Biodiversity 1

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 Section E :Ecology & Environment
& Biodiversity
3 Biodiversity
1. The maximum biodiversity is found in
(a) tropical rain forests (b) temperate forests
(c) coniferous forests (d) arctic forests
Ans. (a) The maximum diversity is found in tropical rain forests.
Tropical forests are some of the richest areas on Earth. About 80% of
the world’s documented species can be found in tropical rainforests.
2. Which one of the following trees is considered to be an
environmental hazard ?
(a) Babool (b) Amaltas
(c) Neem (d) Eucalyptus
Ans. (d) Eucalyptus is considered as environmental hazard due to
various reasons. Eucalyptus is responsible for replacing indigenous
forests in several parts of the world, depleting food and shelter sources
and therefore affecting animals and birds. Growing Eucalyptus in
low rainfall areas may cause adverse environmental impacts due to
competition for water with other species.
3. Which one of the following is the most important factor
responsible for decline of biodiversity?
(a) Genetic assimilation
(b) Controlling predators
(c) Destruction of habitat
(d) Controlling pests
Ans. (c) Destruction of habitat is one of the main reasons for
biodiversity decline.
4. Which one of the following is important strategy for the
conservation of biodiversity ?
(a) Biosphere Reserves (b)  Botanical Gardens
(c) National Parks (d)  Wild Life Sanctuaries
Ans. (a) Biosphere reserves provides in-situ conservation of genetic
resources in natural populations of both flora or fauna . It is actually
on-site conservation of genetic resources in their natural environment.
5. Endangered species are listed in
(a) Dead Stock Book (b) Red Data Book
(c) Live Stock Book (d) None of these
Ans. (b) The Red Data Book is the document for documenting rare
and endangered species of animals, plants and fungi as well as some
local sub-species that exist within the territory of the state or country.
It is published by International Union for Conservation of Nature and
Natural resources (IUCN).
6. Which of the following environmentalists first gave the
concept of Biodiversity ‘Hotspots’ ?
(a) Julia Hill (b) John Muir
(c) Norman Myers (d) Gaylord Nelson
Ans. (c) The concept of biodiversity hotspots was given by biologist
Norman Myers. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region that
is both a significant reservoir of biodiversity and is threatened with
destruction.
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7. The loss of biodiversity is due to
(a) the destruction of natural habitats of organism
(b) environmental pollution
(c) destruction of forests
(d) all the above
Ans. (d) The destruction of natural habitats of organisms,
environmental pollution, destruction of forests, these all are
responsible for decline in biodiversity.
8. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in
(a) tropical moist forests
(b) temperate deciduous forests
(c) deserts and Savanna
(d) equatorial forests
Ans. (d) The greatest biodiversity of animal and plant species is
found in Equatorial evergreen forests.
9. Which one among the following is not an endangered bird
of India?
(a) White-bellied Heron (b) Great Indian Bustard
(c) Forest Owlet (d)  Mallard
Ans. (d) White-bellied Heron, Great Indian Bustard and Forest Owlet
are among the endangered birds of India. Mallard is not an endangered
bird in India.
10. Under optional conditions, the fruit fly (Drosophila) is
capable of producing a new generation every two weeks.
This ability is referred to as the ............ of the species.
(a) carrying capacity
(b) niche
(c) biotic potential
(d) optimal yield
Ans. (c) Biotic potential is the ability of a population of living species
to increase under ideal environmental conditions that is absence of
predators and lack of disease with sufficient food supply.
11. ‘Nitrosomonas’ bacteria in the root modules of leguminous
plants converts nitrogen gas from air into inorganic
nitrogen compounds which enrich the soil and can be
readily used by plants. Multiple cropping with legumes
can thus significantly reduce the need for
(a) pesticides (b) fertilizers
(c) irrigation (d) All of these
Ans. (b) Multiple cropping with legumes can increase the nitrogen
availability in soil which will significantly reduce the need for fertilizers.
12. In dry regions, the leaf size of a tree becomes smaller. It is
so to
(a) reduce metabolism
(b) reduce transpiration
(c) maintain natural growth
(d) protect plant from animals

Ans. (b) The modification in leaf size in dry regions is a way to
reduce the rate of transpiration and sustain the survival of plant by
reducing water loss. Leaves may be modified into thorns and other
structures in many desert plants.
13. REDD Plus Programme is concerned with which of the
following ?
(a) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
(b) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
(c) Millennium Development Goals (MDG)
(d) Earth Summit
Ans. (b) Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation
(REDD plus) is a mechanism developed by Parties to the UN Framework
Convention on Climate Change. It creates a financial value for the
carbon stored in forests by offering incentives for developing countries
to reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths
to sustainable development. Developing countries would receive results-
based payments for results-based actions.
14. Which one of the following plants is used for green
manuring in India ?
(a) Wheat
(b) Sunnhemp
(c) Cotton
(d) Rice
Ans. (b) Green manure is manure obtained from undecomposed
green plant material. Sunnhemp is one of the most important green
manure crops along with dhaincha, clusterbeans, Sesbania rostrata
and others.
15. Which among the following are the major reasons behind
preferring eucalyptus tree in the planned forestation
process?
1. Plantation grows very fast.
2. Plantation makes the soil more fertile.
3. Wood from eucalyptus tree is easily converted into
the pulp for paper industry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans. (b) Eucalyptus is preferred over many other trees in planned
forestation because the plant grows very fast and the fibre obtained
from it is used as a source for pulp in paper industry.
16. Polar bears are carnivores and prey on many arctic birds
and fishes. However, under natural conditions, no one
found polar bears predating any penguin. This is because
(a) penguins have chemical substance in their muscles
which is toxic to polar bears
(b) penguins are gregarious and always move in groups.
Therefore, a polar bear cannot approach them
(c) polar bears and penguins never coexist under natural
conditions. The former lives in the North Pole while
the latter lives in the South Pole
(d) polar bears and penguins display symbiotic
relationships and they help each other for their
existence in the ice-cold ecosystem
Ans. (c) Polar bears and penguins never coexist under natural
conditions. Polar bears live in the North Pole while the Penguin lives
in the South Pole.
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17. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Natural vegetation is the true index of
climate.
Reason (R): Water loving plants are found in moist climate
In the context of the above statements, which one of the
following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a) Natural vegetation is the true index of climate because water
loving plants are found in moist climate.
18. How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in
protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous
and traditional genetic resources.
2. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) directly
monitors and supervises the scientific research on
genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to
genetic/biological resources can not be made without
the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) an autonomous
body is established in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity
Act (2002).
19. Consider the following protected areas:
1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas 4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b) Bandipur National Park, a tiger reserve is located in the
south Indian state of Karnataka.
Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is a National
Park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger
Reserve, an Elephant Reserve and a Biosphere Reserve in Assam.
The Sundarban National Park is a National Park, Tiger Reserve, and
a Biosphere Reserve in India. It is a part of the Sundarbans on the
Ganges Delta of India and Bangladesh.
Bhitarkanika National Park is a national park located in the
Kendrapara District Odisha, which is not specifically for Tiger
reserve.
20. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity
of a geographical area?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c) Global Warming, fragmentation of habitat and invasion of
alien species can be threats to the bio-diversity of a geographical area.

21. Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes
as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is
normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared
to the higher altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) There is an increase in biodiversity from the poles to the
tropics. Thus localities at lower latitudes have more species than
localities at higher latitudes.
22. The Red Data Books published by the International Union
for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
contains lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the bio-
diversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural
resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b) The IUCN Red list of threatened species or the Red Data
Book is the state document established for documenting rare and
endangered species of animals, plants and fungi existing within the
territory of the state or country.
23. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the
following ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d) Biological diversity helps in the formation and maintenance
of soil structure and the retention of moisture and nutrient levels. Trees
on the other hand, lower the water table and remove deposited salt
from the upper soil horizons.
24. Which of the following regions of India have been
designated as biodiversity hotspots?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Eastern Himalaya
2. Eastern Ghat
3. Western Ghat
4. Western Himalaya
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b) A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a
significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans.
Around the world, as many as 25 areas qualify to be the hotspots. Out
of which India has 2 hotspots: Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats.
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25. Which of the following are the incorrect statements about
‘Keystone species’.
1. Keystone species are the small-sized plants and
organisms which have large effect on the environment.
2. Keystone species play critical role in maintaining the
structure of an ecological community.
3. Keystone species do not generally affect other
organisms.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct
Ans. (c) Keystone species are not necessarily small sized though
they greatly effect the environment. They play a very critical role in
maintaining the structure of an ecological community by affecting
many other organisms. An ecosystem may experience a dramatic
shift if a keystone species is removed, even though that species
may be small part of the ecosystem by measures of biomass or
productivity.
26. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Many mangrove plants possess high levels
of organic solutes.
Reason (R): This is an adaptation to survive and grow
in salty waters. Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a) Mangrove- plants have higher concentration of salts and
minerals (solutes, such as proline and sorbitol) in the cells making
their osmotic potential higher than the surrounding water in which
they grow. This is a type of adaptation that allows water uptake by
the plants in spite of growing in salty waters. Some mangroves also
pump out excess salt by specialised roots.
27. Consider the following statements and choose the correct
ones:
1. A new online Atlas of freshwater biodiversity has
been launched on 29 January, 2014 which is an
output of Biofresh.
2. This will help in managing and protecting the
freshwater in future.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) A new online Atlas of freshwater biodiversity has been
launched on 29 January, 2014. It will present spatial information and
species distribution patterns. The Atlas is an output of BioFresh – an
EU-funded project in which the IUCN Global Species Programme is
a key partner. It is working to better understand, manage and protect
our freshwaters, for generations to come.
28. Consider the following statements and choose the correct ones.
1. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) is the world’s oldest and largest global
environmental organization.
2. IUCN was founded in 1948, its Green data book
does conservation planning, monitoring to protect
endangered species.

3. On 30 January, 2014, IUCN announced that it
is celebrating 50 years of the IUCN Red List of
threatened species.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All are correct
Ans. (b) IUCN, the world’s oldest and largest global environmental
organization, is celebrating its completion of 50 years. It was founded
in 1948. It lists out all types of organisms vulnerable to any kind of
loss, in its Red data book.
29. Consider the following statements
1. The Pacific salmon fish uses the Earth’s magnetic
field to find their way
2. Machli, Queen Mother of tiger dynasty was found in
the Ranthambhore National Park, India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans. (c) It is believed that other sea creatures such as turtles, sharks
and whales may also use Earth’s magnetic field to roam the oceans.
The 17-year-old Machli is the longest living wild tigress in the
world, besides being the most photographed big cat. The tigress
was identified as T-16. Machli had survived in the dense forest by
hunting her own prey despite her advanced age.
30. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) red list version 2013 of the birds indicates 15
species of birds from India as critically endangered. The
reason for the decline in the number of these birds are:
1. Loss, modification, fragmentation and degradation of
habitat
2. Environmental contaminants
3. Poaching
4. Use changes mainly conversion of large areas to
intensive crop cultivation
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
Ans. (d) Other reasons for the decline in the number of these birds
are changes in cropping pattern due to various reasons including
implementation of irrigation schemes; increased pesticide usage and
livestock-grazing; high levels of disturbance; and developmental
activities like mining and hydel projects. This also includes collision
of the birds with vehicles, wind turbines and power lines
31. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) on 30 January 2014 completed its 50 years of
the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species in guiding
conservation action and policy decisions. The IUCN:
1. acts as a powerful tool to inform and catalyse action
for biodiversity conservation and policy change for
things that are critical to protect the natural resources
that are needed by us to survive.
2. provides the information on population size as well
as trends depending upon the range and habitat needs
of species.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
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Ans. (c) The IUCN also provides the information that is related
to species-based conservation actions. It also helps in identifying
globally important sites for conservation including important plant
areas, important bird areas, key biodiversity areas and alliance for zero
extinction sites. It helps in influencing the decisions of conservation
at multiple scales that include environmental impact assessments to
international multilateral environment agreements. It indicates the
current status of species and revealing trends in their extinction risk
over time, to track progress towards biodiversity targets.
32. The steps taken by the Government of India for conversion
of endangered species are
1. The Central Government has enacted the Wild Life
(Protection) Act, 1972 for protection of wildlife
including birds.
2. Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules
2010 have been framed for protection of wetlands, in
the States, which are habitats of birds.
3. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau has been established
for control of illegal trade in wildlife, including
endangered species of birds and their parts and
products.
4. The Centrally Sponsored Scheme of National Plan for
Conservation of Aquatic Eco-System also provides
assistance to the States for management of wetlands
including Ramsar sites in the country.
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
Ans. (d) For conservation of endangered species Wildlife Crime
Control Bureau has been established for control of illegal trade in
wildlife, including endangered species of birds and their parts and
products. Research and monitoring activities on birds are promoted by
the Government through reputed research organizations. Wildlife Institute
of India, Bombay Natural History society and Salim Ali Centre for
Ornithology and Natural History are some of the research organizations
undertaking research on conservation of birds. The Indian government
has banned the veterinary use of diclofenac drug that has caused rapid
decline in vulture population across the Indian Subcontinent. Conservation
Breeding Programmes to conserve these vulture species have been
initiated at Pinjore (Haryana), Buxa (West Bengal) and Rani, Guwahati
(Assam) by the Bombay Natural History Society.
33. The three species of vultures that are critically endangered
that have declined by more than 97 percent since 1990s are:
1. Egyptian vulture (Neophron percnopterus)
2. Oriental white-backed (Gyps bengalensis)
3. Long-billed (Gyps indicus)
4. Slender-billed vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)
Select the answer from the codes given below-
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above
Ans. (b) The veterinary drug Diclofenac that is used in vetting the
cattle has been identified as a reason that is causing the sharp decline
in the number of vultures. Use of this drug has been banned in India.
Diclofenac is toxic for any and all vultures that feed on the carcass of
recently treated cattle. Saving Asia’s Vultures from Extinction (SAVE)
in its study says that the version for human use is being illegally given
to the cattle. A programme named SAVE in its plan will release up to
25 birds into the 30000 kilometer square safe zone. The captive-bred
birds will be released into the wild by 2016 under the project.

34. Consider the following statements
1. Tree Foundation, an NGO engaged in conservation
of the sea turtle found more than 1000 dead Olive
Ridley Turtles in the shores of Nagapattinam.
2. The Olive Ridley turtles find the coastline of
Nagapattinam as a favourable nesting habitat and
that’s why they reach to the shore from December to
March every year.
3. The Olive Ridley looks very similar to the Kemp’s
Riddle, but has a deeper body and slightly up-turned
edges to its carapace (shell).
4. Olive Ridley weighs around 45 kilograms and are
70cm in size and this makes them the smallest of the
sea turtles along with Kemp riddles.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
Ans. (b) Tree foundation, an NGO engaged in conservation of
the sea turtle, found more than 100 dead Olive Ridley turtles in
the shores of Nagapattinam. The Olive Ridley turtles are rusty
coloured carapace and have slightly smaller head and shell than the
Kemp turtles. These Olive Ridley turtles generally occur through
the Antilles, around the north coast of South America, in West
Africa, the Indian Ocean, Australia and Southeast Asia. As per the
reports, the populations of Olive Riddles have declined in Pakistan,
Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand, and possibly on the east coast
of India, south of Orissa and in the Andaman and Nicobar islands.
35. Which of the following are the new species of freshwater
catfish discovered in Idukki and Pathanamthitta districts
of Kerala in November 2013?
1. Horabagrus melanosoma
2. Mystus heoki
3. Mystus indicus
4. Mystus miami
Select the answers from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above
Ans. (c) Along with the first 3 species Mystus menoni species
of Catfish were discovered from the Manimala river. Catfish are
freshwater, bottom-dwelling fish. Unlike other fish, they have no scales
and are smooth-skinned. They are known for growing whiskers, called
“barbels,” at some point during their lifespan. Catfish use their barbels
as feelers as they swim along the bottom of the various bodies of water
in which they live. There are 2,900 species of catfish worldwide. They
range in size from 1.5 to 2 in chesto more than 8 feet in length.
36. Which of the following has been cited as a cause for the
deaths of the Penguin chicks from the world’s largest
colony of Magellanic Penguins
(a) Lack of food (b) Warm Ocean Currents
(c) Climate Change (d) All of the above
Ans. (c) Magellanics are medium-sized penguins standing about 15
inches tall and weighing about 10 pounds. Males of the species sound like
braying donkeys when they vocalize. Among 17 species of penguins, 10
including Magellancis breeds are found in the region, where there is no
snow, it is relatively dry and temperatures can be temperate. To protect
the chicks, parents are too big to sit over and those are still too young
to have grown waterproof feathers. Downy penguin chicks exposed to
drenching rain can struggle and die in absence of the attention of their
concerned parents. During extreme heat, chicks without waterproofing
can’t take a dip in cooling waters as adults.
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37. Dung beetles live in regions where cattle graze, quickly
burying and recycling cattle droppings. Because of the
dung beetles activities, breeding habitats for disease-
carrying flies are reduced and the plants upon which cattle
feed are nourished. The relationship between the dung
beetles and the disease-carrying flies is a type of :
(a) mutualism
(b) commensalism
(c) intraspecific competition
(d) interspecific competition
Ans. (d) Dung beetles and disease carrying flies both compete for
the same food, that is cattle droppings. Since both of these organisms
belong to different species, this competition is called interspecific
competition. Mutualism is an association shown by two species where
both the species in concern are equally benefitted. E.g. the symbiotic
association between nitrogen fixing bacteria and roots of leguminous
plants. Commensalism is a type of association between two species
where one is benefitted and the other is unaffected e.g. helpful bacteria
in the gut of human being. Intraspecific competition is the competition
within the members of a species for food, shelter and mate.
38. Flea beetles alone are unlikely to eliminate all of the leafy
spurge in a region. Instead, the number of leafy spurge
plants and the number of flea beetles in a particular
community may stabilize. At this point, the leafy spurge
and flea beetle populations:
(a) have exhibited exponential growth followed by a crash
(b) have experienced constant growth
(c) are still experiencing exponential growth
(d) are experiencing environmental resistance
Ans. (d) The flea beetles have proved to be an effective means of
controlling leafy spurge. The flea beetles typically take 3-5 years to
establish and impact leafy spurge infestations.
39. The concept of biodiversity hotspots is given by :
(a) F.P. Odum (b) Norman Myers
(c) James Lovelock (d) Rachel Carson
Ans. (b) The concept of biodiversity hotspot was given by Norman
Myers. In 1988 he first identified 10 tropical forest “hotspots”
characterised by both exceptional level of plant endemism and by
serious levels of habitat loss. Later on, Conservation International
(CI) adopted Myers’ hotspots. They gave a broad definition criteria
of the Biodiversity hotspot.
40. Biodiversity Hotspot are characterized on the basis of:
(a) Endemic flowering plants and threat perception
(b) Endemic flowering plants
(c) Species of flowering plants
(d) None of above
Ans. (a) Biodiversity hotspots are areas rich in plant species and these
species are endemic to this area. Endemism implies the presence of
species in particular area only.
41. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does
it imply ?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are
under captive protection; and now it is impossible to
prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

Ans. (a) Tiger is given as Schedule I animal. So “A” is correct.
42. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which
of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person
except under some provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) The schedule 5 vermin- crow, fruitbat, mice and rat can be
killed. Since the animals given in above MCQ are outside that list
hence answer is “D”.
43. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which
one of the following is the best place to visit?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves Ans. (a) Tiger is given as Schedule I animal. So “A” is correct.
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) DeeporBeel
Ans. (b) Gharials are river dwelling fish-eaters and their only viable
population is in the Chambal Sanctuary. So “B” should be the answer.
44. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the
population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely
consequence/consequences? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal
infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species
of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) Statement 1 is right (by common knowledge) but for the
sake of reference- NCERT Class 12 biology page 30! This eliminates
“B”. Second statement should be wrong because of the extreme word
“drastic”. This eliminates “D”. Besides I’m unable to find any specific
reference that mentions linkage between butterfly population vs fungus
infection. Birds and spiders tend to prey on butterflies (by common
knowledge) so statement 3 is a possible outcome.
45. The term M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in
the context of [IAS Prelims 2017]
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways
Ans. (b) National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is planning
to implement a new computerized tiger monitoring protocol in all
tiger reserves of the country known as Monitoring System for Tiger,
Intensive Patrolling and Ecological Status (MSTrIPES).
46. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the
lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of
the following sites ? [IAS Prelims 2017]
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) KunoPalpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park
47
Ans. (b) Even if you eliminate Corbett (Uttrakhand) and Mudumalai
(Tamilnadu) for climatic reasons for Lion relocation, still you’re left
with Sariska (Rajasthan). Sariska being a tiger reserve, would sound
unfit for lion immigration. So by elimination answer would be “B”.
and Indianexpress report confirm it.
47. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what
does it imply ? [IAS Prelims 2017]
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are
under captive protection; and now it is impossible to
prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this
context.
48. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which
of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person
except under some provisions provided by law?
[IAS Prelims 2017-I]
1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) The schedule 5 vermin- crow, fruitbat, mice and rat can be
killed. Since the animals given in above MCQ are outside that list
hence answer is “D”.
49. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which
one of the following is the best place to visit?
 [IAS Prelims 2017]
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) DeeporBeel
Ans. (b) Gharials are river dwelling fish-eaters and their only viable
population is in the Chambal Sanctuary. So “B” should be the answer.
50. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade
Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce
(TRAFFIC): [IAS Prelims 2017]
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade
in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the
conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b) First statement is wrong because TRAFFIC is joint program
of WWF and IUCN and Second statement is correct because verbatim
given in the organization’s official page.
51. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the
population of species of butterflies, what could be its
likely consequence/consequences?
 [IAS Prelims 2017]

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely
affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal
infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some
species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) Statement 1 is right (by common knowledge) but for the
sake of reference- NCERT Class 12 biology page 30! This eliminates
“B”. Second statement should be wrong because of the extreme word
“drastic”. This eliminates “D”. Besides I’m unable to find any specific
reference that mentions linkage between butterfly population vs fungus
infection. Birds and spiders tend to prey on butterflies (by common
knowledge) so statement 3 is a possible outcome.
Hence answer “C”: 1 and 3 only.
52. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion
for [IAS Prelims 2017]
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
Ans. (c) NCERT Class 11 Chemistry: Ch. 14-Environmental Chemistry,
page 407
The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the
organic matter present in a certain volume of a sample of water, is
called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). The amount of BOD
in the water is a measure of the amount of organic material in the
water, in terms of how much oxygen will be required to break it
down biologically. Clean water would have BOD value of less than
5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value of 17
ppm or more.
53. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer
(SCNT) Technology? [IAS Prelims 2017]
(a) Production of biolarvicides
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases
Ans. (c) Encyclopedia Britannica says SCNT technology was used
for cloning the sheep “Dolly”. And over the years, theHindu has been
running news of cloning of buffalos by Somatic Cell technology. So,
“C” is the answer.
54. Consider the following pairs: [IAS Prelims 2017]
Commonly used material vs. Unwanted or controversial
chemicals found in them
1. Lipstick: Lead
2. Soft drinks: Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food: Monosodium glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) Mono sodium Glutamate (MSG) is a flavor enhancer in
Chinese food, but leads to obesity and liver inflation. This was in
news because of Maggie noodles controvery. So, 3 is right.
• Brominated vegetable oils are used as stabilizers in the baked
goods, soft drinks, soups, jellies etc. but banned in UK after
1970. so, #2 is right.
48
There is only one combination where 1 and 3 are together i.e. answer
“D”: 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
55. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in
news ? [IAS Prelims 2018]
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which
it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) This plant is a native of Mexico, and spread throughout
Indi(a) It’s an aggressive colonizer, common weed of wastelands,
scrublands and degraded forests. Since it’s mention under the head
of invasive alien species so it’d reduce biodiversity in the area, Hence
Option (B)
56. Consider the following statements [IAS Prelims 2018]
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are
located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and
Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla
than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
• Coral reefs are found in tropical and subtropical regions. Most
of them are located between Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer,
so yes #1 is indeed right.
• According to UNEP,% of world area covered by each region:
Indonesia 18%, Australia: 17% and Philippines: 9% so
collectively that’ll be more than 33%. Hence #2 is right.
• Coral reefs include a wide range of diversity with 32 of the 34
animal phyla present, in contrast to only 9 phyla represented
in tropical rainforest. So, #3 is also right. Thus, answer is D:
1, 2 and 3
57. Consider the following statements:
 [IAS Prelims 2018]
1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is
incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given
Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights
for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any
part of Indi(a)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
• Baigas are considered as a particularly vulnerable tribal group
(PVTG) in the Indian Constitution and rely mostly on shifting
cultivation, forest produce and fishing for sustenance, spread
over forested areas of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
In 2016, they became India’s first community to get habitat
rights. Ref: Downtoearth-2016 So, #2 is right.

• Under FRA Act, district level Committees have to adjudicate
the rights, whereas Tribal ministry only issues guidelines. That
makes #3 wrong / irrelevant. By elimination, we are left with
answer A: only 1 and 2.
58. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife
Sanctuary located? [IAS Prelims 2018]
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya (d) Nagaland
Ans. (a) “Pakhui / Pakke Tiger reserve” is in Arunanchal Pradesh,
so if there is a wildlife sanctuary in Pakhui, it should be in “A” for
Arunanchal Pradesh.
59. Biodiversity has maximum danger from
 [UPPSC-2017]
(a) destruction of natural habitats and vegetation
(b) Improper agricultural operations
(c) Climate change
(d) Water pollution
Ans. (a) Biodiversity is subject to many threats. The greatest is
probably habitat destruction and fragmentation. But there are many
other threats to biodiversity. Over-consumption by humans –by
hunting, fishing, or collecting from the wild– threatens many species.
60. Which of the following is NOT an example of in-situ
conservation strategy? [UPPSC-2017]
(a) Biosphere reserve (b) Botanical garden
(c) National Park (d) Sacred groves
Ans. (b) In situ conservation means conservation which takes place
onsite. The major aim of this type of conservation is to preserve
natural areas of the organisms and maintain their number.example-
biosphere, national park, sacred grooves etc. Ex situ conservation
means conservation which takes place off-site. In this method of
biological diversity conservation, sampling, shifting, storage and
preservation of target taxa is carried out outside the natural habitat of
the organisms.example- botanical garden and zoo etc.
61. India’s first National Centre for Marine Biodiversity
(NCMB) is located in which city? [UPPSC-2017]
(a) Bhavnagar (b) Jamnagar
(c) Mumbai (d) Puducherry
Ans. (b) Gujarat Marine National Park and Sanctuary Conservtion
Society was established on 3rd June, 2011 as a directive from the
Hon’ble Supreme Court of India. To protect and conserve marine
biodiversity by utilizing the compensatory funds generated against
the land of the Marine National Park and Sanctuary provided
to the user agencies such as Thermal Power Station, Indian Oil
Corporation and Gujarat State Fertilizer company. The main focus
of the society is to strengthen and maintain marine biodiversity
including mangroves and corals in and around Marine National
Park and Marine Sanctuary.
62. When the World Biodiversity Day is observed?
 [UPPSC-2017]
(a) March,22 (b) May, 22
(c) June, 23 (d) April, 16
Ans. (b) The International Day for Biological Diversity is a United
Nations–sanctioned international day for the promotion of biodiversity
issues. It is held on May 22. The International Day for Biological
Diversity falls within the scope of the UN Post- 2015 Development
Agenda’s Sustainable Development Goals.
49
63. According to Indian Forest Status Report released
February 2018, how much area in of India is covered by
forests? [BPSC-2018]
(a) 23.00% (b) 23-40%
(c) 24.00% (d) 24-40%
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Ans. (d) According to Indian forest status report released February
2018, India is ranked 10th in world, with 24.4% of land area under
forest and tree cover, even though it accounts for 2.4 % of the world
surface area.
64. Tropical evergreen rain forest biome provides optimum
environmental conditions for the growth of plants and
animals. Which one among the following statements
regarding this is not correct? [CDS-2017-I]
(a) It has heavy rainfall and high temperature throughout
the year.
(b) This biome is also called mega-thermal biome.
(c) The evergreen rain forest biome extends between 10°
N and 10° S latitudes.
(d) The maximum development of this biome has taken
place in central and southern California, and north-
western coastal lands of Africa.
Directions : The following seven (7) items consists of two
statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two
statements carefully and select the correct answer using the
code given below. [CDS - 2018-1]
Code :
(a) Both the statements are individually true and
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Ans. (d) Tropical evergreen rainforest or Tropical rainforests
experience heavy rainfall and high temperature, and extend between
10o N and 10o S latitudes. The biome Tropical rainforests is of
megathermal type as organisms are adapted to high temperature and
wet and humid condition. Tropical rainforests are located in South
America, lowland regions in Africa, and the islands off of Southeast
Asia, Central America and parts of Australia.
65. Statement I : [CDS-2018-1]
In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.
Statement II :
Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.
Ans. (b) Species richness is generally lower in the Arctic than at
lower latitudes, and richness also tends to decline from the low to
high Arctic. However, patterns of species richness vary spatially and
include significant patchiness. Further, there are differences among
taxonomic groups, with certain groups being most diverse in the Arctic.
66. Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature
changes in atmosphere? [CDS-2018-1]
(a) Deflection and advection
(b) Latent heat of condensation
(c) Expansion and compression of the air
(d) Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere

Ans. (c) Expansion and compression of the air causes adiabatic
temperature changes in atmosphere. As air is heated it expands
becoming less dense, and as a result, lighter. Because it is
lighter, it rises upwards above the cooler air. As it does so, this
air continues to expand. This is because there is less pressure
higher in the atmosphere, allowing the air molecules to spread
out more. In order to spread out, these molecules require energy.
As they do so, they become less agitated and vibrate slower. As
a result, the temperature of these air molecules drops, despite
the fact that no heat has been removed from them. This process
is referred to as adiabatic cooling. As the air cools down, it
again begins to fall towards the surface of the Earth. As it sinks
deeper into the atmosphere, the pressure from the weight of the
air above it pushes air molecules closer together, causing them
to become more agitated and heating them up again. As a result,
their temperature rises, even though no heat has been added.
This process is referred to as adiabatic warming.
67. The city of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on
Biosafety, is located in [CDS 2019-I]
(a) Columbia (b) Venezuela
(c) Brazil (d) Guyana
Ans. (a) Cartagena is a port city on Colombia’s Caribbean coast.
68. Which one among the following is the correct order of
tiger reserves situated from North to South in India?
 [NDA-2017-I]
(a) Corbett – Simlipal – Sariska – Periyar
(b) Periyar – Sariska – Simlipal – Corbett
(c) Corbett – Sariska – Simlipal – Perivar
(d) Periyar – Simlipal – Sariska – Corbett
Ans. (c) The correct order of tiger reserve situated from North to
south in India is Coebett-Sariska-Simlipal-Periryar.
69. Which of the following are the major coral reef areas of
India? [NDA-2017-I]
1. Gulf of Kachchh
2. Gulf of Mannar
3. Lakshadweep
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b) There are four major coral reef areas in India: Gulf of
Mannar, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep Islands and
Gulf of Kutch.
70. Which of the following are correct with regard of Indian
Monsoonal Rainfall? [NDA-2017-II]
1. Largely governed by the topographical features
2. Regional and seasonal variation in the distribution of
rainfall
3. Heavy downpour resulting in considerable runoff
4. Beginning and end of rain is regular and on time
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
50
Ans. (d) In context to Indian Mansoonal Rainfall is-
• Largely governed by the topographical features.
• Regional and seasonal variation in the distribution of rainfall.
• Heavy downpour resulting in considerable runoff. These point
are correct.
71. Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is critical to
well being of human society.
Reason (R) : Environmentally sound policies do not harm
the environment or deplete the natural resources.
 [UGC January 2017]
Choose the correct code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Ans. (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
72. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer
from the codes given below : [UGC September 2013]
List – I List – II
(Biosphere Reserve) (Area of Location)
A. Nilgiri i. Deccan Peninsula
B. Manas ii. Chhattisgarh
C. Similipal iii. Eastern Himalaya
D. Achankmar- iv. Western Ghat
Amarkantak
Codes :
A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) ii iii iv i
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) iv iii i ii
Ans. (d) The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is an International Biosphere
Reserve in the Western Ghats. Manas national park is situated in the
foothills of Bhutanese Himalayas in Assam. Simlipal National Park
is a national park and a tiger reserve in the Mayurbhanj district in
the Indian state of Odisha. The Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere
Reserve is a biosphere reserve that extends across the states of Madhya
Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, covering a total area of 383,551 hectares.
73. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has
UNESCO recognition ?
 [UGC September 2013]
(a) Manas
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Seshachalam Hills
(d) Greater Nicobar
Ans. (d) Greater Nicobar biosphere reserve has UNESCO
recognition. Other UNESCO recognised biosphere reserves in india
are – Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (ABR), Nilgiri (Western
Ghats), Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu), Sunderban (West Bengal),
Nanda Devi (Uttarakhand), Nokrek (Meghalaya), Pachmarh (Madhya
Pradesh), etc.