic and lysogenic cycles?
a. Lytic: bacteriophage (virulent
b. Lysogenic: retrovirus (temperate)

58) Which of the above cycles do bacteriophages use?

a. Lytic

59) Which cycle does HIV1 use?

a. Lysogenic

60) The lysogenic cycle allows for more viruses to be made than the lytic cycle, why is this?
a. It enables multiple cells to stay alive and more cells will produce viruses

61)Explain the difference between generalized and specialized transduction.

1. Generalized transduction: Any piece of DNA from host can be transferred. Virulent and
temperate.
2. Specialized transduction: Only a few genes are transferred usually DNA adjacent to insertion
site can be transferred. Only temperate.

62)What are prions and type of diseases do they cause?

a. Infective proteins
b. Cause of Spongiform encephalopathies

63)What type of protein is the PrPC?

a. Protein that causes PrPC (normal)
b. Type of protein Transmembrane
c. Secondary structure: alpha helix

64)What type of secondary structure does it have? Give the mutated version of the prPC
gene and give the secondary structure that it presents
a. PrpSc (fatal
b. Beta pleaded sheets that don’t work properly, in the golgi and they will stick and
decompose

65)Give the name of the spongiform encephalopathy that infects; sheep and goats, mink,
deer elk and mouse, cattle and cats.
a. Scrapie: sheep and goats
b. Transmissible Mink Encephalopathy (TME): mink
c. Chronic wasting disease (CWD): mule, deer, elk
d. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE): cows
 66)Give the names of the spongiform encephalopathy that infects humans.
a. Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease (CJD)
b. Variant Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease (VCJD)
c. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker Syndrome (GSS)
d. Fatal Familial Insomnia (FFI)
e. Kuru
f. Alpers Syndrome

67)How do different types of chromosomes differ from each other?

a. By the position of the centromere
68)Give the types of chromosomes that are present in humans.
a. Metacentric
b. Submetacentric
c. Acrocentric
69)How are chromosomes arranged?
a. Chromosomes are arranged from largest to smallest
70)T/F chromosome 22 is slightly larger than 21. ‘

False

71)In the human genome which chromosome is the largest?

Chromosome #1: metacentric

72)Give all the metacentric chromosomes.

1,3,16,19,20

73)Give all the acrocentric and submetacentric chromosomes.

Acrocentric: 13, 14, 15, 21, 22, y

Submetacentric 2 to 12, 16-20, X, Y

74)What does SAT chromosomes contain and what do they associate with?
a. Contain satellite DNA that associate with NORs

75)What is NORS?
a. Nuclear Organizing Centers

76)On what type of chromosomes are SAT DNA found?

a. Acrocentric
77)T/F in humans the acrocentric chromosome has satellite regions.
a. True
78)What are banding patterns used for?
 a. Aka. G banding.
b. Stains chromosomes in metaphase phase
c. to know in metacentric which is p and which one is q

79)What are ideograms?

Cartoons of chromosomes

80)What does 3q 12.2 signify?

a. 3= chromosome number
b. Q= arm
c. 12.2 =region

81)Which banding technique identifies pattern when chromosomes are exposed to giemsa
stain.
a. G banding
82)Which banding technique distinguishes areas rich in nitrogenous bases A and T.

G- banding

83)T/F G banding the most common banding technique.

a. G banding
84)What is reverse banding and what does it identify?
a. Staining reverses light and dark pattern of G bands
b. Identifies regions rich in nitrogenous bases C and G
c. Dark microscope

85)What is Q banding and what is it viewed under?

a. Staining with Quinanine mustard
b. Viewing under UV light
c. Stains like G-banding (heterochromatin)

86)What is represented by ideograms?

a. Used to designate positions of genes
b. First: represent chromosomes
c. Second: arm
i. Numbers start in centromere to telomere in each arm separately
87)Why are metaphase cells needed to prepare a karyotype?
a. because they have maximum condensation
88)Can RBC be used to prepare a karyotype, why/why not?
a. No, they lack nucleus
89)What is the use of colchicine?
a. Arrests/stops mitotic spindles
i. cell dies, squish it and take its condensed chromosomes
90)What are mutations?
a. Heritable changes to DNA that can be passed on to a daughter cell
91)What is the difference between point and chromosomal mutations?
a. point mutation: changes individual base pairs
b. chromosomal mutations: changes to parts of chromosomes or entire chromosomes
92)What is the difference between somatic and germ line cells?
a. Somatic cells: any cell that’s not sex cell, cannot be passed onto offspring.
b. Germ-line cell: produce sperm and egg , cells that undergoes meiosis (can be passed to
offspring)
93)Explain rearrangements in terms of chromosomal mutations.
a. change the structure of individual chromosomes. May be:
i. Balanced :chromosomal set has normal compliment of genetic material
chromosome after mutation has the same genes as before
ii. Unbalanced :additional or missing material. After mutation either added or
missed genes
94)Rearrangements can be balance or unbalanced explain the difference between each
two.
i. Balanced :chromosomal set has normal compliment of genetic material
chromosome after mutation has the same genes as before
ii. Unbalanced :additional or missing material. After mutation either added or
missed genes
95)T/F Stable rearrangements can be passed on to offspring while unstable
rearrangements cannot.
a. True
96)What does it mean for a chromosome to be unstable?
a. Unstable: loss of centromere
97)Give the types of chromosome number changes.
a. Aneuploidies
b. Polyplodies
98)What is chromosomal duplication.
a. Part of chromosome is doubled or more multiplied (tripled…)

99)T/F chromosomal duplication can only be balanced.

a. False. chromosomal duplication is only unbalanced and stable.

100) What is the cause of chromosomal duplication?

a. Most often due to unequal crossing over during Prophase I

100) T/F chromosomal duplication often leads to phenotypic effects due to the imbalances
in gene product that affect development.
 True.

Example: dosage effect in Barr Body

101) Give the types of duplication and explain.

o Tandem duplication: next to each other those letters could be genes (ABCDE *
ABABCDE)
o Displaced duplication: not located adjacent to each other (ABCDE * ABCDEAB)
o Reverse duplication (inverted): sequence is duplicated and inverted (ABCDE *
ABBACDE)

102) T/F the more copies of a gene inherited the more severe a condition.

True. Too much of something can lead to change in the phenotype.

103) T/F duplication can lead to gene families.

True.

104) Can duplicated genes assume different roles in an organism?

Yes. Duplicated genes can assume different roles in an organism

105) What is a pseudogene?

non-functional gene that arose from a duplication event

106) T/F in endoreduplication: the original gene may, gain an extra function, gain an extra-
functional copy or lose its function.

True

107) What are deletions in relation to chromosomal mutations.

a. Loss of chromosomal segment losing part of a chromosome to another one but not gaining
anything from the other one

108) T/F deletions may be balance/unbalanced.

True

109) What are deletions most likely due to?

a. unequal crossing over during Prophase I

b. chromosomal breakage

110) Heterozygote individuals may have phenotypic effects due to?

i. Gene product imbalance (dosage effect)

 ii. Pseudodominance: recessive allleles on normal chromosome may be expressed (
iii. Haploid insufficient: 2 copies of a gene may be needed for normal expression

111) Explain pseudo dominance.

i. In the cross of homozygous receive and homozygous dominant, there is an expected

heterozygous of the next offspring, but dominant allele gets deleted and recessive gets
expressed  this is fake dominant  pseudominance

112) Give an example of a disease that is due to two copies of gene needed for normal
expression, but one copy is deleted. : haploid insuffiency

- Cri-du-Chat Syndrome
o Cry like a cat
o Due to deletion of chromosome 5 (5p)

113) What are inversions?

part of chromosome is flipped

a. Balanced not adding or removing anything = balanced

114) T/F inversions may be balance/unbalanced.

False. Balanced

115) T/F inversions may be stable/unstable.

True

116) T/F inversions involve the turning around of chromosomes.

True

117) When does inversions occur?

a. in crossing over, putting seq but in an inverted order

118) What is changed when there is an inversion?

a. Alters the position and sequence of the gene (in a reversed order)

119) Inversions may be paracentric/pericentric, explain each.

a. Can be Pericentric = have a centromere

b. Can be Paracentric = does not have a centromere (next to)
120) What can crossing over in a heterozygote with a paracentric inversion lead to?

abnormal gametes

121) What happens with and without crossing over when there is an inversion in
heterozygous for pericentric inversion?

o can lead to abnormal gametes (half gametes don’t work) only if heterozygotes
o when there is no crossing over, nothing happens

122) What is the meaning of acentric and dicentric?

o Acentic: no centromere
o Dicentric: 2 centromeres

123) What is the effect on fertility by the above?

o 50% decrease in fertility by acentric and dicentric.

o Acentric: no spindles
o Dicentri: two sindles attach.

124) If the gamete is homozygote is there a problem with inversions?

no

125) T/F if a cell is heterozygote for inversed chromosomes an inversion loop is formed.

true

126) T/F inversion for a inverted chromosome is highly unlikely.

127) In dicentric how many chromosomes are pulled to the opposite side of the
cell. Paracentric

Two centromeres are pulled to opposite side of the cell.

128) Does the chromosome break down in dicentric?

chromosome breaks leaving pieces with extra or missing segements when the cell divides

129) T/F in acentric when the cell divides fragments of chromosomes are lost because a
centromere is required for cell division.

True
130) In pericentric inversion there is a 50% reduction in fertility, what is this due to?

 inversions at different spot than the original one

 chromosomes missing a lot of genes
 mass duplication

131) Why are they phenotypic effects if inversions are balanced?

 Some genes are position depends, so position is very important.

 Position effect = many genes are regulated in a position dependent manner
 if their positions are altered they may be expressed at inappropriate times or in
inappropriate tissues

132) Give an example of position effect.

HOX HOM gene

133) T/F position genes may be expressed temporally/spatially.

True

134) Explain spatial and temporal collinearity.

Spatial colinearity : expression from head to toe

Temporal colinearity: later stuff are expressed earlier than they should

135) What is translocation?

a. Transfer of a chromosome segment to another non-homologous chromosome

136) T/F translocation may be reciprocal/nonreciprocal.

true

137) T/F translocation may be balanced/unbalanced.

true

138) Why does translocation result in abnormal phenotypes?

i. Position effect: transferred region may expose genes to a new regulatory

mechanism
ii. Chromosomal Breaks: may occur in a gene and affect its functioning

139) What is Robertson translocation?

 o Exchange between 2 acrocentric chromosomes that results in:
 one metacentric or submetacentric chromosome and a fragment
a.
140) What does the Robertson chromosome contain?

The two long arms of two acrocentric chromosome

141) What is the cause of 4% of down syndrome in humans?

Robertsonian Translocation

142) Give the two most common Robertson chromosomes in humans.

 13q with 14q

 14q with 21q

143) How can ring chromosomes arise?

When telomeres are lost, leaving sticky ends to adhere

144) T/F most ring chromosomes consists of DNA repeats and don not effect health. But
some do

True

145) What are isochromosomes.

The same is front and back p and q arms are mirror images of each other

146) Give examples of isochromosomes.

Chromosomes 12 and 21 and the long arms of x and y

147) What are fragile sites?

- Regions of chromosomes that appear to be “hanging by a thread”

148) What is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation in humans?

Fragile X Syndrome

149) What is the cause of fragile sites?

- Caused by CGG trinucleotide repeat (anticipation) caused by unequal crossing over

- Trinucleotide repeat.

150) What are aneuploidy and polyploidy?

- Aneuploidy
o Possessing more of fewer individual chromosomes (n)
 - Polyploidy: having extra sets of chromosomes (having more than 2n)

151) How can aneuploidies come about?

o May arise from:

 chromosome loss meiosis (the daughter cell will not get the
normal amount of chromatid) one with chromatid one without
one
 nondisjunction

152) What is the most common way that an aneuploid can be formed?

Non-disjuction

153) When can nondisjunction occurs?

happens in meiosis I and meiosis II anaphase

154) Explain the following types of non-disjuction:

amphitelic, syntelic and monotelic using diagrams.

Amphitelic: seen in mitosis and meiosis II. pairs of sister kinetochores must have one sister
attached to MTs emanating from each of the two spindle poles

Syntelic: there is an an error on the same side. One daughter cell has both chromosomes
and the other daughter cell has none. the two kinetochores of a given chromosome may attach
to microtubules from the same spindle pole.

Monotelic: occurs when one of the two sister kinetochores of an individual chromosome is attached
to one spindle pole. Seen in meiosis I

155) For the following types of aneuploids; give the chromosome number; nullisomy,
monosomy, trisomy and tetrasomy.

a. Nullisomy = (loss of both members of homologous pair) 2n – 2 = 44

b. Monosomy = (loss of a single chromosome, happens in humans) 2n – 1 = 45
c. Trisomy = (gain of a single chromosome, thus three chromosome pairs,
happens in humans) 2n + 1 = 47
d. Tetrasomy = (gain of two homologous pairs), 2n + 2 = 48

156) How does aneuploidy affect phenotypes?

By altering genedosage (too much or too little) protein product can be affected
157) T/F having extra chromosomes causes miscarriages.

true

158) Do aneuploidies occur in humans?

Yes.

159) What is the most common type of live birth aneuploid in humans and why does this
occur?

Those that involve sex chromosome (dosage, compensation)

160) Which chromosomes are most likely to lead to live birth aneuploids?

Chromosomes 13, 18, and 21

They have the smallest number of genes  effect is greater.

161) T/F persons with aneuploidies do not survive long.

True

162) T/F Kleinfelder’s syndrome is nullisomy.

False, Kleinfelder’s syndrome can be trisomy or tetrasomy

163) What turns off the extra x chromosome in Klinefelder’s syndrome?

bar body

164) What is the phenotype of a child with the above disease?

Breast development, tall, lanky, small penis and testes

165) What is the only exception where a male(female?? has a Barr body?

1. Kleinfelter Syndrome

166) What is the cause of Kleinfelder’s syndrome?

Nondisjuction of the mother or the father.

167) T/F only females have Barr bodies.

false

168) How many chromosomes does a person with Turner’s syndrome have?
 a. 2N = 45, XO

169) What is the phenotype of a person with Turner’s syndrome?

a. Short, broad chest, lack of sexual development

b. female

170) T/F a person with Turner Syndrome has 1 Barr body.

False, no barr bodies

171) T/F females with Turner’s syndrome are monosomic.

True: 2n-1

172) What is the pseudo-autosomal region and how does it relate to a female with Turner’s
syndrome?

a. some parts of X chromosome are not turned off

b. which is why she has this phenotype

173) Give the number of chromosomes and Barr bodies present in a metafemale.

 2N = 47 chromosomes, XXX (or 48, XXXX, etc.)Trisomy

 2 Barr bodies

174) T/F metafemales have a trisomy aneuploidy.

True

175) Give the number of chromosomes present in a meta-male.

 2N = 47, XYY  trisomy

 No Barr bodies

176) How many Barr bodies are present in a meta-male?

a. No Barr bodies

177) T/F meta-males are monosomic.

False. Metamales are trisomic

178) Give all the sex chromosome aneuploidies.

1. Kleinfelter Syndrome  trisomy

 2. Turner Syndrome  monosomic
3. Metafemale  trisomy
4. Metamale  trisomy

179) T/F Edwards syndrome is an example of autosomal aneuploidy.

true

180) What is Edwards syndrome also known as?

1. known as Trisomy 18

181) How many chromosomes 18s does a person with Edwards syndrome have?

a. Boy: 47, XY
b. Girl: 47, XX

182) What is Pateau’s syndrome also known as?

Trisomy 13

183) How many chromosomes 13 does a person with Pateau’s syndrome have?

a. Boy: 47, XY
b. Girl: 47, XX

184) T/F Pateau’s syndrome have variable expressivity.

True

185) Give the phenotypic effects of Edward’s and Pateau’s syndrome.

a. Edward’s Syndrome (18): Joints are bent, sloping forehead, have larger ears when
compared to the head
b. Pateau Syndrome (13): major facial deformation, variable expressivity

186) What is down syndrome also known as?

Trisomy 21

187) How many chromosomes 21s does a person with down syndrome have?

47

188) T/F down syndrome can be inherited.

 False. Not inherited, accident in meiosis

189) What is the most common autosomal aneuploidies?

Down Syndrome

190) T/F 4% of the known cases of Down syndrome is familial.

True. And it’s caused by translocation

191) Why is it that there is a correlation between maternal age and Down syndrome?

o Arrested oocytes in meiosis I may lead to mitotic spindle breakdown with

increasing age
o normal egg zygotes do not work as they are supposed to later in life.

192) T/F after age 30, Down syndrome is highly probably.

True

193) T/F aneuploidy is mostly paternal and meiosis 2.

False. Aneuploidy is mostly maternal and meiosis I

194) Polyploidy may be autopolyploid or allopolyploid, explain each.

Autopolyploid :
 sperm and egg from same species form zygote egg has 46 chromosome and another
egg has 23
 caused by accident of mitosis or meiosis that produce extra sets of
chromosomes
 all derived from single species

Allotriploid of A& B
 chromosomes sets come from 2 different species
 hybridization

195) Organism A=30 and organism B=10, give an allotriploid of A and B, and an auto-
triploid of A.

Allotriploid=15+5

196) What is the triploid condition?

Three set of chromosomes in every chromosome

enlarged head

197) What is uniparental disomy?

 Both chromosomes of homologue pair come from 1 parent
 both copies of chromosomes came from the same parent

198) What did uniparental disomy arise from?

Probably from a trisomy in which oe of the chromosomes is lost early in the development

199) What is chromosomal mosaicism?

o Some cells are have normal number of chromosomes and some don’t have normal number
of chromosomes  abnormal karyotype

200) Why is that the earlier in development non-disjunction occur, the more severe the
potential phenotypic effects.

Because more cells are affected

201) What are nucleic acids heteropolymers of?

Nucleic acids are Heteropolymers of nucleotides

202) What is a nucleotide made of?

-Nitrogenous base

-Phosphate

-Pentose sugar

203) Which number carbon is the nitrogenous base and the phosphate attached to?

Nitrogenous base attached to 1st carbon

Phosphate attached to 5’ carbon

204) Give the two types of sugar present in

Deoxyribose lack -OH on the 2’ carbon

Ribose has two OH OH

205) What are the bases in DNA?

Adenine

Guanine
 Cytosine

Thymine

206) T/F DNA is antiparallel.

true

207) What are the bases in RNA?

Adenine

Guanine

Cytosine

uracil

208) T/F there are more types of DNA than RNA.

False

209) What is a heteropolymer?

different monomers joined by covalent bonds

210) How many rings do purines and pyrimidines have?

Purines: 2 ring

Pyrimidines: 1 ring

211) Give the purine and pyrimidine base pairs.

o Pyrimidines = single ring * C, T, U (All contain a y in it)

o Purines = two rings = A, G (ALL GIRLS are Pure)

212) What is the name of the bond present in the sugar phosphate backbone of DNA?

Phosphodiester linkage

213) Explain base complementarity in relation to DNA base pairs.

G and C = 3 hydrogen bonds A and T = 2 hydrogen bonds

214) What is the distance between each base pair of the backbone of DNA?

0.34 nm
215) How many base pairs are present in each 360 degree turn of DNA?

10 base pairs

216) T/F when DNA turns a major and minor groove is formed.

true

217) T/F there are various forms of DNA.

true

218) Give and explain the three types of DNA.

- A form DNA = observed in lab under certain conditions, right handed helix, more
compact
- B form DNA = right handed helix, less compact, seen in living cells. Most hydrated.
- Z form DNA = left handed helix

219) Give the name of the scientist that isolated various forms of streptococcus pneumonia.

Frederick Griffith

220) Explain the experiment of Frederick Griffith.

- Isolated different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae (Type I, II, III, etc.)

o Type I R and Type II R or
o Type I S or Type II S, etc.

- The virulent (disease-causing) forms of a strain are surrounded by polysaccharide coat, which
makes the colony appear smooth on agar plate = S (smooth, pathogenic)

- Found virulent forms sometimes mutated to nonvirulent forms, that lack a polysaccharide coat
and produce a rough appearing colony = R (rough, nonpathogenic)

- A substance in the heat killed virulent bacterial genetically transformed the type IIR
bacteria into live, virulent type IIIS bacteria.

221) What did he discover?

Transforming principle

222) What is the transforming principle?

- Substance responsible for transformation

- DNA is the transforming principle in the mouse scenario
223) What did Walter Sultan and T.H Morgan discover?

- The behavior of chromosomes during meiosis mirrored the behavior of Mendel’s

“factors”
- Transforming principle was located on the chromosomes; but chromosomes are made of DNA
- This provided the first evidence that DNA is the genetic material, which went against the
hypothesis that the genetic material is protein

224) Walter Sultan and T.H Morgan found evidence that DNA was the genetic material, but
chromosomes consisted of both protein and DNA so how was DNA the genetic material?

- Transforming principle was located on the chromosomes; but chromosomes are made of DNA

225) Which scientists proved that DNA was the genetic material, and how did they achieve
this?

Hershey and Martha Chase

Abrey and Morgan

226) What was the perfect test model, for the proof that DNA was in fact the genetic material?

- T2 virus (bacteriophage) that infects E.coli; made of DNA and protein

227) Explain the Hershey and Martha Chase experiment.

- Protein coat was labelled radioactively: phage DNA = 32P (phosphorus) and protein = 35S (sulfur)
only a.a have sulfur unlike RNA and DNA
 - Used isotopes (radioactive forms) to follow the fate of the DNA and protein during phage
infection
- Used blender to shear off protein coats then a centrifuge to separate protein from cells; after
centrifugation, infected bacteria form a pellet (more dense) containing DNA in the bottom
of the tube and protein was found in the supernatant (less dense)
- Found that DNA, not protein, enters the bacterial cell during phage reproduction and that only
DNA is passed on to progeny phages

228) What did Maurice Wilkins, Watson and Crick use to find the 3-D structure of DNA,
explain their experiment?

- Used X-ray diffraction (crystallography) = X-rays beamed at molecule are reflected in

specific patterns that show the structure of the molecule
o Visualizes 3-D structure of molecules

A=T and C=G because purines and pyrimidines are of equal length

229) What did Rosalind Franklin discover?

The shape of DNA

230) What is Chargaff’s rule?

[A] = [T] , [C] = [D]

231) T/F DNA must be packaged.

true

232) How many base pairs per 360-degree turn does relaxed B DNA have?

10

233) T/F most DNA is relaxed.

False, its supercoiled

234) Explain positive and negative supercoiling.

Positive supercoil = in the direction of right handed coil

Negative supercoil = in the direction of left handed coil

235) What relaxes DNA and by what mechanism?

Topoisomerases I and II: cut half of a phosphodiester bond

236) Give an example of topoisomerase.

DNA gyrase (type II)

237) What is bacterial chromosome known as?

Genophore

238) T/F bacterial DNA is linear.

false

239) Where is bacterial DNA found?

nucleoid

240) Is bacterial chromosome associated with proteins?

Yes, non-histone

241) How is bacterial chromosome packaged?

as a series of loops

242) Where else can bacterial DNA be found?

mitochondria and chloroplasts

243) Give the characteristics of eukaryotic chromosome.

- Linear
- Found within the nucleus

244) What does chromatin consist of?

- Chromatin = DNA and protein

245) What is heterochromatin and euchromatin?

- Heterochromatin = tightly packed; not expressed

- Euchromatin = not tightly packed; expressed
246) What are histones and give the types?

- Proteins = histones (H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4)

247) What is a nucleosome?

- Nucleosome is octameric (8 proteins)

248) What forms a nucleosome?

- 2(H2A, H2B, H3, H4) (8 histone proteins) form a histone octet

- DNA is wound around histones

249) Which is the biggest histone protein that acts as a clip?

- H1 is the biggest one

250) Explain how chromosomes are arranged in the nucleosome.

251) T/F histones can be made of lysine and histidine, but not aspartate or glutamate.

True.

252) What is a chromatosome?

H1 and nucleosome

253) What types of roles do non-histone chromosomal proteins have?

o Structural roles = scaffold proteins

o Genetic roles = activators, repressors, transcription factors, polymerases

254) Explain the order of chromosome formation.

o Double-stranded helical structure of DNA

o Nucleosomes
o Chromatosome
o Fold into 30 nm fiber
o Forms loops averaging 300 nm fiber in length
o 300 nm fibers compresses and folds into 250 nm wide fiber
o Tight coiling makes the chromatid
o Two chromatids join at the centromere and form chromosome
255) What is spacer DNA?

DNA that joins the nucleosomes

256) Where do the spindles attach?

kinotochore

257) T/F in metaphase there is maximum condensation.

true

258) What is the centromere, made of heterochromatin or euchromatin?

Heterochromatin

259) What type of sequences are present on the centromere?

- Particular sequences repeated many time

260) T/F the telomere sequences may be diffused or localized.

true

261) Is there a specific sequence found in all centromeres?

no

262) Why might CENH3 be needed?

Protein that changes nucleosome structure

263) Where are telomeres located?

- ends of chromosomes

264) How many telomeres does prokaryotic DNA have?

Prok don’t have any

265) Is the telomere made of heterochromatin or euchromatin?

heterochromatin
266) T/F there are repeated units in the telomere.

true

267) What protects the ends of DNA from DNA repair mechanisms?

- Caps: it maintains the integrity of a chromosome

268) T/F most of the DNA in prokaryotes is unique sequence because it is so small.

true

269) How does new proteins evolve, and which is most common?

De novo

Duplication of ancestral genes followed by diversification

Recombination leading to new combination of genes.

270) What is he C value and C value paradox?

C value: amount of dna in a call (expressed as haloid amount)

C-value paradox (organism’s complexity doesn’t depend on its DNAs amount)

271) What is denaturation of DNA?

Breaking hydrogen bonds usally by heat

272) What is the relationship between the number of CG pairs and the melting temperature
of DNA?

Higher C G higher melting temp

273) What is the melting temperature of DNA?

- Temperature where 50% of DNA molecules in the sample are denatured (made into
single strands)

274) What is the melting temperature of DNA proportional to?

the amounts of CG pairs is proportional to the melting temperature

275) What are unique genes and gene families?

 - Unique – sequence DNA (solitary genes, typical of prokaryotes not really complex to
have multiple unique genes)

- Gene families (ex: globin gene family: myoglobin, hemoglobin a, hemoglobin þ) (

duplication) start with 1 gene then duplicate it, some duplicate can have pt mutations so have
pseudogenes

276) What are pseudo genes?

- Pseudogenes = nonfunctional duplicated genes because promoter is mutated

277) What is the difference between tandem repeats and interspersed repeats?

a. Tandem repeats. repeats right next to each other (rRNA and tRNA)
b. Interspersed repeats (Scattered)

278) Give and explain the types of interspersed repeats.

i. SINE (short interspersed repeats) (Alu doesn’t do anything) =

about100s of base pairs long, (transposable element); makes up 11% of
human genome; over 1 million copies they jump around.

ii. LINE (long interspersed repeats) = more than 1000s base pairs;
makes up 17 % of human genome

279) What does it mean for DNA to be moderately and highly repetitive?

1. Moderately repetitive (150 – 300 base pairs)

a. Repeated 1000’s of time
b. Ex: rRNA genes
1. Highly repetitive
a. Satellite DNA (less than 10 base pairs or less)
b. Repeat many time
c. Ex: minisatellites used in DNA fingerprinting, useful for DNA profiling

280) Give the types of highly repetitive DNA.

Satellite DNA

281) What are transposons?

- Jumping genes
- Different types
282) Who discovered transposons?

- Barbara McClintock (in maize)

283) Can transposons cause damage?

- Yes, they Can cause damage if sequence inserts in a coding region or promoter region

284) Where can non-nuclear DNA be found?

found in chloroplasts (cDNA or cpDNA) and mitochondria (mitDNA or mDNA)

285) How was cDNA and mDNA evolved?

evolved from free living Bac that was engulfed by an organism, they both are double
membrane bound

286) From which organism was chloroplast and mitochondria evolved from?

Cyanobacteria  chrloroplasts

Mitochondria  alphaproteobacteria

287) From which parent is mitochondrial DNA inherited from?

maternal

288) In humans how many copies of DNA are present in each mitochondrion?

– 5 copies per mitochondrion

289) T/F mitochondria does not replicate independently of the cell.

False, it does

290) Give the number of strands present in mDNA.

Two strands: outer H(mor guanine) and inner L (more cytosine),

291) Which base pair is more common in the outer and inner loop of mDNA?
outer H: more guanine

inner L:more cytosine

292) Where are few non-coding sequences found in mDNA?

D loop

293) T/F there are no introns or histones in mDNA.

true

294) T/F mDNA has universal codons.

False: non-universal

295) What is the stop codon in mDNA?

tryptophan

296) What do mRNA usually end in?

UA or U

297) Which DNA polymerase does prokaryotic replication use?

DNA pol gamma

298) How many promotors does a genophore have?

1 for each strand

299) T/F all a prokaryotic DNA is transcribed at once.

true

300) T/F all the RNA’s transcribed during prokaryotic transcription is cleaved out.

true

301) T/F the H strand contains more genes.

true
302) Is there 5’ capping, polyadenylation and intron removal in prokaryotic transcription.

No

They have adynalation tho

303) What do prokaryotes use to start translation?

f-Met

304) T/F there is more wobble and less tRNA’s in prokaryotic translation.

True

305) Why is there higher rates of mutation prokaryotic translation that eukaryotic?

Because prokaryotes have only one ori site at which transcription and translation happens
at the same time.

They have higher rate of mutation which have no repair mechanisms.

306) What does replicative segregation give rise to?

homoplasmic (one has all mutations and the other doesn’t have any)
heteroplasmic daughter cell (both would have mutations)

307) What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

DNA -> mRNA -> Polypeptide

unidirectional

308) What is the true exception of the dogma?

prions

309) What is replication, why does it occur, where does it occur and when does it occur in
prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

1. Synthesis of DNA molecule using DNA template (doesn’t occur de novo-from scratch)
310) What is needed for replication?

1. DNA template;
2. A,T,C,G nucleotides (nucleoside triphosphate);
3. primase ( prokaryotes);
4. DNA polymerase with primase activity (eukaryotes);
5. single-stranded binding proteins;
6. RNA nucleotides;
7. DNA polymerases;
8. ligase; helicase; topoisomerases; initiation and elongation factors;
9. licensing factor proteins (eukaryotes))

311) T/F replication is an exothermic process.

False. Endothermic

312) What is delta G = in replication?

positive (+)

anabolic and endergonic

313) Where is the energy for replication derived from?

triphosphate cleavage (break phosphoanhydrous bonds)

314) What were the propositions for DNA replication and what was the conclusion?

- Propositions: DNA is Conservative, semiconservative and dispersive

- Conclusion: DNA replication is semi conservative, each daughter DNA consists of one old
and one new strand

315) Give the types of DNA replication and explain each.

1. Theta = circular DNAs of prokaryotes

a. unidirectional or bidirectional (2 directions)
b. only breaking H bonds not breaking backbone (1 replicon)

2. Rolling circle = conjugation plasmids; in some viruses and in the F factor of E.coli
a. breaking backbone (unidirectional) (1 replicon) segment of DNA replicated once
started replication
b. break phosphodiester backbone
c. uses 1 replicon
 3. Eukaryotic linear = eukaryotic chromosomes (bidirectional) break H bonds, many
replicons
4. Mitochondria = unidirectional from 2 origins

316) What is a replicon?

a. region of DNA that’s replicated , replicated part of a chromosome, could be

parts, or all of it (linear chromosomes)

317) What are the stages in DNA replication?

1. Initiation

2.Elongation

3.Termination

318) What is involved in the initiation step?

- Proteins bind to DNA

- Binding is not random, occurs at specific sites called “origin of replication” sites (ORI)
- ORI sites are made of A and T (less H bonds)
- In eukaryotes but not prokaryotes, eukaryotic process must be licensed (replication start at the
same time, like a race, you want to end up with the results together) EUK have a lot ORI sites,
prok have only 1
- Mini-chromosome maintenance (MCM) responsible for licensing
- Helicase binds to DNA and breaks H bonds between the bases
- Single stranded binding protein = stabilize the replication bubble; prevent the two DNA
strands from joining together

Note: In prok (use DNA polymerase)

319) T/F in initiation binding is random.

false

320) What is an ORI site and what bases is it rich in, why?

A and T

321) How many origins does prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosome have?

Prokaryotic: one

Eukaryotic: multiple ori site

322) Why is this the case for the above question?

Eukaryotes: linear chromosome

Prokaryotic chromosomes consist of a few million base pairs.

In contrast, eukaryotic chromosomes consist of hundreds of millions of base pairs.

323) What are the functions of licensing factors?

Minichromosome Maintenance Complex (MCM)

And Geminin binds to prevent MCM from continuously licensing replication

324) How many origin and replicons are present in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

Prokaryotic: 1 origin, 1 replicon

Eukaryotic: thousands of origins, thousands of replicon (Eg. Musculus)

325) Why must eukaryotic chromosomes be licensed?

Assures that replication starts simultaneously at all ORI SITES.

326) Which enzyme breaks the H-bonds between DNA base pairs?

Helicase

327) What is a replication fork and bubble?

Replication fork: one part of a replication bubble

Replication bubble: region of DNA being actively being replicated

328) What is the function of single stranded binding proteins?

Stabilizes and keeps strands apart

329) Can DNA polymerase bind to single stranded DNA?

no

330) In prokaryotes what number DNA polymerase elongates DNA?

Polymerase III
331) In eukaryotes what is the function of DNA polymerase; alpha, gamma, delta and
epsilon?

Alpha:

 53 polymerization
 initiation of nuclear DNA synthesis and DNA repair has primase activity

Delta:

 5 3(polymerase) and 35 exonuclease

 Synthesized lagging strands of nuclear strand

Epsilon €

 53 pol and 35 exonuclease

 Leading strands synthesis

Gamma

 5 3 and 35 exonuclease

 replication and repair of mitochondria DNA

332) When the primers are removed can DNA polymerase bind?

They bind to replace gaps for nucleotides

333) What are primers?

- Short sequence of RNA nucleotides, provides double stranded platform for DNA
polymerase to attach

334) What is the leading strand?

Synthesized continuously in the direction of helicase movement (5’  3’)

Made in one continuous motion

335) In which direction is the leading strand synthesized?

Synthesized continuously in the direction of helicase movement (5’  3’)

Made in one continuous motion

336) T/F the leading strand is made in one continuous motion.

True in the direction of the helicase movement

337) What is the lagging strand?

- Synthesized discontinuously in chunks called Okazaki fragments (3’ * 5’) (5*3) in the
direction opposite to helicase movement
- Ligase forms phosphodiester linkages between Okazaki fragments
- DNA pol can make phosphodiester linkages (but keep falling off)

338) Can DNA polymerase make phosphodiester linkages?

True

339) What is the function of topoisomerase?

Topoisomerase = relieves torsional stress of DNA caused by separation of strands by

helicase

340) Give the RNA and protein major complexes.

 Ribosomes
 Spliceosome
 topoisomerase

341) For DNA; alpha, gamma, delta and epsilon, say if they have 5’-3’ polymerase activity
and 3’-5’ exonuclease activity.

Alpha:

 53 polymerization

Delta:

 5 3(polymerase) and 35 exonuclease

Epsilon €

 53 pol and 35 exonuclease

Gamma

 5 and 35 exonuclease

342) What is the end of linear chromosome problem?

After replication ends:

 Each daughter DNA contains RNA primers which must be removed several enzymes
 This is accomplished by replacing gaps with DNA nucleotide by DNA polymerase
and sealed by DNA ligase using Phosphodiester bonds.

343) What replaces the RNA nucleotides with DNA nucleotides and glues the bases?

DNA polymerase

Ligase

344) What causes the 3’ overhang?

ssDNA left at the ends of 3’ of each strand

345) Why does chromosome shorten after each replication?

Because daughter DNA is shorter than parent DNA

346) T/F chromosome shortening is associated with aging.

True

347) In which cells are telomerase present and what is its function?

Oogonic, spematogonia, early embryonic cells, cancer cells.

They prevent the telomeres from breaking up.

348) What is telomerase made of?

Protein-RNA complex

349) What is the phosphodiester bond made by?

DNA ligase

DNA polymerase
Primase

350) Why is it okay of telomeres are shortened?

Its not important because they don’t code for anything.

351) T/F if a cell becomes cancerous which genes are activated?

Genes that activate the expression of telomerase

352) What does it mean when scientists say that DNA replication is faithful?

If daughter cell dna are identical to parental dna

353) Give the three reasons why the above statement is correct.

 High nucleotide selection: Dna polymerase typically selects the correct

complementary nucleotide
 DNA proofreading ability of DNA polymerase (3’5’ exonuclease activity)
 Repair mechanisms

354) What is transcription?

Syntheisis of an RNA molecules from DNA template

355) What is the resulting RNA produced from transcription called?

RNA transcript

356) Where does transcription occur?

Nucleus, mitochondria and chrloroplasts

357) What is needed for transcription?

DNA template

RNA nucleotide (nucleoside triphosphates – A, U, G, C), RNA polymerase

transcription factors- sigma factors (prokaryptes), enhancers, topoisomerases

358) What is not needed for transcription and why?

o Helicase = one of basal transcription factors bound to RNA poly has helicase
 activity (TF-H). Transcription factors does the separation and unwindings
o Ligase = no lagging strand, RNA made continuously
o Primase = RNA poly can bind to ssDNA, RNA pol can attach
o SSBP = single strand of DNA not destabilized to the degree observed in
replication. RNA polymerase can attach to ssDNA

359) Where does transcription begin?

promoter

360) In which base pairs are the promotor regions rich in?

A and t

361) Which strand of the DNA is the template?

3 to 5

362) Where is the exact site for the start of transcription?

Plus 1

363) What is the movement along the direction of transcription termed as, what is the
opposite direction?

Downstream 

Upstream 

364) How many strands serve as the template strand for transcription?

365) What are core promoters and give examples?

Eukaryotic promote sequence elements

1.initiator element (inr)

2. tata box

3. CpG island

366) What is a consequence?

Sequence on the promoter region upstream located in the TATA box rich in T and A pairs.

367) What is a gene?

368) What does a gene consist of?

Coding region

Promoting region

Other sequences required for transcription

369) Do prokaryotes and eukaryotes have coding and non-coding regions?

 Prokaryotes have no introns thus, they don’t have non-coding regions

 Eukaryotes have coding and non-coding regions

370) What are the functions of the basal transcription factor?

 Help identify the +1 site

 And they tell you which DNA strand you are supposed to use
 Tells you where RNA polymerase III should bind

371) Which RNA polymerase makes mRNA?

RNA polymerase II

372) Can RNA polymerase attach to a single strand of DNA?

yes

373) T/F RNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 5’ oh end.

false

374) Which factor binds to RNA polymerase in prokaryotes and eukaryotes to regulate
transcription?

Basal transcription factors in eukaryotes

Sigma factors in prokaryotes

375) What occurs in the initiation step of transcription?

376) T/F in the elongation the movement is upstream.

False, downstream

377) In which direction is the nascent RNA formed?

53

378) T/F the coding region in eukaryotes is interspersed.

true

379) T/F in eukaryotes and prokaryotes it’s always 1 promotor per gene.

False

In eukaryotes have multiple promoters

Prokaryotes has one 1 promoter.

380) T/F prokaryotic and eukaryotic RNA is processed.

False. Only eukaryotic is processed to mRNA

381) When is mRNA processed and how does it leave the nucleus?

Through the nuclear complex

382) What is the first step in mRNA processing?

1. 5’ cap 7-methyl guanylate: capping enzyme

383) What is added to the 5’ gap, using what enzyme?

capping enzyme

384) What is the reason for the 5’ capping?

Protects mRNA from exonuclease

And assists ribosomes in binding

385) What is the second step in mRNA processing?

2. poly A tail: polyAdinalase

386) What is the name of the enzyme that completes the above task?

RNA and protein complex  intron and removal splicing by spliceosome

387) What is added to the 3’ oh and what is the reason for this?

2. poly A tail: polyAdinalase

388) What is the final step in mRNA processing?

3. Exons get spliced and introns get removed.

389) What is the name of the RNA and protein complex what does this process?

390) T/F introns have some regulatory sequences that control the expression of some
genes.

True

391) What is removed and what is spliced in the final step of mRNA processing?

392) Why is the intron recognized?

Branched A point has specific sequences before the intron

393) Give the three mechanical machines used in the central dogma.

Ribosomes

Spliceosomes

Topoisomerase

394) What is alternative splicing?

Multiples different mRNA from the same RNA

395) What are isoforms?

Different proteins from the same gene.

396) Give an example of an isoform.

Fibroblast in Fibronectin

Hepatocyte in Fibronectin

397) What is RNA editing and when does it occur?

RNA nucleotides are altered after transcription

398) What is translation, why, when and where does it occur in prokaryotes and
eukaryotes?

- Synthesis of polypeptides using a mRNA template

- Cytosol
- When proteins are needed.

399) What are ribosomes and what does a functional ribosome consist of?

50 S and 30 S subunit

400) What does the s value refer to in ribosomes?

Svelberg or sedimentation

401) What is needed for translation?

AcyltRNAsynthasae

Initiation factor, eleongation factor, release factors

Trna

Mrna

ribosome

402) Using the construction analogy what would be the building?

Polypeptide building

Blueprint mrna

Load aminocyl synthase

Contrcution site ribosomes

Bricks amino acids.

Truck tRNA

403) What does the genetic code refer to?

the sequences of nucleotides in dna read 3 at time codon that spiffy an amino acid in a
polypeptide

404) What is collinearity?

35 DNA coding strand matches with 5 3 mrna whi

405) Give all the characteristics of the genetic code.

Almost universal

Redundant

Non-overlapping

Continuous

Code specific

406) How many codons are they, explain how this number arise?

64 codons (61 sense and 3 nonsense)

4^3

407) How many sense and non-sense codons are they?

61 sense

3 nonsense

408) How does the genetic code appear in mRNA?

53

409) What is redundancy due to?

Wobble effect on third base

410) What is wobble?

3rd base in the mrna and 1st base in the trna

411) T/F tRNA is synthesized as a single stranded molecule.

true

412) What does the charging of the tRNA involve, give the enzyme?

Adding the amino acid on the tRNA using aminacyl synthsaze

413) Where is the high energy ester bond formed?

In between the amino acids. 3’OH of the tRNA

414) Where does the energy for the charging come from?

415) What are the substrates for charging?

tRNA, tRNA synthase, ATP

416) What occurs in initiation of translation?

mRNA interacts with Ribosomal subunit

In prokaryotes, Shine-delgarno sequence is required for binding in ptokaryotes

Ribosome moves along the mRNA – translocation

417) In prokaryotes what sequence is required for binding of tRNA?

418) What occurs in elongation of translation?

419) Which amino acid is the only acid that enters at the p site?

methionine

420) Where do all other amino acids enter?

A site

421) What do these following terms mean; transcriptome, genome and proteome?

Transcriptome: all RNA in a cell

Proteins: all mRNA

Genome: all the DNa in a cell

Proteome: all the proteins

422) What happens to polypeptides after translation?

o Glycosylation
Acetylation
Phosphorylation
Methylation
Hydroxylaton
Carboxylation

423) Where does the addition of disulphide bridges occur and by which enzyme?

Rough ER by the PDI (peptide disulphide isomerase)

424) Where does glycosylation occur?

golgi

425) Which enzymes do phosphorylation?

kinase

426) What is the most common way of turning off proteins?

phosphorylation

427) What is the name of the enzyme that removes a phosphate?

phosphatase

428) What is polyteny?

Gene amplification by endoduplication

429) What is endoduplication?

Internal duplication of DNA

430) Give the four ways in which gene activity can be controlled.

The number of genes available for transcription

Control of initiation of trasncription

Control of translation
Activation/inactivation of synthesized protein

431) What is the most common method of gene control?

Control of transcription

432) What are structural gene and give an example?

Genes that code for proteins that needed for metabolism

1. Hexokinase, collage, cytoskeleton genes, elastin

433) What are regulatory genes and give an example?

Genes that code for protein that control gene expression

Ex. Enhancer genes and transcription factors

434) What are constitutive genes and give an example?

Genes that are constantly expressed

435) What are cis-acting genes and give an example?

• sites are located 5' from the

transcription initiation site (DNA) (ex. Promoter)

436) What are trans acting factors?

• bind (typically proteins) to the cis-acting sequences and help to

initiate transcription (Transcription factor)
they bind to the DNA

437) What can the cis binding site be?

It can be a promoter, enhancer or silencer

438) What are enhancers?

They stimulate protein production, maybe located upstream or downstream

439) What are silencers and DNA binding proteins?

• regulatory sequence on DNA to which proteins bind to and decrease/inhibit

transcription (cis act seq)
  DNA binding proteins have specific binding motifs

440) What are the characteristics of the helix-loop-helix and where is the binding site
located?

2 alpha helices connected by a turn

Bacterial regulatory proteins
related motifs in eukaryotic proteins
binding site: major group of DNA

441) Give the characteristics of the zinc finger and leucine zipper motif and give the
binding site for each.

Zinc Finger Motif

Loop of amino acids with zinc ion at the base
Eukaryotic regulatory and other proteins
Major Groove

Leucine Zipper Motif

Helix of leucine residues and a basic arm
2 leucine interdigitates
ALL Eukaryotic transcription factor
Binding site: Two adjacent major grooves

442) T/F the amino acid binding domains interact with the bases and the sugar phosphate
backbone usually forms H bonds with the bases.

TRue

443) What is the most common way of not turning on a protein?

not transcribing the protein

444) What is an operon?

• Cluster of genes that are simultaneously expressed (All have one promotor)
o They are all expressed at the same time
o They all work together
o Saves space by having one promoter for all the structural genes

445) T/F prokaryotes and eukaryotes have operons.

False, only prok

446) T/F all operons have one promotor.

True, save space by having one promoter for all the structural genes

447) T/F operons are all expressed at once.

true

448) Do operons work together?

yes

449) How does operons save space?

Czu they have one promoter for all of them

450) Where is the single promotor located in operons?

Upstream from several structure genes

451) What is associated with an operon that is coded for by a regulatory gene not a part of
the operon?

Regulatory proteins that are coded by regulatory genes

452) Give the two ways in which operons can be controlled.

Negative control: regulatory protein is a repressor

Positive control: regulatory protein is an acitvator

453) Give and explain the two types of negative control.

Negative inducible: The regulatory protein is synthesized as an active repressor;

transcription occurs when another molecule binds to it, causing the repressor to come
off the operator
o Negative Repressible:
Regulatory protein is synthesized in an inactive form so it's a repressor;
binds to operator only when attached to another molecule.
454) In negative inducible control the regulatory protein is synthesized in an active form
what is its effect on the operator?

it's a repressor; binds to operator only when attached to another molecule

455) When does transcription occur in negative inducible control?

Prevents transcription from happening.

456) T/F operon is normally off due to repressor protein being bound to operator.

457) Give an example of negative inducible control.

Lactose

458) Give the three genes that the lac operon binds to and give the function of each gene.

b-galatodisae breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose

breaks don lactose into allolactose (inducer)

459) T/F there’s always low levels of galactosidase, premease (transport lactose into the
cell) and transacetylase in the cell.

true

460) In what form is the regulatory protein synthesized in negative repressible control.

In inactive form

461) When does the regulatory protein bind to the operator in in negative repressible
control?

462) Give an example of in negative repressible control.

trPoperon

463) In the above example what is the function of the amino acid?

Tryptophan is the activator of the operon

464) This is an example of what type of feedback?

465) Of negative inducible and repressible control which is anabolic and catabolic?

Catabolic: inducible
Anabolic: repressible

466) What are riboswitches?

• Metabolically binding regulatory sequences

• Regulatory sequences in mRNA that when bound to small proteins, form secondary structures
that inhibit gene expression, typically by inhibition of translation
• No protein is made
467) What are features of riboswitches?

• Features:
o Usually located in the 5' UTR (Untranslated region)
o Most often inhibits translation
o Originally described in (2002) in bacteria. Later found in fungi and plants and
Archeans.

468) What is RNA interference/splicing?

• Mechanism used by eukaryotic cells to limit the invasion of foreign genes (viruses,
transposons) and to control expression of their own genes (censor or inhibit)

469) Give the two major classes of RNA interference/splicing.

o siRNA *
o miRNA *

470) What are the functions of SiRNA?

o small interfering RNA
lnhibits gene expression since it inhibits mRna
lnhibits expression of the same gene Degradation
of RNA
Pairing is perfect, part has nuclease activity, cutting it
Doesn't inhibit translation (technically not directly)

471) What are the functions of miRNA?

o microRNA
 Dicer cuts mRna
lnhibits gene expression of another gene somewhere else
Pairing is not perfect
lnhibits translation

472) What is the effect of acetylation and deacetylation on DNA?

Add acetyl group to lysine - loosens – stim TS

Remove acetyl group from Lysine – condense- inhibit TS

473) What is the effect of methylation of promoters?

Methylation of histone tails which form heterochromatin are in the cytosine of

methylation.

474) What is the effect of methylation of DNA

Cytosine bases are methylated this form heterochromatin.