ENT Midterm 2014-19 p9p I

PROPERTY
OF ALFRED DAOS

ENT Midterm 2014
1. What is the superior border of the hypopharynx?
a. Hard palate
b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Hyoid bone
d. None of the above
2. It’s three sub site/s are the hypopharynx
a. Pyriform sinus
b. Post cricoid area
c. Posterior pharyngeal wall
d. All of the above
3. Posterior placement of the lower jaw
a. Micrognathia
b. Prognathism
c. Retrognathia
d. None of the above
4. Caused by embryonal failure of the tuberculumimpar to submerge, that is, to be covered by the
lateral lingual tubercle:
a. Hemangioma
b. Median rhomboid glossitis
c. Cavernous lmphangioma
d. Scrotal tongue
5. Congenitally short lingual frenulum
a. Hairy tongue
b. Scrotal tongue
c. Microglossia
d. Ankyloglossia
6. Cleft lip is less common
a. Midline
b. On the left [if unilateral 70%]
c. On the right
d. Bilateral [if isolated 20%]
7. Millard’s technique is for
a. Cleft lip
b. Cleft palate
c. Cleft nose
d. Cleft chin
8. Von Langenback technique
a. Unilateral relaxing incision
b. Bilateral tension
c. Bilateral relaxing incision
d. All of the above
9. Rule of 10s in cleft lip/palate
a. 10 months, 10 kg, hemoglobin of 10
b. 10 days, 10 kg, hemoglobin of 10
c. 10 months, 10 lbs, hemoglobin of 10
d. 10 days, 10 pounds, hemoglobin of 10
10. Radicular cyst at the site of a previously extracted tooth
a. Residual cyst
PROPERTY OF ALFRED DAOS
b. Periapical cyst
c. Lateral radicular cyst
d. Root cyst
11. Klesdadt’s cyst
a. Nasoalveolar cyst
b. Nasopalantine cyst
c. Globulomaxillary cyst
d. Nasoglobulomaxillary cyst
12. A cystic teratoma that contains a array of developmentally mature, solid tissues. It frequently
consists of skin, complete with hair follicles and sweat glands.
a. Nasopalatine cyst
b. Dermoid cyst
c. Mucocele
d. Ranular
13. Elongation of the filiform papillae with overgrowth of pigment producing bacteria or fungi
a. Median rhomboid glossitis
b. Scrotal tongue
c. Black hairy tongue
d. Geographic tongue
14. Atrophic glossitis
a. Loss of filiform papillae
b. Pallor of dorsum
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. All of the above
15. A flat red patch or lesion in the mouth
a. Erythroplakia
b. Leukoplakia
c. Hyperplakia
d. Atrophic glossitis
16. Unilateral nasal mass in younger age group. Prone to bleeding
a. Nasal polyp
b. Nasopharyngeal cancer
c. Juvenile nasoangiofibroma
d. Hemangioma
17. Unilateral tonsillar enlargement is usually
a. Lymphoma
b. Chronic hypertrophic tonsil
c. Recurrent tonsil
d. Peritonsilar abscess
18. Tonsillar tissue in the nasopharynx
a. Faucial tonsils
b. Waldeyer’s ring
c. Lingual tonsils
d. Adenoids
19. Absolute indication for tonsillectomy
a. Cor-‐pulmonale
b. Sleep apnea
c. Malignancy
d. All of the above
20. Management for peritonsillar abscess
a. Aspiration with large bore needle
b. IV antibiotics
c. Oral antiseptic
d. All of the above
21. Avascular hard substance of the tooth
a. Enamel
b. Dentin
c. Neck
d. Crown
22. Tooth present in permanent but not in deciduous dentition
a. Central incisor
b. 1st molar tooth
c. Lateral incisor
d. 3rd molar tooth
23. All lingual papillae have taste buds EXCEPT:
a. Filiform
b. Fungiform
c. Foliate
d. Vallate
24. This intrinsic muscle forms the main bulk of the tongue
a. Transverse
b. Vertical
c. Longitudinal
d. Horizontal
25. Provides special sensation to the post sulcal part of the tongue
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Hypoglossal nerve
c. Lingual nerve
d. Chorda tympani
26. Provides general sensation to the pre-‐sulcal portion of the tongue
a. Chorda tympani
b. Lingual nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Pharyngeal plexus
27. The soft palate muscle forms the posterior wall of the tonsil
a. Levatorveli palantine
b. Musculus uvulae
c. Palatoglossus muscle
d. Palatopharyngeus muscle
28. Superior border of the epipharynx
a. Skull base
b. Soft palate
c. Epiglottis
d. Cricoid cartilage
29. Divides the primary and secondary palate
a. Sulcus terminalis
b. Foramen cecum
c. Incisive foramen
d. Palatoglossus muscle
30. Encroaches on the stomadeum to form the primitive oral cavity during week 5 of embryonal
development
a. Mandibular process
b. Frontonasal process
c. Lateral palatine process
d. Maxillary process
31. Contents of the oral cavity
a. Palatopharyngeus muscle
b. Pharyngeal tonsils
c. Hard palate
d. Uvula
32. Subglottis is the region of the larynx between the
a. True vocal cord and 1 cm below it
b. Laryngeal ventricle to the inferior border of the cricoids
c. Base of epiglottis to the laryngeal vestibule
d. Area below the true vocal cords to the cricoid cartilage
33. Malignancy of the true vocal cord of the larynx metastasize late because
a. Most cancers of the larynx are slow growing
b. The glottis region is devoid of lymphatics
c. Cancers of the larynx is generally rare
d. Rigidity of the Renke’s space preventing malignancy to spread
34. Method of laryngeal evaluation where subsequent manipulation or operation can be done
a. Indirect laryngoscopy
b. Flexible endoscopic laryngoscopy
c. Rigid endoscopic laryngoscopy
d. Direct/suspension laryngoscopy
35. The main problem with a large epiglottic mass on the laryngeal side is
a. Airway compromise
b. Hoarseness of voice
c. Difficulty in swallowing
d. Bleeding
36. Supraglottic region is
a. From the base of the tongue to the level of the false vocal cord
b. From the tip of the epiglottis to the level of the true vocal cord
c. From the level of the false vocal cord to the level of the true vocal cord
d. From the base of the epiglottis to the level of the true vocal cord
37. The main bulk of the vocal ligament is the
a. Cricoarytenoid muscle
b. Thyroarytenoid muscle
c. Vocalis muscle
d. Cricoarytenoid muscle
38. Laryngocele or saccular cyst is located
a. In the pre-‐epiglottic space
b. Between the true and false vocal cord
c. Subglottis
d. Thyroid membrane
39. Depressor of the larynx
a. Mylohyoid
b. Genloglossus
c. Digastrics
d. Omohyoid
40. The true vocal cord is located at the level of the
a. Hyoid bone
b. Thyroid cartilage
c. Cricoid cartilage
d. Thyrohyoid membrane
41. Visual examination for the larynx is mandatory for patient with hoarseness of:
a. One week duration
b. Two weeks duration
c. Three weeks duration
d. Four weeks duration
42. The intrinsic muscle of the larynx is innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT the
cricocothyroid muscle which is innervated by the:
a. External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
b. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
c. External branch of the inferior laryngeal nerve
d. Internal branch of the inferior laryngeal nerve
43. Deep inspiration is due to the contraction of the
a. Vocalis
b. Interarytenoid
c. Thyroarytenoid
d. Posterior cricoarytenoid
44. Mirror laryngoscopy is also known as
a. Direct laryngoscopy
b. Indirect laryngoscopy
c. Flexible laryngoscopy
d. Rigid laryngoscopy
45. Congenital laryngeal lesion associated with pectum excavatum
a. Laryngomalacia
b. Subglottic stenosis
c. Subglottis hemangioma
d. Congenital laryngeal paralysis
46. Laryngeal hemangioma
a. Most commonly seen in the glottis area
b. May regress without treatment by 5 year old
c. Treated with chemotherapy
d. The most common presenting symptom is obstruction and not bleeding
47. Congenital laryngeal disorder of the appendix of the laryngeal ventricle
a. Laryngomalacia
b. Hemangioma
c. Saccular cyst/laryngocoele
d. Congenital subglottic stenosis
48. Ventricular band is also known as the
a. True vocal cord
b. False vocal cord
c. Quadrangular cartilage
d. Aryepiglottic folds
49. The pediatric larynx is
a. Miniature adult larynx
b. Has a glottis diameter of 7mm [4mm]
c. Lies opposite C4 to C6 [adults]
d. Higher than adult larynx
50. Visualization of the larynx can be done in the out-‐patient department by the following EXCEPT
a. Indirect laryngoscopy
b. Flexible endoscopic laryngoscopy
c. Rigid endoscopic laryngoscopy
d. Direct laryngoscopy
51. Most common location of congenital hemangioma
a. Glottis area
b. Subglottic area
c. Supraglottic area
d. Interarytenoid area
52. Repetitive high amplitude contractions of the smooth muscle, with chest pain, esophageal colic
and precipitated by stress X-‐ray findings – corkscrew esophagus
a. Laryngeal web
b. Diffuse esophageal spasm
c. Achalasia
d. Zenkers diverticulum
53. Alkali ingestion
a. Superficial eschar
b. Prevents deeper penetration
c. Liquefaction necrosis
d. Coagulation necrosis
54. The following statements are NOT correct
a. The esophagus returns to the midline at the level of the 5th thoracic vertebra
b. The esophagus extends from the oropharynx to the stomach and measures 23-‐25cm in
length in the adult
c. The esophagus begins at the level of the 6th vertebrae and terminates at the cardiac orifice
at the level of the 11th vertebrae
d. The diameter of the esophagus is reduced at four points – cricopharyngeus, aorta,
left bronchus, hiatus of the diaphragm [just 3; not hiatus of diaphragm]
55. A generalized motor disorder characterized by hypertensive lower esophageal sphincter which
leads to dilatation and elongation, dysphagia, halitosis
a. Diffuse esophageal spasm
b. Diverticulum
c. Laryngeal web
d. Achalasia

MATCHING TYPE
I.
56. Cricoid cartilage a. Anterior compression
57. 40-‐45 cm from upper incisor b. Upper esophageal sphincter
58. left main stem bronchus c. Gastroesophageal junction
59. 15-‐20 cm from upper incisor
60. 20-‐25 cm upper incisor

II.
61. Between inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle a. Killians dehiscene triangle
and cricopharyngeus b. Laimer’s/Laimer haeckerman area
62. 2nd potentially weak area in posterior midline, c. Killian Jamieson area
below cricopharyngeus
63. Lateral dehiscence between cricopharyngeus
muscle and circular esophageal fibers
64. Zenker’s diverticulum

III.
65. SX: minimal and H-‐type
Go undetected for months/years
66. SX: predictable a. TEF w/o atresia
Infant will aspirate b. Esophageal atresia w/ proximal TEF
Fluids returning through the nose & c. Esophageal atresia w/ distal TEF
Mouth during feeding -‐ pools in the esophageal
Atretic sac -‐ Stomach is distended w/ air

IV.
67. Bilateral Vocal cord paralysis a. Tracheostomy
68. Surgical opening into the trachea through b. Tracheotomy
which a tube can be passed c. Secretional Obstruction
69. Congenital anomoalies involving the larynx & Trachea d. Mechanical obstruction
70. Alveolar hypoventilation
71. Surgical procedure used to create an opening

V.
72. Croup, parainfluenza 1 and influenza type A a. Laryngotracheobronchitis
73. Intrinsic narrowing of the lumen b. Tracheal stensosis
74. Affecting part or all of the treacheal wall with c. Tracheomalacia
softening of the supporting cartilages

VI.
75. Difficult decannulation a. Immediate complications
76. Dysphagia b. Delayed complications
77. Tracheal stenosis
78. Malpositioned tube
79. Subcutaneous emphysema

TRUE OR FALSE (A = TRUE, C = FALSE)
80. Tracheal rings have 10-‐14 hyaline cartilages [14-‐20]
81. Fibromuscular tube length is 10-‐13cm
82. Gastroesophageal reflex is etiologically implicated with laryngeal cancer [DES]
83. Esophageal phase is the most critical stage of swallowing [oral]
84. Hoarseness is not encountered in TEF
85. Most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease is regurgitation [pain]
86. Toy is the most common esophageal foreign body found in children [food]
87. Embryologically, the tonsillar fossa is derived from the third pharyngeal pouch [second]
88. The torus tubarius is the protruding posterior portion of the tubal cartilage anterior to the
Eustachian tube
89. Action of the extrinsic tongue musculature is responsible for the shape changes of the tongue
[intrinsic]
90. The nerve innervation of the tensor veli palitini is from the mandibular branch of the 5th cranial
nerve
91. The posterior tonsillar pillars are the palatopharyngeus muscles
92. The lateral palatine processes develop from the medial edges of the maxillary process to give rise
to the secondary palate
93. The dental lamina gives rise to 32 tooth buds [52]
94. Posterior rhinscopy is used to visualize the presence of antrochoanal polyp [also visualize
middle and superior turbinates, examine posterior nasal cavity and nasopharyngeal area]
95. CT scan is a non-‐X-‐ray imaging technique with exquisite soft tissue delineation [MRI]
96. Micrognthia is due to failure of the mandibular condyle growth center
97. Ankyloglossia is characterized by inability to raise the tongue tip due to a short lingual frenulum
98. Canciofacial dysostosis is characterized by turribrachycephaly and syndactilty of the hands and
feet [acrocephalosyndactyly = Apert’s syndrome]
99. Congenital choanal atresia results from failure of the bucconasal membrane to rupture before
birth
100. Cheiloplasty is the surgical technique used to repair cleft palate. [cleft lip]

ENT Midterm 2014-19 p9p I

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