RME Past Board

Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

Manila
BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

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TEHCNICAL SUBJECTS
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
Use pencil No. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A 6-volt lead-acid battery has an internal resistance of 0.01 ohm. How much current
will flow if the battery has a short circuit?
a. 60A b. 600A c. infinity d. zero
2. A binary alloy of copper and zinc.

a. Bronze b. Brass c. Alnico d. Steel
3. The resistance of a conductor when its temperature is increased,

a. increases b. remain constant c. varies d. decreases
4. A voltage source of 20V is applied across the terminals of a 2.5-ohm rheostat.

Calculate the power dissipated in the rheostat?
a. 160W b. 100W c. 150W d. 180W
5. Unit of electrical pressure is

a. watt b. ampere c. ohm d. volt
6. Two resistors of resistances 5 ohms and 7 ohms are connected in series across a 60-
volt source. What is the power absorbed in the 5-ohm resistor?
a. 50 watts b. 25 watts c. 125 watts d. 100 watts
7. When using ohms law, E divided by I would solve for

a. watts b. amperage c. voltage d. resistance
8. In resistance color coding, red color is assigned to a value

a. 3 b. 0 c. 2 d. 1
9. An electric iron takes 3 ½ amps. If the heating element has a resistance of 40 ohms,
what is its power consumption?
a. 0.45 kW b. 0.49 kW c. 0.35 kW d. 0.51 kW
Compiled by: Engr. Roel A. Abao Page 1

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10. Another name for a secondary cell.

a. Wet cell b. Storage cell c. Dry cell d. Disposable cell
11. Two resistances of 8 and 10 ohms respectively are connected in parallel and take a
total current of 9 A. What is the current flowing in the 8-ohm resistance?
a. 5 A b. 4 A c. 6 A d. 3 A
12. What is the resistance must be connected across a 4-ohm resistor in order to give an
equivalent resistance of 3 ohms?
a. 10 ohms b. 8 ohms c. 12 ohms d. None of these
13. How is voltmeter connected in a circuit?

a. Connect in short circuit across the load
b. Connect in shunt across the load
c. Connect in series across the load
d. Connect in open circuit with the load
14. Component of an atom that doesn’t have any electrical charge.

a. Electron b. Proton c. Neutron d. None of these
15. A lead-acid cell is constructed in multiple for the purpose of ______.

a. increasing the emf of the cell
b. increasing the capacity of the cell
c. increasing the internal resistance of the cell
d. all of these
16. A measuring instrument used to measure the diameter of circular wires in mills.
a. Micrometer b. Millimeter c. Wire gauge d. Milliammeter
17. The electron in the last orbit of an atom are called

a. bound electrons b. free electrons c. valence electrons d. charged electrons
18. A 400 MCM cable has 37 strands. What is the diameter if each strand in mills?
a. 10.81 b. 1081 c. 104 d. 108
19. The copper field coils of a motor was measured at 21 oC and found to have a
resistance of 68 ohms. After the motor has run for a given time, the resistance is
found to be 90 ohms. What is the hot temperature of the winding?
a. 106.36oC b. 166.30oC c. 103.66oC d. None of these

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20. A secondary cell is charged with a constant current of 10 A for 10 hours. How much
charge is accumulated?
a. 100 coulombs b. 360,000 coulombs c. 100,000 coulombs d. 60,000 coulombs
21. A cell whose emf is 1.45 V has an internal resistance of 4 ohms. What current will flow
if this cell is connected across a 1 – ohms resistor?
a. 0.4 A b. 0.2 A c. 0.5 A d. 0.3 A
22. What is the diameter of a copper wire having a cross sectional area of 3,969 CM?
a. 1.6 mm b. 7.8 mills c. 0.6 inch d. None of these
23. When n equal resistors are connected in series to a source of emf E volts, each
having a resistance of R ohms, which of the following statements is true?
a. The voltage drop across one of the resistor is equal to E/n
b. The equivalent resistance of the circuit is equal to nR
c. The current through each of the resistor is the same
d. All of these
24. Give an example of an electrical conductor.

a. Brass b. Asbestos c. Slate d. Latex
25. A small light bulb with a resistance of 1000 ohms is connected across a 120-V line.
What is the current through the bulb?
a. 1.2 A b. 0.12 A c. 0.012 A d. 12 A
26. Practically all batteries have a nominal rating based on the ____ hour rate of
discharge.
a. 8 b. 24 c. 16 d. 12
27. The energy stored in an electrolytic cell is

a. an electrical b. a magnetic c. a mechanical d. a chemical
28. The most common usage of resistors in electronic circuits is to ________.

a. limit a current b. introduce a voltage drop
c. generate heat d. all of these
29. A 200-V lamp has a hot resistance of 400 ohms. The power rating in watts of the lamp
is
a. 100 W b. 200 W c. 600 W d. 250 W

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30. A battery is charged at 15 A for 10 hours. If the charging voltage is 120 V, what is the
charging cost at 1.00 per kW-hr?
a. 15 pesos b. 18 pesos c. 12 pesos d. 20 pesos
31. How much current is produced by a 60-V source connected across a 12-k
resistance?
a. 5 A b. 7.2 A c. 20 mA d. 5 mA
32. If 18 resistances, each of a value of 36 ohms, are connected in parallel, then the total
resistance is
a. 36 ohms b. 2 ohms c. 648 ohms d. 54 ohms
33. A wire whose resistance is r ohms is being cut into four equal parts. If these parts are
to be connected in parallel, how much is the equivalent resistance in ohms?
a. r/12 b. r/16 c. r/8 d. r/4
34. The resistance of the material in inversely proportional to its

a. length b. temperature c. cross-sectional area d. all of these
35. An ammeter is connected ______.

a. across the load
b. in series with the load
c. in series-parallel across the load
d. none of these
36. If the number of valence electrons is exactly four, the material is

a. a conductor b. a semi-conductor c. an insulator d. a superconductor
37. Commercial unit of an electrical energy.

a. Joule b. Watt-hour c. Megawatt d. Kilowatt-hour
38. What is the resistance that must be connected in parallel with a 1.0-ohm resistance to
give an equivalent resistance of 0.2 ohm?
a. 0.75 ohm b. 0.25 ohm c. 1.20 ohm d. 0.50 ohm
39. When a battery is discharged in use, its voltage is _____ the theoretical voltage.
a. 86.73 b. 96 c. 63.78 d. 73.86
40. A water heater takes 2.5 A at 230 V. What is its hot resistance?
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a. 20 W b. 980 W c. 500 W d. 200 W
41. An electric iron draws 15 A at 220 V. It is desired to reduced the current to 12 A by

connecting a series rheostat. What is the resistance of the rheostat?
a. 3.66 ohms b. 4.55 ohms c. 5.12 ohms d. 1.86 ohms
42. The ability of a conductor to allow current flow.

a. Resistance b. Coefficient of resistance
c. Conductance d. Permeability
43. Blue is assigned to what digit value in the resistance color code?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 4
44. Three 120-ohm resistor are connected in series-parallel. The equivalent resistance of
the combination is ____.
45. A 25-W incandescent bulb rated at 120 V and operated on a 120 V line has burnt out
and has to be replaced as soon as possible. There are several lamps available but not
of the same rating. Which of the bulbs below should be used to approximate the
power consumption of the busted bulb?
a. 20 watts, 110 volts b. 100 watts, 240 volts
c. 50 watts, 240 volts d. 75 watts, 220 volts
46. A resistor of 3 ohms is connected in parallel with one of 2-ohm resistance. If the
combination is connected in series with a 4-ohm resistor, what is the equivalent
resistance of the whole combination of three resistors?
a. 6.4 ohms b. 5.8 ohms c. 4.5 ohms d. 5.2 ohms
47. A substance that cannot be decomposed any further by a chemical reaction.

a. Ion b. Element c. Molecule d. None of these
48. A resistance of 4 0hms is connected in series to a parallel connection of two 8 -ohm

resistance. The total resistance is
49. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?

a. 746 b. 764 c. 674 d. None of these

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50. A resistor of 4-ohm resistance is connected in parallel with a series combination of

two resistors, 3-ohm and 1-ohm respectively. What is the equivalent resistance of the
whole combination?
a. 8 ohms b. 3 ohms c. 5 ohms d. None of these
*** END ***
SUBMIT THIS TEST QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR
WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL BE A
GROUND FOR DISCIPLINARY ACTION.

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TECHNICAL SUBJECTS
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by shading the box corresponding on the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
Use pencil No. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The output voltage of a single loop generator is a

a. steady d.c. c. pulsating a.c.
b. steady a.c. d. pulsating d.c.
2. How would you determine, from visual observation of the armature winding,
whether a generator is lap or wave wound.
a. connection to the field winding
b. connection to commutator
c. connection to brushes
d. the direction of the end connection
3. What classification is given you a DC generator that receives its field excitation
current from internal source?
a. self excited
b. controlled excitation
c. separately excited
d. internally excited
4. A DC generator supplies a load of resistance 1.4 ohms through a pair of wires

having a total resistance of 0.10 ohm. The voltage at the DC generator terminals is
120 V, what is the voltage across the load?
a. 110 V b. 105 V c. 112 V d. 115 V
5. Find the voltage regulation of a generator when full-load voltage is 110 V and no-
load voltage is 120 V.
a. 1% b. 9.09% c. 90.9% d. 10%

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6. The shunt field of a compound generator is connected across both the series field
and the armature. This connection is known as
a. short shunt c. differential compound
b. long shunt d. cumulative compound
7. A 25-hp engine drives a DC generator, if the generator has an efficiency of 90 % ,

how much does it deliver?
a. 22.5 hp b. 24 hp c. 21 hp d. 25 hp
8. Residual magnetism is necessary in a:

a. separately excited generator c. both of these
b. self excited generator d. none of these
RME Board October 1995

9. If commutator is dirty, clean using:
a. sandpaper b. emery c. cloth d. oil
10. Which of the following causes extreme sparking at the brushes?

a. worn bearing
b. loose coupling
c. dirt on the commutator segment
d. shaft misalignment
RME Board April 1996

11. What is the overall efficiency of a 50-hp that draws 20 A at 2400 volts?
a. 90% b. 87.8% c. 80% d. 77.7%
12. What is the common method of cooling transformer?

a. natural cooling b. air cooling c. air blast cooling d. oil cooling
13. A 50-kVA transformer has a primary voltage of 6600 volts and a secondary voltage
of 250 volts. It has 100 turns on the secondary winding. Find the number of primary
turns.
a. 1336 turns b. 1373 turns c. 2640 turns d. 1733 turns
14. The starting capacitor of a single-phase motor is generally a:

a. ceramic capacitor b. paper capacitor c. electrolytic capacitor d. none of these

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15. A single phase motor is taking 20 A from a 400-V supply at unity pf. What is the
power taken?
a. 6,000 W b. 8,000 W c. 4,000 W d. None of these

16. At what speed must an 8-pole, AC generator runs so that its frequency shall be 40
Hz?
a. 750 rpm b. 600 rpm c. 900 rpm d. 500 rpm
17. A certain alternator has 8 poles. At what speed must the alternator runs in order to
have a generated emf whose frequency is 40 Hz?
a. 580 rpm b. 750 rpm c. 700 rpm d. 600 rpm

18. When the speed of the alternator increases, the frequency:
a. varies exponentially b. remains the same c. increases d. decreases
19. What limits the size of an induction motor that can be started across the line?
a. Distribution system network
b. Horsepower rating
c. Branch circuit protection
d. Power supply
RME Board April 1995

20. Wound rotors are usually started by the use of what type of starter?
a. secondary resistance starter
b. primary resistance starter
c. auto transformer type
d. wye-delta starter
21. To measure the power taken by a DC electric motor with only a single instrument
you should use:
a. voltmeter b. an ammeter c. a wattmeter d. a power factor meter
22. The speed of a DC shunt motor is generally regulated by means of a:

a. switch for reversal of the armature supply
b. source of variable supply voltage
c. variable resistance in the armature circuit
d. rheostat in the field circuit

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23. A carbon brush in a DC motor should exert a pressure of about 1 ½ lbs. per square
inch on the commutator. A much lighter pressure would be most likely to result in:
a. sparking at the commutator
b. vibration of the armature
c. the brush getting out of line
d. excessive wear of the brush holder
24. If the no-load speed of a squirrel cage type induction motor connected to a three
phase 25 cycle line is 373 rpm, the motor has:
a. 2 poles b. 4 poles c. 6 poles d. 8 poles
25. The input to a motor is 16,000 watts and the motor losses total 3,000 watts. The
efficiency of the motor is most nearly
a. 68.4% b. 81.25% c. 84.21% d. 87.5%
26. While a certain DC shunt motor is driving a light load, part of the field winding
becomes short circuited. The motor will most likely:
a. increase its speed b. decrease its speed
c. remain at the same speed d. come to a stop
27. When a certain motor is started up, the incandescent lights fed from the same
circuit dim sown somewhat and then return to approximately normal brightness as
the motor comes up to speed. This definitely shows that the:
a. starting current of the motor is larger than the running current
b. insulation of the circuit wiring is worn
c. circuit fuse is not making good contact
d. incandescent lamps are too large for the circuit
28. If a single-phase induction motor draws 10 amperes at 240 volts, the power taken
by the motor:
a. will be 2400 watts
b. will be more than 2400 watts
c. will be less than 2400 watts
d. may be more or less than 2400 watts depending on the power factor
29. In a method of measuring power in balanced 3-phase system using one wattmeter,
total power is the wattmeter deflection multiplied by:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 1.732 d. 1.5

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30. In the current transformer method of measuring power in balanced 3-phase system
using one wattmeter, total power is the wattmeter deflection multiplied by:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 1.7325 d. 1.5
31. It is the power required to drive the unexcited dc machine at normal speed with its
brushes lifted:
a. Friction and windings loss b. brush friction loss
c. exciter loss d. ventilation loss
32. In starting a 500 hp, 2300-volt, 3-phase synchronous motor the field winding is
initially short circuited so as to:
a. produce much larger starting torque
b. lower voltage produced between the layers of the field winding
c. increased induced voltage in field winding
d. provide better flux distribution in the air gap
33. In parallel operation of alternator, if the excitation of one alternate is changed it will
only change:
a. real power taken by the machine
b. reactive power taken by the machine
c. apparent power taken by the machine
d. synchronizing power of the machine
34. For parallel operation of DC generators:

a. the frequency must be the same
b. the voltage must be the same
c. phase sequence must be the same
d. speed must be the same
35. The simplest form of motor controller is:

a. toggle switch b. magnetic switch
c. drum switch d. relay
36. Another name for a magnetic starter is a:

a. manual switch b. manual starter
c. contactor d. magnetic control
37. A 2- pole AC generator is running at 1,500 rpm. What is the frequency?

a. 25 Hz b. 50 Hz c. 60 Hz d. none of these

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38. An isolating switch is one that is _______.

a. intended for cutting off an electrical circuit from its source of power
b. required to have a padlock
c. primarily used with an isolation transformer
d. used only for heavy motor overloads
39. If full rating of a transformer is 90 kW at a power factor of 0.9 then its kVA rating
is:
a. 81 b. 100 c. 90 d. 120
40. An autotransformer is preferred to a conventional 2-winding transformer:

a. because it is much safer to use an auto-transformer
b. where large number of secondary taps are needed
c. where it is required to electrically isolate the two windings
d. where ratio of transformer is low
41. Current transformers for meters and relays usually have:

a. 10-A secondary b. a 10:1 ratio
c. 5-A secondary d. a 1:1 ratio
42. The power frequency used for electrical machine in air craft system is preferred to
be 400 Hz rather than 60 Hz because:
a. More efficient
b. Less Heat and Less Power loss
c. Life span of the machine increase
d. Less weight
43. Dust should never be allowed to accumulate on the windings and core of a dry-
type transformer because it:
a. may short circuit the windings c. reduces dissipation of heat
c. tends to corrode metal surfaces d. absorb oil and grease
44. The relative polarity of the windings of a transformer may be determined by:
a. short-circuit test c. phasing-out
c. open-circuit test d. polarity test
45. The most common cause of contamination by water of oil used in transformer
located indoors is:
a. condensation of moisture from air in the upper part of the tank
b. decomposition of organic matter in the oil
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c. leaky bushings
d. use of filter blotters that have absorbed moisture from air
46. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is:
a. winding insulation c. iron core
c. frame or case d. copper winding
47. In general, the most important point to keep under constant watch during the
operation of a transformer is its:
a. primary voltage b. copper loss
c. core loss d. temperature
48. Oil is invariably used in large transformer in order to:

a. insulate the frame b. lubricate the core
c. insulate the core and the coil d. lubricate the coils
49. The secondary winding of a current transformer whose primary is carrying current
should:
a. not be opened-circuited b. not be short-circuited
c. always be short-circuited d. not to be connected to the current coil of a wattmeter
50. In relation to a transformer, the ratio 20:1 indicates that:

a. there are 20 turns on primary and one turn on secondary
b. primary voltage is 1/20 th of secondary voltage
c. primary currents is 20 times greater than secondary current
d. for every 20 turns on primary, there is one turn on secondary
51. The stray losses in the transformer will be reduces if:

a. the liminations are thick
b. number of turns in the primary in winding is reduces
c. the number of turns in the secondary winding is reduces
d. the liminations are thin and the core is ferromagnetic
52. The speed of DC series motor at no load is:

a. zero b. 1500 rpm c. Very fast d. 3000 rpm
53. The function of commutator in DC generator is:

a. to change alternating current to direct current
b. to improve commutation
c. for easy control
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d. to change alternating voltage to direct voltage
54. In practice the rotation of electric motor referred to its back is:
a. clockwise
b. counterclockwise
c. forward
d. reverse
55. How many contactor is needed to reverse the rotation of a three phase motor?
a. three
b. four
c. six
d. one
56. For the equal output the total current is more in:
a. wave winding b. lap winding
c. simplex lap winding d. none of the above
57. What is standard instrument to measure the speed of a motor?

a. pyrometer
b. gyrometer
c. tachometer
d. synchroscope
58. If the field of a synchronous motor is under excited the Power factor will be:
a. lagging b. leading c. unity d. more than unity
59. In a small dc machine, armature slots are sometimes not made axial but skewed.
Though skewing makes winding a little more difficult, yet it result in_____.
a. Quiter operation b. slight decrease in loss
c. Saving of copper d. decrease power loss
60. In a given machine. How may the no? Of parallel paths be increased in the
armature of lop connected.
a. Increasing the number of magnetic pole
b. Increasing the excitation
c. Decreasing the speed
d. Parallel path is constant, it cannot be altered

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61. In the design of Power Supply, transformer should not be place near the
component because of vibration/humming due to:
a. magnetostification b. magnetostriction
c. ferroresonance d. harmonics
62. Which of the following motor is used in the Electric train?

a. AC series motor b. Induction motor
c. DC series motor d. Synchronous motor
63. Which of the following motors has high starting torque?

a. DC shunt motor b. Squirrel cage induction motor
c. DC series motor d. AC series motor
64. Which transformer has only one winding.

a. distribution b. power
c. autotransformer d. isolated winding transformer
65. What is the equation for the DC generator?

a. E = VT+IaRa b. E = VT-IaRa
c. E = -VT+IaRa d. E = -VT-IaRa
66. The dummy coil in the DC machines is used to:

a. climate armature reaction
b. bring out mechanical balance of armature
c. eliminate reactance voltage
d. none of the above
67. A generator has a commercial efficiency of 95% and a mechanical efficiency of

97% . Find the electrical efficiency.
a. 97.94% b. 92.12% c. 96% d. 91.25%
68. A part of a generator that links the generator to the prime mover.
a. yoke b. brush c. shaft d. stator
69. A magnet is being heated to a temperature of 460°. What do you think will
happen?
a. it will become a loadstone b. Magnetic field will increase
c. It will produce demagnetization d. Magnetism will disappear

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70. What should be the possible no. of poles to obtain the highest operating speed ?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
71. _______________ the slot teeth will make the DC generator quieter in operation.
a. Chamfering b. Slotting c. Pulsating d. Commutating
72. Transformer core uses small frequency because is laminated.

a. because it is difficult to fabricate solid core of high frequency
b. because laminated core operating at low frequency provides high flux density
c. to minimized eddy current and hystressis losses
d. to increase the main flux
73. The mechanical power developed by the DC motor is maximum when:

a. back e.m.f is equal to applied voltage
b. back e.m.f. is equal to zero
c. back e.m.f. is equal to half the applied voltage
d. no load
74. A generator may lost residual magnetism because of excessive:

a. vibrator b. heating
c. over-excitation d. varying loads
75. Which among the following types of motor with same power rating having the
same voltage level is the heaviest?
a. single phase Motor b. DC shunt Motor
c. Induction Motor d. DC compound Motor
76. Electric power is transformed from one coil to the other coil in a transformer.
a. Physically b. magnetically c. Electrically d. electromagnetically
77. Electric motors are rated in:

a. kW b. BHP c. kWH d. kVA
78. A hot smoky motor is a good indication of:

a. A ground b. An open c. A and B d. A short
79. A transformer is more efficiently utilized when the load has a ______ power factor.
a. low b. medium c. average d. high

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80. What is the turns ratio on a three-phase, four wire 480/240/120 volt transformer?
a. 3/1 b. 2/1 c. 4/1 d. ½
81. With a 3 delta-wye connected transformer 480 V primary, 208/120 V secondary,

the secondary line current is ________.
a. equal to the secondary phase current b. greater then the secondary phase current
c. less than the secondary phase current d. 1.732 times the secondary phase current
82. On a delta three-phase four-wire secondary, how many hot wires may use the
common neutral?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
83. A 25 kVA, 2400/240 volt transformer has a primary current of 10 A. What is the
secondary current?
a. 0.10 A b. 100 A c. 20 A d. 50 A
84. The standard method of controlling the output voltage of a 440 V, 60 Hz AC

generator is accomplished by adjusting the:
a. number of poles b. prime mover speed
c. alternator’s field excitation d. load on the alternator
85. The transformer oil used in a transformer provides:

a. insulation and cooling b. insulation, cooling and lubrication
c. insulation and lubrication d. cooling and lubrication
86. What is the common method of cooling transformer?

a. natural cooling b. air cooling c. air blast cooling d. oil cooling
87. In a squirrel cage induction motor, which component is NOT a part of the motor?
a. stator b. slip rings c. fan blades d. rotor
88. A 25-hp engine drives a DC generator, if the generator has an efficiency of 84% ,
how much does it deliver?
a. 20 hp b. 24 hp c. 21 hp d. 25 hp
89. In a DC circuit, the ratio of watts to voltamperes is always _________.

a. unity b. greater than
c. less than one d. cannot tell what it might be

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90. What is common in the two windings of a transformer?

a. electric circuit b. magnetic circuit c. winding wire gauge d. none of
these
91. Preferably, the resistance between the primary and the secondary of a
transformer should be:
a. as low as possible
b. as high as possible
c. low or high depending upon whether it is step up or step down respectively
d. high or low depending upon whether it is step up or step down respectively
92. The resistance of low voltage side of a transformer:

a. is equal to resistance of its high voltage side
b. is more than resistance of its high voltage side
c. is less than the resistance of its high voltage side
d. (b) or (c)
93. The basic property of the transformer is that it changes the voltage level of an a.c.
signal.
a. without changing the power b. without changing its shape
c. without changing its frequency d. without changing power, frequency or shape
94. Transformers are rated in:

a. KW b. KV c. KWH d. kVA
95. What type of core is used for a high frequency transformer?

a. Air core b. Closed iron core c. Aluminum core d. Open iron core
96. Which of the following is a correct statement about eddy currents?

a. Eddy currents improve the efficiency of a motor
b. Eddy currents heat up the metal parts
c. Eddy current do not influence the movement
d. Eddy currents are used for arc welding
97. Which of the statement given below is true about autotransformer?

a. It has two separate windings connected in series externally
b. It can only step down the voltage
c. It has only one winding
d. It is most suitable for power transformer

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98. In any transformer the voltage per turn in primary and secondary remains.
a. always different b. always same c. always in ratio of 1 d. sometimes same
99. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at:

a. no load b. half load
c. near full load d. little more than full load
100. The size of a transformer core will depend on:

a. frequency b. flux density of the core material
c. area of the core d. (a) and (b) both

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Closed Door RME
1. The PEC does not cover the following except for.

a. Installations of building communication system
b. watercraft other than floating buildings
c. aircraft
d. automotive vehicles
2. This Code is intended to be suitable for ______application by governmental bodies

that exercise legal jurisdiction over electrical installations, including signaling and
communications systems, and for use by insurance inspectors.
a. mandatory b. advisory c. regulatory d. a,b and c
3. What does FPN in PEC mean.

a. For Philippine Name only b. fine print notes
c. For printed notes only d. For Philippine Notes only
4. The Code does not contain detailed information on equipment or materials but refers
to the products as
a. listed b. labeled c. identified d. all of these
5. In PEC Wiring Planning includes.

a. Future Expansion b. Number of Circuits in Enclosures
c. Convenience d. all of these
6. For the purpose of this Code, metric units of measurement are in accordance with the
modernized metric system known as the
a. International System of Units (SI) b. CGS units
c. IEC units d. English units
7. Accessible ,as applied to wiring methods means

a. Capable of being removed or exposed without damaging the building structure
b. finish or not permanently closed in by the structure
c. finish of the building
d. all of the above
8. By definition Readily Accessible does not conform to

a. Capable of being reached quickly for operation, renewal, or inspections without requiring
those to whom ready access is requisite to climb over
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b. remove obstacles
c. to resort to portable ladders
d. with padlocks
9. The purpose of bonding is to establish an effective path for fault current that, in turn,
facilitates
a. the operation of the over current protective device
b. the operation of the over load device
c. the operation of the cable
d. the operation of the disconnect
10. The connection between the grounded circuit conductor and the equipment
grounding conductor at the service.
a. Main Bonding Jumper b. Equipment Bonding Jumper
c. System Bonding Jumper d. Grounding
11. General-Purpose Branch Circuit means

a. A branch circuit that supplies outlets for lighting
b. A branch circuit that supplies two or more receptacles or outlets for lighting and
appliances.
c. A branch circuit that supplies only one utilization equipment.
d. A branch circuit that supplies only one lighting units
12. According to the Code automatic opening of circuit breaker means can be any of the
following except for
a. Integral b. direct acting with the circuit breaker
c. shunt trip d. remote from the circuit breaker
13. A qualifying term indicating that there is purposely introduced a delay in the tripping
action of the circuit breaker, which delay decreases as the magnitude of the current
increases.
a. Adjustable b. Instantaneous Trip
c. Inverse Time d. Sub transient Trip delay
14. Conductors drawn from a copper-clad aluminum rod with the copper metallurgically
bonded to an aluminum core. The copper forms a minimum of 10 percent of the cross-
sectional area of a solid conductor or each strand of a stranded conductor.
a. Copper-Clad Aluminum Conductors b. Impregnated Copper Conductor
c. ACSR d. AAAC

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15. Which of the following operation of motor is not correct?

a. Intermittent duty means Operation for alternate intervals of motor for load and no load; or
load and rest; or load, no load, and rest.
b. Periodic Duty Intermittent operation in which the load conditions are regularly recurrent.
c. Short-Time Duty Operation at a substantially constant load for a short and definite,
specified time.
d. Varying duty Operation at loads, and for intervals of time, both of which may be
subject to constant variation of mechanical load.
16. It is a term for proper arrangement of incandescent lamps or electric-discharge

lighting to outline or call attention to certain features such as the shape of a building
or the decoration of a window.
a. Outline Lighting b. lighting track c. lighting grid d. lighting template
17. Insulation is one of the most important parts of the electrical system that
a. Prevents the flow of electricity between points of different potential in an electrical
system.
b. Prevents the flow of electricity between points of different current in an electrical system
c. Prevents the electromagnetic induction between two electrical system
d. Prevents the flow of arc between points of different potential in an electrical system
18. The width of the working space in front of the electric equipment shall be the width of
the equipment or ______whichever is greater. In all cases, the work space shall permit
at least a 90 degree opening of equipment doors or hinged panels.
a. 1000 mm b. 760 mm c. 500 mm d. 76 mm
19. Equipment that is associated with the electrical installation and is located above or
below the electrical equipment shall be permitted to extend not more than
________beyond the front of the electrical equipment.
a. 100 mm b. 760 mm c. 500 mm d. 150 mm
20. The minimum headroom of working spaces about service equipment, switchboards,
panel boards, or motor control centers shall be
a. 2000 mm b. 1500 mm c. 5000 mm d. 150 mm
21. Except as elsewhere required or permitted by this Code, live parts of electrical
equipment operating at _____volts or more shall be guarded against accidental
contact by approved enclosures
a. 50 b. 600 c. 100 d. 220

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22. Sufficient space shall be provided and maintained about electric equipment to permit
ready and safe operation and maintenance of such equipment. Where energized parts
are exposed, the minimum clear work space shall not be less than
a. 2000 mm b. 1500 mm c. 5000 mm d. 150 mm
23. At least one entrance not less than ______ mm wide and ________ high shall be
provided to give access to the working space about electric equipment.
a. 100, 2000 b. 1500, 600 c. 600, 5000 d. 600, 2000
24. Illumination shall be provided for all working spaces about electrical equipment. The
lighting outlets shall be arranged so that
a. Persons changing lamps or making repairs on the lighting system are not
endangered by live parts or other equipment.
b. Lamp can be easily repair
c. To follow lighting grid
d. For beauty
25. the correct formula for Elevation of Unguarded Live Parts Above Working Space over
34.5 kV is
a. 2800 mm + 10 mm per kV b. 5500 mm + 10 mm per kV
c. 2000 mm + 10 mm per kV d. 1800 mm + 10 mm per kV
26. The following shall be used only for the grounded circuit conductor except for
a. conductor with continuous white or gray covering
b. conductor with three continuous white stripes on other than green insulation
c. marking of white or gray color at the termination
d. yellow color
27. The terminal for the connection of the equipment grounding conductor shall be
identified by one of the following except for
a. A green, not readily removable terminal screw with a hexagonal head.
b. A green, hexagonal, not readily removable terminal nut.
c. A green pressure wire connector.
d. entrance hole marked with the word gray
28. The magnitude of the reflected wave increases as the distance from the arrester
increases. If the length of the conductor between the protected equipment and the
surge arrester is short, the magnitude of the wave reflected through the equipment is
minimized due to
a. wave effect b. ferranti effect c. Petersen effect d. separation effect
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29. The equipment grounding conductor of a grounding-type receptacle or a branch-

circuit extension shall be permitted to be connected to any of the following:
a. Any accessible point on the grounding electrode system
b. Any accessible point on the grounding electrode conductor
c. The equipment grounding terminal bar within the enclosure where the branch circuit for
the receptacle or branch circuit originates
d. the grounded service conductor outside the service equipment enclosure
30. One of the functions of an equipment grounding conductor is to provide a

_______impedance ground-fault path between a ground fault and the electrical source
a. Low b. high c. open d. short
31. Which among the following is not stated in PEC? It shall be permissible to ground
meter enclosures by connection to the grounded circuit conductor on the load side of
the service disconnect if
a. No service ground-fault protection is installed, and
b. All meter enclosures are located near the service disconnecting means, and
c. The size of the grounded circuit conductor is not smaller than equipment grounding
conductors.
d. Bonding is not possible
32. The grounding conductor for secondary circuits of instrument transformers and for
instrument cases shall not be smaller than ____ sq mm copper or ______ sq mm
aluminum.
a. 3.5, 5.5 b. 2.0, 3.5 c. 5.5, 8.0 d. 3.5, 8.0
33. Which of the following provisions for neutral conductor is not correct?
a. The minimum insulation level for neutral conductors of solidly grounded systems shall be
600 volts.
b. Bare copper conductors shall be permitted to be used for the neutral of service entrances
and the neutral of direct-buried portions of feeders.
c. Bare conductors shall be permitted for the neutral of overhead portions installed
outdoors.
d. It has a disconnect
34. Line and ground connecting conductors for lightning arrester shall not be smaller
than ____sq mm copper or _____sq mm aluminum.
a. 3.5, 5.5 b. 2.0, 3.5 c. 5.5, 8.0 d. 3.5, 8.0

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35. For Circuits of 1 kV and over conductors between the surge arrester and the line and
the surge arrester and the grounding connection shall not be smaller than ______ sq
mm copper.
a. 8.0 b. 14.0 c. 2.0 d. 5.5
36. For a wye-start, delta-run connected motor, the selection of branch-circuit conductors
on the line side of the controller shall be based on the motor full-load current. The
selection of conductors between the controller and the motor shall be based on _____
percent of the motor full-load current.
a. 58 b. 73 c. 15 d. 25
37. Where one or more of the motors of the group are used for short-time, intermittent,
periodic, or varying duty, the ampere rating of such motors to be used in the
summation shall be for the highest rated motor, the greater of either the ampere rating
or the largest continuous duty motor full-load current multiplied by _____shall be
used in the summation.
a. 0.8 b.1 c. 1.25 d. 2.5
38. Each autotransformer 600 volts, nominal, or less shall be protected by

________device installed in series with each _____ input conductor. Such overcurrent
device shall be rated or set at not more than 125 percent of the rated full-load input
current of the autotransformer.
a. an individual overcurrent, ungrounded b. disconnect, ungrounded
c. an individual overcurrent, grounded d. disconnect, grounded
39. Grounding autotransformers can either be_________ connected to 3-phase, 3-wire

ungrounded systems for the purpose of creating a 3-phase, 4-wire distribution system
or providing a neutral reference for grounding purposes. Such transformers shall
have a continuous per-phase current rating and a continuous neutral current rating
except for.
a. zigzag transformers b. T-connected transformers
c. buck or boost d. vertex grounded delta
40. A fault-sensing system that causes the opening of a main switch or common-trip
overcurrent device for the 3-phase, 4-wire system shall be provided to guard against
a. single-phasing or internal faults. b. double fed fault
c. Three phase fault d. series fault

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41. An overcurrent protective device of adequate short-circuit rating that will open
simultaneously all ungrounded conductors when it operates shall be applied in the
grounding autotransformer branch circuit and shall be rated or set at a current not
exceeding 125 percent of the autotransformer continuous per-phase current rating or
___percent of the continuous-current rating of any series connected devices in the
autotransformer neutral connection.
a. 53 b. 42 c. 125 d. 73
42. A device, or group of devices, or other means by which the conductors of a circuit
can be disconnected from their source of supply.
a. Circuit breaker b. disconnect c. switcher d. isolator
43. The case or housing of apparatus, or the fence or walls surrounding an installation to
prevent personnel from accidentally contacting energized parts or to protect the
equipment from physical damage.
a. fitting b. box c. Enclosure d. junction box
44. In dwelling units, at least one wall receptacle outlet shall be installed in bathrooms
within ____ of the outside edge of each basin. The receptacle outlet shall be located
on a wall or partition that is adjacent to the basin or basin countertop.
a. 450 mm b. 500 mm c. 1800 mm d. 900 mm
45. A single yoke will supply a certain types of load. What shall be the maximum total
volt-ampere rating of the load for that purpose.
a. 90 b. 450 c. 180 d. 360
46. Sign and outline lighting outlets shall be computed at a minimum of ______ volt-
amperes for each required branch circuit
a. 1200 b. 1440 c. 1500 d. 1800
47. If a 8.0 sq mm bare aluminum conductor can safely handle 98 A, then how much
current can a 8.0 sq mm covered copper conductor can safely handle.
a. 89 A b. 103 A c. 130 A d. 98 A
48. Which of the following is not standard cross sectional area of conductor?
a. 1.25 sq mm b. 0.75 sq mm c.5.5 sq mm d. 3.0 sq mm
49. Adjustment factor shall only be applied to bundled conductor on conduit/raceway

larger than.
a. 500 mm b. 150 mm c. 600 mm d. 760 mm
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50. Type MV cable is a single or multi-conductor solid dielectric insulated cable rated
_________ or higher.
a. 20001 V b. 35 kV c. 4.16 kV d. 660 kV
51. Type MV cable are permitted for use on power system rated up to.
a. 69 V b. 35 kV c. 4.16 kV d. 660 kV
52. What is the MINIMUM size underground service lateral for a copper-clad aluminum
single-branch circuit serving a controlled water heater?
a. 14 sq mm b. 8.0 sq mm c. 5.5 sq mm d. 3.5 sq mm
53. Where the number of current-carrying conductors in a raceway or cable exceeds

three, or where single conductors or multiconductor cables are stacked or bundled
longer than ________ without maintaining spacing and are not installed in raceways,
the allowable ampacity of each conductor shall be reduced
a. 300 b. 600 c. 100 d. 500
54. Coatings on which of the following shall be removed at threads, contact points, and
contact surfaces or be connected by means of fittings so designed as to make such
removal unnecessary in bonding other enclosures for grounding?
a. Copper b. Zinc c. Aluminum d. Enamel
55. What color must be used to identify an insulated 14 sq mm or smaller grounded

conductor?
a. Black b. Brown c. Gray d. Green
56. If the utility specifies that the service point is at the point of attachment of the service
drop to the house, then the service-drop conductors are not considered service conductors
because
a. the service drop is not on the premises wiring side of the service point
b. the service drop is also the service point
c. the service point is usually not located at the house
d. the service point is overhead
57. Use of UF cable is permitted ________.

a. for interior wiring in wet locations b. in service entrance conductors
c. in theaters d. where embedded in poured concrete

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58. What is the MAXIMUM allowable AWG size for a solid conductor installed in a
raceway?
a. 6 AWG b. 8 AWG c. 10 AWG d. 12 AWG
59. Listed nonmetallic raceways are permitted for all of the following uses EXCEPT
a. in exposed work
b. where subject to corrosive vapors
c. in wet locations
d. where subject to physical damage
60. What is the MAXIMUM allowable electrical potential for low-voltage equipment in
frequent contact with patient's bodies?
a. 6 volts b. 10 volts c. 12 volts d. 24 volts
61. What is the MINIMUM size wire permitted as a bonding jumper between the
communications grounding electrodes and power grounding electrodes in a
communications circuit?
a. This connection is not permitted b. 14.0 mm2 c. 5.5 mm2 d. 3.5 mm2
62. Ceiling fans may be supported solely by outlet boxes that are identified for such use,
as long as the fans do not exceed ________ lbs. in total weight.
a. 100 b. 75 c. 50 d. 35
63. What is the MAXIMUM permitted rating on branch circuits supplying signs or outline
lighting systems?
a. 15 amps b. 20 amps c. 25 amps d. 30 amps
64. Conductors within electrical nonmetallic tubing may carry a MAXIMUM of

a. 300 volts. B. 450 volts. c. 500 volts. d. 600 volts.
65. In practice, to compensate for voltage drops in a long circuit.

a. larger conductors with a higher ampacity are commonly used
b. the conductors are rerouted in such a way as to decrease the length of the conductor
c. Use aluminum conductor
d. Use metallic conduit
66. All of the following are methods of heat transfer EXCEPT:

a. conduction b. compression c. convection d. radiation

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67. Three 3-phase circuits in the same raceway, protected by overcurrent devices rated
30, 60,
and 100 amperes, what shall be the size of equipment grounding conductor.
a. 30 A b. 60 A c. 100 A d. 190 A
68. To reach a lighting fixture junction box you had to stand on a ladder. This junction
box is
considered to be _______.
a. concealed b. readily accessible c. accessible d. hidden
69. The Philippine Electrical Code requires that conduit must be continuous from outlet to
outlet, must be mechanically and electrically connected to all fittings, and must be
suitably grounded. The reason for having the conduit electrically continuous and
grounded is to
a. provide metallic return conductor
b. shield the wires inside the conduit from external magnetic fields
c. make it easy to test wiring connections
d. prevent electrical shock which might otherwise result from contact with the
conduit
70. In industrial facilities where conditions of maintenance and supervision ensure only
qualified persons will service the installation, you may use cable tray systems to
support _____.
a. raceways b. cables c. boxes and conduit bodies d. all of these
71. The minimum insulation level for neutral conductors in solidly grounded systems is
________ volts.
a. 600 b. 1,000 c. 1,500 d. 2,100
72. Which of the following is the best way to eliminate stroboscopic effect
a. Using new luminaries b. using 400 Hz frequency
c. used flat cord d .using 500 v
73. What size of UF wire should be used to supply 20 A loads at a temp of 35 degree
Celsius? The correction factor is 0.94.
a. 2.0 b. 3.5 c. 5.5 d. 8.0

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74. _____ of the two to six disconnecting means permitted where used only for a water
pump also intended to provide fire protection, shall be permitted to be located remote
from the other disconnecting means.
a. One b. two c. none d. six
75. A pendant fixture is a _______ fixture.

a. hanging b. Recessed c. Bracket d. none of these
76. A 115 volt circuit is carrying 50 amps, the voltage drop is 2% of the source voltage.
How much power is lost in the conductors?
a. 2.3 watts b. 115 watts c. 112.7 watts d. none of these
77. If potential exceeding ______ v ,warning signal shall be displayed

a. 500 b. 400 c. 600 d. 700
78. A transverse metal raceway for electrical conductors, furnishing access to

predetermined cells of a precast cellular concrete floor, which permits installation of
conductors from a distribution center to the floor cells is called _______.
a. an under floor raceway b. a header duct
c. a cellular raceway d. a mandrel
79. Conduit shall be _____.

a. threaded b. electrically continuous c. reamed d. cut square
80. Any motor application shall be considered as _______ unless nature of the apparatus
it drives is such that the motor will not operate continuously with load under any
condition of use.
a. short-time duty b. varying duty c. continuous duty d. periodic duty
81. An over current trip unit of a circuit shall be connected in series with each ______.
a. ungrounded conductor b. grounded conductor
c. over current device d. transformer
82. Cable trays shall ______.

I. have side rails or equivalent structural members
II. not present sharp edges or burrs
III. have suitable strength and rigidity
a. I only b. I and II only c. III only d. I, II, and III

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83. Over current protective devices shall be so selected and coordinated as to permit the
circuit protective devices used to clear a fault without the occurrence of extensive
damage to the electrical components of the circuit. This fault shall be assumed to be
________.
I. between any circuit conductor and the grounding conductor or enclosing
metal raceway
II. between two or more of the circuit conductors
a. I only b. II only c. both I and II d. neither I nor II
84. For feeder supplying household cooking equipment and electric clothes dryers the
maximum unbalanced load on the neutral conductor shall be considered as ______ of
the load on the ungrounded conductors.
a. 40% b. 50% c. 70% d. 80%
85. Where a transformer or other devices is used to obtain a reduced voltage for the
motor control circuit and is located in the controller, such transformer or other
devices shall be connected ________ for the motor control circuit.
I. to the load side of the disconnecting means
II. to the line side of the disconnecting means
a. I only b. II only c. either I or II d. neither I nor II
86. Messenger supported wiring shall not be used _______.

I. where subject to severe physical damage
II. in hoist ways
a. I only b. II only c. both I and II d. neither I nor II
87. Which choice is NOT a rule when sizing a device box?

a. a wire not spliced counts as one wire
b. a wire that terminates in a box counts as one wire
c. a wire contained within a box counts as one wire
d. all grounded wires count as one wire
88. When using a snap switch the ampere rating must be ___________ the full-load
current of the motor.
a. 115% above b. 2 times c. 125% above d. 15 A over
89. The following are the standard ampere ratings for fuses and inverse time circuit
breakers except for.
a. 125 b. 150 c. 175 d. 95 A

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90. How many mm do you need to sufficiently ground to a water pipe?

a. 1500 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
91. Splices may not occupy more than ______% of the cross- sectional area in the
auxiliary gutter
a. 75% b. 50% c. 70% d. 60%
92. The normal fluorescent lamp is designed for operation at _______F

a. 50 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
93. The resistance of made electrode should not exceed _____.

a. 25  b 30 c. 40 d. 50
94. In a group of four motors, one motor draws 10 ampere, one draws 45 ampere and two
draws 75 ampere. What size of conductor must be used for the feeder circuit?
a. 224 A b. 228 A c. 300 A d.124 A
95. The voltage change resulting from motor starting

a. voltage swell b. voltage sag c. voltage dip d. voltage drop
96. A tool that is used to aligned vitrified tile conduit in multiple ducts is a
a. mandrel b. Neil c. hickey d. growler
97. The definition of ambient temperature is

a. the temperature of the conductor
b. the insulation rating of the conductor
c. the temperature of the area surrounding the conductor
d. the maximum heat the insulation can be used within
98. Determine the minimum size for electric clothes dryer

a. 3.5 TW b. 3.5 THW c. 5.5 TW d. 5.5 THW
99. The PEC rules on Fire Protective Signaling Systems cover the installation wiring and
equipment up to what maximum voltage?
a. 150 volts b. 300 volts c. 750 volts d. 600 volts

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100. For distribution lines supported on poles and installed above communication
conductors, the horizontal clearance necessary to provide climbing space shall NOT
be less than what minimum distance?
a. 500 mm b. 1000 mm c. 600 mm d. 760 mm
101. A load of 180 volt-amperes is not required to be considered for outlets supplying
recessed lighting fixtures, lighting outlets for general illumination, and small-
appliance branch circuits because
a. cases would be unrealistic
b. It would unnecessarily restrict the number of lighting or receptacle outlets on
branch circuits in dwelling units.
c. There is a separate table for lighting load
d. 24 VA per sq m is the basis.
102. The thermal protective device of a motor which is its integral part, with full load
current of 20 Amps. and above, has a setting of:
a. 140% b. 150% c. 170% d. 125%
103. The thermal protector of motor which is integral part of motor with full load current
of 9 amps. and below, has the setting of:
a. 140% b. 170% c. 150% d. 115%
104. For areas used as amphitheaters and TV studio, the application of 100% demand
factor is on the first:
a. 10 kVA b. 30 kVA c. 50 kVA d. 60 kVA
105. The electrical system of an Aircraft is not under the coverage of electrical
engineering practice because their frequency is under Avionics. The frequency is;
a. 500 Hz b. 400 Hz c. 1000 Hz d. 200 Hz
106. This is the largest stranded conductor that can be screwed to terminal plates as
per NEC, PEC and other worldwide.
a. 2 mm sq. b. 3.5 mm sq. c. 5.5 mm sq. d. 8 mm sq.
107. The smallest conductor size for a 30 Amps. branch circuit is;
a. 8.0 mm sq. b. 5.5 mm sq. c. 3.5 mm sq. d. 2.0 mm sq.

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108. Knowing the surface temperature of a certain electrical machine in degrees

Centigrade, the hot spot can be determine by adding the measured surface
temperature with:
a. 15 deg. C b. 20 deg. C c. 40 deg. C d. 30 deg. C
109. Additional feeders or branch circuits shall be permitted where the capacity
requirements are in excess of _________ amperes at a supply voltage of _______ volts
or less.
a. 2000, 600 b. 200, 600 c. 1000, 460 d. 100, 230
110. The disconnecting means for each supply permitted shall consist of not more than
_______ switches or _______ circuit breakers mounted in a single enclosure, in a
group of separate enclosures, or in or on a switchboard.
a. 6, 6 b. 48, 48 c. 42, 42 d. 10,10
111. The vertical clearances of all service-drop conductors shall be based on conductor
temperature of ________, no wind, with final unloaded sag in the wire, conductor, or
cable.
a. 15ºC c. 5ºC c. 60ºC d. 75ºC
112. A grounded conductor shall be permitted to be uninsulated as follows except for.

a. Bare copper used in a raceway
b. Bare copper for direct burial where bare copper is judged to be suitable for the soil
conditions
c. Bare copper for direct burial without regard to soil conditions where part of a cable
assembly identified for underground use.
d. Aluminum
113. Determine the minimum standard size of overcurrent protective device and the
minimum standard conductor size for the following circuit:
25 amperes of continuous load
60°C overcurrent device terminal rating
Type THWN conductors
Four current-carrying copper conductors in a raceway
a. 35 A, 8.0 sq mm, THHN b. 35, 8.0 sq mm THWN
c. 30 A, 8.0 sq mm, THHN d. 30, 8.0 sq mm THWN
114. What shall be the minimum creepage distance between open conductor.
a. 1000 mm b. 100 mm c. 10 mm d. 1 mm

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115. What shall be the minimum separation of conductor on Poles.

a. 3000 mm b. 300 mm c. 30 mm d. 3 mm
116. What shall be the minimum climbing space between power and communication
conductor @ nominal voltage of 600 V.
a. 5500 mm b. 760 mm c. 1900 mm d. 1000 mm
117. The size of bonding jumper conductor for a system that supplies Class I – III circuit
and is derived from the transformer rated not more than 1 kV shall not be smaller than
____________ copper and ________ aluminum.
a. 2.0 sq mm, 3.5 sq mm b. 3.5 sq. mm, 5.5 sq mm
c. 5.5 sq mm, 8.0 sq mm d. 8.0 sq mm, 14.0 sq mm
118. The size of conductor fro grounding of instrument transformer shall be.
a. 2.0 sq mm, 3.5 sq mm b. 3.5 sq. mm, 5.5 sq mm
c. 5.5 sq mm, 3.5 sq mm d. 8.0 sq mm, # 8 AWG
119. Where installed in raceways, conductors of size ______________ and larger shall
be stranded.
a. 14.0 sq mm. b. 3.5 sq. mm c. 5.5 sq mm d. 8.0 sq mm
120. According to PEC only conductors __________or larger are permitted to be

connected in parallel to form a single conductor.
a. 50 sq mm b. 125 sq mm c. 14.0 sq mm d. 200 sq mm
121. Which of the following is not an approved corrosion resistant material for conduit?
a. zinc b. cadmium c. enamel d. Nickel
122. This particular size of wire can still be operated from 2 kV up to 8 kV

a. 2.0 sq mm. b. 3.5 sq. mm c. 5.5 sq mm d. 8.0 sq mm
123. Thermoplastic insulation material may stiffen @ temperature of.

a. -10ºC c. 50ºC c. 10ºC d. -40ºC
124. The rating of a silicon carbide-type surge arrester shall be not less than _____
percent of the maximum continuous phase-to-ground voltage available at the point of
application.
a. 100 b. 125 c. 137 d. 105

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125. What shall be the rating of silicon carbide-type surge arrester if it installed at the
distribution system of 34.5 kV.
a. 34.5 kV b. 25 kV c. 69 kV d. 4.16 kV
126. A transformer rated over 600 volts with a secondary rated over 600 volts, with
secondary protection consisting of six circuit breakers. The sum of the ratings of the
circuit breakers is not permitted to exceed ________ percent of the rated secondary
current.
a. 600 b. 300 c. 250 d. 175
127. Communications wires and cables shall be separated at LEAST a certain minimum
distance from service drops of electric light and power conductors which are not
installed in a raceway or in a cable. What is this minimum distance?
a. 150 mm b. 175 mm c. 300 mm d. 200 mm
128. Transformers are rated in

a. kW b. kV c. kWH d. kVA
129. An applied voltage of 10 percent below rating can result in a decrease of

fluorescent light output by.
a. 10 % b. 20% c. 15% d. 5%
130. A grounded metal enclosure containing factory-mounted, bare or insulated

conductors, which are usually copper or aluminum bars, rods, or tubes
a. Bus way b. cable tray c. cable bus d. Bus trench
131. What position must a knife switch with fuse be mounted?

a. horizontal b. vertical c. diagonal d. inclined position
132. A column pole or narrow base structure that support overhead conductor through
its crossarm
a. Creosote b. stockyard c. spool d. Mast
133. What the difference in the design between a 10 Hz transformer and 400 Hz
transformer?
a. No Difference
b. 400 Hz has a high efficiency
c. 10 Hz Transformer is heavier than 400 Hz Transformer of the same rating
d. they have different Insulation level
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134. What is the maximum percentage voltage drop allowable through an extension
cord?
a. 1% b. 2% c. 4% d. 6%
135. For each 2-wire laundry branch circuit, a feeder load of NOT less than _____ shall
be included.
a. 1,800 VA b. 1,500 VA c. 2,000 VA d.1,200 VA
136. Services using copper conductors shall have sufficient capacity and shall not be
smaller than;
a. 5.5 mm2 b. 8.0 mm2 c. 14 mm2 d. 22 mm2
137. Why are system and circuit grounded?

a. To protect from excessive current
b. To limit the excess voltage to ground, which occur from lightning or exposure to
other higher voltage source.
c. To acquire more power from grounding circuit
d. Precautionary measure of the system
138. Used for grounding equipment, conduit and other metal raceway, including service
conduit, cable sheath etc.
a. Grounding system b. Grounding electrode conductor
c. Grounding wires d. Grounding cable
139. Code requires that the minimum area exposed surface offered by a plate electrode
shall be;
a. 1/8 sq. meter b. ¼ sq. Meter c. 3/8 sq. meter d. ½ sq. meter
140. A single grounding electrode is permitted when the resistance to ground does not
exceed;
a. 5  b. 10  c. 15  d. 25 
141. The minimum size of a copper equipment grounding conductor required for
equipment connected to a 40-ampere circuit.
a. 5.5 sq. mm b. 8 sq. mm c. 14 sq. mm d. 22 sq. mm
142. Open wiring on insulators commonly known as;

a. knob and tube wiring b. Split knob and receptacle wiring
c. Duplex wiring d. Common wiring
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143. The length of free conductors at outlets and switch point for splices and
connection of fixture and device must be at least:
a. 80 mm b. 100 mm c. 120 mm d. 150 mm
144. Supports of AC cable have intervals not exceeding;

a. 1,000 mm b. 1,300 mm c. 1,500 mm d. 1,400 mm
145. In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit shall be supported at least every;
a. 2,000 mm b. 2,500 mm c. 3,000 mm d. 3,500 mm
146. The disconnecting means of a hermetic-type refrigerator compressor shall have an

ampacity of at least _____ of the nameplate full load current.
a. 125% b. 80% c. 100% d. 115%
147. Conductors on poles shall have a separation of not less than ________ where not
placed on racks or brackets.
a. 300 mm b. 500 mm c. 1000 mm d. 150 mm
148. A Cable containing 45 conductors has a correction factor of

a. 80 % b. 35 % c. 40 % d. 70 %

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Closed Door - RME
1. A 3-phase, 4-wire line supplies a 3-phase motor load and three single phase lighting
loads. The neutral conductor current will be the vector sum of the
* lighting – load currents.
2. Of the following statements, the correct one is

* A prony brake is used chiefly for determining the speed and torque characteristics
of small and medium size motors.
3. Of the following statements, the correct one is

* The wires of a branch circuit used for 25 Hp., 220-volt motor may be used to supply
a 25 Hp., 440-volt motor.
4. Of the following motors, the one which would be classed as a universal motor is the
* series.
5. If the field of a shunt motor opens while running, the motor will
* run away.
6. The short-time rating of a motor is

* its capacity to carry full load for periods of minutes.
7. The maximum output of electrical machines is limited by the

* temperature rise.
8. A two-phase service may be changed to a 3-phase, 3-wire service by using

* a Scott transformer.
9. The resonant frequency of a parallel circuit may be defined as that frequency at which
the
* circuit will operate under a condition of unity power factor.
10. A compensator is a device which is used with alternating current motors to

* reduce the supply voltage during starting periods.
11. Which of the following does not have to be synchronized to a bus already alive and
supplying load when connection to same is to be made?
* Distribution transformers

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12. The chief advantage of using high tension alternating current for power transmission
over long distances is that
* power is transmitted with a minimum of line losses.
13. A circuit carries both an A.C. and D.C. current. Of the following types of ammeters,
the one which will not indicate the effective value of the combined currents is the
* permanent magnet.
14. Of the following statements the correct one is :

* Insulation resistance may be measured with only a high resistance voltmeter.
15. A centrifugal pump is driven by a synchronous motor. Varying the field current of the
motor will change the
* power factor of the motor.
16. The copper losses of a transformer will

* increase with a lowering of the power factor.
17. Low power factor loads on a line

* demand increased generating capacity.
18. Of the following statements, the correct one is:

* To disconnect an ammeter from a current transformer, the secondary of the
transformer should be short-circuited first.
19. In a series A.C. circuit consisting of inductive and capacitive reactances

* the voltage across any of the reactances may be greater than the applied voltage.
20. When a vacuum tube is used as an amplifier and the plate current flows for 100
percent of the cycle, the tube is known as a
* class A amplifier.
21. The magnetomotive force of a solenoid is dependent upon the

* ampere-turns.
22. The purpose for phasing out the windings of a three-phase transformer is to
determine
* the relative polarity of the windings.

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23. A synchronous motor

* will take minimum line current at any load when operating at unity power factor.
24. The rotation of a direct current motor may be reversed by

* reversing either the armature or field connections.
25. Of the following statements, the correct one is:

* The iron losses in a transformer are not dependent on its load.
26. In modern radio receivers, the detector tube

* separates the modulated carrier wave from the audio signal.
27. Open circuit and short circuit tests are performed on transformers to
* obtain data for determining the efficiency and regulation of the transformer.
28. When transformers are to be operated in parallel it is not necessary that the
transformers have the same
* kVA rating.
29. The intensity of illumination from source of light on a plane surface will vary
* inversely as the square of the distance.
30. When condensers are connected in parallel

* they combine like resistors in series.
31. Adding an iron core to an A.C. air core inductor will decrease the
* current taken by the coil.
32. Frequently the termination of an unloaded telephone line is made equal to the
characteristics impedance of the line, in order to
* reduce standing waves on the line.
33. When the secondary winding of the transformer is short-circuited and the impedance
at the terminals of the primary winding is measured by means of a bridge, the
measured reactance is the
* leakage reactance of the transformer referred to the primary circuit.
34. The acceptability of a sample of low-loss solid dielectric for use in the presence of
radio-frequency fields is most conveniently determined by the use of
* a Boonton Q-meter.
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35. The Foster-Seeley discriminator employs

* a tuned transformer and two diodes.
36. The construction of a selsyn device is similar to that of

* a wound-rotor induction motor.
37. Essentially, the pull-out torque of a wound-rotor induction motor

* is independent of the rotor resistance.
38. The slip of an induction motor, expressed in percent, is the ratio

* of rotor copper loss x 100/rotor input.
39. The most important reason for not fusing the neutral in a 120/240-volt, 3-wire system
is
* the blowing of a neutral fuse may produce a serious voltage unbalance in the circuit.
40. The inert gas present in an incandescent lamp is primarily intended to

* decrease filament evaporation.
41. The mechanical power generated by any motor is equal to the

* current multiplied by its rotational counter-emf.
42. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged acid
storage cell in good condition are, respectively
* lead peroxide and pure lead.
43. The two conductors of a single phase transmission line suspended in air carry
currents in opposite directions. The force per unit length on each conductor varies
* directly as the square of the current in either conductor.
44. A repulsion motor is equipped with

* a commutator.
45. A radio-frequency transformer is tuned in order to match a resistive 100-ohm

generator to a resistive 600-ohm load. Assuming that the tuning is correct, the
matching of the load to the generator depends upon
* the mutual reactance of the transformer.
46. The load carried by an alternating current motor is dependent upon the
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* current carrying capacity of the conductors of the machine; the flux carrying
capacity of the field circuit; the power factor of the circuit.
47. Is a device which functions on failure of the insulation of a machine, transformer or

other apparatus to ground or on flash over of a DC machine to ground
* ground protective relay.
48. Is an equipment which controls the gate or valve opening of a prime mover
* governor.
49. Is the mechanism which is used for moving a removable circuit breaker unit to end
from the connected, disconnected and test positions
* position changing mechanism.
50. Is the complete electrical mechanism or servo-mechanism including the operator

motor, solenoids, position switches, etc., for a tap changer, induction regulator or any
piece of apparatus which has no device function number
* operating mechanism.
51. Is used to increase or decrease in one step the value of field excitation on a machine
* field changing contactor.
52. Electrons normally flow

* from the positive terminal to the negative terminal inside the battery.
53. When an electric current is flowing in a conductor, heat is developed at a rate

proportional to the square of the intensity of the current. This relation is known as
* Joule’s law.
54. An electric device designed to receive electrical power from a DC source and deliver
alternating power without the aid of external source of alternating voltage
* oscillator circuit.
55. The modulated wave is transmitted over lines or space. However at the receiving
end, the signal wave must be recovered again by means of electronic circuit called
* detector.
56. Process by which the characteristics of a wave is varied as a function of the

instantaneous value of another wave
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* modulation.
57. A special type of diode used to regulate DC voltage supply

* Zener
58. In any network consisting of linear impedances, the current at any point is the sum of
the currents that would flow if each generator were considered separately all other
generators being replaced at the time by impedances equal to their internal
impedances. This principle is known as
* Superposition Theorem.
59. For a transducer, the impedance which will simultaneously terminate all of its inputs
and outputs in such a way that each of its inputs and outputs, the impedances in both
directions are equal are called
* image impedances.
60. When the emf’s in the two windings of the transformer are opposite in direction, the
polarity is
* additive.
61. To determine the equivalent resistance of an inductive motor, we use

* blocked rotor test.
62. Consisting of a single rotating machine that is mainly to convert alternating current to
direct current
* rotary converter.
63. It is the ratio of lumens reaching work plane by the total lumens generated by lights
* coefficient of utilization.
64. Intermittent operation in which the load conditions are regularly recurrent
* periodic duty.
65. In DC machine, this consists of coils placed at the neutral point midway between the
main poles
* interpole winding.
66. A connection to ground for one or more non-carrying metal parts of the wiring system
or apparatus connected to the system
* equipment ground.
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67. A transformer intended primarily to provide neutral point for grounding purposes
* grounding transformer.
68. A grounding transformer may be connected zigzag or

* wye-delta.
69. Of the lightning arresters sold in the market, which can handle much larger surge
current and excessive contamination of dirt
* station arrester.
70. It is a disruptive discharge between electrodes of a measuring gap, voltage control

gap or protective device.
* Sparkover.
71. The voltage that insulation is capable of withstanding without failure or disruptive
discharge when tested under specified conditions
* critical withstand voltage.
72. In symmetrical components, the components consisting of balanced 3-phase vectors

and having a phase sequence opposite to that of the given vector is
* negative sequence system.
73. The fault current that exists immediately after the fault is known as
* subtransient current.
74. The insulation strength of an equipment is described as its

* basic insulation level.
75. The most common tripping time for 60 Hz circuit breaker is

* 8 cycles.
76. When a circuit breaker is selected for a particular application, which one of the
following ratings is usually considered the most important?
* Interrupting rating.
77. Periodic tests on protective relays are important to the stability of a system because
the tests ensure that the
* relays will operate in the proper sequence.

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78. Which one of the following switchgear assemblies would most probably be used in a
large industrial plant having several 600-volt meters, an air conditioning system, and
an extensive lighting system?
* A low-voltage metal-enclosed switchgear.
79. Is a fault occurs on substation high-voltage bus, the system is protected by a

* high-voltage power transformer breaker.
80. Which one of the following tests is preferred for checking switchgear insulation?
* An AC high potential test.
81. In a generating and distribution systems, current balance is provided by protective

zones which are
* monitored by differential relays.
82. In switchgear application, the term “dead front” means that

* energized parts are not exposed on the front panel.
83. The power flow between two electrical systems connected by tie lines is stabilized by
the difference between
* phase angles.
84. A circuit breaker that can be closed against a fault and operated at once, although the
solenoid mechanism may continue through its closing operation, is said to be
* trip-free.
85. A large electric power distribution system is protected against surges and faults by
* high-speed relays detecting the trouble.
86. If a 15 kV switchgear apparatus is used at an altitude of 1500 meters, the maximum

applied voltage should be
* 4750 volts.
87. Which of the following steps is used for isolating a circuit breaker for maintenance
purposes?
* Open the disconnect switches.
88. The impedance which when connected to one pair of terminals of a transducer
produces a like impedance at the other pair of terminals
* iterative impedance.
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89. In series circuit, resonance is defined as a condition in which

* the net reactance is zero; total voltage is in phase with the current; the power factor
is unity; the total impedance is a pure resistance.
90. It is the reciprocal of the impedance

. * admittance.
91. The product of the total voltage to the total current is

* apparent power.
92. In series RLC circuit at resonance, the current is

* maximum.
93. In a variable resistant constant reactance RL series circuit, the locus of the current is
a
* semi-circle.
94. The Norton’s equivalent circuit is a

* parallel circuit.
95. In any network of linear-bilateral impedances, a shift of source voltage E from one
point in a circuit to a second is accompanied by a corresponding shift of current I
from the second point to the first. This is known as
* Reciprocity Theorem.
96. In a T method of measuring power in balanced 3-phase system using one wattmeter,
total power is the wattmeter deflection multiplied by
* 2.
97. In the current transformer method of measuring power in balanced 3-phase system
using one wattmeter, total power is the wattmeter deflection multiplied by
* 1.
98. The order of rotation of the coil voltage in a balanced 3-phase system is called
* phase sequence.
99. A balanced two-phase system of voltages consist of two voltages which are equal
and out of phase by
* 90 degrees.
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100. A non-sinusoidal wave is symmetrical if it is made up only of

* odd harmonic.
101. In a 3-phase synchronous converter, the ratio of the AC voltage to DC voltage is

* 0.612.
102. An exchange of conductor positions in transmission line is called

* transposition.
103. A line terminated in its characteristic or surge impedance is called

* flat line.
104. The total input to the armature at no load minus the armature resistance loss is
* stray power.
105. It is the power required to drive the unexcited dc machine at normal speed with its
brushes lifted.
* Friction and windage loss.
106. If a fault occurs on substation high-voltage bus the system is protected by

* high-voltage power transformer breaker.
107. Which one of the breaker following tests is preferred for checking switchgear
insulation?
* AC high potential test.

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Wires and Conduits
Trade Name Type Letter Operating Temperature
1. Flourinated ethylene propylene
a. FEPB b. MI c. MTW d. FEP e. PFA f. PFAH
2. Flourinated ethylene propylene
3. Mineral insulation (metal sheathed)
4. Moisture-, heat-, and oil-resistant thermoplastic
5. Perfluoro-alkoxy
6. Perfluoro-alkoxy
7. Thermoset
a. SIS b. RHW-2 c. TBS d.RHH e. RHW f. SA
8. Moisture-resistant thermoset
9. Moisture-resistant thermoset

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10. Silicone
11. Thermoset
12. Thermoplastic and fibrous outer braid
b. SIS b. RHW-2 c. TBS d.RHH e. RHW f. SA
13. Extended polytetra-fluoro ethylene 250°C
a. THHN b. THW c. TW d. TFE e. THHW f. THWN
14. Heat-resistant thermoplastic 90°C
15. Moisture- and heat-resistant thermoplastic 75°C/90°C
16. Moisture- and heat-resistant thermoplastic 75°C/90°C
17. Moisture- and heat resistant thermoplastic 75°C
18. Moisture-resistant thermoplastic 60°C
19. Underground feeder and branch-circuit cable 60°C/75°C
a. USE b. XHH c. XHHW-2 d. Z e. UF f., XHHW

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20. Underground service-entrance cable 75°C
21. Thermoset 90°C
22. Moisture-resistant thermoset 75°C/90°C
23. Moisture-resistant thermoset 90°C
24. Modified ethylene tetrafluoro-ethylene 90°C/150°C
25. Modified ethylene tetrafluoro-ethylene 75°C/90°C/200°C
a. AC b. ENT c,. FMC d. ZW e. EMT f.FCC
26. Armored cable
27. Electrical metallic tubing
28. Electrical nonmetallic tubing

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29. Flat conductor cable
30. Flexible metal conduit
a.AC b. ENT c,. FMC d. ZW e. EMT f.FCC
31. Flexible metallic tubing
a. HDPE b. IMC c. LFNC d. FMT e. IGS f. LFMC
32. High density polyethylene conduit
a.HDPE b. IMC c. LFNC d. FMT e. IGS f. LFMC
33. Integrated gas spacer

34. Intermediate metal conduit
35. Liquidtight flexible metal conduit
36. Liquidtight flexible nonmetallic conduit
a. HDPE b. IMC c. LFNC d. FMT e. IGS f. LFMC
37. Metal-clad cable
a. MC b. NM/NMC c. NUCC d. RNC e. MV f. RMC g. TC
38. Medium voltage cable

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39. Nonmetallic sheathed cable

40. Nonmetallic underground conduit with conductors
41. Rigid metal conduit
42. Rigid nonmetallic conduit

43. Power and control tray cable

b. MC b. NM/NMC c. NUCC d. RNC e. MV f. RMC g. TC
Operating Temperature
44. FEP - Flourinated ethylene propylene

a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 90°C/250°C g. 90°C/200°C
45. FEPB - Flourinated ethylene propylene

a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 90°C/250°C g. 90°C/200°C
46. MI - Mineral insulation (metal sheathed)
b. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 90°C/250°C g. 90°C/200°C
47. MTW - Moisture-, heat-, and oil-resistant thermoplastic
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 60°C/75°C g. 90°C/200°C
48. PFA - Perfluoro-alkoxy
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 60°C/75°C g. 90°C/200°C

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49. PFAH - Perfluoro-alkoxy
a. 250 b. 25 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
50. RHH - Thermoset
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
51. RHW - Moisture-resistant thermoset
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
52. RHW-2 - Moisture-resistant thermoset
a.250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
53. SA - Silicone
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 60°C/75°C g. 90°C/200°C
54.SIS - Thermoset
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
55. TBS - Thermoplastic and fibrous outer braid
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
56. TFE - Extended polytetra-fluoro ethylene
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
57. THHN - Heat-resistant thermoplastic
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
58. THHW - Moisture- and heat-resistant thermoplastic
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 60°C/75°C g. 75°C/90°C

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59. THW - Moisture- and heat-resistant thermoplastic
b. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 60°C/75°C g. 75°C/90°C
60. THWN - Moisture- and heat resistant thermoplastic
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
70. TW - Moisture-resistant thermoplastic
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
71. UF - Underground feeder and branch-circuit cable
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 60°C/75°C g. 75°C/90°C
72. USE - Underground service-entrance cable
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
73. XHH - Thermoset
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
74. XHHW - Moisture-resistant thermoset
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 90°C/150°C g. 75°C/90°C
75. XHHW-2 - Moisture-resistant thermoset
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60
76. Z - Modified ethylene tetrafluoro-ethylene .
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 75°C/90°C/200°C g. 90°C/150°C

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77. ZW - Modified ethylene tetrafluoro-ethylene .
a. 250 b. 250 c. 90 d. 75 e. 60 f. 75°C/90°C/200°C g. 90°C/150°C
PART I
1. Volume 1 - Consists of rules which regulate electrical installation done ____ the
building.
a. outside b. inside c. watercraft d. None of the above
2. Volume 2 - Consists of rules which regulate electrical installation applied to _____
PART II
3. Consists of rules which regulate electrical installation done ______ the building.
CHAPTER 1 - GENERAL
Purpose of P.E.C. 2009: 1. Practical Safeguarding
4. _____ This Code contains provisions that are considered minimum requirements
necessary for safety. Compliance therewith and proper maintenance will result in
an installation that is essentially free from hazard but not necessarily efficient,
convenient, or adequate for good service or future expansion.
a. adequacy b. Intention c. Relation to international standard d. None of the above
5. This Code is intended for the exclusive use of licensed electrical practitioners
(PEE, REE, and RME). This Code is not intended as a design specification nor an
instruction manual for a non-licensed electrical practitioner, unless under the
supervision of a licensed electrical practitioner.
a. adequacy b. Intention c. Relation to international standard d. None of the above
6. The requirements in this Code address the fundamental principles of protection for
safety contained in Section 131 of International Electrotechnical Commission
Standard 60364-1, Electrical Installations of Buildings.
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a.adequacy b. Intention c. Relation to international standard d. None of the above
7. _______rules of this Code are those that identify actions that are specifically
required or prohibited and are characterized by the use of the terms “shall” or
“shall not” .
a. Explanatory Material b. Permissive rule c. Mandatory rule d.None of the Above
8. ______ rules of this Code are those that identify actions that are allowed but not
required, are normally used to describe options or alternative methods, and are
characterized by the use of the terms “shall be permitted” or “shall not be
required” .
9. _____ such as references to other standards, references to related sections of

this Code, or information related to a Code rule, is included in this Code in the
form of fine print notes (FPN). (FPN) are informational only and are not enforceable
as requirements of this Code.
Coverage or Scope of PEC 2009
10. The following installations are not covered by PEC 2009 except.
a. Railway rolling stock, aircraft, or automotive vehicles

b. Railways for generation, transformation, transmission,
c. Distribution of power used exclusively for operation of rolling stock.
d. Water craft
11. The following installations are covered by PEC 2009 except.
a. Building
b. Airfields
c. Watercraft
d. Railways for generation, transformation, transmission.
DEFINITIONS
12. _________ Admitting close approach; not guarded by locked doors, elevation, or
other effective means.

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a. accessible(Apllied to wiring methods)

b. Readily Accessible
c. accessible(Apllied to equipment)
d. Not accessible
13. ______Capable of being removed or exposed without damaging the building

structure or finish or not permanently closed in by the structure or finish of the
building.
b. b. Readily Accessible
d. Not accessible
14. _______Capable of being reached quickly for operation, renewal, or inspections

without requiring those to whom ready access is requisite to climb over or remove
obstacles or to resort to portable ladders, and so forth.
b. Readily Accessible
d. Not accessible
15. The current, in amperes, that a conductor can carry continuously under the
conditions of use without exceeding its temperature rating.
a. over current b. ampacity c. overload d. None of the above
16. Acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction.

a. Check b. In compliance c. approved d. None of the above
17. A generic term for a group of nonflammable synthetic chlorinated hydrocarbons

used as electrical insulating media.
a. Solvent b.Paint c. Askarel d. None of the above
18. A device that, by insertion in a receptacle, establishes a connection between the

conductors of the attached flexible cord and the conductors connected
permanently to the receptacle.
a. clean out b. attachment receptacle c. attachment socket d. attachment plug
19. The organization, office, or individual responsible for approving equipment,

materials, an installation, or a procedure.
a. BEE b. Authority Having Jurisdiction c. RME d. PEE
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20. Self-acting, operating by its own mechanism when actuated by some impersonal
influence, for example, a change in current, pressure, temperature, or mechanical
configuration.
a. actual time b. time delay c. automatic d. None of the Above
21. - The permanent joining of metallic parts to form an electrically conductive path
that ensures electrical continuity and the capacity to conduct safely any current
likely to be imposed.
a. Bonding jumper b. welded c. bonding d. soldered
22. A reliable conductor to ensure the required electrical conductivity between metal
parts required to be electrically connected.
a. Bonding jumper b. welded c. bonding d. soldered
23. A set of conductors that extends beyond the last overcurrent device protecting the
circuit and the outlet(s).
a. Feeder b. Circuit breaker c. Branch Circuit d. None of the Above
24. A device designed to open and close a circuit by non-automatic means and to
open the circuit automatically on a predetermined overcurrent without damage to
itself when properly applied within its rating.
a.Feeder b. Circuit breaker c. Branch Circuit d. None of the Above
25. Indicating that the circuit breaker can be set to trip at various values of current,
time, or both, within a predetermined range.
a. Variable b. controllable c. adjustable d. None of the Above
26. No delay is purposely introduced in the tripping action of the circuit breaker.
a. None adjustable b. Inverse time c. Instantaneous trip d. Setting
27. There is purposely introduced a delay in the tripping action of the circuit breaker,
which delay decreases as the magnitude of the current increases.
28. It does not have any adjustment to alter the value of current at which it will trip or
the time required for its operation.

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29. The value of current, time, or both, at which an adjustable circuit breaker is set to
trip.
30. Rendered inaccessible by the structure or finish of the building. Wires in

concealed raceways are considered concealed, even though they may become
accessible by withdrawing them.
a. sealed b. restricted c. concealed d.None of the Above
31. A conductor having no covering or electrical insulation whatsoever.

a. Open conductor b. bare conductor c. insulated conductor
32. A separate portion of a conduit or tubing system that provides access through a
removable cover(s) to the interior of the system at a junction of two or more
sections of the system or at a terminal point of the system. Boxes such as FS and
FD or larger cast or sheet metal boxes are not included.
a. Conduit Assembly b. Conduit Body c. Raceway d. Busbar
33. A device that establishes a connection between two or more conductors or

between one or more conductors and a terminal by means of mechanical pressure
and without the use of solder.
a. Welded connector b. flared connector c. Pressure connector d. none of the Above
34. A load where the maximum current is expected to continue for 3 hours or more.
a. maximum load b. continuous load c. average load d. None of the Above
35. A device or group of devices that serves to govern, in some predetermined

manner, the electric power delivered to the apparatus to which it is connected.
a. relay b. controller c, a & b d. None of the above
36. Conductors drawn from a copper-clad aluminum rod with the copper
metallurgically bonded to an aluminum core. The copper forms a minimum of 10
percent of the cross-sectional area of a solid conductor or each strand of a
stranded conductor.
a.Copper-Clad Aluminum Conductors
b. Copper-Clad Aluminum Insulator
c. a &b
d. None of the above

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37. An enclosure designed for surface mounting that has swinging doors or covers
secured directly to and telescoping with the walls of the box proper.
a. Panel board b. Cabinet c. Swith board d. cutout box
38. Without live parts exposed to a person on the operating side of the equipment.
a. dead end b. Dead front c. a & b d. None of the Above
39. The ratio of the maximum demand of a system, or part of a system, to the total
connected load of a system or the part of the system under consideration.
a. Uitilization factor b. Demand Factor c. a & b d. None of the Above
40. A device, or group of devices, or other means by which the conductors of a circuit
can be disconnected from their source of supply.
a. fuse b. circuit breaker c. Disconnecting Means d. None of the Above
41. Constructed so that dust will not enter the enclosing case under specified test
conditions.
a. Dust proof b. Dust tight c. a & b d.None of the above
42. Operation at a substantially constant load for an indefinitely long time.

a. Short time duty b. Intermittent duty c. Continous duty d. Periodic duty
43. Operation for alternate intervals of (1) load and no load; or (2) load and rest; or (3)
load, no load, and rest.
44. Intermittent operation in which the load conditions are regularly recurrent.
45. Operation at a substantially constant load for a short and definite, specified time.
46. Operation at loads, and for intervals of time, may be subject to wide variation.
a. Short time duty b. Intermittent duty c. Varying duty d. Periodic duty
47. Surrounded by a case, housing, fence, or wall(s) that prevents persons from
accidentally contacting energized parts.
a. concealed b. enclosed c. a &b d. None of the above

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48. The case or housing of apparatus, or the fence or walls surrounding an installation
to prevent personnel from accidentally contacting energized parts or to protect the
equipment from physical damage.
a. covering b. enclosure c. protection d. None of the above
49. Electrically connected to a source of voltage.

a. electrocuted b. energized c. a & b d. None of the Above
50. Capable of being inadvertently touched or approached nearer than a safe distance by a
person. It is applied to parts that are not suitably guarded, isolated, or insulated.
a. Exposed (as applied to wiring methods)
b. Exposed (as applied to live parts)
c. Exposed (as applied to neutral parts)
51. On or attached to the surface or behind panels designed to allow access.

a. Exposed (as applied to wiring methods)
b. Exposed (as applied to live parts)
c. Exposed (as applied to neutral parts)
52. All circuit conductors between the service equipment, the source of a separately
derived system, or other power supply source and the final branch-circuit
overcurrent device.
a.Swithgear b. Swithboard c. Feeder d. Circuit Breaker
53. A string of outdoor lights that is suspended between two points.

a. Hallide Lighting
b. Mercury lighting
c. Festoon lighting
54. An accessory such as a locknut, bushing, or other part of a wiring system that is
intended primarily to perform a mechanical rather than an electrical function.
a. Junction box
b. fitting
c. pull box
d. None of the Above

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55. A device intended for the protection of personnel that functions to de-energize a
circuit or portion thereof within an established period of time when a current to
ground exceeds the values established for a Class A device.
a. Swithgear b. Circuit breaker c. Fuse d. GFCI
56. A conductor used to connect equipment or the grounded circuit of a wiring system
to a grounding electrode or electrodes.
a.Conductor b. Surge arrester c. Grounding Conductor d. None of the Above.
57. - The conductor used to connect the non-current-carrying metal parts of

equipment, raceways, and other enclosures to the system grounded conductor,
the grounding electrode conductor, or both, at the service equipment or at the
source of a separately derived system.
a. Equipment grounding conductor c. Grounding Electrode Conductor
b. Grounding Electrode d. None of the Above.
58. A device that establishes an electrical connection to the earth.

59. The conductor used to connect the grounding electrode(s) to the equipment
grounding conductor, to the grounded conductor, or to both, at the service, at
each building or structure where supplied by a feeder(s) or branch circuit(s), or at
the source of a separately derived system.
60. Covered, shielded, fenced, enclosed, or otherwise protected by means of suitable

covers, casings, barriers, rails, screens, mats, or platforms to remove the
likelihood of approach or contact by persons or objects to a point of danger.
a. enclosed b. guarded c. protected d. None of the above
61. An enclosure identified for use in underground systems, provided with an open or
closed bottom, and sized to allow personnel to reach into, but not enter, for the
purpose of installing, operating, or maintaining equipment or wiring or both.
a. Manhole enclosure b. Handhole enclosure c. a & b d. None of the Above
62. Any shaftway, hatchway, well hole, or other vertical opening or space in which an
elevator or dumbwaiter is designed to operate.
a. raceway b. hoistway c. relay d. None of the above
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63. - Where this Code specifies that one equipment shall be ―in sight from,‖ ―within
sight from,‖ or ―within sight,‖ and so forth, of another equipment, the specified
equipment is to be visible and not more than 15 m (50 ft) distant from the other.
a. within sight from b. In sight From c. near sight from d. None of the above
64. The highest current at rated voltage that a device is intended to interrupt under
standard test conditions.
a. Minimum rating b. Maximum rating c. Interrupting rating d. None of the Above
65. Conductor or conductive part intended to be energized in normal use.

a. Neutral part b. Grounding part c. Live Part. d. None of the above
66. Locations protected from weather and not subject to saturation with water or other
liquids but subject to moderate degrees of moisture. Examples of such locations
include partially protected locations under canopies, marquees, roofed open
porches, and like locations, and interior locations subject to moderate degrees of
moisture, such as some basements, some barns, and some cold-storage
warehouses.
a. Wet location b. Dry location c. Damp location d. None of the above
67. A location not normally subject to dampness or wetness. A location classified as dry may
be temporarily subject to dampness or wetness, as in the case of a building under
construction.
a.Wet location b. Dry location c. Damp location d. None of the above
68. Installations underground or in concrete slabs or masonry in direct contact with

the earth; in locations subject to saturation with water or other liquids, such as
vehicle washing areas; and in unprotected locations exposed to weather.
a. Wet location b. Dry location c. Damp location d. None of the above
69. A complete lighting unit consisting of a lamp or lamps together with the parts
designed to distribute the light, to position and protect the lamps and ballast
(where applicable), and to connect the lamps to the power supply.
a. Lighting system b. Luminaire c. Feestoon Lighting d. None of the Above
70. A type of surface, flush, or freestanding raceway designed to hold conductors and
receptacles, assembled in the field or at the factory.
a. Single outlet assembly b. Multioutlet assembly c. Dual outlet assembly d. None

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71. Action requiring personal intervention for its control. As applied to an electric
controller, non-automatic control does not necessarily imply a manual controller,
but only that personal intervention is necessary.
a. Manual b. Non automatic c. Delayed d. None of the above
72. A point on the wiring system at which current is taken to supply utilization
equipment.
a. Junction box b. outlet c. socket d. None of the above
73. Any current in excess of the rated current of equipment or the ampacity of a
conductor. It may result from overload, short circuit, or ground fault.
a. rated current b. excess current c. overcurrent d. None of the Above
74. Operation of equipment in excess of normal, full-load rating, or of a conductor in

excess of rated ampacity that, when it persists for a sufficient length of time,
would cause damage or dangerous overheating.
a. full load b. over load c. short circuited d. None of the above
75. A single panel or group of panel units designed for assembly in the form of a
single panel, including buses and automatic overcurrent devices, and equipped
with or without switches for the control of light, heat, or power circuits; designed
to be placed in a cabinet or cutout box placed in or against a wall, partition, or
other support; and accessible only from the front.
a. Swith board b. Panel board c. Electrical room d. None of the above
76. A compartment or chamber to which one or more air ducts are connected and that
forms part of the air distribution system.
a. Duct b. dumper c. Plenum d. None of the Above
77. An enclosed assembly that may include receptacles, circuit breakers, fuse
holders, fused switches, buses, and watt-hour meter mounting means; intended to
supply and control power to mobile homes, recreational vehicles, park trailers, or
boats or to serve as a means for distributing power required to operate
mobile or temporarily installed equipment.
a. Lighting outlet b. Power outlet c. Emergency outlet d. None of the Above

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78. An enclosed channel of metal or nonmetallic materials designed expressly for

holding wires, cables, or busbars, with additional functions as permitted in this
Code. Raceways include, but are not limited to, RMC, RNMC, IMC, LFC, FMT, FMC,
ENMT, EMT, underfloor raceways, cellular concrete floor raceways, cellular metal
floor raceways, surface raceways, wireways, and busways
a. busbar b. raceway c. service lateral d. None of the Above.
79. Constructed, protected, or treated so as to prevent rain from interfering with the
successful operation of the apparatus under specified test conditions.
a. Rain tight b. rain proof c. a & b d. None of the above
80. Constructed or protected so that exposure to a beating rain will not result in the
entrance of water under specified test conditions.
a. Rain tight b. rain proof c. a & b d. None of the above
81. Is a contact device installed at the outlet for the connection of an attachment plug.
A single receptacle is a single contact device with no other contact device on the
same yoke. A multiple receptacle is two or more contact devices on the same yoke.
a. outlet b. receptacle c. junction box d. none of the above
82. An outlet where one or more receptacles are installed.

a. receptacle box b. receptacle inlet c. receptacle outlet d. None of the above
83. The conductors and equipment for delivering electric energy from the serving
utility to the wiring system of the premises served.
a. entrance b. service c. supply d. none of the above
84. Service conductors made up in the form of a cable.

a. entrance cable b. service cable c.drop off cable d. None of the Above
85. The conductors from the service point to the service disconnecting means.
a. Overhead System Service Entrance conductor c. Service drop
b. Underground System Service Entrance Conductor d. Service Conductor
86. The overhead service conductors from the last pole or other aerial support to and
including the splices, if any, connecting to the service-entrance conductors at the
building or other structure.

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87. The service conductors between the terminals of the service equipment and a
point usually outside the building, clear of building walls, where joined by tap or
splice to the service drop.
88. The service conductors between the terminals of the service equipment and the
point of connection to the service lateral.
89. The necessary equipment, usually consisting of a circuit breaker(s) or switch(es)

and fuse(s) and their accessories, connected to the load end of service conductors
to a building or other structure, or an otherwise designated area, and intended to
constitute the main control and cutoff of the supply.
a. Service point b. Service lateral c. Service equipment d. None of the Above
90. The underground service conductors between the street main, including any risers
at a pole or other structure or from transformers, and the first point of connection
to the service-entrance conductors in a terminal box or meter or other enclosure,
inside or outside the building wall. Where there is no terminal box, meter, or other
enclosure, the point of connection is considered to be the point of entrance of the
service conductors into the building.
a. Service point b. Service lateral c. Service equipment d. None of the Above
91. The point of connection between the facilities of the serving utility and the
premises wiring.
a, Service point b. Service lateral c. Service equipment d. None of the Above
92. Any window used or designed to be used for the display of goods or advertising
material, whether it is fully or partly enclosed or entirely open at the rear and
whether or not it has a platform raised higher than the street floor level.
a. Service point b. Service lateral c. Service equipment d. Show Window
93. Any electric circuit that energizes signaling equipment.

a. Branch circuit b. Signaling system c. Signaling Circuit d. None of the Above
94. An automatic or non-automatic device for transferring one or more load conductor
connections from one power source to another.
a. toogle switch b. Three Way switch c. Transfer Switch d. Switch Board
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95. A large single panel, frame, or assembly of panels on which are mounted on the
face, back, or both, switches, overcurrent and other protective devices, buses, and
usually instruments. Switchboards are generally accessible from the rear as well
as from the front and are not intended to be installed in cabinets
a.toogle switch b. Three Way switch c. Transfer Switch d. Switch Board
96. ______ (as applied to motors) - A protective device for assembly as an integral part of a
motor or motor-compressor that, when properly applied, protects the motor against
dangerous overheating due to overload and failure to start.
a. Heat protector b. Thermal protector c. Latent Heat protector d. None of the Above
97. Equipment that utilizes electric energy for electronic, electromechanical, chemical,
heating, lighting, or similar purposes.
a. Optimumization Equipment
b. Utilization Equipment
c. Energy Equipment
d. None
98. A flammable liquid having a flash point below 38°C, or a flammable liquid whose
temperature is above its flash point, or a Class II combustible liquid that has a
vapor pressure not exceeding 276 kPa at 38°C and whose temperature is above its
flash point.
a.Critical Flammable Liquid
b. Volatile flammable liquid
c. Flammable liquid
d. None
99. - The greatest root-mean-square (RMS/effective) difference of potential between

any two conductors of the circuit concerned.
a.Voltage b. Nominal voltage c. Voltage to ground d. None of the Above
100. A nominal value assigned to a circuit or system for the purpose of

conveniently designating its voltage class (e.g., 120/ 240 volts, 480Y/277 volts, 600
volts). The actual voltage at which a circuit operates can vary from the nominal
within a range that permits satisfactory operation of equipment.
a. Voltage b. Nominal voltage c. Voltage to ground d. None of the Above

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101. For grounded circuits, the voltage between the given conductor and that
point or conductor of the circuit that is grounded; for ungrounded circuits, the
greatest voltage between the given conductor and any other conductor of the
circuit.
a. Voltage b. Nominal voltage c. Voltage to ground d. None of the Above
102. Constructed so that moisture will not enter the enclosure under specified
test conditions.
a. Waterproof b. watertight c. a & b d. None of the Above
103. Constructed or protected so that exposure to the weather will not interfere
with successful operation.
a. Waterproof b. watertight c. a & b d. None of the Above
PERMITS AND INSPECTION CERTIFICATES
104. The electrical permits of the following will obtain from Local building Official except
a. buildings b. trailers c. mobiles homes d. watercraft
105. Where does electrical permit for watercrafts be applied?

a. Marina(Maritime Industry Authority) b. Coast guard c. Phil Navy d. DENR
106. How many sets of Electrical plans needed in applying electrical Permit?
a. 6 days b. 5 days c. 3 days d. 10 days
107. Releasing of approved electrical permits must bwe within how many days?
a. 6 days b. 5 days c. 3 days d. 10 days
108. What is required if electrical service is cut off one year or more?
a. electrical Inspection b. Electrical Certificate c. a & b d. None of the Above
109. Which of the following is not a standard size of Electrical Plan?

a. 760 mm x 1,000 mm c. 600 mm x 900 mm
b. 500 mm x 760 mm d. 900 mm x 1200 mm
110. Is A-3 size of electrical plan allowed in Dweling units?

a. Yes b. No c. May be d. sometimes
111. The following will shown in Location and Sites plans in Electrical plans except.
a Bordering areas showing public or well-known streets, landmarks and/or structures.
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b. Location of service drop, service equipment and nearest pole of the utility company
furnishing electrical energy.
c. Location of the meter; Sizes of service entrance wires, conduits and service
equipment.
d. Clearance of the path or run of service drop and entrance wires to adjacent and/ or
posed
structures.
e. None of the above
112. General Notes and/or Specifications shall consist at least..

a.Nature of electrical service, number of phases, number of wires, voltage and frequency.
b.. Type of wiring,.Service entrance , Feeders, sub-feeders and branch circuit wires for
lighting and/or power load.
c. Fire alarm system (if required) , Signaling and communication, Special equipment to
be installed, with ratings, classification of service or duty cycle, System or method of
grounding.
d. Type and rating of main disconnecting means, overcurrent protection (OCP) and
branch circuit wiring, Clearances of service drop, burial depth for service lateral, mounting
height and clearance for service equipment, mounting height and clearance
for kWh meter.
d. All of the above
113. Power lay –out of electrical Plan shall show the following except
a.Sizes and location of service entrance conductors, raceways, metering equipment,
main switchboard, layout of feeders and distribution panels or switches and their
sizes, types and ratings.
b. Complete circuits of motors and other electrical equipment, their controlling devices,
their locations and ratings.
c. Complete wiring of emergency power system (if any).
d. Nature of processes/activities carried out in each room or area.
e. Vicinty Map
114. Lighting lay –out of electrical Plan shall show the following except
a. Location, type and rating of lighting fixtures, indicating illumination in lux in each
room or area. In residences, hotels, apartment houses, and churches, the illumination
level in each room or area need not be shown nor computed.
b. Location of switches for each fixtures or group of fixtures, Location of receptacle
outlets and appliances to be served and their ratings, Complete circuits of the lighting
and receptacle outlets.
c. Complete wiring of emergency lighting system (if any), A separate drawing showing
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layout of receptacle outlets may be made at the discretion ,of the design engineer.
d.All of the Above
115. Minimum distance from fence to live parts for 601 -13, 799 nominal volt?
a. 5.49 b. 4.57 c. 3.05 d. None of the Above
116. Minimum distance from fence to live parts for 13,800 to 230,000 nominal volt?
117. Minimum distance from fence to live parts for over 230,000 nominal volt?
118. Minimum Clear distance for 151 to 600 nominal volt working space under condtion 1.
a. 1200 mm b. 1000 mm c. 900 mm d. None of the Above
124. Minimum headroom of working spaces for service equipment, switchboard,

panelboard.
a. 1800 mm b. 2000 mm c. 2500 mm d. 3000 mm
.
125. Entrance door dimension for large equipment rated 1200 amperes or more
a. 700mm x 2100mm b. 600mm x 2000mm c. 800mm x 2500mm d. None of the Above
126. Minimum depth of Clear working space for Electrical equipment having 601 to
2500v nominal volt to ground under condition 1.
a. 1500 mm b. 1200 mm c. 900 mm d. 1800 mm
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a. 1500 mm b. 1200 mm c. 900 mm d. 1800 mm
a. 1500 mm b. 1200 mm c. 900 mm d. 1800 mm
75kv nominal volt to ground under condition 1.
a. 1500 mm b. 1200 mm c. 900 mm d. 1800 mm
130. Minimum depth of Clear working space for Electrical equipment above 75kv
nominal volt to ground under condition 1.
a. 1500 mm b. 1200 mm c. 1800 mm d. 2400 mm
a. 1500 mm b. 1200 mm c. 900 mm d. 1800 mm
a. 1500 mm b. 2400 mm c. 1800 mm d. 3000 mm
a. 1500 mm b. 2400 mm c. 1800 mm d. 3000 mm
a. 1500 mm b. 2400 mm c. 1800 mm d. 3000 mm
135. Minimum depth of Clear working space for Electrical equipment above 75kv
nominal volt to ground under condition 2.
a. 1500 mm b. 2400 mm c. 1800 mm d. 3000 mm
a. 1500 mm b. 1200 mm c. 900 mm d. 1800 mm
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a. 1500 mm b. 2400 mm c. 1800 mm d. 3000 mm
a. 1500 mm b. 2700 mm c. 1800 mm d. 3000 mm
a. 1500 mm b. 2700 mm c. 1800 mm d. 3000 mm
140. What the clear elevation of unguarded Live Parts above working space for nominal
Voltage of 601 – 7500V between space?
a. 2900 mm b. 2700 mm c. 2500 mm d. 2,900 + 9.5/KV
141.What the clear elevation of unguarded Live Parts above working space for nominal
Voltage of 7501 – 35,000V between space?
a. 2900 mm b. 2700 mm c. 2500 mm d. 2,900 + 9.5/KV
142. What the clear elevation of unguarded Live Parts above working space for nominal
Voltage of over 35 kv between space?
a. 2900 mm b. 2700 mm c. 2500 mm d. 2,900 + 9.5/KV
143. Warning Sign for Voltages Exceeding 600 Volts

a. DANGER - HIGH VOLTAGE
b. DANGER - HIGH VOLTAGE - KEEP OUT‖
c. HIGH VOLTAGE - KEEP OUT‖
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
144. Rectangular access openings:

a. 500 mm x 300 mm b. 500mm x 400mm c. 650 mm x 550mm d. 750 mm x 650 mm
145. Round access openings

a. 400 mm diameter b. 550 mm diameter c. 650 mm diameter d. 750 mm diameter

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APPROVED TYPE OF WIRING METHOD BY P.E.C.
1.Which of the following is an approved type of Wiring Method as per PEC?

a) Conductors on Insulator Method
b) Cable Wiring Method
c. Raceway method
d.All of the Above
2. Another way of saying for Open wiring on insulator .

a. Bare wiring
b. Installed exposed
c.Installed isolated
d. None of the Above.
3. Concealed knob and tube work - installed hidden by portion of the building*
a. concealed
b. covered
c. hidden
4. The following are Cable Wiring Method except

a.Armored (BX) cable,. Metal-clad cable, Mineral insulated metal sheathed cable
b,.. Non-metallic sheathed cable,. Shielded non-metallic sheathed cable
c. Service entrance cable, Underground feeder & branch circuit cable
d. Cable trays &. Cablebus
5 The following are Raceway Method except

a. Intermediate metal conduit (IMC)*, Rigid metal conduit (RMC),. Rigid non-metallic conduit
(PVC)
b. Electrical metallic tubing (EMT), Flexible metallic tubing (FMT),. Liquid-tight flexible metallic
tubing
c. Service entrance cable, Underground feeder & branch circuit cable
d.. Liquid-tight flexible non-metallic tubing,. Metallic surface raceway

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WIRING METHODS
Conductors of Different Systems

6. ______ volts enclosure, cable, or raceway. All conductors shall have an insulating
rating equal at least the maximum circuit voltage applied to any conductor.
a. 50 b. 1000 c. 600 d. 2000
7.______ 600 Volts Nominal - Conductors rated over 600V, shall not occupy the same
equipment wiring enclosure, cable, or raceway unless permitted.
a. Less b. equal c. Over d. None of the above
8. Which of the following listed are permitted to be in the same path ?

a. Secondary wiring to electric-discharge lamps of 1000 volts or less., Primary leads of electric-
discharge lamp ballast.
b Excitation, control, relay, and ammeter conductors used in individual motor or starter.
c Motor, switchgear and control assemblies, and of similar equipment conductors., In
manholes, cond. of each system is permanently & effectively separated from other system.
d. All of the Above
Protection against Physical Damage
9 .Either exposed and concealed locations, installed in joists, rafters, or wood members.
Holes must not less than ___mm of the nearest edge. Screw penetrations, nails by a steel
plate or bushing shall be at least ____ mm thick.
a. 25, 1.00 b. 30, 1.60 c. 40, 1.60 d. None of the Above
10. How Cable and Raceways Through Wood Members be done?

a. Bored Holes b. Notches in Wood c. a & b d. None of the Above
11. How Nonmetallic-Sheathed Cables, Electrical Nonmetallic Tubing through Metal

Framing Members be done?
a. Nonmetallic-Sheathed Cable - protected by listed bushing, grommets covering all metal
edges.
b. Nonmetallic-Sheathed Cable and Electrical Nonmetallic Tubing
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12. Insulated Fittings - Raceways containing ungrounded conductors 22 mm2 or larger enter a
cabinet, enclosure, or raceway, protected by substantial fitting with a _______rounded insulating
surface.
a. smoothly b. roughly c. either d. None of the Above
Mechanical and Electrical Continuity - Conductors

13. Conductors in raceways shall be ______between outlets, boxes, devices, and so
forth. There shall be no splice or tap within a raceway unless permitted.
a. broken b. joint c. continous d. None of The Above
14. In multiwire branch circuits, the continuity of a grounded conductor ____ depend on
device connections such as lampholders, receptacles, and so forth, where the removal of
such devices would interrupt the continuity.
a. shall not b. can be c. never d. None of the Above
Length of Free Conductors at Outlets, Junctions, and Switch Points

15. At least __ mm of free conductor from the point in the box to the raceway or cable
sheath at each outlet, junction, and switch point for splices.
a. 100 b. 150 c. 200 d. 250
Wiring in Ducts, Plenums, and Other Air-Handling Spaces

16. The following are listed types of material that are permitted for wirings in ducts,
plenums, air-handling spaces:
a.. Type MI cable
b.Type MC cable without non-metallic covering.
c.. EMT, FMT, IMC, or RMC without non-metallic covering.
d. All of the Above
Panels Designed to Allow Access

17. Cables, raceways, and equipment installed behind panels designed to allow access,
including suspended ceiling panels, shall be arranged and secured so as to allow the
______ of panels and access to the equipment.
a. access b. removal c. a & b d. None of The Above
Requirements for Over 600 Volts, Nominal

Conductor Bending Radius:
18. Nonshielded Conductors - The bending radius shall not be less than ___times the
overall diameter.
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
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19. Shielded or Lead Covered Conductor - The bending radius shall be ______times the
overall diameter.
a. 10 b. 12 c. 15 d. 20
2 0. Multi-conductor or Multiplexed Single Conductor - 12 times the diameter of individual

conductor or 7 times the overall diameter, whichever is _______.
a. smaller b. greater c. equal d.None of the Above
CONDUCTORS FOR GENERAL WIRING

Stranded Conductors
21.The conductors installed in raceways, size 8.0 mm2 and larger shall be stranded.
a. 2.0 b. 3.5 c. 5.5 d. 8.0
Conductors in Parallel
22. Conductors that are___ mm2 and larger (aluminum, copper-clad aluminum, copper)
are permitted to be in parallel.
a. 50 b. 60 c. 100 d.None of The Above
23. Parallel conductors in each phase, polarity, neutral/grounded circuit conductors shall
comply with the ff:
a.Be the same length , Have the same conductor material
b.. Be the same cross sectional area of the conducting material, Have the same insulation
type
c. Be terminated in the same manner
d. All of the Above
Shielded
24. Solid dielectric insulated conductors operated above 2000 volts in permanent
installations shall have an ozone resistant insulation and shall be shielded.
a. oxygen b. Ozone c. Carbon d. None of The Above

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Locations
25.Dry Locations - Insulated conductors and cables of any type can be used in dry locations.
a) wet b.Dry c. Isolated d. None of The Above
26. Insulated conductors and cables used in _____ locations shall be of Types FEP,
FEPB, MTW, PFA, RHH, RHW, RHW-2, SA, THHN, THW, THW-2, THHW, THHW-2, THWN,
THWN-2, TW, XHH, XHHW, XHHW-2, Z, or ZW
a. wet b.damp c. Dry d. c & b
27. Wet Locations - Conductors used in wet locations shall be:

a.. Moisture-impervious metal sheathed
b. Types MTW, RHW, RHW-2, TW, THW, THW-2, THHW,
c. THHW-2, THWN, THWN-2, XHHW, XHHW-2, ZW
d. All of the Above
28. Insulated conductors or cables exposed to direct rays of the sun shall be of types
that are sunlight resistant.
a. resilient b. proof c. tight d. resistant.
Marking
29. Required Information - All conductors and cables shall be marked with the following:
a.. The maximum rated voltage & Proper type of letter or letters.
b. The manufacturer’s name, trademark, or distinctive marking of manufacturer.
c. Size in millimeter square or millimeter diameter, Cable assemblies where the neutral
conductor is smaller
than the ungrounded conductors.
d. All of The Above
Method of Marking
30. Surface Marking - The size in mm2 or mm diameter shall be repeated at intervals not
exceeding ___ mm.
a. 500 b. 600 c. 700 d. 800
31. All other markings shall be repeated at intervals not exceeding _____ mm.
a. 900 b. 1000 c. 1200 d. 1500

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32. Metal-covered multiconductor cables shall employ a ____ tape.

a. Scatch b. Transparent c. Marker d. None of The Above
33. Tag Marking - Printed tag shall be attached to the coil, reel or carton for the following:
a. Mineral-insulated, metal-sheathed cable
b. Switchboard wires , Metal-covered, single-conductor cables
c. Type AC cable
d. All of the above
Suffixes to Designate Number of Conductors - A type letter to indicate the number of

conductors.
34. ___ - Two insulated conductors lay parallel with nonmetallic covering.
a A b. D c. B d.A
35 - Assembly of two or more insulated conductors, twisted spirally with nonmetallic

covering.
a. N b. k c. M d. None of the Above
Aluminum Conductor Material
36. All aluminum alloy conductors shall be made of AA-8000 series electrical grade
aluminium
a. 7000 b. 8000 c. 6000 d.9000.
37 Alumnimum . Solid Conductors must be

a. 8.0 mm2 (3.2 mm dia.),
b.5.5 mm2 (2.6 mm dia.),
c. 3.5 mm2 (2.0 mm dia.)
d. All of the above
37. Aluminum Stranded Conductors - 8.0 mm2 through 500 mm2 must be.
a.Type RHH, RHW, XHHW, THW, THHW,
b. THWN, THHN,
c.service-entrance TYPE SE Style U and SE Style R)
d. All of the Above

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CABINETS, CUTOUT BOXES, AND METER SOCKET ENCLOSURES

Installation (Surface Type Enclosures)
38. Damp Locations - Enclosures installed in damp locations shall prevent moisture from
entering and shall be placed with at least 6 mm airspace from the wall or of a supporting
surface.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d 8
39. Wet Locations - Enclosures installed in wet locations shall be weatherproof and shall be
placed with at least 6 mm airspace from the wall or of a supporting surface.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d 8
40. Position in Wall - Enclosures shall be installed in walls of concrete, tile, or other
noncombustible material. Cabinets shall be installed so that the front edge is not set back of the
finished surface for more than 6 mm.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d 8
Enclosures for Switches or Overcurrent Devices
41. Shall not be used as junction boxes, auxiliary gutters, or raceways for feeder
conductors unless adequate ____ is provided for this purpose.
a. gap b.space c.a & b d.None of The Above
42. The conductors shall not fill the wiring space at any cross section to more than
______.
a. 30 % b.40% c. 50% d. 75%
43. Taps shall not fill the wiring space at any cross section to more than 75% .
a. 30 % b.40% c. 50% d. 75%
Construction Specifications (Cabinets, Cutout Boxes, and Meter Socket Enclosures)
44.Strength - The materials to be used shall have ample strength and rigidity to support the
electrical components. If constructed of sheet steel, metal thickness shall not be less than ____
mm uncoated.
a. 1.2 mm b.1.35 mm c. 2.15 mm d. None of the above
45. Spacings shall be _______to provide ample room for the distribution of wires and cables.
a. adequate b. sufficient c. exact d. None of the Above
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46.Base - Airspace of at least _____between the base of the device and the wall of any cabinet.
a. 1.2mm b. 1.4mm c. 1,60mm d. None of the Above
47 Doors - There shall be airspace of at least _____ between any live metal parts.
a. 15mm b. 20mm c. 25mm d. 50mm
48. Live Parts - Airspace of at least ____ between the walls, back, and gutter partition. Spacing
shall be increased to
at least ___ for voltages of 251 to 600, nominal.
a. 10mm, 20mm b. 12mm, 25mm c. 13mm, 25mm d. 15mm, 25mm
OUTLET, DEVICE, PULL, AND JUNCTION BOXES; CONDUIT BODIES; FITTINGS; AND
HANDHOLE ENCLOSURES
49.- ______ boxes shall not be used where conduits requires the use of
locknuts/bushings on the side of the box.
a. square b. rectangular c. round d. None of the Above
50. Are permitted only with open wiring on insulators, concealed knob-and-tube wiring,
cabled wiring methods with entirely nonmetallic sheaths, flexible cords, and non metallic
raceways.
a. Metallic Boxes b. Non Metallic Boxes c. a & b d. None of the Above
51. Capped-elbows and service-entrance elbows that enclose conductors 14 mm2 or

smaller shall not contain splices, taps, or devices and have sufficient size to provide
space.
a. Short -Radius Conduit Bodies
b. Long -Radius Conduit Bodies
c. All of the above

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Supports for Enclosures:
52.Surface Mounting - Enclosures surface mounted shall be ______ and securely

fastened in place.
a.firmly b. rigidly c. a & b d.None of the Above
53. Structural Mounting- Rigidly supported either by _____ using a metal, polymeric, or
wood brace.
a. directly b. indirectly c. a & b d. None of The Above
54. Nails and Screws - Shall be _____ of back or ends of the enclosure.
a. 4mm b. 5mm c.6mm d. 8mm
Braces
55. Metal Braces - Protected against corrosion and not less than ______ thick uncoated.
a. 0.30mm b. 0.40mm c. 0.50mm d. 0.60mm
56. Wood Braces - Cross section not less than ________.

a. 15mmx30mm b. 20mmx40mm c. 25mmx50mm d. 30mmx60mm
57. Mounting in Finished Surfaces - Enclosures shall be supported by

a. clamps b.anchors c. fittings d. All of the Above
58. Suspended Ceilings - The suspended ceilings shall not be more than _____ in size
and has the enclosure fastened securely.
a. 1560 cm b. 1650 cm c. 1750 cm d. 1450 cm
59. Raceway Supported Enclosure, Without Devices, Luminaires (Fixtures), or

Lampholders - Raceways shall not exceed 1650 cm3 in size. Two or more conduits
threaded wrench tight supports the enclosure. Each conduit shall be 900 mm within the
enclosure, or _______of the enclosure if on the same side.
a. 350 mm b. 450 mm c. 550 mm d. 650 mm

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Outlet Boxes
a) Depth of Outlet Boxes

60. Internal depth - Not less than ______.
a. 8 mm b. 10 mm c.13mm d.15mm
61.Boxes enclosing flush devices - Internal depth of not less than ___
a. 20 mm b. 24 mm c.30 mm d. 35 mm
62. Maximum Luminaire (Fixture) Weight - Outlet boxes shall be permitted to support
____ or less. A luminaire more than 23 kg shall be supported independently.
a. 15 kg b. 20 kg c. 23 kg d. 25 kg
63 Boxes at Ceiling-Suspended (Paddle) Fan Outlets - Outlet boxes as the sole support of
a ceiling-suspended (paddle) fan shall be listed. Outlets shall not support more than
____. Outlets designed to support fans weighing 16 kg or more, markings shall include
the maximum weight to be supported.
a. 32 kgs b. 25 kgs c. 20 kg d. None of The Above
Pull and Junction Boxes and Conduit Bodies
64.. Straight Pulls - The length of the box shall not be less than 8 times the raceway size
of the largest raceway.
a. 5x b. 6x c. 8x d. None of the Above
65 Angle or U Pulls - The distance between each raceway entry inside the box and the
opposite wall of the box shall not be less than 6 times the raceway size of the largest
raceway in a row.
a. 5x b. 6x c. 8x d. None of the Above
Metal Boxes, Conduit Bodies, and Fittings
66. Corrosion Resistant - Well-galvanized, enameled, properly _____ inside and out to
prevent corrosion.
a. painted b. coated c. varnish d. None of the above

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b) Thickness of Metal
67. Sheet steel boxes not over 1650 cm3 shall be made from steel not less than ____
thick.
a. 1.2 mm b. 1.4 mm c. 1.6 mm d.1.8 mm
68.The wall of malleable iron box/conduit body and a die-cast or permanent-mold cast
aluminum, brass, bronze, or zinc box or conduit body shall not be less than ______ thick.
a. 1.6 mm b.1.8mm c. 2.0 mm d.2.4 mm
69.Other cast metal boxes or conduit bodies shall have a wall thickness not less than
_____
a. 3 mm b. 5 mm c. 6mm d. 10mm
Pull and Junction Boxes for Use on Systems Over 600 Volts, Nominal
70. Straight Pulls - The length of the box shall not be less than ______the outside
diameter, over sheath, of the largest shielded or lead-covered conductor or cable
entering the box.
a. 50x b. 48x c.46x d. 36x
71. For Angle or U Pulls - The distance between each cable and conductor shall not be
less than 36 times the outside diameter, over sheath, of the largest cable or conductor.
a. 50x b. 48x c.46x d. 36x
ARMORED CABLE: TYPE AC
Armored Cable - A fabricated assembly of insulated conductors in a flexible metallic enclosure.

Thermal Insulation - 90°C (194°F); For Application usage 60°C (140°F)
72. Rending Radius - The radius of the curve not less than _____ the diameter.
a. 3x b. 4x c. 5x d. 6x
74. Securing - ______ within every outlet box, junction box, cabinet.
a., 200 vmm b. 300 mm c. 400 mm d. 500mm

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75. Supporting - Horizontal run supported within _____ intervals.

a. 1000 mm b. 1200 mm c. 1400 mm d. 1500 mm
76.Uses Permitted except 77.Uses Not Permitted except

a.In both exposed and concealed works a. Where subject to physical damage
b.In cable trays b. In dry locations
c.In damp & dry locations c.Where exposed to corrosive fumes or
vapors
d. Embedded in plaster finish on brick or d.Embedded in plaster finish on brick or
other masonry; except in damp or wet other masonry in damp or wet locations
locations
e.To be run or fished in the air voids of e.In air voids of masonry block or tile walls
masonry block or tile walls; not exposed to where walls are exposed or subject to
excessive moisture/dampness excessive moisture/dampness
FLAT CABLE ASSEMBLIES: TYPE FC
Flat Cable Assemblies - An assembly of parallel conductors formed integrally with an

insulating material web specifically for field installation in surface metal raceway.
78. Construction - It consist of 2, 3, 4, or 5 conductors.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. All of the above
79. Conductors - 5.5 mm2 (2.6 mm dia.) special ________ copper wires.
a. solid b. stranded c. either d. None of the Above
Securing and Supporting - Supported by special design features within surface metal
raceways.
80. Temperature Rating - The ratings shall be marked on the surface at intervals not exceeding
______.
a. 400 mm b. 500 mm c. 600 mm d. 800 mm
81. Grounded Conductor -

a. White b. Gray c. Either d. None of the Above
82.Uses Permitted except 83. Uses Not Permitted except

a.Branch circuits for lighting, small a.Subject to corrosive vapors unless
appliances, or small power loads (not suitable for application
exceed 30 amperes)
b.Installed for exposed work b.In hoistways or on elevators or escalators
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c.Outdoors in wet or damp locations c.In any hazardous (location)

d.Surface metal raceways identified for the d.Surface metal raceways identified for
use the us
FLAT CONDUCTOR CABLE: TYPE FCC
84.Flat Conductor Cable -____ or more flat copper conductors placed edge-to-edge and
separated and enclosed within an insulating assembly.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
85. The protective layer installed between the floor and Type FCC for protection
a. Top shield b. bottom shield c. side shield d. All of the Above
86. A grounded metal shield covering under-carpet components.
a. Top shield b. bottom shield c. side shield d. All of the Above
87. Connector designed to join Type FCC without using a junction box.
a. connector b. cable connector c. spliced connector d. None of the Above
88.FCC System - Complete wiring system for branch circuits design for installation under carpet
squares.
89.Insulating End - Insulator designed to electrically insulate the end of Type FCC.
90.Metal Shield Connections - Means of connection designed to electrically and mechanically

connect a metal shield to another metal.
a. Metal Shield Connection b. Insulating End c. FCC System
Transition Assembly - Incorporated with electrical connection and a suitable box or covering
for safety.
91.Voltage - Shall not exceed ____ and voltage between phase and ground conductors not
exceed ___.
a. 300V, 150V b. 250V, 100V c. 200V, 150V d.None of the Above
92. Current - General-purpose and appliance branch circuits shall have 20A rating. And,
individual branch circuits shall have 30 ampere rating.
a. 15A, 30A b. 20A, 30A c. 30A,30A d. None of the Above
Installation (shall be permitted on the following conditions):

a) Floors - Hard, sound, smooth, continuous floor surfaces made of concrete,
ceramic/composition flooring.
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b) Walls - Wall surfaces in surface metal raceways.

c) Damp Locations
93. Heated Floors - Shall be identified if in excess of ______C

a. 25 b. 30 c. 40 d. 60
94. System Height - Exceeding 2.30 mm shall be tapered or feathered at the edges to floor
level.
a. 2.0 mm b. 2.3 mm c. 2.5 mm d. None of The Aove
95. Coverings - Covered with carpet squares not larger than ______ square.
a. 500 mm b. 600 mm c. 800 mm d. 900 mm
96.Uses Not Permitted

a.Outdoors or in wet locations
b.Subject to corrosive vapors
c.In any hazardous (classified)
location
d. All of the Above
INTEGRATED GAS SPACER CABLE: TYPE IGS
97.Integrated Gas Spacer - A factory assembly of one or more conductors, each _____
insulated and enclosed in a loose fit, nonmetallic flexible conduit as an integrated gas spacer
cable rated 0 through 600V.
a. combined b. individually c. separately d. Noneo of the Above
98. Bends - A run Type IGS shall not contain more than equivalent of _____ quarter bends.
(360 bends)
a. three b. four c. five d. six
99. Fittings - The terminations and splices shall be suitable for ______ gas pressure within the
conduit. Valve and cap shall be provided to check the gas pressure or to inject gas into the
conduit
a. achieving b. maintaining c. attaining d. None of the Above
100. Conductors - Solid aluminum rods, lay parallel, consisting of 1 to 19 (13 mm diam. rods).
The minimum size conductor size shall be _____, and the maximum size shall be 2375 mm2.
(4750 kcmil)

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a. 100 mm b. 125 mm c. 150 mm d. 200 mm
101. Insulation - Shall be dry kraft paper tapes and a pressurized sulfur hexafluoride (SF6).
The nominal gas pressure shall be ____ kPA gauge.
a. 128 kpa b. 138 kpa c. 148 kpa d. None of the Above
102.Conduit - The conduit shall be a medium density polyethylene identified as suitable for use
with natural gas rated pipe in race size are the following except
a. 50 mm, b. 80 mm, c. 100 mm. d. 150 mm
103. The are permitted to be use for Integrated Gas Spacer Cable except.
a Interior wiring or be exposed in contact with buildings
b. Service-entrance conductors
c. Feeder or branch-circuit conductors
MEDIUM VOLTAGE CABLE: TYPE MV
104. Medium Voltage Cable - A single or multiconductor solid dielectric insulated cable
rated 2001V or higher. Medium voltage cable shall be constructed with
a.copper, b. aluminum, c. copper-clad aluminum conductors d. All of the Above
SERVICE-ENTRANCE CABLE: TYPES SE AND USE
105. Service-Entrance Cable - A single conductor or multiconductor assembly provided

with or without an overall covering, primarily used for services, and of the following
types:
a) Type SE - Cable with flame-retardant, moisture-resistant covering.
b) Type USE - Cable identified for underground use, having a moisture-resistant
covering, but not required to have a flame-retardant covering.
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106. Service entrance cable known for underground use.

a. type USE b.Type SE c.Either d. None of the Above
107. Bending Radius - The radius of the curve of the inner edge shall not be less than
5 times the diameter of the cable.
.a 3x b. 4x c. 5x d. 6x
METAL-CLAD CABLE: TYPE MC
107.Metal Clad Cable - A factory assembly of one or more insulated circuit conductors
with or without optical fiber members enclosed in an armor of interlocking metal tape or
a smooth or corrugated metallic sheath.
a. Bolted b. armor c.Welded d. None of the above
108. Uses Permitted - Type MC cable shall be permitted as follows except

a.. For services, feeders, and branch circuits, For power, lighting, control, and signal
circuits
b. Indoors or outdoors , Exposed or concealed , . To be direct buried where identified
for such use
c. In cable tray where identified for such use , In any raceway , As aerial cable on a
messenger
d. Direct burial in the earth
109. Uses Not Permitted - shall not be exposed to corrosive conditions except
a.. Where subject to physical damage
b.. Direct burial in the earth
c.. In concrete
d. In dry locations and embedded in plaster finish on brick except in damp or wet
locations
Bending Radius - The radius of the curve of the inner edge of bends shall not be
less than the required:
Smooth Sheath
110. Cable not more than 19 mm dia. – _____the external diameter
a. 8x b. 10x c. 12x d. 15x
111. Cable more than 19 mm but less than 40 mm dia. - _______ the external diameter
a. 8x b. 10x c. 12x d. 15x
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112. Cable more than 40 mm dia. - _______ the external diameter

a. 8x b. 10x c. 12x d. 15x
113. Interlocked-Type Armor or Corrugated Sheath - ______ the external diameter

a. 8x b. 10x c. 12x d. 7x
114. Shielded Conductors - ______ the overall diameter of one of the individual
conductors or ______the overall diameter of the multi-conductor cable, whichever is
greater.
a. 8x, 10x b. 12x, 7x c. 12x ,. 8x d. None Of The Above
115. Securing - Unless otherwise provided, cables shall be secured at intervals not
exceeding ______. 4 or fewer conductors sized no larger than 5.5 mm2 (2.6 mm dia.)
shall be secured within _______.
a. 1500mm, 200 mm b. 1800mm, 300 mm c.2000mm, 500mm d. None
116. Conductors for type MC cable

a. copper b.aluminum, c. copper-clad aluminum, d.All of the Above
Note: The minimum conductor size shall be 18 AWG (0.75 mm2; 1.0 mm dia.) copper
and 3.5 mm2 (2.0 mm dia.) aluminum or copper-clad aluminum.
MINERAL-INSULATED, METAL-SHEATHED CABLE: TYPE MI
117. Mineral Insulated, Metal-Sheathed Cable - A factory assembly of one or more

conductors insulated with a highly compressed refractory mineral insulation and enclosed in a
________ continuous copper or alloy steel sheath.
.a Liquidtight b. gas tight c. a & b. d. None Of The Above
118. Conductors use in TYPE MI cable

a. Solid copper b. nickel c. nickel-coated copper d. All of The Above
119. Uses Permitted - RNC shall be permitted to be used in the ff:

a. Concealed - Shall be permitted in walls, floors, and ceilings.
b. Corrosive influences.
c. Cinders - RNC shall be permitted in cinder fill.

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d. Wet locations - RNC shall be permitted in portion of dairies, laundries, canneries, or other wet
locations and in locations where walls are frequently washed.
e. All of the above
120. Uses Not Permitted - RNC shall not be used in the following:
a. In hazardous (classified) locations - Class 1, Division 2 , . Support of luminaires (fixtures)
b. Where subject to physical damage , Ambient temperatures in excess of 50°C unless listed
otherwise
c. Insulation temperature limitations , Theaters and similar locations
d, All of the Above
121. Minimum - RNC less than raceway size _____ shall not be used.
a. 10mm b. 15 mm c. 20 mm d. 25 mm
122. Maximum - RNC larger than raceway size _____ shall not be used.
a. 75 mm b. 100 mm c. 150 mm d. 200 mm
123. Securely Fastened and Supported - ______ within of each outlet, junction, and device
box cabinet, conduit body. Fastened so that thermal expansion and contraction is permitted.
a. 1000 mm b. 800 mm c. 900 mm d. 1200 mm
EMERGENCY SYSTEMS
Test and Maintenance
1.Conduct or Witness Test - The authority having jurisdiction shall _____ or witness a test of
the complete system upon installation and periodically afterward.
a) conduct b. perform c. execute d. none
2.Tested Periodically - Systems shall be _____ periodically on a schedule acceptable to the

authority having jurisdiction to ensure the systems are maintained in proper operating condition.
a.examined b. tested c. evaluated d. none
3. Battery Systems Maintenance - Where battery systems or unit equipments are involved,
including batteries used for starting, control, or ignition in auxiliary engines, the authority having
jurisdiction shall require _______maintenance.
a.weekly b. monthly c. periodic d. none
4. Written Record - A written record shall be kept of such ___________.

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a. Test b. maintenance c. a & b d. None of the Above
5. Testing Under Load- Means for testing all emergency lighting and power systems during
maximum ________ conditions shall be provided.
a. Over load b. under load c.anticipated load d. minimum
Circuit Wiring
6.Wiring- Two or more emergency circuits supplied by the _____ shall be permitted in the same
raceway, cable, box, or cabinet.
a. Different source b. same source c. Individual Source d. None of the Above
7.Which of the following wiring from an emergency source or emergency source shall be
kept entirely independent of all other wiring .
a. Wiring from the normal power source located in transfer equipment enclosure.
b.. Wiring supplied from 2-sources in exit or emergency luminaires.
c. Wiring from 2-sources in a common junction box for emergency luminaires.
d. Wiring containing only the branch circuit supplying a single unit equipment.
e. All of the Above
8. Wiring Design and Location - Shall be designed and located so as to minimize the
hazards that might cause ______ due to flooding, fire, icing, vandalism, and other
adverse conditions.
a. breakage b. clogging c. failure d. None of The Above
9. Fire Protection - Listed are the additional requirements for buildings with ___ persons
or more or in buildings above ___ m in height with the following occupancies: assembly,
educational, residential, detention and correctional, business, and mercantile.
a. 2,000 , 24 b. 3,000 , 25 c. 1,000 , 23 d.None of the Above
Feeder Circuit Wiring – Shall meet one of the following conditions:
10. Be installed in spaces/areas that are fully ___and with an approved automatic fire
suppression system.
a. Concealed b. isolated c. protected d.None of the Above
11. Listed electrical circuit protective system with minimum of ___-hour fire rating.
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a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1
12. Protected by a listed thermal ____system for the electrical system components.
a. Separation b. barrier c. isolation d. None of the Above
13. Protected by a fire-rated assembly listed to achieve a fire rating of ____-hour.

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1
14. Be embedded in not less than _____ mm concrete.

a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100
15. Is a cable listed to maintain circuit _______ for not less than 1 hour.
a. functionality b. Integrity c. a & b d. None of the Above
Sources of Power
16. Storage Battery - Shall be of suitable rating and capacity to supply and maintain the load
for a minimum period of 1 ½ hours,
a. 1 b 1.5 c. 2 d 2.5
17. Without the voltage to the load falling _____ of the normal.
a) 85 ½ % b. 86 ½ % c. 87 ½ % d. 88 ½ %
Generator Set
18. Prime Mover-Driven- A time-delay feature permitting a _____-minute setting shall be

provided to avoid retransfer in case of short-time reestablishment of the normal source.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25
19. Internal Combustion as Prime Mover - An on-site fuel supply shall be provided sufficient
for not less than _____ hours’ full demand operation of the system.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
20. Battery Power and Dampers - Battery shall be equipped with an ____ charging means
independent of the generator set. And, the damper used for ventilation of the genset must also
be connected to the emergency system
a. manual b. time delay c. automatic d. None of the Above

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21. Auxiliary Power Supply - Generator sets that require more than____ seconds to develop
power shall be permitted if an auxiliary power supply energizes the emergency system until the
generator can pick up the load.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

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22. Outdoor Generator Sets - An additional disconnecting means is ___ in the building or
structure it supplies if it has a disconnecting means within sight or located in the house of the
genset.
a. required b. not required c. may be d. None of the Above
23. Separate Service - Where acceptable to AHJ as suitable for emergency source additional
service is permitted provided it has a separate _______. And, service conductors sufficiently
remote electrically and physically from any other service conductors.
a. service drop b. service point c. service lateral d. A & C
24. Unit Equipment - Shall be provided illumination consisting of the following:

a. A rechargeable battery
b. A battery charging means
c. One or more lamps mounted on the equipment.
d. A relaying device arranged to energize the lamps automatically upon failure of equipment.
e. All of the above
Ground-Fault Protection of Equipment
25. The alternate source for emergency systems _______ to have ground-fault protection of
equipment with automatic disconnecting means.
a. mandatory b. shall not be required c. owner discretion d. None of the above
LEGALLY REQUIRED STANDBY SYSTEMS

26. Legally Required _____ - Systems required and so classed as legally required standby by
municipal, state, federal, or other codes or by any governmental agency having jurisdiction.
These systems are intended to automatically supply power to selected loads (other than those
classed as emergency systems) in the event of failure of the normal source.
a. Standby System b. Back up c. a & b d. None of the Above\
Circuit Wiring
27.The legally required standby stem wiring shall be permitted to occupy the ____- raceways,
cables, boxes, and cabinets with other general wiring.
a. Different b. same c. Isolated d. None of The Above

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Sources of Power for Legally Required Standby Systems
28. Shall be available within the time required for the application but not to exceed ____
seconds. Same Provisions with Emergency Systems for Storage Battery, Generator Set,
Separate Service and Unit Equipment
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120
29. The alternate source for legally required standby systems shall not be required to
have ______of equipment.
a. Fuse b.Over current Protection. c. Ground Fault Protection d. None of The Above
OPTIONAL STANDBY SYSTEMS
30. Optional Standby Systems - Those systems intended to supply power to public or private
facilities or property where life safety does not depend on the_______ of the system. Optional
standby systems are intended to supply on-site generated power to selected loads either
automatically or manually.
a. Performance b. use c. None of the Above
Circuit Wiring
31. The optional standby stem wiring ______ permitted to occupy the same raceways,
cables, boxes, and cabinets with other general wiring
a. shall be b. would c. would not d. None of the above
Outdoor Generator Sets

32. An additional disconnecting means is ________ in the building or structure it supplies
if it has a disconnecting means within sight or located in the house of the genset.
a. required b. not required c. must d. None of the Ab

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Problems on capacitors
Electron charge = -1.6 x 10-19 C

1. What is meant by the capacitance of a capacitor?
2. Define the farad.
3. (a) A capacitor of capacitance 5

stored in the capacitor?
(b) A 400 pF capacitor carries a charge of 2.5 x 10 -8 C. What is the potential difference
across the plates of the capacitor?
4. A capacitor is charged such that there is a charge of +20 mC on the positive plate.
What is the charge on the negative plate?
5.
charged:
(a) what is the charge on the positive plate of the capacitor?
4.5 V
(b) what is the potential difference across the capacitor?
(c) how many additional electrons are on the negative plate?
C
6. A resistor of 100 Ω is now added to the circuit as shown in the second diagram.
(a) What effect does this have on the time to charge up the
capacitor?
4.5 V
(b) What is the final charge on the plates?
(c) What is the final potential difference across the capacitor?
C

Manila

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COMMUNICATION CIRCUITS
Wires and Cables Outside of the Building (Clearance):
1. On Poles and In-Span - Supply service drops of 0-750 volts running above and parallel
to communications service drops shall have a minimum separation of _ mm at any point
in the span, including the point of and at their attachment to the building.
a. 200 b. 250 c.300 d.200
2. Above Roofs - Shall have a vertical clearance of not less than____ mm from all points
of the roof which they pass.
a. 2000 b. 2500 c. 3000 d.1800
3. Lighting Conductors - A separation of at least _____mm shall be between

communications wires and cables on buildings and lightning conductors.
a. 2000 b. 2500 c. 3000 d.1800
RADIO AND TELEVISION EQUIPMENT
Clearances - Receiving Stations

Outside of Buildings - Lead-in conductors attached to buildings shall be installed so that
they cannot swing closer than(4)___mm to the conductors of circuits of (5)____V or less
between conductors, or(6)____ mm to the conductors of circuits of over (7)___V between
conductors, except that in the case of circuits not over 150V between conductors, where
all conductors involved are supported so as to ensure permanent separation, the
clearance shall be permitted to be reduced but shall not be less than (8)____ mm.
4. a. 100 b. 3000 c. 600 d. 2000
5. a. 150 b. 100 c. 250 d. None of The Above
6. a. 100 b. 3000 c. 600 d. 2000
7. a. 150 b. 100 c. 250 d. None of The Above
8. a. 100 b. 3000 c. 600 d. 2000
9) From Lighting Rod Systems - The clearance shall not be less than 1800 mm
a. 2000 b. 2500 c. 3000 d.1800
10) Underground Conductors - Shall be separated at least ____ mm from conductors of any
light or power circuits or Class 1 circuits.
a. 200 b. 250 c. 300 d.200
Manila

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
11) Antennas and Lead-ins (Indoors) - Shall not be run nearer than 50 mm to conductors of
other wiring systems in the premises.
a.20 b. 50 c.30 d.25

Manila

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Solution and worked examples
1. The ratio of the charge on the plates of the capacitor to the potential difference
across them.
C = Q/V.
2. The charge required to increase the potential difference across the plates by 1 V.
3. Use C = Q/V
(a) Q = CV = 5 x 10-6 x 6 = 30 x 10-6 = 30
(b) V = Q/C = 2.5 x 10-8 / 400 x 10-12 = 62.5 V
4. - 20 mC equal and opposite.

4.5 V
5.
(a) Q = CV = 4700 x 10-6 x 4.5 = 0.021 C C
(b) 4.5 V
(c) 0.021 / 1.6 x 10-19 = 1.32 x 1017
6.
4.5 V
(a) it will take longer
(b) it will be the same as before
C
(c) 4.5 V since no current is flowing finally there will be no
potential difference across the resistor whatever its value.

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PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

2. A binary alloy of copper and zinc.

3. The resistance of a conductor when its temperature is increased,

4. A voltage source of 20V is applied across the terminals of a 2.5-ohm rheostat.

5. Unit of electrical pressure is

7. When using ohms law, E divided by I would solve for

8. In resistance color coding, red color is assigned to a value

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BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

10. Another name for a secondary cell.

13. How is voltmeter connected in a circuit?

14. Component of an atom that doesn’t have any electrical charge.

15. A lead-acid cell is constructed in multiple for the purpose of ______.

17. The electron in the last orbit of an atom are called

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BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

24. Give an example of an electrical conductor.

27. The energy stored in an electrolytic cell is

28. The most common usage of resistors in electronic circuits is to ________.

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BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

34. The resistance of the material in inversely proportional to its

35. An ammeter is connected ______.

36. If the number of valence electrons is exactly four, the material is

37. Commercial unit of an electrical energy.

BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

a. 20 W b. 980 W c. 500 W d. 200 W

41. An electric iron draws 15 A at 220 V. It is desired to reduced the current to 12 A by

42. The ability of a conductor to allow current flow.

47. A substance that cannot be decomposed any further by a chemical reaction.

48. A resistance of 4 0hms is connected in series to a parallel connection of two 8 -ohm

49. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?

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BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

50. A resistor of 4-ohm resistance is connected in parallel with a series combination of

*** END ***

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BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

1. The output voltage of a single loop generator is a

4. A DC generator supplies a load of resistance 1.4 ohms through a pair of wires

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BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

7. A 25-hp engine drives a DC generator, if the generator has an efficiency of 90 % ,

8. Residual magnetism is necessary in a:

RME Board October 1995

10. Which of the following causes extreme sparking at the brushes?

RME Board April 1996

12. What is the common method of cooling transformer?

14. The starting capacitor of a single-phase motor is generally a:

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BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED MASTER ELECTRICIAN Licensure Examination

RME Board October 1995

RME Board October 1995

* END *